NAT 503 Final Study Guide Questions
An effective HIV vaccine is difficult to produce, primarily because
HIV mutates frequently.
Which type of HIV virus causes most infections in the United States and Europe?
HIV type 1
A patient presents to the clinic with flulike symptoms and a rash. The nurse knows that which types of rash are associated with HIV? (Select all that apply.)
Maculopapular Vesicular Urticarial
Movement of water through a membrane that separates two compartments with unequal concentration is called:
osmosis
The chief function of the Golgi apparatus is:
packaging proteins into secretory vesicles
The main principle of the fluid mosaic model is that:
proteins float in a fluid lipid bilayer
The HIV nurse educator teaches a newly diagnosed patient about HIV. The nurse educator tells the patient that in the United States, those at greatest risk of HIV infection include which of the following groups? (Select all that apply.)
Heterosexual women Homosexual men Individuals over age 50
Which is not normally secreted in response to stress?
Insulin
The nurse understands which information about the latent reservoir?
It is a pool of memory cells where HIV can persist.
What are cytokines?
Chemical messengers secreted by immune cells and other cells
Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular
death
In general, with aging, organ size and function
decrease
The cellular response indicative of injury because of faulty metabolism is
intracellular accumulations
All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except
necrosis
The cellular structure that contains DNA is called the:
nucleus
Your patient's red blood cell count is slightly elevated today. This might be explained by (Select all that apply.)
-gender difference -situational factors -normal variation -illness
What are CD4+ T cells?
T helper cells
Which answer describes adaptive immunity?
Each immune cell can respond to only one antigen.
Under aerobic conditions, what process produces most of the energy for the cell?
Oxidative phosphorylation
A patient is preparing for treatment with CAR-T. What statement by the patient indicates good understanding of this process?
"This treatment uses genetically engineered immune system cells."
Which of the following would the nurse instruct the pregnant woman to avoid as teratogens? (Select all that apply.)
-Alcohol -Thalidomide -Zika virus
A patient is diagnosed with stage IIA Hodgkin disease. This patient's clinical stage was most likely determined by (Select all that apply.)
-CT scan. -physical examination. -patient history
Which of the following are characteristics of stem cells? (Select all that apply.)
-Can differentiate into any type of cell. -Have greater capacity to proliferate than more differentiated cells. -Are dependent upon environmental cues for proliferation. -Can die in the absence of an appropriate environment.
Calcium channel blocker drugs are often used to treat conditions associated with which types of muscle or tissue? (Select all that apply.)
-Cardiac muscle -Smooth muscle
Dysplasia is recognized by abnormal changes in which of the following?
-Cell size -Cell shape -Cell organization
Protein synthesis involves which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
-Direction from mRNA -Nucleotide triplets -RNA polymerase -Removal of introns from the DNA template
Which viruses have been implicated as cancer-causing agents? (Select all that apply.)
-Epstein-Barr -Human T-cell leukemia -Human immunodeficiency
A patient is diagnosed with CML (chronic myeloid leukemia). The patient may experience which of these symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
-Fatigue -Weight loss -Abdominal discomfort -Sweats
Manifestations of fibromyalgia often include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
-Generalized pain -Headaches -Fatigue -Sleep disturbance
Characteristics of immunization include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
-Giving injections of preformed antibodies provides immediate immunity. -Herd immunity controls disease without immunizing everyone in the population. -Lack of immunization may lead to an epidemic.
The CDC defines three CD4+ T-cell categories of T cell ranges. Which values are correct? (Select all that apply.)
-In category 1, the CD4+ T-cell count is greater than or equal to 500/mL. -In category 2, the CD4+ T-cell counts range from 200 to 499/mL. -In category 3, the CD4+ T-cell count is less than 200/mL.
Which changes in the circulatory system occur in the older adult? (Select all that apply.)
-Increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR) -Decreased elasticity of vessel walls
What roles does inflammation play in cancer development? (Select all that apply.)
-Initiates carcinogenesis -Causes direct DNA damage -Limits apoptosis -Contributes to angiogenesis
Characteristics of scoliosis include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
-Involvement of lateral curvature of the spine -Increase during periods of rapid growth -Identifiable by uneven shoulders or scapular prominence -Possibility of leading to respiratory complications
Which of the following are characteristics of Marfan syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
-It is a single-gene disorder. -It involves alterations in connective tissue. -It leads to skeletal and joint deformities. -It results in dangerous cardiovascular disorders.
In DNA replication DNA polymerase functions to do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
-Match appropriate bases to the template base -Proofread the newly developed DNA for errors in base pairing
Which clinical findings describe the typical presentation of ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)? (Select all that apply.)
-Painless enlarged cervical lymph nodes -Fever -Pain in long bones
Which viruses are associated with human cancers? (Select all that apply.)
-Papilloma virus -Hepatitis B virus -Epstein Barr virus
Bacteria cause injury to cells by which mechanisms? (Select all that apply.)
-Producing exotoxins -Producing endotoxins -Producing destructive enzymes -Evoking an immune reaction
A patient is diagnosed with stage III non-Hodgkin lymphoma and is preparing to undergo treatment. Which treatments may be used to treat this patient's cancer? (Select all that apply.)
-Radiation -Bone marrow transplant -Chemotherapy -Monoclonal antibody therapy
When determining additional data to gather before making a diagnosis, what factors need to be considered? (Select all that apply.)
-Reliability -Validity
What is a lysosome?
A membrane-bound bag of degradative enzymes within a cell
What is mitosis?
A process of cell division in which each daughter cell has a full set of 46 chromosomes
What is a gene?
A segment of DNA that codes for a protein
What is the cell cycle?
A series of steps through which a cell progresses when it replicates
A 5-year-old patient's parents report loss of appetite and fatigue in their child. The parents also state that the child refuses to walk as a result of pain. The child's most likely diagnosis is
ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia).
What are the major components in the nucleus of a cell?
DNA and proteins
How do viruses replicate themselves?
Enter host cells and use host cell chemical processes for replication
Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with
Epstein-Barr virus
What cells are made from precursor cells in bone marrow?
Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes
What does the term cell cycle mean?
Events that occur during cell replication
What is transcription of a gene?
Formation of mRNA from the template of a sequence of DNA
HIV replicates very quickly from the onset of infection. What is the major site of HIV replication?
GI tract
Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease?
HIV/AIDS
Certain autoimmune diseases are associated with the presence of specific proteins on a person's cells. These proteins are called ________ proteins.
HLA or MHC
Which factors are considered intrinsic factors in blood pressure readings? (Select all that apply.)
Heart rate respiratory rate flow dynamics
A male patient involved in a motor vehicle accident is brought to the emergency department with acute flank pain. What additional signs of bleeding may the patient exhibit? (Select all that apply.)
Hematuria Melena Hematemesis Hemoptysis
What is the function of adhesion molecules?
Holding cells together
A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis. This is most likely a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction.
III
The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type
IV
The predominant antibody of a typical allergic response is:
IgE
The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is
IgE
Which clinical finding is most indicative of an acute bacterial infection?
Increased (band) neutrophils
When antigen-antibody complexes are formed in the blood, which of the following processes can occur?
Precipitation of the antigen-antibody complex Phagocytosis of the antigen-antibody complex Neutralization of the antigen
Which disorder is associated with a type III hypersensitivity mechanism of injury?
SLE
What is the major function of TH1 cells?
Secrete cytokines that stimulate cytotoxic T cells, NK cells, and macrophages
A patient who had breast cancer successfully treated 10 years ago now has widespread metastases. She is upset, saying "But the oncologist said I was cured!" What information about cancer does the nurse understand to guide the explanation?
Small areas of metastases can lie dormant only to explode in growth later.
One of the cardinal features of sickle cell anemia includes acute and chronic dysfunction of which organs? (Select all that apply.)
Spleen Bones Brain Lungs
Secondary immune deficiency problems may be caused by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Surgery High blood sugar Corticosteroids Low protein level
Which disorder is associated with a type III hypersensitivity mechanism of injury? Correct!
Systemic lupus erythematosus
What is the cytosol?
The liquid inside a cell that is not in organelles
The nurse educating a patient on a new diagnosis of non-Hodgkin lymphoma would provide which information in the teaching plan?
There may be gastrointestinal tract involvement.
During protein synthesis, how do the amino acids get connected in the correct order?
They are attached on the ribosomes in the order specified by mRNA.
What is the function of enzymes?
To facilitate chemical reactions
Anaphylaxis may occur in which types of hypersensitivity reactions? (Select all that apply.)
Type I Type II
After degranulation, mast cells release prostaglandins and leukotrienes that perform which of the following functions?
Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Rickets is characterized by soft, weak bones resulting from a deficiency of
Vitamin D
Males are more likely than females to be affected by ________ disorders.
X-linked
In autocrine signaling:
a cell signals itself.
Mitral stenosis is associated with
a pressure gradient across the mitral valve
An increase in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen occurs with
a shift to the left
RhoGAM is given to an Rh-negative mother in order to prevent
a type III hypersensitivity disorder.
The classical pathway for activation of the complement cascade is triggered by
antigen-antibody complexes.
Arterial baroreceptors are located in the:
aortic arch
The majority of cardiac cells that die after myocardial infarction do so because of
apoptosis
The process of programmed cellular self-destruction is called:
apoptosis
Proto-oncogenes
are normal cellular genes that promote growth.
The two primary locations of active ribosomes in a cell are:
attached to endoplasmic reticulum and free in cytoplasm.
Blood flow throughout the periphery is regulated by
autonomic nervous system
The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene called
bcr-abl.
Characteristics of smooth muscle include
being found in blood vessels.
Most carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream as
bicarbonate ion
Red blood cell lysis in the spleen yields which one of the following products?
bilirubin
Excessive red cell lysis can be detected by measuring the serum
bilirubin.
Growth factors influence a cell by:
binding to receptors.
People who have osteoporosis are at risk for
bone fractures
Where are neutrophils produced and stored in the body?
bone marrow
A Type I open fracture is best described as a bone that is
broken and protruding through the skin.
Inflammation of the sacs that overlie bony prominences is called
bursitis
Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as
carcniomas
An important difference between skeletal and cardiac muscle is that
cardiac muscle has calcium channels on the cell surface for calcium entry.
Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds are classic manifestations of
cardiac tamponade
Cancer grading is based on
cell differentiation
Velocity of blood flow is measured in
centimeters per second
Pain in fibromyalgia involves
changes in pain transmission in the spinal cord.
A cause of thrombocytopenia includes
chemotherapy
Your patient eats "lots of fat," leads a "stressful" life, and has smoked "about two packs a day for the last 40 years." The patient reports recent worsening of the chronic morning cough and a recent diagnosis of a lung mass. The most likely contributing factor for development of lung cancer in this patient is
cigarette smoking
Which of the following proteins is not a normal component of plasma?
collagen
A fracture in which bone breaks into two or more fragments is referred to as
comminuted
Patent ductus arteriosus is accurately described as a(n)
communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery.
The primary function of the nucleus is to:
contain genetic information and regulate cell division.
Which is a characteristic of some bacteria?
contains cell wall endotoxin
After being diagnosed with hypertension, a patient returns to the clinic 6 weeks later. The patient reports "moderate" adherence to the recommended lifestyle changes and has experienced a decreased from 165/96 to 148/90 mm Hg in blood pressure. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?
continue lifestyle modifications only
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors block the
conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
The parents of a child with PKU are concerned about the risk of transmitting the disorder in future pregnancies. The correct assessment of the risk is
each child has a 25% chance of being affected.
A risk factor for osteoporosis is
early menopause
Repolarization of a neuron after a depolarizing action potential is because of
efflux of potassium
Leukocytosis with a "shift to the left" refers to
elevated immature neutrophils.
An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed
endemic
Which tissue forms the internal lining of blood vessels?
endothelium
In older women, osteoporosis is thought to be primarily because of
estrogen deficiency
The differences in structure and function of cells in different body tissues result from
expression of tissue-specific genes.
Plasma membrane receptors are available to bind to:
extracellular chemicals.
The prothrombin time (PT) and INR (international normalized ratio) measure the integrity of
extrinsic pathway
Which end of an antibody binds to an antigen?
fab
Information parents should be given about the consequences of PKU includes
failure to avoid phenylalanine results in progressive cognitive impairment.
Which one of the following molecules forms a meshwork that stabilizes the platelet plug during hemostasis?
fibrin
When plasmin degrades fibrin during the fibrinolytic process, what is (are) the by-product(s) called?
fibrin degradation products
The conversion of plasminogen to plasmin results in
fibrinolysis
The spleen is an important defense against infection, because it
filters the blood
Red blood cells obtain nearly all their energy from metabolism of
glucose
Which one of these cellular processes can operate without oxygen?
glycolysis
A patient is diagnosed with hairy cell leukemia. The patient's laboratory results would most likely indicate a decrease in (Select all that apply.)
granulocytes. platelets. red blood cells.
A naive B cell is a B lymphocyte that:
has not been presented with an antigen.
Red blood cells differ from other cell types in the body because they
have no cytoplasmic organelles.
The most common type of osteomyelitis is
hematogenous.
Which condition is associated with an elevated reticulocyte count?
hemolytic anemia
An important mediator of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is
histamine
When a patient is struck in the eye by a baseball, the result is redness and swelling. This increase in blood flow to a localized area is called
hyperemia.
A patient presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132 mm Hg, retinopathy, and symptoms of an ischemic stroke. This symptomology is likely the result of
hypertensive crisis
An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed
hypertrophy
Which electrolyte imbalance may lead to clotting disorders?
hypocalcemia
A patient has a history of falls, syncope, dizziness, and blurred vision. The patient's symptomology is most likely related to
hypotension
Myasthenia gravis is a type II hypersensitivity disorder that involves
impaired muscle function.
Immune function is likely to be most effective in a
in a 30-year old
The pathophysiology of osteomalacia involves
inadequate mineralization in the osteoid.
The effects of histamine release include
increased vascular permeability.
The major cause of death from leukemic disease is
infection
The patient diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) must undergo several weeks of chemotherapy. The most serious complication of chemotherapy is
infection
Assessment of an extremity six hours after surgical alignment and casting demonstrates pulselessness and pallor. The priority action to take is to
initiate action to have the cast split or removed.
Clinical manifestations of chronic arterial obstruction to the lower extremities include
intermittent claudication
Reperfusion injury to cells
involves formation of free radicals
What is necessary for red blood cell production?
iron
Which of the following is the most important mineral required for erythropoiesis?
iron
A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) are characteristic of which type of anemia?
iron deficiency
Which characteristic is indicative of hemolytic anemia?
jaundice
The primary function of eosinophils is to
kill parasitic helminths (worms).
After surgery to remove a lung tumor, your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will
kill rapidly dividing cells.
A patient has been exposed to meningococcal meningitis, but is not yet demonstrating signs of this disease. This stage of illness is called the _____ stage.
latent
The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in
non-hispanic black adults
Pain with passive stretching of a muscle is indicative of
noncontractile tissue injury.
Hypertension is closely linked to
obstructive sleep apnea
Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene
occurs at an earlier age.
Hypertension with a specific, identifiable cause is known as _____ hypertension.
secondary
The most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is
selective IgA.
Metaplasia is
replacement of one differentiated cell type with another
Where are proteins synthesized in a cell?
ribosomes
The disease that is similar to osteomalacia and occurs in growing children is
rickets
Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation?
thrombocytopenia
Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by
tissue thromboplastin
What is the major function of TH2 cells?
The major function of TH2 cells is to secrete cytokines that stimulate antibody production and activate eosinophils.
An increase in extracellular potassium ion from 4.0 to 6.0 mEq/L would
hypopolarize the resting membrane potential
The immune system disorder associated with HIV is
deficiency of T-helper lymphocytes.
Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces _____ necrosis.
liquefactive
What type of a cell is a T cell?
lymphocyte
Aldosterone may increase during stress, leading to (Select all that apply.)
-decreased urinary output -increased sodium retention -increased blood volume
Socioeconomic factors influence disease development because of (Select all that apply.)
-environmental toxins -overcrowding -nutrition -hygiene
Which HIV-positive patient should be given a diagnosis of AIDS?
One who has Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A patient is infected with HIV. The patient may have contracted HIV transmitted via which routes? (Select all that apply.)
Semen Cervical secretions
Selye's three phases of the stress response include all the following except
allostasis
Phospholipids spontaneously form lipid bilayers because they are
amphipathic
The process of programmed cell self-destruction is called:
apoptosis
What is a cytoskeleton?
A protein network inside a cell
C.Q. was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection. His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3°F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. He complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of C.Q.'s disease is
streptococcal infection
The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is referred to as
subclinical
The effects of excessive cortisol production include
suppressed immune function
Ion channels open and close in response to all the following except
temperature changes
After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication. This is an example of
tertiary prevention.
Allostasis is best defined as
the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and well-being
The resting membrane potential in nerve and skeletal muscle is determined primarily by
the ratio of intracellular to extracellular potassium ions
A patient receiving zidovudine and a protease inhibitor to manage HIV infection is found to have an undetectable viral load. This means that the
therapy is effective.
Excitable cells are able to conduct action potentials because they have
voltage-gated channels.
HIV infection causes immunodeficiency because it
causes the destruction of T-helper cells.
Carbon monoxide injures cells by
reducing oxygen level on hemoglobin
Which of the following terms indicates cell death that occurs by severe cell swelling and the breakdown of organelles?
necrosis
Huntington disease primarily affects the _____ system.
neurological
What are polymorphonucleocytes?
neutrophils
Bone healing may be impaired by
nicotine use
Which of the following statements are accurate when considering diagnostic testing for an individual with a possible medical condition? (Select all that apply.)
-Sensitivity is the chance the test will be positive if the hypothesized disease is present -Specificity shows that a test will be negative if the person does not have the disease
Characteristics of cellular differentiation include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
-Specialization for different functions -influenced by memory of developmental events -Dependent on cell-to-cell coordination -Generally not reversible
Acute coronary syndrome in the presence of thrombosis may present with which manifestations? (Select all that apply.)
-Unstable angina -MI -Sudden cardiac arrest
The patient is a 12-year-old boy with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Manifestations of the patient's leukemia prior to treatment may include (Select all that apply.)
-anemia. -leukocytosis. -thrombocytopenia.
Side effects of chemotherapy include (Select all that apply.)
-anemia. -nausea. -infections.
Functions of antibodies include (Select all that apply.)
-antigen agglutination. -antigen precipitation. -opsonization. -complement activation.
Deficits in immune system function occur in cancer as a result of (Select all that apply.)
-chemotherapy. -cancer cells. -cancer metastasis to bone marrow. -malnutrition.
Activation of the complement cascade results in (Select all that apply.)
-inflammation -chemotaxis
A patient is diagnosed with myeloma. The nurse teaches the patient about the multiple tumor sites that can develop with this cancer. The possible tumor sites in myeloma include the (Select all that apply.)
-liver. -spleen -bones -kidneys
The mononuclear phagocyte system consists of (Select all that apply.)
-monocytes. -dendritic cells. -tissue macrophages
Dietary zinc is an important defense against infection because it maintains (Select all that apply.)
-natural killer cell function. -lymphocyte activity. -neutrophil activity. -complement activity.
Characteristics of telomerase include (Select all that apply.)
-promoting synthesis of telomere ends. -activity allowing a cell to replicate indefinitely. -contributing to cancer cell immortality.
Functions of T cells include (Select all that apply.)
-secreting cytokines. -stimulating B cells. -killing virally infected cells. -killing antigen-presenting cells.
Characteristics of complement include (Select all that apply.)
-stimulating chemotaxis. -lysing target cells. -having multiple plasma proteins. -enhancing phagocytosis.
Passive immunity is provided by (Select all that apply.)
-transfer of preformed human antibodies. -injection of human immune globulin. -injection with preformed animal antibodies.
Risk of infection is increased in (Select all that apply.)
-use of corticosteroids. -diabetes mellitus. -spleen removal. -stress.
Active immunity involves (Select all that apply.)
-vaccines with dead or altered organisms. -active infections.
Approximately what percentage of the human DNA chromosomes code for proteins?
1%
Which blood pressure reading is considered to be indicative of elevated blood pressure according to the JNC-8 criteria?
128/72
Glycolysis is the metabolic process of breaking down a glucose molecule to form
2 ATP and 2 pyruvate
A patient presents to the provider's office with pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin after taking chloral hydrate a week ago. The patient is most likely between the ages of _____ years.
4-7
Free radical injury can be caused by:
radiation injury
The function of mitochondria is to produce:
ATP to provide energy for cell processes.
What is the function of H1 receptors for histamine on white blood cells?
Activating neutrophils and macrophages
Which form of molecular transport requires energy in the form of ATP?
Active transport
Which one of the following statements correctly describes an end-effect of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system?
Aldosterone increases renal reabsorption of water and sodium.
What is a vesicle?
An intracellular membrane-bound compartment
What is the relationship between cardiac output, blood pressure, and systemic vascular resistance? [CO = cardiac output, BP = blood pressure, SVR = peripheral resistance]
BP = CO × SVR
A middle-aged patient has a follow-up visit for a recorded blood pressure of 162/96 mm Hg taken 3 weeks ago. The patient has no significant past medical history and takes no medications, but smokes 1 1/2 packs of cigarettes per day, drinks alcohol regularly, and exercises infrequently. The patient is about 40 lb. overweight and admits to a high-fat, high-calorie diet. At the office visit today, the patient's blood pressure is 150/92 mm Hg. What is the least appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?
Begin antihypertensive drug therapy.
A diagnostic laboratory finding in myeloma is
Bence Jones proteins in the urine.
Which tissue type is categorized as epithelial?
Blood vessel endothelium
How does a cytotoxic T lymphocyte kill another cell?
By secreting perforins and granzymes
What is the correct definition of complete remission (CR) of leukemia?
CR is less than 5% blasts in marrow and normal CBC values.
In addition to antibodies, which of the following molecules act as opsonins?
Complement proteins
What is a major function of the smooth muscle in an arterial wall?
Constriction and dilation to control peripheral resistance
Opportunistic infections are a hallmark of HIV and AIDS. Which infections are considered opportunistic? (Select all that apply.)
Cytomegalovirus Candida albicans Pneumocystis jirovecii Clostridium difficile
Your patient is scheduled for a staging procedure for cancer. What information does the nurse ensure the patient understands?
It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread.
What information about INR does the nurse understand?
It standardizes extrinsic clotting pathway analysis.
What is the importance of a sequence of three base pairs (a codon) in DNA?
It ultimately determines which amino acid will be placed in a protein.
What information does the nurse misunderstand about mitochondrial DNA?
Mothers transmit mitochondrial DNA to only daughters.
Renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease?
Myeloma
Under normal conditions, which cell accounts for the greatest percentage of the white blood cell count differential?
Neutrophils (PMNs)
What keeps the genetic material in the nucleus?
Nuclear membrane
The disorder characterized by softening and then enlargement of bones is referred to as
Paget disease
Hapten mechanisms are found in which medications? (Select all that apply.)
Penicillin Cephalosporins Tetracycline
The nurse understands that which is the correct description of a Korotkoff sound?
Phase 2: Murmuring or swishing sounds
Transfusion reactions involve RBC destruction caused by
recipient antibodies.
Most muscle strains are caused by
abnormal muscle contraction
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which
acetylcholine receptors are destroyed or dysfunctional.
While in the hospital for management of acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL), a patient develops severe thrombocytopenia. The most appropriate action for this condition is
activity restriction.
In general, the best prognosis for long-term disease-free survival occurs with
acute lymphoid lymphoma (ALL)
The complication which is not likely to result from an open, transverse fracture of the tibia and fibula is
air embolus
Characteristics of X-linked (sex-linked) recessive disorders include
all daughters of affected fathers being carriers.
The most common source of osteomyelitis is
an infection that migrates via the bloodstream.
Metaplasia involves the replacement of normal cells by:
another type of normal cell.
Paraneoplastic syndromes in cancer involve excessive production of substances by multiple means. A common substance found in excessive amounts resulting from cancer paraneoplastic syndromes is
calcium.
Extreme cold injures cells by all the following except
decreased blood viscosity
The primary effect of aging on all body systems is
decreased functional reserve
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) syndrome is an example of a(n)
deficient immune response.
A patient diagnosed with diabetes smokes a pack of cigarettes daily and eats very few green leafy vegetables. After experiencing a fractured toe, this patient is at risk for
delayed healing.
Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they
develop recurrent infections.
Following a bone fracture, the earliest likely event to occur is
development of a blood clot beneath the periosteum.
Apoptosis is the process by which damaged cells:
die by orderly disassembly.
The primary role of genes is to
direct the synthesis of proteins
Antigen-presenting cells function to
display foreign antigen on their cell surfaces bound to MHC.
Widespread activation of the clotting cascade secondary to massive trauma is called
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
The most common method of direct disease transmission is
droplet
The chief function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is:
lipid synthesis and metabolism
The most common site affected in Paget disease is the
lower spine
Cystic fibrosis is a single-gene disorder that primarily affects
lungs and pancreas.
Which of the following are the primary cells of adaptive immunity?
lymphocytes
Which of the following cells are strong phagocytes?
macrophage
Interleukin-1, interleukin-6, and tumor necrosis factor-α are inflammatory cytokines secreted by
macrophages.
Healing of a fractured bone with a poor alignment is called
malunion.
Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions because
massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation.
A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is
mast cells.
The primary factor associated with the risk of Down syndrome is
maternal age
Critically ill patients may have parenterally administered vasoactive drugs that are adjusted according to their _____ pressure.
mean arterial
The precursor cell to the macrophage is the:
monocyte
Drug resistance of microbes occurs secondary to
mutation of the microbe.
Anticholinesterase inhibitors may be used to manage
myasthenia gravis.
The term used to describe fungal infections is
mycoses.
The most common symptom of multiple myeloma is
myeloma
A patient is seen in the clinic for reports of severe back pain. Her chest x-ray demonstrates generalized bone demineralization and compression fracture. Blood studies demonstrate elevated calcium levels. The most likely diagnosis is
myeloma.
The process of covering bacteria with antibodies to promote phagocytosis of the microorganisms is called:
opsonization
A bone disorder that results from insufficient vitamin D is referred to as
osteomalacia
Which disorder usually causes skeletal pain and involves significant bone demineralization from vitamin D deficiency?
osteomalacia
A malignant bone-forming tumor is referred to as a(n)
osteosarcoma
The strength of the bond between oxygen and hemoglobin is known as the
oxygen-hemoglobin affinity.
Patients presenting with symptoms of unstable angina and no ST segment elevation are treated with
percutaneous coronary intervention.
A white blood cell can ingest bacteria or cellular debris through the process of:
phagocytosis.
Which of the following cells produce antibodies?
plasma cells (mature B cells)
What is a thrombocyte?
platelet
The megakaryocyte is a precursor to
platelets.
The goal of long-term heparin for the management of a deep vein thrombosis is to
prevent further clot formation
The risk period for maternal rubella infection leading to congenital problems begins
prior to conception.
Cell membrane receptors are composed of:
proteins
A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is
pulmonary embolus
What assists the venous return from the legs when a person is walking?
pumping of the calf muscles
In adults, hematopoiesis occurs in the bone marrow of all of the following bones except the:
shaft of the femur
The clinical latency period after HIV infection is a time when no
significant symptoms of immunodeficiency occur.
Compartment syndrome occurs secondary to
soft tissue damage
Which one of the following is a secondary lymphoid organ capable of releasing up to 200 mL of blood into the circulation to restore blood volume in the case of hemorrhage?
spleen
The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called
subluxation.
Huntington disease is often transferred to offspring before a parent knows of the genetic possibility of this disease, because
symptoms often do not occur until approximately 40 years of age.
A patient is diagnosed with a tortuous blood vessel of the right hand that bleeds spontaneously. This patient presents with
telangiectasia.
A unique characteristic feature of fibromyalgia is the presence of
tender point pain.
Complete healing of a bone fracture occurs when
the callus has been completely replaced with mature bone.
A fetus is most vulnerable to environmental teratogens during
the first trimester
The hypermetabolic state leading to cachexia in terminal cancer is thought to be because of
tumor necrosis factor.
Which layer of an arterial wall normally contains smooth muscle?
tunica media
Tissues are able to autoregulate their rate of blood flow by controlling
vascular resistance
The primary function of kinins is
vasodilation to enhance inflammation.
Peripheral edema is a result of
venous thrombosis
An example of an acyanotic heart defect is
ventricular septal defect.
Which of the following are correct regarding membrane transport of macromolecules? (Select all that apply.)
-Endocytosis refers to the cellular ingestion of extracellular molecules -Clatharin-mediated endocytosis starts with a pit formation in the plasma membranes -Exocytosis involves packaging substances and secreting them
Viruses differ from most bacteria in that they act in which of the following ways? (Select all that apply.)
-Enter the host cell -Use the host's metabolic processes to survive and replicate -Do not produce toxins
All the following stress-induced hormones increase blood glucose except
aldosterone
GTP-binding proteins (G-proteins) function to
activate intracellular enzyme systems
The cellular component that is most susceptible to radiation injury is the
DNA
Which modes of transmission occur with HIV infection? (Select all that apply.)
Sexual transmission Parenteral transmission Perinatal transmission to fetus
Events which occur during the alarm stage of the stress response include secretion of (Select all that apply.)
-catecholamines -ACTH -glucocorticoids -immune cytokines
The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is
dysplasia
Cell-to-cell communication through secretion of chemical signals into the bloodstream to target cells throughout the body is called _____ signaling
endocrine
The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is
energy and repair
Somatic death refers to death
entire organism
An HIV-positive patient is hospitalized for evaluation of symptoms of progressive weakness, dyspnea, weight loss, and low-grade fever. A biopsy of lung tissue reveals Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. This diagnosis means that the patient
has AIDS
The effect of stress on the immune system
may involve enhancement or impairment the immune system
The organelle that contains enzymes necessary for oxidative phosphorylation to produce ATP is the
mitochondria
As of 2018, _____ individuals worldwide have been infected with HIV infection.
nearly 74 million
Which of the following terms indicates cell death that occurs by severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles?
necrosis
Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in
permanent damage and death
A white blood cell can ingest bacteria or cellular debris through the process of:
phagocytosis
Which of the statements regarding cellular growth and proliferation are true? (Select all that apply.)
-Duplication of DNA occurs in the S phase -There are six stages of the M phase -Proliferation of cells is partly dependent on available space
Infectious injury often results from which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
-Exotoxins -Endotoxins -Self-destruction of cells -Enzymes from white blood cells
Which of the following correctly match intracellular organelles to their functions? (Select all that apply.)
-Nucleus: Holds the cell's genetic material and directs cell activity -Lysosomes: Digests organic waste materials -Mitochondria: Produce cellular energy in the form of ATP
Chronic activation of stress hormones can lead to (Select all that apply.)
-cardiovascular disease -depression -impaired cognitive function -autoimmune disease
Which statement best describes the etiologic development and transmission of AIDS?
AIDS is caused by a retrovirus and transmitted through body fluids.
Why is ongoing synthesis of ATP necessary for cell survival?
ATP provides energy for ion pumping and other cellular processes.
A nurse who works in an assisted living facility is preparing to teach the residents about safe sex practices. What resident criteria should the nurse take into consideration when creating a teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)
Age Ethnicity Culture Sexual preference
HIV infection of T-helper cells is facilitated by attachment of the viral envelope protein gp120 to
CD4 proteins on helper cells.
1 / 1 pts Which drugs are used for the management of HIV? (Select all that apply.)
Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors Protease inhibitors Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Which statement about HIV testing is correct?
Significant exposure to infected blood or body fluids requires HIV testing.
In which type of cells is the CD4 found? (Select all that apply.)
T cells Microglial cells Retinal cells Cervical cells
A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis. This is an example of
primary prevention
Transport channels, receptors, and cell adhesion molecules all are found in cell membranes and they are made primarily of:
proteins
Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except
pupil constriction
The benefit of glycolysis is that this second stage of catabolism supplies
pyruvate to the citric acid cycle
Signaling molecules such as hormones and growth factors influence their target cells by binding to their:
receptors
An obese but otherwise healthy teen is given a prescription for a low-calorie diet and exercise program. This is an example of
secondary prevention
A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of
secondary prevention.
An obese but otherwise healthy teen is given a prescription for a low-calorie diet and exercise program. This is an example of
secondary prevention.
