NASM Corrective Exercise Specialist Quiz Questions
What component of the initial session is essential for developing a long-lasting relationship with clients? A) Rapport building B) PAR-Q+ C) Goal setting D) Biometrics
A) Rapport building
Which corrective exercise is prescribed specifically to target activation of the lower trapezius muscle? A) Prone floor scaption B) One-arm ball quadruped abduction C) Chin tuck D) Scapula retraction in prone
A) Prone floor scaption
De Quervain's Tenosynovitis affects which part of the hand? A) Dorsal side B) Palmar side C) Radial side of the hand D) Ulna side
C) Radial side of the hand
The theoretical basis that attempting to strengthen muscles when joint motion restriction is present will provide less-than-optimal results and limited joint ROM comes in part from which of the following? A) Kendall's postures B) Janda's syndromes C) Clark's models D) Mennell's truisms
D) Mennell's truisms
The isometric tempo should last approximately how long? A) 4 counts B) 2 seconds C) 3 counts D) 1 count
B) 2 seconds
What degree of performance impairments are associated with prolonged static stretching in isolation (no dynamic warm-up activities)? A) 15-18% B) 3-7% C) 8-10% D) 1-2%
B) 3-7%
What is the recommended duration for static stretching for older adults? A) 6-10 seconds B) 60-seconds C) 30-34 seconds D) 20-30 seconds
B) 60-seconds
How many cervical vertebrae make up the cervical spine? A) 5 B) 7 C) 3 D) 12
B) 7
Which items should be considered when assessing the lifestyle of a client? A) Medical history and past surgeries B) Recreation or hobbies C) Pattern overload and repetitive movements D) Occupation and stress
B) Recreation or hobbies
During the overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates a lack of elbow extension. To what is this often attributed? A) Underactive/lengthened biceps brachii B) Poor shoulder mobility C) Poor elbow stability D) Overactive/shortened biceps brachii
D) Overactive/shortened biceps brachii
Knee valgus and varus, an increased Q angle, poor quadriceps and hamstrings flexibility, poor eccentric deceleration capabilities, and playing on hard surfaces are all risk factors for developing what common knee injury? A) ACL injury B) IT Band Syndrome C) Patellofemoral Syndrome D) Patellar tendinopathy
D) Patellar tendinopathy
According to recent research, which of the following may lead to increased core activation during a plank? A) Isometric ankle plantarflexion B) Relaxing the hip musculature C) Retracting and depressing the shoulder blades D) Performing a posterior pelvic tilt
D) Performing a posterior pelvic tilt
Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to knee dominance during the overhead squat assessment? A) Adductor complex B) Gluteus maximus C) Hamstrings complex D) Quadriceps complex
D) Quadriceps complex
Which of the following muscles serve to decelerate knee flexion and hip extension? A) Psoas B) Tensor fascia latae C) Gluteus maximus D) Rectus femoris
D) Rectus femoris
What are two common precautions to stretching? A) Hypertension and joint replacement B) Osteoporosis and acute rheumatoid arthritis C) Acute muscle strain and shoulder dislocation D) Acute injury and recent surgery
A) Hypertension and joint replacement
What is the most appropriate verbal cue to use if a client demonstrates knee valgus upon landing? A) "Keep your knees in line with your second and third toes." B) "Keep your knees directly over your ankles." C) "Keep your knees behind your toes." D) "Keep your knees out wider than your fifth toe."
A) "Keep your knees in line with your second and third toes."
The concentric tempo should last approximately how long? A) 1 second B) 2 seconds C) 4 seconds D) 3 seconds
A) 1 second
What is the recommended time to have a pre-exercise snack and pre-exercise meal, respectively, before strength training exercise begins? A) 30 minutes to 2 hours; 2 to 4 hours B) 10 to 20 minutes; 3 to 6 hours C) 1 to 2 hours; 15 to 30 minutes D) 25 to 40 minutes; 1 to 4 hours
A) 30 minutes to 2 hours; 2 to 4 hours
What term describes a muscle acting as a primary mover? A) Agonist B) Antagonist C) Stabilizer D) Synergist
A) Agonist
Kaden is a 45-year-old office work just beginning a corrective exercise program. What is an example of a total body primer exercise for more advanced programming in the future? A) Ball squat with overhead press B) Barbell squat C) Push up D) Seated overhead press
A) Ball squat with overhead press
Which factor is most closely related to developing postural imbalances? A) Chronic suboptimal positioning B) The Valsalva maneuver C) Poor nutrition status D) Exercising to muscle failure
A) Chronic suboptimal positioning
What induces reciprocal inhibition in active stretching? A) Contraction of antagonist muscles B) Contraction of agonist muscles C) Excitation of agonist muscles D) Inhibit synergist muscles
A) Contraction of antagonist muscles
Which of the following movement assessments would assess plyometric capabilities of the upper extremities? A) Davies test B) Single-leg squat C) Overhead squat D) Depth jump
A) Davies test
Knee injuries often occur during landing and, therefore, it is important to assess if the client lacks musculoskeletal control of the lower extremity during landing if there are no compensations observed during earlier assessment. The depth jump is one such assessment. During a depth jump assessment most impairments will be observed during what phase? A) Deceleration B) Jump/movement C) Start or take off D) Finish/landing
A) Deceleration
What is defined as the alignment of the body while and individual is in motion? A) Dynamic posture B) Static posture C) Neuromuscular efficiency D) Relative flexibility
A) Dynamic posture
During which phase of the muscle action spectrum are most strength gains developed? A) Eccentric deceleration B) Isometric stabilization C) The amortization phase D) Concentric acceleration
A) Eccentric deceleration
Scott demonstrates an excessive posterior pelvic tilt during the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following would be the most appropriate muscle to activate? A) Erector spinae B) Hamstrings complex C) Adductor magnus D) Abdominal complex
A) Erector spinae
Lengthening of the biceps is most effective with which shoulder position? A) Extension B) Flexion C) Internal rotation D) External rotation
A) Extension
According to the Screw-Home Mechanism, in an open-chain position and as the knee extends, what action best describes the motion of the tibia on the femur during the last 30 degrees? A) External rotation B) Flexion C) Abduction D) Internal rotation
A) External rotation
If an observed knee compensation improves with the heels elevated during the modified overhead squat assessment, what is the primary area to address with corrective mobility exercise? A) Foot and ankle complex B) Shoulder complex C) Knee D) Lumbo-pelvic-hip-complex
A) Foot and ankle complex
Which of the following muscles inserts via the Achilles tendon? A) Gastrocnemius B) Anterior tibialis C) Hamstrings D) Posterior tibialis
A) Gastrocnemius
What should the fitness professional do when they first observe movement compensations during integrated movement in order to allow the athlete to cognitively process proper form? A) Give verbal cues B) Decrease the load to require less from the muscles C) Stop the exercise D) Increase the load to demand more from the muscles
A) Give verbal cues
During which part of the initial session would a fitness professional discuss a client's desire to win a 10km race next spring? A) Goal setting B) PAR-Q+ C) Client Intake Screen D) Static Posture Assessment
A) Goal setting
What position is recommended for the testing leg during the hip abduction and external rotation test? A) Hip and knee bent to 45 degrees B) Hip and knee bent to 0 degrees C) Hip and knee bent to 90 degrees D) Hip and knee bent to 120 degrees
A) Hip and knee bent to 45 degrees
What is the name of the upper arm bone? A) Humerus B) Hamate C) Radius D) Ulna
A) Humerus
Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall kyphosis-lordosis posture? A) Internal obliques, hip flexors, and lumbar extensors B) Quadriceps, hamstrings, and gluteus maximus C) Hip extensors, tibialis posterior, and gluteus minimus D) Abdominals, gluteus maximus, medius, and hip extensors
A) Internal obliques, hip flexors, and lumbar extensors
Weakness of the external rotators of the LPHC will result in synergistic dominance of the TFL and adductors resulting in what observed compensation at the knee? A) Knee valgus B) Extension C) Knee varus D) Knee dominance
A) Knee valgus
Most ankle sprains occur at which aspect of the ankle? A) Lateral B) Anterior C) Medial D) Posterior
A) Lateral
Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to the arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment? A) Latissimus dorsi B) Infraspinatus C) Lower trapezius D) Serratus anterior
A) Latissimus dorsi
The Activation phase primarily focuses on correcting which of the following? A) Lengthened muscles B) Muscle imbalance C) Lack of flexibility D) Hypertonic muscles
A) Lengthened muscles
Which of the following tissues that surround the spine limit intersegmental motion, maintain the integrity of the lumbar spine, and may fail when proper motion cannot be created, proper posture cannot be maintained, or excessive motion cannot be resisted by the surrounding musculature? A) Ligaments B) Muscles C) Laminar groove D) Tendons
A) Ligaments
Keeping the RI model in mind, excessive forward lean of the trunk that occurs during the descent phase of a squat may be the result of which of the following impairments? A) Limited dorsiflexion of the ankles. B) Reduced flexibility of the anterior tibialis. C) Reduced flexibility of the quadratus lumborum. D) Reduced mobility of the cervical spine.
A) Limited dorsiflexion of the ankles.
Which are the four dysfunctional spinal postures identified by Kendall? A) Lordotic, flat-back, sway-back, and kyphosis-lordosis B) Kyphosis-lordosis, Layered Crossed Syndrome, and text neck C) Sway-back, lordotic, and Upper Crossed Syndrome D) Upper Crossed Syndrome, Lower Crossed Syndrome, and kyphosis-lordosis
A) Lordotic, flat-back, sway-back, and kyphosis-lordosis
What is practiced with limited resistance with slow tempos and high repetitions so that the client can modify and rehearse quality movement? A) Movement efficiency B) Muscular efficiency C) Postural efficiency D) Structural efficiency
A) Movement efficiency
Which internal tissue or structure can get irritated and lead to pain when herniated discs press against it? A) Nerve B) Foramen C) Spine D) Intervertebral disc
A) Nerve
Limited dynamic postural control, core muscle strength, and core muscle endurance are all significant risk factors for the development of which type of injury in the lower extremity? A) Overuse B) Compression C) Atrophy D) Inflammatory
A) Overuse
What are common underactive/lengthened muscles in the lower body? A) Rectus abdominis, gluteus maximus, tibialis anterior, and peroneals B) Hamstrings, adductors, gastrocnemius, and soleus C) Psoas, rectus femoris, soleus, and gastrocnemius D) Piriformis, vastus medialis, gluteus medius, and tibialis anterior
A) Rectus abdominis, gluteus maximus, tibialis anterior, and peroneals
Which muscle is thought to be overactive/shortened if the client demonstrates knee extension during the modified Thomas test? A) Rectus femoris B) Psoas C) Biceps femoris D) TFL
A) Rectus femoris
The heels elevated modification of the overhead squat assessment places the ankle in a plantarflexed position. How may this effect the squat? A) Reduces the influence of the foot and ankle complex on the squat movement B) Allows the client to keep the knees behind the toes C) Causes the client to adopt a posterior pelvic tilt D) Causes the client to lean forward
A) Reduces the influence of the foot and ankle complex on the squat movement
What is the abnormal curvature of the thoracic spine in the frontal plane called? A) Scoliosis B) Kyphosis C) Sacral D) Lordosis
A) Scoliosis
Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to scapular winging during the Davies test? A) Serratus anterior B) Pectoralis minor C) Latissimus dorsi D) Cervical extensors
A) Serratus anterior
Which of the following would be the most likely movement compensations to observe in the head, neck, and shoulder regions during an overhead squat movement assessment? A) Shoulder elevation, asymmetric CS shift, and forward head B) Shoulder depression, chin tuck, and scapular retraction C) Shoulder external rotation, chin tuck, and thoracic extension D) Shoulder hyperextension, upper CS flexion, and anterior head rotation
A) Shoulder elevation, asymmetric CS shift, and forward head
The fitness professional uses activations to provide strength to muscles that lack the ability to appropriately eccentrically decelerate unwanted joint actions and do what else? A) Stabilize unwanted movement B) Maximize force production C) Concentrically accelerate unwanted movement D) Alleviate joint pain
A) Stabilize unwanted movement
The anterior side of the scapula (subscapular fossa) is designed to house which muscle of the rotator cuff? A) Subscapularis B) Supraspinatus C) Teres minor D) Infraspinatus
A) Subscapularis
A client has a high-stress corporate job and always complains about how stressed and tired he gets at work. What cognitive manipulation tool could be recommended to help him deal with the high stress? A) Taking a power nap in a sleep pod or somewhere quiet. B) Try and get at least 1 hour of high-intensity exercise in each day. C) Participate in 1 hour of Yoga or mindful meditation a day. D) Try and get 8 hours of sleep a night.
A) Taking a power nap in a sleep pod or somewhere quiet.
Research has shown a correlation between which two specific sleep variables that result in optimizing next-day performance? A) The duration of deep sleep and nighttime anabolic hormone release. B) The specific foods and drinks that should be consumed at dinner time. C) Using a weighted blanket and black out drapes. D) The brand of bed and pillow the client owns.
A) The duration of deep sleep and nighttime anabolic hormone release.
Which best describes a role of the plantar fascia during movement? A) Transferring the potential energy from ground reaction forces B) Statically supporting the medial arch C) Improving talocrural dorsiflexion D) Protecting the extrinsic foot muscles
A) Transferring the potential energy from ground reaction forces
What verbal cue would one provide a client when doing a single-leg activity? A) "Push your knees out when you land." B) "Keep your knees in line with your second and third toe." C) "Straighten your leg as much as you can." D) "Pull your knees in when you land."
B) "Keep your knees in line with your second and third toe."
A Corrective Exercise Specialist would like to provide, Leopold, their client, instruction how to inhibit the sternocleidomastoid. What response is most appropriate to instruct Leopold? A) "Apply pressure to the medial portion of the upper trapezius on identified trigger points," B) "Place one or two fingers on the belly of the muscle and apply light pressure on identified trigger points." C) "Place a thumb or finger on the base of the skull and apply mild pressure." D) "Apply mild pressure to using a cane-type tool with rounded ends to the top of the shoulder."
B) "Place one or two fingers on the belly of the muscle and apply light pressure on identified trigger points."
The thoracic spine has how many vertebrae? A) 5 B) 12 C) 7 D) Sacrum
B) 12
What best describes the psycho-physiological concept of stretch tolerance? A) A client can tolerate the maximum amount of discomfort during a prolonged stretch. B) A client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch. C) A client can tolerate the maximum amount of pain during a dynamic stretching activity. D) A client can only tolerate a short duration of stretching due to pain.
B) A client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch.
Why might it make sense to exercise the dominate limb first before the non-dominate limb for recruitment? A) Minimize injury to the non-dominate side B) A primer to better prepare the non-dominate side C) To effectively perform the exercise prior to the challenge of the non-dominate side D) Minimize injury to the dominate side
B) A primer to better prepare the non-dominate side
Which is a benefit to having a shorter myofascial roller? A) A short myofascial roller is more effective. B) A short myofascial roller is easier to pack into a gym bag. C) A short myofascial roller can reach hard-to-reach areas and target specific tissues. D) A short myofascial roller may feel more comfortable and stable.
B) A short myofascial roller is easier to pack into a gym bag.
Which muscles are commonly underactive/lengthened in the Lower Crossed Syndrome? A) Hip flexors, lumbar extensors, gastrocnemius, and soleus B) Abdominals, gluteus maximus, medius, and hip extensors C) Hip flexors, adductors, lumbar extensors, and gastrocnemius D) Gastrocnemius, soleus, adductors, and internal obliques
B) Abdominals, gluteus maximus, medius, and hip extensors
Between which segment levels does 50% of rotation in the cervical spine occur? A) C2-C3 B) C1-C2 C) C6-C7 D) C3-C4
B) C1-C2
What is the name given for the wrist bones collectively? A) Tarsals B) Carpals C) Metacarpals D) Metatarsals
B) Carpals
What are common overactive/shortened muscles in the upper body? A) Rectus abdominis, transverse abdominis, gluteus maximus, and gluteus medius B) Cervical extensors, pectorals, upper trapezius, and levator scapula C) Middle and lower trapezius, rhomboids, serratus anterior, and deep cervical neck flexors D) Quadratus lumborum, piriformis, psoas, and soleus
B) Cervical extensors, pectorals, upper trapezius, and levator scapula
Which issue can occur following an acute injury that leads to altered posture and movement patterns? A) Decreased total body strength B) Chronic muscle imbalances C) Overlengthened tendons and ligaments D) Corrective exercises become painful to perform
B) Chronic muscle imbalances
What additional region of the body should undergo mobility testing if a client's arms fall forward during the overhead squat assessment? A) Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex B) Elbow and wrist C) Foot and ankle D) Knee
B) Elbow and wrist
Hanging effectively from a tree branch with an outstretched hand requires which full range of motion? A) Extension B) Flexion C) 360-degree circumduction D) Horizontal abduction
B) Flexion
Pain on the inside of the elbow may be a symptom of what condition? A) Tennis elbow B) Golfer's elbow C) Bicep tendinopathy D) Tricep tendinopathy
B) Golfer's elbow
A Corrective Exercise Specialist is implementing a static stretching program with a youth basketball team. What are the recommended acute training variables this type of stretching? A) Hold 1-2 minutes, 4-6 repetitions, every other day B) Hold 20-30 seconds, 1-4 repetitions, daily C) Hold 15-30 seconds, 6-8 repetitions, once a week D) Hold 20-30 seconds, 4-6 repetitions, twice a week
B) Hold 20-30 seconds, 1-4 repetitions, daily
A client has selected YES on multiple questions in the PAR-Q+. What should the Corrective Exercise Specialist do to ensure the safety of this client? A) Continue with the assessment and begin programming. B) Refer them to a qualified medical professional for clearance first. C) Suggest supplements for the client to take for these issues. D) Make recommendations about the appropriate nutrition to manage these issues.
B) Refer them to a qualified medical professional for clearance first.
Which group of muscles in the feet are considered stabilizers? A) Extrinsic muscles B) Intrinsic muscles C) Invertor muscles D) External muscles
B) Intrinsic muscles
What is the key compensation to look for during a single-leg squat assessment? A) Knee dominance B) Knee valgus C) Knee varus D) Hyperextension
B) Knee valgus
A client has shown dysfunction on a static assessment of the elbow. What would the next reasonable step in the assessment process be? A) Shoulder press B) Mobility assessment of the elbow and wrist C) Refer the client out for additional testing D) Loaded movement assessment of the elbow and wrist
B) Mobility assessment of the elbow and wrist
What are the six dimensions of wellness as defined by the National Wellness Institute? A) Muscle strength, muscle endurance, flexibility, joint mobility, cardiovascular, and speed B) Occupational, physical, social, intellectual, spiritual, and emotional C) Rest, recovery, refuel, sleep, psychological relaxation, and regeneration D) Muscle strength, rest, flexibility, sleep, cardiovascular, and joint mobility
B) Occupational, physical, social, intellectual, spiritual, and emotional
When one or both ilia are irregularly rotated, showing altered movement in the Human Movement System during standing or sitting, it is referred to as which of the following? A) Anterior rotation B) Pelvic asymmetry C) Posterior rotation D) Lateral tilt
B) Pelvic asymmetry
What is necessary to ensure reliability of mobility testing? A) Performing each test quickly with each client B) Performing each test in a consistent manner with each client C) Performing all mobility tests the fitness professional can think of D) Performing each test in the same area as the club
B) Performing each test in a consistent manner with each client
Activation exercises may not be considered normal but are designed to provide isolated strengthening to specific muscles prior to moving into an integrated movement pattern by placing joints in the best position for which of the following? A) Isometric activation B) Preferential activation C) Positional isometrics D) Ideal activation
B) Preferential activation
Which category of movement assessments includes gait assessments? A) Transitional B) Loaded C) Dynamic D) Static
C) Dynamic
Recent research pointed out that potential precautions and contraindications for myofascial rolling have not been thoroughly documented. Therefore, precautions and contraindications have been taken from which of the following? A) Leading medical experts B) Related myofascial therapies C) Myofascial rolling literature specific to the medical profession D) Leading medical textbooks
B) Related myofascial therapies
During a push-up, a client demonstrates scapular winging. After 2 weeks of attempted strengthening, there is no improvement. What is the best course of action? A) Foam roll the latissimus dorsi. B) Revisit the shoulder assessments to re-evaluate the potential root cause. C) Foam roll the serratus anterior. D) Inhibit the pec group.
B) Revisit the shoulder assessments to re-evaluate the potential root cause.
What are the common neurophysiological mechanisms of myofascial rolling that result in decreased pain? A) Roller pressure may increase viscosity, create myofascial restriction, increase pain, and increase cellular responses. B) Roller pressure may modulate pain through stimulation of muscle and cutaneous receptors, afferent central nociceptive pathways (gate theory of pain), and descending antinociceptive pathways (diffuse noxious inhibitory control) C) Roller pressure may create greater myofascial relaxation or "stretch tolerance" through central nervous system (CNS) afferent input from the Golgi tendon reflex, gamma loop modulation, and mechanoreceptors. D) Roller pressure may increase viscosity, decrease pain, increase myofascial restriction, and decrease fluid changes.
B) Roller pressure may modulate pain through stimulation of muscle and cutaneous receptors, afferent central nociceptive pathways (gate theory of pain), and descending antinociceptive pathways (diffuse noxious inhibitory control)
What would occur if the resting length of a muscle is shorter than it should be? A) The amount of available actin on myosin cross-bridging is increased. B) The amount of available actin on myosin cross-bridging is reduced. C) Force output is increased. D) Length tension relationships will be normal.
B) The amount of available actin on myosin cross-bridging is reduced.
Which best describes the target motion of the knee flexion test? A) The client uses a stretch band around the foot and then assists in moving the knee into flexion as far as possible. B) The client actively flexes the knee as far as tolerable. C) The client passively flexes the knee as far as tolerable. D) The client actively extends the knee as far as tolerable.
B) The client actively flexes the knee as far as tolerable.
Which phase of the muscle action spectrum leads to the most muscle damage, inflammation, impaired muscle function, and muscular soreness occurs, providing a good reason to limit the number of sets for the initial exerciser? A) Concentric acceleration B) The amortization phase C) Eccentric deceleration D) Isometric stabilization
C) Eccentric deceleration
What best describes a closed-packed position of the shoulder? A) The glenohumeral joint has full internal rotation and adduction. B) The glenohumeral joint is at 90 degrees of abduction and full external rotation. C) The glenohumeral joint is at 90 degrees of abduction and full internal rotation. D) The glenohumeral joint has full internal rotation and 90 degrees of adduction.
B) The glenohumeral joint is at 90 degrees of abduction and full external rotation.
Recent research has found which of the following regarding the use of wobble boards, soft mats, and air-filled bladders? A) They may decrease joint stiffness. B) They may increase motor control. C) They are ideal for producing power. D) They are ideal for producing strength.
B) They may increase motor control.
What is the most common reason for compensations during gait observed during late midstance? A) This the point when maximum ankle plantarflexion is required. B) This is the point when maximum ankle mobility is required. C) This is the point of maximum impact forces. D) This is the point of maximum foot stability.
B) This is the point when maximum ankle mobility is required.
What are the key components of the Cumulative Injury Cycle? A) Muscle spasms, compensation, and injury B) Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasms, and adhesions C) Synergistic dominance and movement impairments D) Adhesion, dysfunction, and surgery
B) Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasms, and adhesions
What is the purpose of holding a ball (or other object) between the knees during the seated thoracic rotation test? A) To provide a focal point for the client B) To lock the hips into place C) To keep the feet apart D) To guide the path of rotation
B) To lock the hips into place
What ligament creates the carpal tunnel? A) Flexor retinaculum B) Transverse carpal ligament C) Extensor retinaculum D) Synovium
B) Transverse carpal ligament
The Kendall sway-back posture presents with which of the following static positions in the upper body? A) Neutral head, neutral cervical spine, and flat thoracic spine B) Neutral head, extended lumbar spine, and lateral thoracic shift C) Forward head, extended cervical spine, and excessive thoracic kyphosis D) Tilted head, flexed cervical spine, and flat upper thoracic spine
C) Forward head, extended cervical spine, and excessive thoracic kyphosis
Which is an abnormal movement associated with a seven-fold increase in ankle sprains? A) Increased knee flexion movement B) Increased knee extension movement C) Increased postural sway D) Increased spinal rigidity
C) Increased postural sway
How can forward head posture influence the position of the pelvis? A) It can cause the pelvis to side bend to one side. B) It can cause the pelvis to tilt posteriorly. C) It can cause the pelvis to tilt anteriorly. D) It can cause the pelvis to rotate to one side.
C) It can cause the pelvis to tilt anteriorly.
What is the recommended number of active movements to include in Step 2 of the myofascial rolling program? A) 2 to 3 B) 1 to 3 C) 4 to 6 D) 7 to 10
C) 4 to 6
What is considered normal mobility during the seated hip internal and external rotation test? A) 90 degrees B) 180 degrees C) 45 degrees D) 20 degrees
C) 45 degrees
What is the most appropriate duration for an task-specific activities during warm-up? A) Less than or equal to 2 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 5 to 15 minutes D) Less than or equal to 1 minute per muscle group
C) 5 to 15 minutes
What is the most appropriate duration for a task-specific activity during warm-up? A) Less than or equal to 5 minutes B) Greater than 20 minutes C) 5-15 minutes D) Less than or equal to 2 minutes per muscle group
C) 5-15 minutes
In order to satisfy hydration needs, most average exercisers should consume which amount of water before bed and within 1 hour prior to exercise? A) 200 mL (6.8 oz) B) 1200 mL (40.6 oz) C) 500 mL (16.9 oz) D) 1000 mL (33.8 oz)
C) 500 mL (16.9 oz)
For optimal sleep, what should the temperature of the room be? A) 45 degrees F/7 degrees C B) 60 degrees F/16 degrees C C) 72 degrees F/22 degree C D) 95 degrees F/35 degrees C
C) 72 degrees F/22 degree C
What is the name of the structure in the ilium where the femoral head connects that helps deepen the socket? A) Pelvofemoral joint B) Meniscus C) Acetabulum D) Iliofemoral joint
C) Acetabulum
During a bench press exercise, which muscle synergy is occurring? A) Activation of the triceps brachii as the agonist with pectoralis major and anterior deltoid assisting synergistically. B) Activation of the triceps brachii as the agonist with the posterior deltoid and middle trapezius assisting synergistically. C) Activation of the pectoralis major as an agonist with the triceps brachii and anterior deltoid assisting synergistically. D) Activation of biceps brachii as the agonist with pectoralis major and anterior deltoid assisting synergistically.
C) Activation of the pectoralis major as an agonist with the triceps brachii and anterior deltoid assisting synergistically.
Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome? A) Gluteus maximus, hamstrings, abdominals, internal obliques, and vastus lateralis B) Abdominals, internal obliques, gluteus minimus and maximus, and tensor fascia lata C) Adductors, iliopsoas, peroneals, gastrocnemius, and soleus D) Hamstrings, gluteus maximus, medius, abdominals, and external obliques
C) Adductors, iliopsoas, peroneals, gastrocnemius, and soleus
At which joint might an increase in ROM serve as a preventative strategy by allowing the trunk to be more upright and minimizing shearing forces in the trunk? A) Pelvic upslip B) Knee varus C) Ankle D) Cervical spine
C) Ankle
Which of the following muscles serves to decelerate tibial internal rotation and knee extension? A) Peroneus longus B) Semimembranosus C) Biceps femoris D) Gastrocnemius
C) Biceps femoris
What is the most accurate purpose of the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)? A) It is used to help determine deficits in joint range of motion and to refine observations made in previous assessments. B) It is used to help determine a person's musculoskeletal structural alignment during a series of movement patterns. C) It is used to help determine if a person is ready to undertake an increase in physical activity. D) It is used to help determine if a person exhibits any compensation in posture while standing still.
C) It is used to help determine if a person is ready to undertake an increase in physical activity.
In an OHSA, tightness in hip flexors, erector spinae, and latissimus dorsi will most likely contribute to which movement dysfunction? A) Knees cave in B) Excessive forward lean C) Low-back arch D) Feet turn out
C) Low-back arch
What type of activations will provide mild stress to muscles, which may be used as part of a recovery day? A) Beginner-level activations B) High-level activations C) Low-level activations D) Moderate-level activations
C) Low-level activations
Medial tibial stress syndrome typically presents on which aspect of the tibia? A) Upper 1/3 of the medial tibia B) Center of the medial tibia C) Lower 1/3 of the medial tibia D) Lower 1/3 of the lateral tibia
C) Lower 1/3 of the medial tibia
Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to scapular elevation during a loaded pulling movement? A) Serratus anterior B) Cervical extensors C) Lower trapezius D) Upper trapezius
C) Lower trapezius
Which term best describes the entire available motion at a joint as well as the body's neuromuscular control during motion? A) Pliability B) Extensibility C) Mobility D) Flexibility
C) Mobility
A client demonstrates a knee dominance compensation. The observed compensation did not improve with OHS with heel lift. What mobility test will the fitness professional use to test the hip flexors? A) Active knee extension test B) Adductor test C) Modified Thomas test D) Prone knee flexion test
C) Modified Thomas test
Which of the following statements describes the easiest method to assess one's hydration status? A) Get medically tested B) Calculate daily calories C) Observe urine color D) Measure the sweat rate
C) Observe urine color
Which of the following mental health topics is likely within a fitness professional's scope of practice to discuss with a client? A) Substance abuse B) Confused thinking C) Occupational stress D) Excessive worrying
C) Occupational stress
"Weightlifter's shoulder" is a term associated with what clinical presentation? A) Dislocation of the GH during bench press B) Osteoarthritis of the GH joint C) Osteoarthritis of the AC joint D) Tendinopathy of the rotator cuff
C) Osteoarthritis of the AC joint
Which of the following best describes how to introduce tissue movement with the myofascial roller? A) Perform passive movements such as trainer assisted flexion/extension while maintaining pressure. B) Perform quick active movements while continuously rolling back and forth on the target tissue. C) Perform active movements such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure. D) Roll in a slow continuous motion for 60 seconds.
C) Perform active movements such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure.
Which muscle is the most appropriate to static stretch for the client who demonstrates over-pronation in the overhead squat? A) Rectus femoris B) Anterior tibialis C) Peroneus longus D) Gluteus medius
C) Peroneus longus
What are the two principles within the refuel recovery strategy? A) Proper flexibility and muscle endurance B) Adequate muscle strength and cardiovascular endurance C) Proper hydration and nutrition D) Proper balance and muscle strength
C) Proper hydration and nutrition
Jon exhibits a knee dominance compensation during assessment. Jon's corrective exercise program should focus on inhibiting and lengthening what muscle groups? A) Hamstrings B) TFL/ IT band C) Quadriceps and soleus D) Gastrocnemius and TFL
C) Quadriceps and soleus
The acromion is part of which bony structure? A) Infraspinatus fossa B) Glenohumeral joint C) Scapula D) Coracoid
C) Scapula
What process describes the ability of the CNS to interpret sensory information as needed to execute the proper motor response? A) Augmented feedback B) Muscle synergy C) Sensorimotor integration D) Knowledge of performance
C) Sensorimotor integration
If a client cannot complete a single-leg squat without difficulty, what modification provides more stability but also more insight into unilateral compensations? A) Overhead squat with heel lift B) Goblet squat C) Split-squat D) Overhead squat
C) Split-squat
Which movement assessment utilizes dumbbells to assess a vertical pushing movement? A) Davies test B) Standing pull assessment C) Standing overhead press D) Standing push assessment
C) Standing overhead press
What compensatory movement pattern is termed knee valgus? A) The knees bowing outward. B) The hip shifting toward one side or the other. C) The knees collapsing inward. D) An upright trunk and knees in front of toes.
C) The knees collapsing inward.
Which best describes a component of pressure exerted by a myofascial roller? A) The roller's temperature B) The speed of rolling C) The roller's diameter D) The roller's texture
C) The roller's diameter
Why is a textured myofascial roller theorized to be more effective than a flat myofascial roller? A) The textured roller may roll quicker and may be generating more friction than a smooth roller. B) The textured roller was no different than the smooth roller. C) The textured roller may distort or "move" the tissues more than a smooth roller. D) The texture roller exerts significantly more pressure to the tissue than a smooth one.
C) The textured roller may distort or "move" the tissues more than a smooth roller.
A client that presents with over-pronation and limited ankle mobility is at risk for which injury or condition? A) Knee varus B) Over-pronation and limited ankle mobility are only linked to positions not conditions or injuries. C) Knee valgus D) Achilles tendinopathy
D) Achilles tendinopathy
Which category of movement assessments includes the split squat? A) Static B) Loaded C) Transitional D) Dynamic
C) Transitional
When is a client considered to have normal ankle dorsiflexion mobility? A) When they keep their ankles in chronic plantarflexion B) When the rear leg fully extends during the weight-bearing lunge test C) When the knee is able to touch the wall during the weight-bearing lunge test D) When the knee stays behind the toe during the weight-bearing lunge test
C) When the knee is able to touch the wall during the weight-bearing lunge test
If wrist extension is limited with elbow flexion, one can assume the limitation is coming from which structure(s)? A) Brachialis B) Biceps brachii C) Wrist joint D) Triceps
C) Wrist joint
What is the prime mover of a specific joint action regardless of concentric or eccentric muscle action? A) Protagonist B) Type II muscle fibers C) Antagonist D) Agonist
D) Agonist
What is the recommended verbal instruction when performing the cervical rotation test? A) "Look over shoulder 90 degrees to each side." B) "Look over shoulder until the ear is in line with the tip of the shoulder." C) "Look over your shoulder and use your hands to apply pressure." D) "Look over your right then left shoulder as far as you comfortably can."
D) "Look over your right then left shoulder as far as you comfortably can."
How would one best instruct a client to correctly perform static stretching of their right upper trapezius muscle? A) "Place your left arm to your side and then use your right hand to help side bend your neck to the right." B) "Place your left arm behind your back and then use your right hand to help move your head backward and upward." C) "Place your right arm behind your back and then use your left hand to help move your head forward and downward." D) "Place your right arm to your side and then use your left hand to help side bend your neck to the left."
D) "Place your right arm to your side and then use your left hand to help side bend your neck to the left."
A Corrective Exercise Specialist is recommending the supine chin tuck activation exercise to help address a client's postural abnormality. Which instruction correctly describes how to perform this exercise? A) "Quickly move your head straight back, hold this position for 2 seconds, and then quickly return back to the start position." B) "Slowly move your head straight back, hold this position for 4 seconds, and then return back to the start position in 2 seconds." C) "Slowly move your head straight back and then immediately move your head back to the start position." D) "Slowly move your head straight back, hold this position for 2 seconds, and then return back to the start position in 4 seconds."
D) "Slowly move your head straight back, hold this position for 2 seconds, and then return back to the start position in 4 seconds."
What is the minimum typical duration of acute static stretching per muscle group in isolation (no dynamic warm-up activities) that would lead to performance impairments? A) 30 seconds B) 20 seconds C) 120 seconds D) 60 seconds
D) 60 seconds
Which tendon is the largest and strongest tendon in the human body? A) Anterior tibialis B) Plantar fascia C) Posterior tibialis D) Achilles
D) Achilles
David is a 75-year-old retiree looking to get back in shape. After performing assessments, the Corrective Exercise Specialist decides he needs to inhibit and lengthen his calves. However, David tells the specialist that he is not comfortable using the myofascial roller. What represents the best response? A) Tell David that he will not get satisfactory results if he does not roll. B) Tell David that he must speak with a doctor to get out of rolling. C) Avoid working with David if he refuses to roll. D) Avoid making David to roll.
D) Avoid making David to roll.
What are two examples of pre-exercise high-quality carbohydrates and lean proteins for strength and endurance athletes? A) Carbohydrates: honey, dried fruit; Proteins: pork sausage, beef jerky B) Carbohydrates: fruit juice, sweetened fruit yogurt; Proteins: roast beef, pork bacon C) Carbohydrates: energy bar, high-fructose juice; Proteins: steak, roast beef D) Carbohydrates: organic pancakes, low fiber cereal; Proteins: turkey, eggs
D) Carbohydrates: organic pancakes, low fiber cereal; Proteins: turkey, eggs
Strengthening of one side unilaterally can also increase the strength of which of the following? A) Anteriorly rotated limb B) Ipsilateral limb C) Posteriorly rotated limb D) Contralateral limb
D) Contralateral limb
Which type of exercises are the "gold-standard" for Achilles tendinopathy? A) Concentric B) High intensity interval C) Isometric D) Eccentric
D) Eccentric
Foam rolling the posterior adductor magnus and hamstring complex helps to reduce tension in the tissues allowing for appropriate levels of which joint action to be achieved? A) Hip adduction B) Knee flexion C) Hip extension D) Hip flexion
D) Hip flexion
Isolated strengthening is a technique used to increase what? A) Extensibility B) Activation C) Synergistic dominance D) Intramuscular coordination
D) Intramuscular coordination
Which global muscle subsystem activates synergistically to control movement in the frontal plane? A) Posterior oblique B) Deep longitudinal C) Anterior oblique D) Lateral
D) Lateral
Greatest strength gains take place while the muscle is under resistance during what muscle action in isolation? A) Shortening B) Perturbating C) Stabilizing D) Lengthening
D) Lengthening
"Do you feel energized throughout the day and prior to activities?" is a question that would be found in what section of the client intake screen? A) Medical history B) PAR-Q+ C) Occupation D) Lifestyle
D) Lifestyle
What is one potential limitation to using handheld myofascial rollers? A) Most are constructed of material that is too soft to use on muscles. B) Most are constructed of material that is too dense to use on muscles. C) Most require the use of one hand and generating sufficient pressure is difficult. D) Most require the use of both hands and rolling is limited to the lower extremities.
D) Most require the use of both hands and rolling is limited to the lower extremities.
What term defines the cumulative change in motor behavior over a person's entire lifetime? A) Proprioception B) Sensory information C) Motor learning D) Motor development
D) Motor development
What types of injuries might static stretching be most effective at reducing? A) Tendonitis B) Bone fractures C) Ligament sprains D) Musculotendinous strains
D) Musculotendinous strains
Which of the following best defines the concept of regeneration within the recovery strategy framework? A) Regeneration is the processes of post-training nutrition to recover from repetitive exercise. B) Regeneration of the process of pre-training hydration and rest to maintain optimal recovery from strenuous exercise. C) Regeneration is the cumulative amount of sleep needed to maintain optimal energy levels. D) Regeneration is the cumulative process of pre- and post-training routines to maintain optimal movement efficiency.
D) Regeneration is the cumulative process of pre- and post-training routines to maintain optimal movement efficiency.
The serratus anterior muscle originates and inserts on what structures? A) Posterior thorax and glenohumeral joint B) Posterior scapula and anterior thorax C) Anterior thorax and posterior thorax D) Rib cage and medial border of the scapula
D) Rib cage and medial border of the scapula
A client presents with excessive elbow flexion during the assessment process. What activity would be a good choice to start the corrective exercise process? A) Lengthen the triceps B) SMR the wrist extensors C) Isolate the wrist flexors D) SMR the bicep brachii and brachialis
D) SMR the bicep brachii and brachialis
What are two modern advancements in recovery technology that have become popular among both individuals and professionals? A) Smart beds and electrical heating pads B) Online support groups and online journal writing C) The Keto diet and group stretching classes D) Sensory deprivation chambers and wearable activity trackers
D) Sensory deprivation chambers and wearable activity trackers
Which movement assessment is considered the best assessment of an individual's balance? A) Davies test B) Standing overhead dumbbell press C) Overhead squat D) Single-leg squat
D) Single-leg squat
When performing a static postural assessment on a client, the fitness professional notes that the client demonstrates a forward head posture. What muscle group is most likely shortened and overactive? A) Rhomboids B) Deep cervical flexors C) Thoracic erector spinae D) Suboccipitals
D) Suboccipitals
What is the most appropriate term for an overuse injury to a tendon? A) Strain B) Tendinitis C) Sprain D) Tendinopathy
D) Tendinopathy
Where is the hyoid bone located in the cervical spine? A) The throat B) The posterior neck in a muscular sling. C) Between C3 and C4 D) The anterior neck in a muscular sling.
D) The anterior neck in a muscular sling.
What is the most common way to use a self-myofascial foam roller? A) The client stands on the foam roller for balance. B) The fitness professional rolls the client with a roller device. C) The client leans against the wall to use the foam roller. D) The client applies bodyweight pressure by lying on the roller in different positions.
D) The client applies bodyweight pressure by lying on the roller in different positions.
Which upper-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall sway-back posture? A) Middle trapezius, biceps, forearm flexors, and lower trapezius B) Rhomboids, scalenes, biceps, and triceps C) Middle trapezius, rhomboids, deltoids, and biceps D) Upper trapezius, levator scapulae, pectoralis minor, and intercostals
D) Upper trapezius, levator scapulae, pectoralis minor, and intercostals
