NCLEX Gastrointestinal
A histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist will be prescribed for a client. The nurse understands that which medications are H2-receptor antagonists? Select all that apply. 1. Nizatidine (Axid) 2. Ranitidine (Zantac) 3. Famotidine (Pepcid) 4. Cimetidine (Tagamet) 5. Esomeprazole (Nexium) 6. Lansoprazole (Prevacid)
1, 2, 3, 4 Rationale: H2-receptor antagonists suppress secretion of gastric acid, alleviate symptoms of heartburn, and assist in preventing complications of peptic ulcer disease. These medications also suppress gastric acid secretions and are used in active ulcer disease, erosive esophagitis, and pathological hypersecretory conditions. The other medications listed are proton pump inhibitors.
A client with Crohn's disease is scheduled to receive an infusion of infliximab (Remicade). What intervention by the nurse will determine the effectiveness of treatment? 1. Monitoring the leukocyte count for 2 days after the infusion 2. Checking the frequency and consistency of bowel movements 3. Checking serum liver enzyme levels before and after the infusion 4. Carrying out a Hematest on gastric fluids after the infusion is completed
2. Checking the frequency and consistency of bowel movements Rationale: The principal manifestations of Crohn's disease are diarrhea and abdominal pain. Infliximab (Remicade) is an immunomodulator that reduces the degree of inflammation in the colon, thereby reducing the diarrhea. Options 1, 3, and 4 are unrelated to this medication.
A client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom? 1. Diarrhea 2. Heartburn 3. Flatulence 4. Constipation
2. Heartburn Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor classified as an antiulcer agent. The intended effect of the medication is relief of pain from gastric irritation, often called heartburn by clients. Omeprazole is not used to treat the conditions identified in options 1, 3, and d)
A client who chronically uses nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) has been taking misoprostol (Cytotec). The nurse determines that the medication is having the intended therapeutic effect if which finding is noted? 1. Resolved diarrhea 2. Relief of epigastric pain 3. Decreased platelet count 4. Decreased white blood cell count
2. Relief of epigastric pain Rationale: The client who chronically uses nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is prone to gastric mucosal injury. Misoprostol is a gastric protectant and is given specifically to prevent this occurrence. Diarrhea can be a side effect of the medication but is not an intended effect. Options 3 and 4 are incorrect.
A client with a peptic ulcer is diagnosed with a Helicobacter pylori infection. The nurse is teaching the client about the medications prescribed, including clarithromycin (Biaxin), esomeprazole (Nexium), and amoxicillin (Amoxil). Which statement by the client indicates the best understanding of the medication regimen? 1. "My ulcer will heal because these medications will kill the bacteria." 2. "These medications are only taken when I have pain from my ulcer." 3. "The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production." 4. "These medications will coat the ulcer and decrease the acid production in my stomach."
3. "The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production." Rationale: Triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection usually includes two antibacterial medications and a proton pump inhibitor. Clarithromycin and amoxicillin are antibacterials. Esomeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor. These medications will kill the bacteria and decrease acid production.
The nurse has given instructions to a client who has just been prescribed cholestyramine (Questran). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions? 1. "I will continue taking vitamin supplements." 2. "This medication will help lower my cholesterol." 3. "This medication should only be taken with water." 4. "A high-fiber diet is important while taking this medication."
3. "This medication should only be taken with water." Rationale: Cholestyramine (Questran) is a bile acid sequestrant used to lower the cholesterol level, and client compliance is a problem because of its taste and palatability. The use of flavored products or fruit juices can improve the taste. Some side effects of bile acid sequestrants include constipation and decreased vitamin absorption.
A client has a PRN prescription for loperamide hydrochloride (Imodium). For which condition should the nurse administer this medication? 1. Constipation 2. Abdominal pain 3. An episode of diarrhea 4. Hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage
3. An episode of diarrhea Rationale: Loperamide is an antidiarrheal agent. It is used to manage acute and chronic diarrhea in conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease. Loperamide also can be used to reduce the volume of drainage from an ileostomy. It is not used for the conditions in options 1, 2, and d)
An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication? 1. Tremors 2. Dizziness 3. Confusion 4. Hallucinations
3. Confusion Rationale: Cimetidine is a histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist. Older clients are especially susceptible to central nervous system side effects of cimetidine. The most frequent of these is confusion. Less common central nervous system side effects include headache, dizziness, drowsiness, and hallucinations.
A client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase (Pancrease MT,). The nurse evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit if which effect is observed? 1. Weight loss 2. Relief of heartburn 3. Reduction of steatorrhea 4. Absence of abdominal pain
3. Reduction of steatorrhea Rationale: Pancrelipase (Pancrease, Creon) is a pancreatic enzyme used in clients with pancreatitis as a digestive aid. The medication should reduce the amount of fatty stools (steatorrhea). Another intended effect could be improved nutritional status. It is not used to treat abdominal pain or heartburn. Its use could result in weight gain but should not result in weight loss if it is aiding in digestion.
A client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should the nurse administer this medication to the postoperative client? 1. Paralytic ileus 2. Incisional pain 3. Urinary retention 4. Nausea and vomiting
4. Nausea and vomiting Rationale: Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. The other options are incorrect.
A client with a gastric ulcer has a prescription for sucralfate (Carafate), 1 g by mouth four times daily. The nurse should schedule the medication for which times? 1. With meals and at bedtime 2. Every 6 hours around the clock 3. One hour after meals and at bedtime 4. One hour before meals and at bedtime
4. One hour before meals and at bedtime Rationale: Sucralfate is a gastric protectant. The medication should be scheduled for administration 1 hour before meals and at bedtime. The medication is timed to allow it to form a protective coating over the ulcer before food intake stimulates gastric acid production and mechanical irritation. The other options are incorrect.
A client has a new prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan). On review of the chart, the nurse identifies that this medication can be safely administered with which condition? 1. Intestinal obstruction 2. Peptic ulcer with melena 3. Diverticulitis with perforation 4. Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy
4. Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy Rationale: Metoclopramide is a gastrointestinal stimulant and antiemetic. Because it is a gastrointestinal stimulant, it is contraindicated with gastrointestinal obstruction, hemorrhage, or perforation. It is used in the treatment of emesis after surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation.
cirrhosis
a chronic progressive disease of the liver characterized by diffuse degeneration and destructio of hepatocytes; repeated causes scar tissue
asterixis
a coarse tremor characterized by rapid, nonrhythmic extensions and flexions in the wrist and fingers; also termed liver flap
portal hypertension
a persistent increase in pressure withi the portal vein that develops as a result of obstruction to flow
Murphy's sign
a sign of gallbladder disease consisting of pain on taking a deep breath when the examiner's fingers are on the approx location of gallbladder
pancreatitis
acute or chronic inflammation of the pancreas
cholecystitis
an inflammation of the gallbladder that may occur as an acute or chronic process; gallstones or inefficient bile emptying and gallbladder muscle disease
Crohn's disease
an inflammatory disease that can most often affects the terminal ileum ; leads to thickening and scarrin narrowed lumen, fistulas, ulcerations, and abscsses
melena
black, tarry stools as a result of bleeding in the upper gi tract
Cullen's sign
bluish discoloration of the abdomen and periumbilical area seen in acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis
esophageal varices
dilated and tortuous veins in the submucosa of the esophagus caused by portal htn, often associated with liver cirrhosis; at high risk for rupture if portal circulation pressure rises
pyloroplasty
enlarging the pylorus to prevent or decrease pyloric obstruction, thereby enhancing gastric emptying
choledocholithotomy
incision into the common bile duct to remove a gallstone
diverticulitis
inflammation of one or more diverticula from penetration of fecal matter through the thin walled diverticula, resulting in local abscess formation
hepatitis
inflammation of the liver caused by a virus, bacteria, or exposure to meds or hepatotoxins
diverticulosis
outpouching or herniations of the intestinal mucosa that can occur in any part of the intestine but is most common in sigmoid area
Billroth II
partial gastrectomy iwth the remaining segment beging anastomosed to the jejunum; also gastrojejunostomy
Billroth I
partial gastrectomy with the remaining segment being anastomosed to the duodenum; also gastroduodenostomy
hiatal hernia
portion of stomach that herniates through the diaphragm and into the thorax
dumping syndrome
rapid emptying of the gastric contents into the small intestine, which occurs following gastric resection
gastrectomy
removal of teh stomach with attachment of the esophagus to the jejunum or duodenum
cholecystectomy
removal of the gallbladder
gastric resection
removal of the lower halfo the the stomach, usually icluding a vagotomy
ascites
the accumulation of fluid within the peritoneal cavity that results from venous congestion of the hepatic capillaries, which leads to palsma leaking directly from theliver surface and portal vein
fetor hepaticus
the fruity, musty breath odor associated with severe chronic liver disease
peristalsis
wavelike rhythmic contractions that propel material through the gi tract
