NAT 503 Final Study Guide Questions

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An effective HIV vaccine is difficult to produce, primarily because

HIV mutates frequently.

Which type of HIV virus causes most infections in the United States and Europe?

HIV type 1

A patient presents to the clinic with flulike symptoms and a rash. The nurse knows that which types of rash are associated with HIV? (Select all that apply.)

Maculopapular Vesicular Urticarial

Movement of water through a membrane that separates two compartments with unequal concentration is called:

osmosis

The chief function of the Golgi apparatus is:

packaging proteins into secretory vesicles

The main principle of the fluid mosaic model is that:

proteins float in a fluid lipid bilayer

The HIV nurse educator teaches a newly diagnosed patient about HIV. The nurse educator tells the patient that in the United States, those at greatest risk of HIV infection include which of the following groups? (Select all that apply.)

Heterosexual women Homosexual men Individuals over age 50

Which is not normally secreted in response to stress?

Insulin

The nurse understands which information about the latent reservoir?

It is a pool of memory cells where HIV can persist.

What are cytokines?

Chemical messengers secreted by immune cells and other cells

Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular

death

In general, with aging, organ size and function

decrease

The cellular response indicative of injury because of faulty metabolism is

intracellular accumulations

All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except

necrosis

The cellular structure that contains DNA is called the:

nucleus

Your patient's red blood cell count is slightly elevated today. This might be explained by (Select all that apply.)

-gender difference -situational factors -normal variation -illness

What are CD4+ T cells?

T helper cells

Which answer describes adaptive immunity?

Each immune cell can respond to only one antigen.

Under aerobic conditions, what process produces most of the energy for the cell?

Oxidative phosphorylation

A patient is preparing for treatment with CAR-T. What statement by the patient indicates good understanding of this process?

"This treatment uses genetically engineered immune system cells."

Which of the following would the nurse instruct the pregnant woman to avoid as teratogens? (Select all that apply.)

-Alcohol -Thalidomide -Zika virus

A patient is diagnosed with stage IIA Hodgkin disease. This patient's clinical stage was most likely determined by (Select all that apply.)

-CT scan. -physical examination. -patient history

Which of the following are characteristics of stem cells? (Select all that apply.)

-Can differentiate into any type of cell. -Have greater capacity to proliferate than more differentiated cells. -Are dependent upon environmental cues for proliferation. -Can die in the absence of an appropriate environment.

Calcium channel blocker drugs are often used to treat conditions associated with which types of muscle or tissue? (Select all that apply.)

-Cardiac muscle -Smooth muscle

Dysplasia is recognized by abnormal changes in which of the following?

-Cell size -Cell shape -Cell organization

Protein synthesis involves which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

-Direction from mRNA -Nucleotide triplets -RNA polymerase -Removal of introns from the DNA template

Which viruses have been implicated as cancer-causing agents? (Select all that apply.)

-Epstein-Barr -Human T-cell leukemia -Human immunodeficiency

A patient is diagnosed with CML (chronic myeloid leukemia). The patient may experience which of these symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

-Fatigue -Weight loss -Abdominal discomfort -Sweats

Manifestations of fibromyalgia often include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

-Generalized pain -Headaches -Fatigue -Sleep disturbance

Characteristics of immunization include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

-Giving injections of preformed antibodies provides immediate immunity. -Herd immunity controls disease without immunizing everyone in the population. -Lack of immunization may lead to an epidemic.

The CDC defines three CD4+ T-cell categories of T cell ranges. Which values are correct? (Select all that apply.)

-In category 1, the CD4+ T-cell count is greater than or equal to 500/mL. -In category 2, the CD4+ T-cell counts range from 200 to 499/mL. -In category 3, the CD4+ T-cell count is less than 200/mL.

Which changes in the circulatory system occur in the older adult? (Select all that apply.)

-Increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR) -Decreased elasticity of vessel walls

What roles does inflammation play in cancer development? (Select all that apply.)

-Initiates carcinogenesis -Causes direct DNA damage -Limits apoptosis -Contributes to angiogenesis

Characteristics of scoliosis include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

-Involvement of lateral curvature of the spine -Increase during periods of rapid growth -Identifiable by uneven shoulders or scapular prominence -Possibility of leading to respiratory complications

Which of the following are characteristics of Marfan syndrome? (Select all that apply.)

-It is a single-gene disorder. -It involves alterations in connective tissue. -It leads to skeletal and joint deformities. -It results in dangerous cardiovascular disorders.

In DNA replication DNA polymerase functions to do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

-Match appropriate bases to the template base -Proofread the newly developed DNA for errors in base pairing

Which clinical findings describe the typical presentation of ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)? (Select all that apply.)

-Painless enlarged cervical lymph nodes -Fever -Pain in long bones

Which viruses are associated with human cancers? (Select all that apply.)

-Papilloma virus -Hepatitis B virus -Epstein Barr virus

Bacteria cause injury to cells by which mechanisms? (Select all that apply.)

-Producing exotoxins -Producing endotoxins -Producing destructive enzymes -Evoking an immune reaction

A patient is diagnosed with stage III non-Hodgkin lymphoma and is preparing to undergo treatment. Which treatments may be used to treat this patient's cancer? (Select all that apply.)

-Radiation -Bone marrow transplant -Chemotherapy -Monoclonal antibody therapy

When determining additional data to gather before making a diagnosis, what factors need to be considered? (Select all that apply.)

-Reliability -Validity

What is a lysosome?

A membrane-bound bag of degradative enzymes within a cell

What is mitosis?

A process of cell division in which each daughter cell has a full set of 46 chromosomes

What is a gene?

A segment of DNA that codes for a protein

What is the cell cycle?

A series of steps through which a cell progresses when it replicates

A 5-year-old patient's parents report loss of appetite and fatigue in their child. The parents also state that the child refuses to walk as a result of pain. The child's most likely diagnosis is

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia).

What are the major components in the nucleus of a cell?

DNA and proteins

How do viruses replicate themselves?

Enter host cells and use host cell chemical processes for replication

Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with

Epstein-Barr virus

What cells are made from precursor cells in bone marrow?

Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes

What does the term cell cycle mean?

Events that occur during cell replication

What is transcription of a gene?

Formation of mRNA from the template of a sequence of DNA

HIV replicates very quickly from the onset of infection. What is the major site of HIV replication?

GI tract

Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease?

HIV/AIDS

Certain autoimmune diseases are associated with the presence of specific proteins on a person's cells. These proteins are called ________ proteins.

HLA or MHC

Which factors are considered intrinsic factors in blood pressure readings? (Select all that apply.)

Heart rate respiratory rate flow dynamics

A male patient involved in a motor vehicle accident is brought to the emergency department with acute flank pain. What additional signs of bleeding may the patient exhibit? (Select all that apply.)

Hematuria Melena Hematemesis Hemoptysis

What is the function of adhesion molecules?

Holding cells together

A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis. This is most likely a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction.

III

The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type

IV

The predominant antibody of a typical allergic response is:

IgE

The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is

IgE

Which clinical finding is most indicative of an acute bacterial infection?

Increased (band) neutrophils

When antigen-antibody complexes are formed in the blood, which of the following processes can occur?

Precipitation of the antigen-antibody complex Phagocytosis of the antigen-antibody complex Neutralization of the antigen

Which disorder is associated with a type III hypersensitivity mechanism of injury?

SLE

What is the major function of TH1 cells?

Secrete cytokines that stimulate cytotoxic T cells, NK cells, and macrophages

A patient who had breast cancer successfully treated 10 years ago now has widespread metastases. She is upset, saying "But the oncologist said I was cured!" What information about cancer does the nurse understand to guide the explanation?

Small areas of metastases can lie dormant only to explode in growth later.

One of the cardinal features of sickle cell anemia includes acute and chronic dysfunction of which organs? (Select all that apply.)

Spleen Bones Brain Lungs

Secondary immune deficiency problems may be caused by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

Surgery High blood sugar Corticosteroids Low protein level

Which disorder is associated with a type III hypersensitivity mechanism of injury? Correct!

Systemic lupus erythematosus

What is the cytosol?

The liquid inside a cell that is not in organelles

The nurse educating a patient on a new diagnosis of non-Hodgkin lymphoma would provide which information in the teaching plan?

There may be gastrointestinal tract involvement.

During protein synthesis, how do the amino acids get connected in the correct order?

They are attached on the ribosomes in the order specified by mRNA.

What is the function of enzymes?

To facilitate chemical reactions

Anaphylaxis may occur in which types of hypersensitivity reactions? (Select all that apply.)

Type I Type II

After degranulation, mast cells release prostaglandins and leukotrienes that perform which of the following functions?

Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

Rickets is characterized by soft, weak bones resulting from a deficiency of

Vitamin D

Males are more likely than females to be affected by ________ disorders.

X-linked

In autocrine signaling:

a cell signals itself.

Mitral stenosis is associated with

a pressure gradient across the mitral valve

An increase in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen occurs with

a shift to the left

RhoGAM is given to an Rh-negative mother in order to prevent

a type III hypersensitivity disorder.

The classical pathway for activation of the complement cascade is triggered by

antigen-antibody complexes.

Arterial baroreceptors are located in the:

aortic arch

The majority of cardiac cells that die after myocardial infarction do so because of

apoptosis

The process of programmed cellular self-destruction is called:

apoptosis

Proto-oncogenes

are normal cellular genes that promote growth.

The two primary locations of active ribosomes in a cell are:

attached to endoplasmic reticulum and free in cytoplasm.

Blood flow throughout the periphery is regulated by

autonomic nervous system

The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene called

bcr-abl.

Characteristics of smooth muscle include

being found in blood vessels.

Most carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream as

bicarbonate ion

Red blood cell lysis in the spleen yields which one of the following products?

bilirubin

Excessive red cell lysis can be detected by measuring the serum

bilirubin.

Growth factors influence a cell by:

binding to receptors.

People who have osteoporosis are at risk for

bone fractures

Where are neutrophils produced and stored in the body?

bone marrow

A Type I open fracture is best described as a bone that is

broken and protruding through the skin.

Inflammation of the sacs that overlie bony prominences is called

bursitis

Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as

carcniomas

An important difference between skeletal and cardiac muscle is that

cardiac muscle has calcium channels on the cell surface for calcium entry.

Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds are classic manifestations of

cardiac tamponade

Cancer grading is based on

cell differentiation

Velocity of blood flow is measured in

centimeters per second

Pain in fibromyalgia involves

changes in pain transmission in the spinal cord.

A cause of thrombocytopenia includes

chemotherapy

Your patient eats "lots of fat," leads a "stressful" life, and has smoked "about two packs a day for the last 40 years." The patient reports recent worsening of the chronic morning cough and a recent diagnosis of a lung mass. The most likely contributing factor for development of lung cancer in this patient is

cigarette smoking

Which of the following proteins is not a normal component of plasma?

collagen

A fracture in which bone breaks into two or more fragments is referred to as

comminuted

Patent ductus arteriosus is accurately described as a(n)

communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery.

The primary function of the nucleus is to:

contain genetic information and regulate cell division.

Which is a characteristic of some bacteria?

contains cell wall endotoxin

After being diagnosed with hypertension, a patient returns to the clinic 6 weeks later. The patient reports "moderate" adherence to the recommended lifestyle changes and has experienced a decreased from 165/96 to 148/90 mm Hg in blood pressure. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?

continue lifestyle modifications only

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors block the

conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

The parents of a child with PKU are concerned about the risk of transmitting the disorder in future pregnancies. The correct assessment of the risk is

each child has a 25% chance of being affected.

A risk factor for osteoporosis is

early menopause

Repolarization of a neuron after a depolarizing action potential is because of

efflux of potassium

Leukocytosis with a "shift to the left" refers to

elevated immature neutrophils.

An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed

endemic

Which tissue forms the internal lining of blood vessels?

endothelium

In older women, osteoporosis is thought to be primarily because of

estrogen deficiency

The differences in structure and function of cells in different body tissues result from

expression of tissue-specific genes.

Plasma membrane receptors are available to bind to:

extracellular chemicals.

The prothrombin time (PT) and INR (international normalized ratio) measure the integrity of

extrinsic pathway

Which end of an antibody binds to an antigen?

fab

Information parents should be given about the consequences of PKU includes

failure to avoid phenylalanine results in progressive cognitive impairment.

Which one of the following molecules forms a meshwork that stabilizes the platelet plug during hemostasis?

fibrin

When plasmin degrades fibrin during the fibrinolytic process, what is (are) the by-product(s) called?

fibrin degradation products

The conversion of plasminogen to plasmin results in

fibrinolysis

The spleen is an important defense against infection, because it

filters the blood

Red blood cells obtain nearly all their energy from metabolism of

glucose

Which one of these cellular processes can operate without oxygen?

glycolysis

A patient is diagnosed with hairy cell leukemia. The patient's laboratory results would most likely indicate a decrease in (Select all that apply.)

granulocytes. platelets. red blood cells.

A naive B cell is a B lymphocyte that:

has not been presented with an antigen.

Red blood cells differ from other cell types in the body because they

have no cytoplasmic organelles.

The most common type of osteomyelitis is

hematogenous.

Which condition is associated with an elevated reticulocyte count?

hemolytic anemia

An important mediator of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is

histamine

When a patient is struck in the eye by a baseball, the result is redness and swelling. This increase in blood flow to a localized area is called

hyperemia.

A patient presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132 mm Hg, retinopathy, and symptoms of an ischemic stroke. This symptomology is likely the result of

hypertensive crisis

An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed

hypertrophy

Which electrolyte imbalance may lead to clotting disorders?

hypocalcemia

A patient has a history of falls, syncope, dizziness, and blurred vision. The patient's symptomology is most likely related to

hypotension

Myasthenia gravis is a type II hypersensitivity disorder that involves

impaired muscle function.

Immune function is likely to be most effective in a

in a 30-year old

The pathophysiology of osteomalacia involves

inadequate mineralization in the osteoid.

The effects of histamine release include

increased vascular permeability.

The major cause of death from leukemic disease is

infection

The patient diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) must undergo several weeks of chemotherapy. The most serious complication of chemotherapy is

infection

Assessment of an extremity six hours after surgical alignment and casting demonstrates pulselessness and pallor. The priority action to take is to

initiate action to have the cast split or removed.

Clinical manifestations of chronic arterial obstruction to the lower extremities include

intermittent claudication

Reperfusion injury to cells

involves formation of free radicals

What is necessary for red blood cell production?

iron

Which of the following is the most important mineral required for erythropoiesis?

iron

A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) are characteristic of which type of anemia?

iron deficiency

Which characteristic is indicative of hemolytic anemia?

jaundice

The primary function of eosinophils is to

kill parasitic helminths (worms).

After surgery to remove a lung tumor, your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will

kill rapidly dividing cells.

A patient has been exposed to meningococcal meningitis, but is not yet demonstrating signs of this disease. This stage of illness is called the _____ stage.

latent

The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in

non-hispanic black adults

Pain with passive stretching of a muscle is indicative of

noncontractile tissue injury.

Hypertension is closely linked to

obstructive sleep apnea

Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene

occurs at an earlier age.

Hypertension with a specific, identifiable cause is known as _____ hypertension.

secondary

The most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is

selective IgA.

Metaplasia is

replacement of one differentiated cell type with another

Where are proteins synthesized in a cell?

ribosomes

The disease that is similar to osteomalacia and occurs in growing children is

rickets

Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation?

thrombocytopenia

Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by

tissue thromboplastin

What is the major function of TH2 cells?

The major function of TH2 cells is to secrete cytokines that stimulate antibody production and activate eosinophils.

An increase in extracellular potassium ion from 4.0 to 6.0 mEq/L would

hypopolarize the resting membrane potential

The immune system disorder associated with HIV is

deficiency of T-helper lymphocytes.

Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces _____ necrosis.

liquefactive

What type of a cell is a T cell?

lymphocyte

Aldosterone may increase during stress, leading to (Select all that apply.)

-decreased urinary output -increased sodium retention -increased blood volume

Socioeconomic factors influence disease development because of (Select all that apply.)

-environmental toxins -overcrowding -nutrition -hygiene

Which HIV-positive patient should be given a diagnosis of AIDS?

One who has Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A patient is infected with HIV. The patient may have contracted HIV transmitted via which routes? (Select all that apply.)

Semen Cervical secretions

Selye's three phases of the stress response include all the following except

allostasis

Phospholipids spontaneously form lipid bilayers because they are

amphipathic

The process of programmed cell self-destruction is called:

apoptosis

What is a cytoskeleton?

A protein network inside a cell

C.Q. was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection. His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3°F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. He complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of C.Q.'s disease is

streptococcal infection

The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is referred to as

subclinical

The effects of excessive cortisol production include

suppressed immune function

Ion channels open and close in response to all the following except

temperature changes

After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication. This is an example of

tertiary prevention.

Allostasis is best defined as

the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and well-being

The resting membrane potential in nerve and skeletal muscle is determined primarily by

the ratio of intracellular to extracellular potassium ions

A patient receiving zidovudine and a protease inhibitor to manage HIV infection is found to have an undetectable viral load. This means that the

therapy is effective.

Excitable cells are able to conduct action potentials because they have

voltage-gated channels.

HIV infection causes immunodeficiency because it

causes the destruction of T-helper cells.

Carbon monoxide injures cells by

reducing oxygen level on hemoglobin

Which of the following terms indicates cell death that occurs by severe cell swelling and the breakdown of organelles?

necrosis

Huntington disease primarily affects the _____ system.

neurological

What are polymorphonucleocytes?

neutrophils

Bone healing may be impaired by

nicotine use

Which of the following statements are accurate when considering diagnostic testing for an individual with a possible medical condition? (Select all that apply.)

-Sensitivity is the chance the test will be positive if the hypothesized disease is present -Specificity shows that a test will be negative if the person does not have the disease

Characteristics of cellular differentiation include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

-Specialization for different functions -influenced by memory of developmental events -Dependent on cell-to-cell coordination -Generally not reversible

Acute coronary syndrome in the presence of thrombosis may present with which manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

-Unstable angina -MI -Sudden cardiac arrest

The patient is a 12-year-old boy with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Manifestations of the patient's leukemia prior to treatment may include (Select all that apply.)

-anemia. -leukocytosis. -thrombocytopenia.

Side effects of chemotherapy include (Select all that apply.)

-anemia. -nausea. -infections.

Functions of antibodies include (Select all that apply.)

-antigen agglutination. -antigen precipitation. -opsonization. -complement activation.

Deficits in immune system function occur in cancer as a result of (Select all that apply.)

-chemotherapy. -cancer cells. -cancer metastasis to bone marrow. -malnutrition.

Activation of the complement cascade results in (Select all that apply.)

-inflammation -chemotaxis

A patient is diagnosed with myeloma. The nurse teaches the patient about the multiple tumor sites that can develop with this cancer. The possible tumor sites in myeloma include the (Select all that apply.)

-liver. -spleen -bones -kidneys

The mononuclear phagocyte system consists of (Select all that apply.)

-monocytes. -dendritic cells. -tissue macrophages

Dietary zinc is an important defense against infection because it maintains (Select all that apply.)

-natural killer cell function. -lymphocyte activity. -neutrophil activity. -complement activity.

Characteristics of telomerase include (Select all that apply.)

-promoting synthesis of telomere ends. -activity allowing a cell to replicate indefinitely. -contributing to cancer cell immortality.

Functions of T cells include (Select all that apply.)

-secreting cytokines. -stimulating B cells. -killing virally infected cells. -killing antigen-presenting cells.

Characteristics of complement include (Select all that apply.)

-stimulating chemotaxis. -lysing target cells. -having multiple plasma proteins. -enhancing phagocytosis.

Passive immunity is provided by (Select all that apply.)

-transfer of preformed human antibodies. -injection of human immune globulin. -injection with preformed animal antibodies.

Risk of infection is increased in (Select all that apply.)

-use of corticosteroids. -diabetes mellitus. -spleen removal. -stress.

Active immunity involves (Select all that apply.)

-vaccines with dead or altered organisms. -active infections.

Approximately what percentage of the human DNA chromosomes code for proteins?

1%

Which blood pressure reading is considered to be indicative of elevated blood pressure according to the JNC-8 criteria?

128/72

Glycolysis is the metabolic process of breaking down a glucose molecule to form

2 ATP and 2 pyruvate

A patient presents to the provider's office with pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin after taking chloral hydrate a week ago. The patient is most likely between the ages of _____ years.

4-7

Free radical injury can be caused by:

radiation injury

The function of mitochondria is to produce:

ATP to provide energy for cell processes.

What is the function of H1 receptors for histamine on white blood cells?

Activating neutrophils and macrophages

Which form of molecular transport requires energy in the form of ATP?

Active transport

Which one of the following statements correctly describes an end-effect of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system?

Aldosterone increases renal reabsorption of water and sodium.

What is a vesicle?

An intracellular membrane-bound compartment

What is the relationship between cardiac output, blood pressure, and systemic vascular resistance? [CO = cardiac output, BP = blood pressure, SVR = peripheral resistance]

BP = CO × SVR

A middle-aged patient has a follow-up visit for a recorded blood pressure of 162/96 mm Hg taken 3 weeks ago. The patient has no significant past medical history and takes no medications, but smokes 1 1/2 packs of cigarettes per day, drinks alcohol regularly, and exercises infrequently. The patient is about 40 lb. overweight and admits to a high-fat, high-calorie diet. At the office visit today, the patient's blood pressure is 150/92 mm Hg. What is the least appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?

Begin antihypertensive drug therapy.

A diagnostic laboratory finding in myeloma is

Bence Jones proteins in the urine.

Which tissue type is categorized as epithelial?

Blood vessel endothelium

How does a cytotoxic T lymphocyte kill another cell?

By secreting perforins and granzymes

What is the correct definition of complete remission (CR) of leukemia?

CR is less than 5% blasts in marrow and normal CBC values.

In addition to antibodies, which of the following molecules act as opsonins?

Complement proteins

What is a major function of the smooth muscle in an arterial wall?

Constriction and dilation to control peripheral resistance

Opportunistic infections are a hallmark of HIV and AIDS. Which infections are considered opportunistic? (Select all that apply.)

Cytomegalovirus Candida albicans Pneumocystis jirovecii Clostridium difficile

Your patient is scheduled for a staging procedure for cancer. What information does the nurse ensure the patient understands?

It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread.

What information about INR does the nurse understand?

It standardizes extrinsic clotting pathway analysis.

What is the importance of a sequence of three base pairs (a codon) in DNA?

It ultimately determines which amino acid will be placed in a protein.

What information does the nurse misunderstand about mitochondrial DNA?

Mothers transmit mitochondrial DNA to only daughters.

Renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease?

Myeloma

Under normal conditions, which cell accounts for the greatest percentage of the white blood cell count differential?

Neutrophils (PMNs)

What keeps the genetic material in the nucleus?

Nuclear membrane

The disorder characterized by softening and then enlargement of bones is referred to as

Paget disease

Hapten mechanisms are found in which medications? (Select all that apply.)

Penicillin Cephalosporins Tetracycline

The nurse understands that which is the correct description of a Korotkoff sound?

Phase 2: Murmuring or swishing sounds

Transfusion reactions involve RBC destruction caused by

recipient antibodies.

Most muscle strains are caused by

abnormal muscle contraction

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which

acetylcholine receptors are destroyed or dysfunctional.

While in the hospital for management of acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL), a patient develops severe thrombocytopenia. The most appropriate action for this condition is

activity restriction.

In general, the best prognosis for long-term disease-free survival occurs with

acute lymphoid lymphoma (ALL)

The complication which is not likely to result from an open, transverse fracture of the tibia and fibula is

air embolus

Characteristics of X-linked (sex-linked) recessive disorders include

all daughters of affected fathers being carriers.

The most common source of osteomyelitis is

an infection that migrates via the bloodstream.

Metaplasia involves the replacement of normal cells by:

another type of normal cell.

Paraneoplastic syndromes in cancer involve excessive production of substances by multiple means. A common substance found in excessive amounts resulting from cancer paraneoplastic syndromes is

calcium.

Extreme cold injures cells by all the following except

decreased blood viscosity

The primary effect of aging on all body systems is

decreased functional reserve

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) syndrome is an example of a(n)

deficient immune response.

A patient diagnosed with diabetes smokes a pack of cigarettes daily and eats very few green leafy vegetables. After experiencing a fractured toe, this patient is at risk for

delayed healing.

Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they

develop recurrent infections.

Following a bone fracture, the earliest likely event to occur is

development of a blood clot beneath the periosteum.

Apoptosis is the process by which damaged cells:

die by orderly disassembly.

The primary role of genes is to

direct the synthesis of proteins

Antigen-presenting cells function to

display foreign antigen on their cell surfaces bound to MHC.

Widespread activation of the clotting cascade secondary to massive trauma is called

disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

The most common method of direct disease transmission is

droplet

The chief function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is:

lipid synthesis and metabolism

The most common site affected in Paget disease is the

lower spine

Cystic fibrosis is a single-gene disorder that primarily affects

lungs and pancreas.

Which of the following are the primary cells of adaptive immunity?

lymphocytes

Which of the following cells are strong phagocytes?

macrophage

Interleukin-1, interleukin-6, and tumor necrosis factor-α are inflammatory cytokines secreted by

macrophages.

Healing of a fractured bone with a poor alignment is called

malunion.

Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions because

massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation.

A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is

mast cells.

The primary factor associated with the risk of Down syndrome is

maternal age

Critically ill patients may have parenterally administered vasoactive drugs that are adjusted according to their _____ pressure.

mean arterial

The precursor cell to the macrophage is the:

monocyte

Drug resistance of microbes occurs secondary to

mutation of the microbe.

Anticholinesterase inhibitors may be used to manage

myasthenia gravis.

The term used to describe fungal infections is

mycoses.

The most common symptom of multiple myeloma is

myeloma

A patient is seen in the clinic for reports of severe back pain. Her chest x-ray demonstrates generalized bone demineralization and compression fracture. Blood studies demonstrate elevated calcium levels. The most likely diagnosis is

myeloma.

The process of covering bacteria with antibodies to promote phagocytosis of the microorganisms is called:

opsonization

A bone disorder that results from insufficient vitamin D is referred to as

osteomalacia

Which disorder usually causes skeletal pain and involves significant bone demineralization from vitamin D deficiency?

osteomalacia

A malignant bone-forming tumor is referred to as a(n)

osteosarcoma

The strength of the bond between oxygen and hemoglobin is known as the

oxygen-hemoglobin affinity.

Patients presenting with symptoms of unstable angina and no ST segment elevation are treated with

percutaneous coronary intervention.

A white blood cell can ingest bacteria or cellular debris through the process of:

phagocytosis.

Which of the following cells produce antibodies?

plasma cells (mature B cells)

What is a thrombocyte?

platelet

The megakaryocyte is a precursor to

platelets.

The goal of long-term heparin for the management of a deep vein thrombosis is to

prevent further clot formation

The risk period for maternal rubella infection leading to congenital problems begins

prior to conception.

Cell membrane receptors are composed of:

proteins

A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is

pulmonary embolus

What assists the venous return from the legs when a person is walking?

pumping of the calf muscles

In adults, hematopoiesis occurs in the bone marrow of all of the following bones except the:

shaft of the femur

The clinical latency period after HIV infection is a time when no

significant symptoms of immunodeficiency occur.

Compartment syndrome occurs secondary to

soft tissue damage

Which one of the following is a secondary lymphoid organ capable of releasing up to 200 mL of blood into the circulation to restore blood volume in the case of hemorrhage?

spleen

The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called

subluxation.

Huntington disease is often transferred to offspring before a parent knows of the genetic possibility of this disease, because

symptoms often do not occur until approximately 40 years of age.

A patient is diagnosed with a tortuous blood vessel of the right hand that bleeds spontaneously. This patient presents with

telangiectasia.

A unique characteristic feature of fibromyalgia is the presence of

tender point pain.

Complete healing of a bone fracture occurs when

the callus has been completely replaced with mature bone.

A fetus is most vulnerable to environmental teratogens during

the first trimester

The hypermetabolic state leading to cachexia in terminal cancer is thought to be because of

tumor necrosis factor.

Which layer of an arterial wall normally contains smooth muscle?

tunica media

Tissues are able to autoregulate their rate of blood flow by controlling

vascular resistance

The primary function of kinins is

vasodilation to enhance inflammation.

Peripheral edema is a result of

venous thrombosis

An example of an acyanotic heart defect is

ventricular septal defect.

Which of the following are correct regarding membrane transport of macromolecules? (Select all that apply.)

-Endocytosis refers to the cellular ingestion of extracellular molecules -Clatharin-mediated endocytosis starts with a pit formation in the plasma membranes -Exocytosis involves packaging substances and secreting them

Viruses differ from most bacteria in that they act in which of the following ways? (Select all that apply.)

-Enter the host cell -Use the host's metabolic processes to survive and replicate -Do not produce toxins

All the following stress-induced hormones increase blood glucose except

aldosterone

GTP-binding proteins (G-proteins) function to

activate intracellular enzyme systems

The cellular component that is most susceptible to radiation injury is the

DNA

Which modes of transmission occur with HIV infection? (Select all that apply.)

Sexual transmission Parenteral transmission Perinatal transmission to fetus

Events which occur during the alarm stage of the stress response include secretion of (Select all that apply.)

-catecholamines -ACTH -glucocorticoids -immune cytokines

The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is

dysplasia

Cell-to-cell communication through secretion of chemical signals into the bloodstream to target cells throughout the body is called _____ signaling

endocrine

The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is

energy and repair

Somatic death refers to death

entire organism

An HIV-positive patient is hospitalized for evaluation of symptoms of progressive weakness, dyspnea, weight loss, and low-grade fever. A biopsy of lung tissue reveals Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. This diagnosis means that the patient

has AIDS

The effect of stress on the immune system

may involve enhancement or impairment the immune system

The organelle that contains enzymes necessary for oxidative phosphorylation to produce ATP is the

mitochondria

As of 2018, _____ individuals worldwide have been infected with HIV infection.

nearly 74 million

Which of the following terms indicates cell death that occurs by severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles?

necrosis

Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in

permanent damage and death

A white blood cell can ingest bacteria or cellular debris through the process of:

phagocytosis

Which of the statements regarding cellular growth and proliferation are true? (Select all that apply.)

-Duplication of DNA occurs in the S phase -There are six stages of the M phase -Proliferation of cells is partly dependent on available space

Infectious injury often results from which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

-Exotoxins -Endotoxins -Self-destruction of cells -Enzymes from white blood cells

Which of the following correctly match intracellular organelles to their functions? (Select all that apply.)

-Nucleus: Holds the cell's genetic material and directs cell activity -Lysosomes: Digests organic waste materials -Mitochondria: Produce cellular energy in the form of ATP

Chronic activation of stress hormones can lead to (Select all that apply.)

-cardiovascular disease -depression -impaired cognitive function -autoimmune disease

Which statement best describes the etiologic development and transmission of AIDS?

AIDS is caused by a retrovirus and transmitted through body fluids.

Why is ongoing synthesis of ATP necessary for cell survival?

ATP provides energy for ion pumping and other cellular processes.

A nurse who works in an assisted living facility is preparing to teach the residents about safe sex practices. What resident criteria should the nurse take into consideration when creating a teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)

Age Ethnicity Culture Sexual preference

HIV infection of T-helper cells is facilitated by attachment of the viral envelope protein gp120 to

CD4 proteins on helper cells.

1 / 1 pts Which drugs are used for the management of HIV? (Select all that apply.)

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors Protease inhibitors Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

Which statement about HIV testing is correct?

Significant exposure to infected blood or body fluids requires HIV testing.

In which type of cells is the CD4 found? (Select all that apply.)

T cells Microglial cells Retinal cells Cervical cells

A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis. This is an example of

primary prevention

Transport channels, receptors, and cell adhesion molecules all are found in cell membranes and they are made primarily of:

proteins

Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except

pupil constriction

The benefit of glycolysis is that this second stage of catabolism supplies

pyruvate to the citric acid cycle

Signaling molecules such as hormones and growth factors influence their target cells by binding to their:

receptors

An obese but otherwise healthy teen is given a prescription for a low-calorie diet and exercise program. This is an example of

secondary prevention

A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of

secondary prevention.

An obese but otherwise healthy teen is given a prescription for a low-calorie diet and exercise program. This is an example of

secondary prevention.


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