NCLEX #701-750
NO.719 A 32-year-old mother of two was brought to the hospital by her husband. He reported that his wife could no longer manage the house and children. She does not sleep and talks day and night. She has purchased some very expensive clothes. The nurse noted that the client speaks rapidly and changes the subject irrationally. This is an example of: A. Flight of ideas B. Delusions C. Hallucinations D. Echolalia
Answer: A Explanation: (A) Rapidly moving from one topic to another without following any logical sequence is called flight of ideas. (B) False beliefs are delusions. (C) False sensory perceptions are hallucinations ("hearing voices"). (D) Repeating words is called echolalia.
NO.749 A 2-year-old child is recovering from surgery. Considering growth and development according to Erikson, the nurse identifies which of the following play activities as most appropriate? A. Assembling a puzzle with large pieces B. Being taken for a wheelchair ride C. Listening to a story about the Muppets D. Watching Sesame Street on television
Answer: A Explanation: (A) A 2-year-old child is in the stage of autonomy, according to Erikson. Assembling a puzzle with large pieces enables her to "do it herself." (B) A wheelchair ride would probably be fun, but it is not directed toward helping the child to achieve autonomy. (C) Listening to a story may be fun and educational, but it is not directed toward helping the child to achieve autonomy. (D) Watching television may be a favorite activity, but it does not foster autonomy.
NO.711 A 26-year-old client is diagnosed with an astrocytoma, a benign brain tumor. From the nurse's knowledge of the central nervous system, the nurse knows that benign tumors: A. Can be just as dangerous as malignant tumors B. Grow more rapidly than malignant tumors C. Do not warrant concern because they do not become malignant tumors D. Can be removed surgically
Answer: A Explanation: (A) Both a benign and a malignant tumor can displace or destroy nearby structures or increase intracranial pressure. (B) Benign or malignant brain tumors grow at different rates depending on the type of tumor. (C) Some benign tumors do become malignant tumors. (D) Whether or not a tumor is operable depends on its location and the amount of damage its removal will cause.
NO.745 A 3-year-old child is in the burn unit following a home accident. The first sign of sepsis in burned children is: A. Disorientation B. Low-grade fever C. Diarrhea D. Hypertension
Answer: A Explanation: (A) Disorientation is the first sign of sepsis in burn children. (B) Low-grade fever is not indicative of sepsis. (C) Diarrhea is not indicative of sepsis. (D) Hypertension is not indicative of sepsis.
NO.722 Which of the following would the nurse expect to find following respiratory assessment of a client with advanced emphysema? A. Distant breath sounds B. Increased heart sounds C. Decreased anteroposterior chest diameter D. Collapsed neck veins
Answer: A Explanation: (A) Distant breath sounds are found in clients with emphysema owing to increased anteroposterior chest diameter, overdistention, and air trapping. (B) Deceased heart sounds arepresent because of the increased anteroposterior chest diameter. (C) A barrel-shaped chest is characteristic of emphysema. (D) Increased distention of neck veins is found owing to right-sided heart failure, which may be present in advanced emphysema.
NO.710 The medication that best penetrates eschar is: A. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) B. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) C. Neomycin sulfate (Neosporin) D. Povidone-iodine (Betadine)
Answer: A Explanation: (A) Mafenide acetate is bacteriostatic against gram-positive and gram-negative organisms and is the agent that best penetrates eschar. (B) Silver sulfadiazine poorly penetrates eschar. (C) Neomycin sulfate does not penetrate eschar. (D) Povidoneiodine does not penetrate eschar.
NO.712 The physician of a client diagnosed with alcoholism orders neomycin 0.5 g q6h to prevent hepatic coma. Neomycin decreases serum ammonia levels by: A. Decreasing nitrogen-forming bacteria in the intestines B. Acidifying colon contents by causing ammonia retention in the colon C. Decreasing the uptake of vitamin D, thereby drawing more water into the colon D. Irritating the bowel and promoting evacuation of stool
Answer: A Explanation: (A) Neomycin interferes with protein synthesis in the bacterial cell, causing bacterial death. Neomycin reduces the growth of the ammonia-producing bacteria in the intestines and is used for the treatment of hepatic coma. (B) This choice describes the action of lactulose, another drug commonly used to decrease systemic ammonia levels. (C) Neomycin's action doesnotdecrease uptake of vitamin D to reduce serum ammonia levels. (D) Bowel irritation with diarrhea is more likely to occur with administration of lactulose rather than of neomycin. Besides, diarrhea is a side effect of a drug, not the action of the drug.
NO.738 The nurse would assess the client's correct understanding of the fertility awareness methods that enhance conception, if the client stated that: A. "My sexual partner and I should have intercourse when my cervical mucosa is thick and cloudy." B. "At ovulation, my basal body temperature should rise about 0.5F." C. "I should douche immediately after intercourse." D. "My sexual partner and I should have sexual intercourse on day 14 of my cycle regardless of the length of the cycle."
Answer: B Explanation: (A) At ovulation, the cervical mucus is increased, stretchable, and watery clear. (B) Under the influence of progesterone, the basal body temperature increases slightly after ovulation. (C) To enhance fertility, measures should be taken that promote retention of sperm rather than removal. (D) Ovulation, the optimal time for conception, occurs 14+2 days before the next menses; therefore, the date of ovulation is directly related to the length of the menstrual cycle.
NO.725 The nurse is in the hallway and one of the visitors faints. The nurse should: A. Sit the victim up and lightly slap his face B. Elevate the victim's legs C. Apply a cool cloth to the victim's neck and forehead until he recovers D. Sit the victim up and place the head between the knees
Answer: B Explanation: (A) Sitting the client up defeats the goal of re-establishing cerebral blood flow. (B) Elevating the legs anatomically redirects blood flow to the cerebral area. (C) This strategy is a nice general comfort measure after the victim has regained consciousness. (D) This strategy is not as effective a strategy in helping the client to regain consciousness as elevating the legs.
NO.727 A 4-year-old child has Down syndrome. The community health nurse has coordinated a special preschool program. The nurse's primary goal is to: A. Provide respite care for the mother B. Facilitate optimal development C. Provide a demanding and challenging educational program D. Prepare child to enter mainstream education
Answer: B Explanation: (A) Respite care for the family may be needed, but it is not the primary goal of a preschool program. (B) Facilitation of optimal growth and development is essential for every child. (C) A demanding and challenging educational program may predispose the child to failure. Children with retardation should begin with simple and challenging educational programs. (D) Mental retardation associated with Down syndrome may not permit mainstream education. A preschoolprogram's primary goal is not preparation for mainstream education but continuation of optimal development.
NO.718 Degenerative disorders are attributed to many factors. As a nurse assigned to a convalescent home, one must often educate families about how such conditions occur. Which of the following statements might the nurse need to explore when a daughter tries to explain to her mother what caused her degenerative disorder? A. "Some folks believe that aging causes this, Mother." B. "Perhaps, it's the way your parents used those double- bind messages, Mother." C. "I know some people who are having this problem and they were exposed to chemicals at work, Mother." D. "It can be caused by lots of things, toxic agents and even alcohol, Mother."
Answer: B Explanation: (A) Aging is a factor in the cause of degenerative disorders. (B) Double-bind messages may be found in the histories of families of individuals who develop schizophrenia, but they are not related to degenerative disorders. (C) Chemicals (toxic agents) in work environments are predisposing factors to degenerative disorders. (D) Alcohol causes some degenerative disorders, such as Wernicke's syndrome.
NO.706 A type I diabetic client delivers a male newborn. The newborn is 45 minutes old. What is the primary nursing goal in the nursery during the first hours for this newborn? A. Bonding B. Maintain normal blood sugar C. Maintain normal nutrition D. Monitor intake and output
Answer: B Explanation: (A) Bonding is necessary but would not be the priority with this newborn in the nursery. (B) The infant will be at risk for hypoglycemia because of excess insulin production. (C) Normal nutrition is a goal for all newborns. (D) Monitoring intake and output is necessary but is not the most critical nursing goal.
NO.726 A 35-year-old primigravida comes to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. The midwife, on examining the client, suspects that she is approximately 11 weeks pregnant. The pregnancy is positively confirmed by finding: A. Chadwick's sign B. FHR by ultrasound C. Enlargement of the uterus D. Breast tenderness and enlargement
Answer: B Explanation: (A) Chadwick's sign is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. The coloration may not subside from past pregnancy or could be caused by other situations that create vasocongestion. (B) FHR (movement) observed on ultrasound is a positive diagnosis of pregnancy. (C) Enlargement of the uterus may be due to fibroids or infection. It is considered a probable sign. (D) Breast tenderness and enlargement is a presumptive sign because it may be due to other conditions, such as premenstrual changes.
NO.723 A client with a C-3-4 fracture has just arrived in the emergency room. The primary nursing intervention is: A. Stabilization of the cervical spine B. Airway assessment and stabilization C. Confirmation of spinal cord injury D. Normalization of intravascular volume
Answer: B Explanation: (A) If cervical spine injury is suspected, the airway should be maintained using the jaw thrust method that also protects the cervical spine. (B) Primary intervention is protection of the airway and adequate ventilation. (C, D) All other interventions are secondary to adequate ventilation.
NO.724 A 66-year-old female client has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes per day for 20 years. Her arterial blood gases on room air are as follows: pH 7.35; PO2 70 mm Hg; PCO2 55 mm Hg; HCO3 32 mEq/L. These blood gases reflect: A. Compensated metabolic acidosis B. Compensated respiratory acidosis C. Compensated respiratory alkalosis D. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
Answer: B Explanation: (A) In compensated metabolic acidosis, the pH level is normal, the PCO2level is decreased, and the HCO3level is decreased. The client's primary alteration is an inability to remove excess acid via the kidneys. The lungs compensate by hyperventilating and decreasing PCO2. (B) In compensated respiratory acidosis, the pH level is normal, the PCO2level is elevated, and the HCO3level is elevated. The client's primary alteration is an inability to remove CO2from the lungs, so over time, the kidneys increase reabsorption of HCO3to buffer the CO2. (C) In compensated respiratory alkalosis, the pH level is normal, the PCO2level is decreased, and the HCO3level is decreased. The client's primary alteration is hyperventilation, which decreases PCO2. The client compensates by increasing the excretion of HCO3from the body. (D) In uncompensated respiratory acidosis, the pH level is decreased, the PCO2level is increased, and the HCO3level is normal. The client's primary alteration is an inability to remove CO2from the lungs. The kidneys have not compensated by increasing HCO3reabsorption.
NO.744 In planning daily care for a client with multiple sclerosis, the nurse would take into consideration that multiple sclerosis: A. Becomes progressively debilitating without remission B. Has unpredictable remissions and exacerbations C. Is rapidly fatal D. Responds quickly to antimicrobial therapy
Answer: B Explanation: (A) Multiple sclerosis eventually becomes debilitating, but it is characterized by remission of symptoms. (B) Remissions and exacerbations are unpredictable with multiple sclerosis. The client experiences progressive dysfunction after each exacerbation episode. (C) Multiple sclerosis is usually slowly progressive. (D) Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease. Antimicrobial therapy has no effect on its course.
NO.708 A client admitted with a diagnosis of possible myocardial infarction is admitted to the unit from the emergency room. The nurse's first action when admitting the client will be to: A. Obtain vital signs B. Connect the client to the cardiac monitor C. Ask the client if he is still having chest pain D. Complete the history profile
Answer: B Explanation: (A) Obtaining vital signs is important after connecting the client to the monitor because vital signs should be stable before the client is discharged from the emergency room. (B) All are important, but the first priority is to monitor the client's rhythm. (C) If the client is in severe pain, pain medication should be given after connecting him to the monitor and obtaining vital signs. (D) Completion of the history profile is the least important of the nursing actions.
NO.739 Following a bicycle accident, a 12-year-old client sustained a complete fracture of the left femur. He was placed in 90-90 skeletal traction with a pin in the distal end of the femur to achieve realignment and immobilization of the left femur. When providing nursing care, it is important for the nurse to remember that: A. The nurse may lift only the weights that are applying traction in order to reposition him in bed B. The client will need special skin care at the pin site according to hospital policy or the physician's preference C. The traction pull should result in an immediate increase in comfort and reduce the need for pain medication D. The client should be discouraged from participating in self-care activities to avoid the risk of disrupting the traction
Answer: B Explanation: (A) Skeletal traction, including the weights that are applying the traction, is never released by the nurse. (B) It is necessary to keep the pin site clean and free from infection. (C) When first placed in traction, the client may experience increased discomfort as a result of the traction pull fatiguing the muscle. (D) When the child in traction is allowed to participate in his care, it gives him a measure of control and helps him to cope with the situation.
NO.709 A client has renal failure. Today's lab values indicate he has an elevated serum potassium. What additional priority information does the nurse need to obtain? A. Evaluation of his level of consciousness B. Evaluation of an electrocardiogram C. Measurement of his urine output for the past 8 hours D. Serum potassium lab values for the last several days
Answer: B Explanation: (A) The level of consciousness is not affected by elevated potassium levels. (B) An electrocardiogram (EKG) can tell the nurse whether this client is experiencing any cardiac dysfunction or arrhythmias related to the elevated potassium level. (C) Measurement of the urine output is not a priority nursing action at this time. (D) The client's serum potassium values for the past several days may provide information about his renal function, but they are not a priority at this time.
NO.715 Medication is administered to a client who has been placed in restraints after a sudden violent episode, and his EPSs subside. Restraints can be removed when: A. The physician orders it B. A therapeutic alliance has been established, and violent behavior subsides C. The violent behavior subsides, and the client agrees to behave D. The nurse deems that removal of restraints is necessary
Answer: B Explanation: (A) The physicianmayorder release of restraints, but prior to that, the client must meet criteria for release. (B) While the client is still restrained, but after violent behavior has subsided, a therapeutic bridge is built. This alliance encourages dialogue between nurse and client, allowing the client to determine causative factors, feelings prior to loss of control, and adaptive alternatives to violence. (C) If the client only "agrees to behave" after violent behavior subsides, he has developed no insight into cause and effect of violence or his response to stress. (D)Removal of restraints occurs only when the client meets the criteria for release, not just because the nurse says it is necessary.
NO.729 A 68-year-old client developed acute respiratory distress syndrome while hospitalized for pneumonia. After a respiratory arrest, an endotracheal tube was inserted. Several days later, numerous attempts to wean him from mechanical ventilation were ineffective, and a tracheostomy was created. For the first 24 hours following tracheostomy, it is important to minimize bleeding around the insertion site. The nurse can accomplish this by: A. Deflating the cuff for 10 minutes every other hour instead of 5 minutes every hour B. Avoiding manipulation of the tracheostomy including cuff deflation C. Reporting any signs of crepitus immediately to the physician D. Changing tracheostomy dressing only as necessary using one-half strength hydrogen peroxide to cleanse the site
Answer: B Explanation: (A) The tracheal cuff should not be deflated within the first 24 hours following surgery. (B) To minimize bleeding, any manipulation, including cuff deflation, should be avoided. (C) Small amounts of crepitus are expected to occur; however, large amounts or expansion of the area of crepitus should be reported to the physician. (D) The tracheostomy site may be changed as often as necessary, but site care should be done with normal saline.
NO.743 A 30-year-old client has been admitted to the psychiatric service with the diagnosis of schizophrenia. He tells the nurse that when the woman he had been dating broke up with him, the CIA had replaced her with an identical twin. The client is experiencing: A. Grandiose delusions B. Paranoid delusions C. Auditory hallucinations D. Visual hallucinations
Answer: B Explanation: (A) There are no indications that the client's thoughts reflect special powers or talents characteristic of grandiosity. (B) The client's thought content is fixed, false, persecutory, and suspicious in nature, which is characteristic of paranoid delusions. (C, D) The client is not demonstrating a sensory experience.
NO.737 As soon as a child has been diagnosed as "hearing impaired," special education should begin. Which of the following special education tasks is the most difficult for a severely hearing-impaired child? A. Auditory training B. Speech C. Lip reading D. Signing
Answer: B Explanation: (A) With the slight and mild hard of hearing, auditory training is beneficial. (B) Speech is the most difficult task because it is learned by visual and auditory stimulation, imitation, and reinforcement. (C, D) Lip reading and signing are aimed at establishing communicative skills, but they are learned more easily by visual stimulation.
NO.740 A client is having an amniocentesis. Prior to the procedure, an ultrasound is performed. In preparing the client, the nurse explains the reason for a sonogram in this situation to be: A. Determination of multiple gestations B. Determination of gross anomalies C. Determination of placental location D. Determination of fetal age
Answer: C Explanation: (A) Sonography can be used to determine the presence of multiple gestation. In this question, the sonogram is used as a preparatory step for a specific invasive procedure. (B) Sonography can be used to determine the presence of gross anomalies. In this question, the sonogram is used as a preparatory step for a specific invasive procedure. (C) Prior to amniocentesis, the abdomen is scanned by ultrasound to locate the placenta, thus reducing the possibility of penetrating it with the spinal needle used to obtain amniotic fluid. (D) Sonography can be used to determine fetal age. In this question, the sonogram is used as a preparatory step for a specific invasive procedure.
NO.701 A 40-year-old client has lived for 8 years with an abusive spouse. She married her husband in her senior year of high school after becoming pregnant. Shortly after the baby was born, he began to physically abuse her. She has attempted to leave him several times, but she has always returned. She is unable to support herself financially, and her husband threatens to kill her if she leaves him. This time, her husband has beaten her so badly she cannot stop the bleeding from the gash above her eye. She admits her husband caused her injury. In assessing a person after experiencing spousal abuse, which need has the highest priority? A. Assess the level of anxiety, coping responses, and support systems. B. Assess the history of physical abuse. C. Assess suicide potential. D. Assess drug and alcohol use.
Answer: C Explanation: (A) Assessing the level of anxiety, coping responses, and support systems is very important, but not of highest priority at this time. (B) A history of physical abuse is an important part of assessment. The nurses must also always ask if there is abuse of the children. (C) Although all of these answers are very important in assessment, the highest priority is assessment of suicide potential, because this could cause the greatest harm to the client. Feeling there is no other way out, abused spouses may consider suicide. (D) The spouse may be self-medicating herself with alcohol or drugs to escape an awful situation. The abuser may also be abusing drugs or alcohol. If this is so, the nurse should encourage the spouse to seek counseling and not to return to the home.
NO.741 A mother called the physician's office to ask if it would help relieve her small daughter's abdominal pain if she gave an enema and placed a heating pad on the abdomen. Her daughter has a fever and has vomited twice. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that: A. The symptoms could easily have been caused by constipation, which an enema would relieve B. Heat would help to relax the abdominal muscles and relieve her pain C. Both heat and enemas stimulate intestinal motility and could increase the risk of perforation D. Complaints of stomach ache are common in young children and are generally best ignored
Answer: C Explanation: (A) Constipation does not cause fever or vomiting but may cause anorexia. Risk of perforation outweighs the possible benefits of an enema. (B) Heat will not relieve her symptoms but will increase intestinal motility and increase the risk of perforation. (C) Heat and enemas are contraindicated where severe abdominal pain is suspected because they increase intestinal motility and the risk of perforation. (D) Complaints accompanied by physical symptoms such as pain, anorexia, and fever should never be ignored.
NO.713 A client is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse should be prepared to administer which of the following IV solutions? A. D5in normal saline B. D5W C. 0.9 normal saline D. D5in lactated Ringer's
Answer: C Explanation: (A) D5in normal saline would increase serum glucose. (B) D5W would increase serum glucose. (C) A concentration of 0.9 NS is used to correct extracellular fluid depletion. (D) D5in Ringer's lactate would increase serum glucose.
NO.720 The most commonly known vectors of Lyme disease are: A. Mites B. Fleas C. Ticks D. Mosquitoes
Answer: C Explanation: (A) Mites are not the common vector of Lyme disease. (B) Fleas are not the common vector of Lyme disease. (C) Ticks are the common vector of Lyme disease. (D) Mosquitoes are not the common vector of Lyme disease.
NO.721 A pregnant client during labor is irritable and feels the urge to vomit. The nurse should recognize this as the: A. Fourth stage of labor B. Third stage of labor C. Transition stage of labor D. Second stage of labor
Answer: C Explanation: (A) The fourth stage begins after expulsion of the placenta. Client symptoms are: fatigue; chills; scant, bloody vaginal discharge; and nausea. (B) The third stage is from birth to expulsion of placenta. Client symptoms are uterine contractions, gush of blood, and perineal pain. (C) The transition stage is characterized by strong uterine contractions and cervical dilation. Clientsymptoms are irritability, restlessness, belching, muscle tremors, nausea, and vomiting. (D) The second stage is characterized by full dilation of cervix. Client symptoms are perineal bulge, pushing with contractions, great irritability, and leg cramps.
NO.742 A six-month-old infant has been admitted to the emergency room with febrile seizures. In the teaching of the parents, the nurse states that: A. Sustained temperature elevation over 103F is generally related to febrile seizures B. Febrile seizures do not usually recur C. There is little risk of neurological deficit and mental retardation as sequelae to febrile seizures D. Febrile seizures are associated with diseases of the central nervous system
Answer: C Explanation: (A) The temperature elevation related to febrile seizures generally exceeds 101F, and seizures occur during the temperature rise rather than after a prolonged elevation. (B) Febrile seizures may recur and are more likely to do so when the first seizure occurs in the 1st year of life. (C) There is little risk of neurological deficit, mental retardation, or altered behavior secondary to febrile seizures. (D) Febrile seizures are associated with disease of the central nervous system.
NO.733 A client is experiencing visual problems at school. She has complained of difficulty seeing the blackboard and squinting. She no longer likes to participate in physical activities such as softball. The client has displayed possible classic symptoms of which refractive error? A. Astigmatism B. Hyperopia C. Myopia D. Amblyopia
Answer: C Explanation: (A) Visual images are blurred and distorted. (B) Symptoms are headaches, burning eyes, fatigue, squinting, and difficulty reading. (C) These symptoms are classic for myopia. (D) Amblyopia is not a refractive error. It is a loss of vision in one or both eyes.
NO.736 Which of the following risk factors associated with breast cancer would a nurse consider most significant in a client's history? A. Menarche after age 13 B. Nulliparity C. Maternal family history of breast cancer D. Early menopause
Answer: C Explanation: (A) Women who begin menarche late (after 13 years old) have a lower risk of developing breast cancer than women who have begun earlier. Average age for menarche is 12.5 years. (B) Women who have never been pregnant have an increased risk for breast cancer, but a positive family history poses an even greater risk. (C) A positive family history puts a woman at an increased risk of developing breast cancer. It is recommended that mammography screening begin 5 years before the age at which an immediate female relative was diagnosed with breast cancer. (D) Early menopause decreases the risk of developing breast cancer.
NO.717 A 19-year-old male client arrived via ambulance to the emergency room following a motorcycle accident. He is comatose. His face has evidence of dried blood. On assessment, the nurse notes an obvious injury to his left eye. The preferred positioning for a client with an obvious eye injury is: A. Reclining to control bleeding B. Any position in which the client is comfortable C. Side-lying, either left or right D. Sitting with head support
Answer: D Explanation: (A) A reclining position can cause a penetrating object to advance further into the eye. (B) Prevention of further injury is the priority, not comfort. (C) A side-lying position may increase intraocular and intracranial pressure if an accompanying head injury is suspected. (D) A sitting position with the head supported will prevent further injury while allowing injury care to take place.
NO.728 A 42-year-old client with bipolar disorder has been hospitalized on the inpatient psychiatric unit. She is dancing around, talking incessantly, and singing. Much of the time the client is anorexic and eats very little from her tray before she is up and about again. The nurse's intervention would be to: A. Confront the client with the fact that she will have to eat more from her tray to sustain her B. Try to get the client to focus on her eating by offering a detailed discussion on the importance of nutrition C. Let her have snacks and drinks anytime that she wants them because she will not eat at regular meal times D. Not expect the client to sit down for complete meals; monitor intake, offering snacks and juice frequently
Answer: D Explanation: (A) The manic client's mood may easily change from euphoric to irritable. The nurse should avoid confrontation and let the client know what she can do, rather than what she cannot. (B) Although helpful to refocus or redirect the manic client to discuss only one topic at a time, distractibility is very high and it's best to avoid long discussions. (C) Manic clients have a tendency to manipulate persons in their environment. Staff should monitor intake, including at mealtime and snacks, and be consistent in their approach to meeting nutritional needs. (D) Manic clients may not sit and eat complete meals, but they can carry foods and liquids from regular meals with them. Staff can monitor and give high-caloric and high-energy snacks and liquids.
NO.750 A 3-month-old infant has had a unilateral cleft lip repair. He has resumed feedings of oral formula. The nurse should feed the infant with: A. Gavage tube B. Nipple and bottle C. A straw and cup D. Syringe
Answer: D Explanation: (A) A gavage tube may damage suture line. It is the most invasive and should be the last measure. (B) A nipple and bottle require sucking, which may damage sutures. (C) A 3month-old infant is not able to drink from a straw. (D) A syringe allows for the formula to be placed to the side and back of the mouth. This minimizes the amount of sucking needed.
NO.704 Prior to administering digoxin to a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse needs to assess: A. Respiratory rate for 1 minute B. Radial pulse for 1 minute C. Radial pulse for 2 minutes D. Apical pulse for 1 minute
Answer: D Explanation: (A) Respiratory rate is not directly affected by digoxin therapy. (B) A radial pulse is not as accurate as an apical pulse. Dysrhythmias may not be detected. (C) A radial pulse is not as accurate as an apical pulse, regardless of assessment time. (D) Apical pulse should be measured for 1-minute prior to digoxin administration. Digoxin decreases the heart rate. Digoxin should be withheld if apical rates are <60 bpm or >120 bpm.
NO.734 A 4-year-old child with a history of sickle cell anemia is admitted to the nursing unit with dizziness, shortness of breath, and pallor. Nursing assessment findings reveal tenderness in the abdomen. The child is most likely experiencing a/an: A. Aplastic crisis B. Vaso-occlusive crisis C. Dactylitis crisis D. Sequestration crisis
Answer: D Explanation: (A) Aplastic anemia is characterized by a lack of reticulocytes in the blood. Platelet and white blood cell counts are usually not depressed. It is usually self-limiting, lasting 5-10 days. (B) Vaso-occlusive crisis is the most common type of crisis in sickle cell anemia. Sickled cells become clogged, leading to distal tissue hypoxia and infarction. Joints and extremities are the most commonly affected areas. (C) Dactylitis crisis, or "hand-foot syndrome," causes symmetrical infarction of the bones in the hands and feet, resulting in painful swelling in the soft tissues of the hands and feet. (D) Sequestration crisis occurs as enormous volumes of blood pool within the spleen. The spleen enlarges, causing tenderness. Signs of shock including pallor, tachypnea, and faintness result, related to the deficient intravascular volume. This type of crisis is potentially fatal.
NO.732 A mother frantically calls the emergency room (ER) asking what to do about her 3-year-old girl who was found eating pills out of a bottle in the medicine cabinet. The ER nurse tells the mother to: A. Give the child 15 mL of syrup of ipecac. B. Give the child 10 mL of syrup of ipecac with a sip of water. C. Give the child 1 cup of water to induce vomiting. D. Bring the child to the ER immediately.
Answer: D Explanation: (A) Before giving any emetic, the substance ingested must be known. (B) At least 8 oz of water should be administered along with ipecac syrup to increase volume in the stomach and facilitate vomiting. (C) Water alone will not induce vomiting. An emetic is necessary to facilitate vomiting. (D) Vomiting should never be induced in an unconscious client because of the risk of aspiration.
NO.746 A female client plans to bottle-feed her newborn. Her physician has ordered bromocriptine (Parlodel) to suppress lactation. Which of the following instructions about bromocriptine should be given by the nurse? A. Bromocriptine stimulates the production of prolactin. B. Hypertension is a primary side effect. C. Bromocriptine is generally taken for 5 days. D. Her blood pressure must be stable before starting bromocriptine.
Answer: D Explanation: (A) Bromocriptine inhibits the secretion of prolactin. (B) Hypotension is a side effect of this drug; hypertension is not. (C) Bromocriptine is generally taken for 14 days. (D) The administration of bromocriptine is delayed at least 4 hours postpartum and given only when the client's blood pressure is stable, because it can cause hypotension and syncope.
NO.730 A 52-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital in acute renal failure. She has been on hemodialysis for the past 2 years. Stat arterial blood gases are drawn on the client yielding the following results: pH 7.30, PCO2 51 mm Hg, HCO3, 18 mEq/L, PaO2, 84 mm Hg. The nurse would interpret these results as: A. Compensated metabolic alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis D. Combined respiratory and metabolic acidosis
Answer: D Explanation: (A) Compensated metabolic alkalosis would be reflected by the following: pH within normal limit (7.35-7.45), PCO2 > 45 mm Hg, HCO3 >26 mEq/L. (B) Respiratory acidosis would be reflected by the following: pH < 7.35, PCO2 > 45 mm Hg, HCO3 within normal limits (22-26 mEq/L). (C) Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis would be reflected by the following: pH > 7.45, PCO2 > 45 mm Hg, HCO3 > 26 mEq/L. (D) Combined respiratory and metabolicacidosis would be reflected by the following: pH < 7.35, PCO2 > 45 mm Hg, HCO3 < 22 mEq/L.
NO.731 A seventh grader lost consciousness after being hit in the head with a basketball. In the emergency room his vital signs are stable, and he demonstrates no neurologic deficit. He will not be admitted to the hospital. It is most important that you advise his mother to: A. Encourage him to drink plenty of fluids B. Expect him to have nausea with vomiting C. Keep him awake for the next 12 hours D. Wake him up every 1-2 hours during the night
Answer: D Explanation: (A) Fluid intake should be normal. Fluid intake may be restricted when there is a risk for increased ICP in a hospitalized client. (B) Nausea is possible, but vomiting without nausea is more likely with increased ICP. Neither one should be expected, but the mother should know to notify the physician or hospital if they occur. (C) The child does not need to be kept awake. It is important that he can be aroused from sleep. (D) If the child cannot be awakened from sleep after head injury, it is an indication of serious increase in ICP. The mother should call an ambulance right away.
NO.747 A client decided early in her pregnancy to breast-feed her first baby. She gave birth to a normal, full-term girl and is now progressing toward the establishment of successful lactation. To remove the baby from her breast, she should be instructed to: A. Gently pull the infant away B. Withdraw the breast from the infant's mouth C. Compress the areolar tissue until the infant drops the nipple from her mouth D. Insert a clean finger into the baby's mouth beside the nipple
Answer: D Explanation: (A) In pulling the infant away from the breast without breaking suction, nipple trauma is likely to occur. (B) In pulling the breast away from the infant without breaking suction, nipple trauma is likely to occur. (C) Compressing the maternal tissue does not break the suction of the infant on the breast and can cause nipple trauma. (D) By inserting a finger into the infant's mouth beside the nipple, the lactating mother can break the suction and the nipple can be removed without trauma.
NO.716 Following her surgery, a 5-year-old child will return to the pediatric unit with a long-arm cast. She experienced a supracondylar fracture of the humerus near the elbow. Which nursing action is most essential during the first 24 hours after surgery and cast application? A. Mobilization of the child B. Discharge teaching C. Pain management D. Assessment of neurovascular status
Answer: D Explanation: (A) Mobilization is important but not absolutely essential. (B) Discharge teaching should be initiated prior to surgery as well as during the postoperative period. (C) Assessment and management of pain are necessary and high in priority. (D) Neurovascular status of the extremity is of primary importance. The risk of circulatory impairment exists with any cast application. This type of fracture is common in children. A high incidence of neurovascular complications exists with fractures near the elbow.
NO.714 A six-month-old infant is receiving ribavirin for the treatment of respiratory syncytial virus. Ribavirin is administered via which one of the following routes? A. Oral B. IM C. IV D. Aerosol
Answer: D Explanation: (A) Ribavirin is not supplied in an oral form. (B) Ribavirin is administered by aerosol in order to decrease the duration of viral shedding within the infected tissue. (C) Ribavirin is not approved for IV use to treat respiratory syncytial virus. (D) Ribavirin is a synthetic antiviral agent supplied as a crystalline powder that is reconstituted with sterile water. A Small Aerosol Particle Generator unit aerosolizes the medication for delivery by oxygen hood, croup tent, or aerosol mask.
NO.707 A pregnant client complains of varicosities in the third trimester. Which of the following activities should she be advised to avoid? A. Sitting with legs crossed at ankles B. Wearing thromboembolic disease (TED) stockings C. Wearing support pantyhose D. Wearing knee-high stockings
Answer: D Explanation: (A) Sitting with the legs crossed at the ankles does not interfere with circulation or create pressure points. (B) TED stockings will help to reduce the varicosity by supporting the vein. Stockings must be applied with legs elevated. (C) Support pantyhose help to reduce the varicosity by supporting the vein. They also provide support to the uterus and allow for better return circulation. Hose must be applied like TED stockings. (D) Knee-high stockings create constriction and pressure points that interfere with circulation in the lower extremities.
NO.735 A client had a right below-the-knee amputation 4 days ago. He is complaining of pain in his right lower leg. The nurse should: A. Remind the client that he no longer has that part of his leg and assure him he will be OK B. Call the physician to request a psychological consultation for the client C. Turn on the television to distract the client's attention from his amputated leg D. Give the client his order of Demerol 50 mg IM prn
Answer: D Explanation: (A) The nurse is ignoring the client's pain. Telling the client that he will be OK will not relieve his phantom pain. (B) The client does not need a psychological consultation. Phantom pain is a normal sensation experienced by clients with amputations. (C) Using the television as a distractor will not relieve the client's phantom pain. (D) Phantom pain is a normal, very real experience for an amputee and should be treated with pain medication.
NO.702 When assessing fetal heart rate status during labor, the monitor displays late decelerations with tachycardia and decreasing variability. What action should the nurse take? A. Continue monitoring because this is a normal occurrence. B. Turn client on right side. C. Decrease IV fluids. D. Report to physician or midwife.
Answer: D Explanation: (A) This is not a normal occurrence. Late decelerations need prompt intervention for immediate infant recovery. (B) To increase O2 perfusion to the unborn infant, the mother should be placed on her left side. (C) IV fluids should be increased, not decreased. (D) Immediate action is warranted, such as reporting findings, turning mother on left side, administering O2, discontinuing oxytocin (Pitocin), assessing maternal blood pressure and the labor process, preparing for immediate cesarean delivery, and explaining plan of action to client.
NO.705 A client who has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa refuses to eat lunch. The most therapeutic response by the nurse to her refusal is: A. "Okay, missing one meal won't hurt." B. "You'll have to eat lunch, or we'll force-feed you." C. "It's not appropriate for you to try to manipulate the staff into granting your wishes." D. "We will not allow you to starve yourself. You may choose to eat voluntarily or be fed."
Answer: D Explanation: (A) This response reinforces the client's maladaptive behavior, thereby contributing to the client's risk. (B) Ultimatums are not therapeutic. (C) This comment invites an argument because it puts the client on the defensive and stabs at her self-esteem, which is already compromised. (D) Setting limits assures the client that staff has genuine concern for her safety and well-being. Giving her an actual choice will give the client an increased sense of control over her life and avoid an argument or power struggle.
NO.748 A 15-year-old client is admitted to the adolescent unit. The nurse recognizes that encouraging a client to speak openly depends on how clearly questions are phrased. Which of the following statements is most desirable in eliciting information from an adolescent client? A. "Do you get along well with your family?" B. "Do you communicate with your parents?" C. "You don't hate your family, do you?" D. "What is it like between you and your family?"
Answer: D Explanation: (A, B) This statement can be answered with a simple yes or no. (C) This statement is asked in a negative manner and therefore has a negative connotation. (D) This statement is open ended and positively stated.
NO.703 Which of the following lab data is representative of a client with aplastic anemia? A. Hemoglobin 9.2, hematocrit 27, red blood cells 3.2 million B. White blood cells 4000, erythrocytes 2.5 million, thrombocytes 100,000 C. White blood cells 3000, hematocrit 27, red blood cells 2.8 million D. Red blood cells 1 million, white blood cells 1500, thrombocytes 16,000
Answer: D Explanation: (A, B, C) Although all of the lab data are abnormal and although these values are decreased in aplastic anemia, the disorder is defined by severe deficits in red cell, white cell, and platelet counts. (D) Aplastic anemia is typically defined in terms of abnormalities of red blood cell count, usually <1 million, white cell count <2,000, and thrombocytes <20,000.
