NUR 202 DRUG CARDS Exam #4

5. A nurse is evaluating a client's understanding of the teaching about the use of fluticasone (Flonase) to treat perennial rhinitis. Which of the following statements by the client indicate he understands the teaching? A. "I should use the spray every 4 hours while I am awake." B. "It may take as long as 3 weeks before the medication takes a maximum effect." C. "This medication can also be used to treat motion sickness." D. "I can use this medication when my nasal passages are blocked."

B

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has active tuberculosis about his treatment regimen. The client asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following replies by the nurse is appropriate? "Taking multiple antituberculosis medications A. decreases the chance for a severe allergic reaction to any of the medications." B. reduces the chance that the TB bacteria will become resistant to the medications." C. minimizes the chance of adverse effects caused by any of the medications." D. lessens the chance that you will have a positive tuberculin test indefinitely."

B

A client is making an appointment for allergy testing. The nurse instructs the client not take what class of medications at least 4 days before allergy testing? A Antitussives B Antihistamines C Decongestants D Bronchodilators

B

When caring for a pregnant patient with gestational diabetes, the nurse should question a prescription for which drug? A Insulin glargine (Lantus) B Glipizide (Glucotrol) C Insulin glulisine (Apidra) D NPH insulin

B

The nurse is discussing with the client the management of symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection. Which classes of medications are often used in treating the symptoms of upper respiratory tract infections? (Select all that apply.) A Antibiotics B Antitussives C Expectorants D Antihistamines E Nasal decongestants

B,C,D,E

The nurse would question a prescription for pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) in a client with a history of which condition? A Pneumonia B Osteoporosis C Hypertension D Peptic ulcer disease

C

5. A nurse is assessing a client who takes vasopressin (Pitressin) for diabetes insipidus. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor? A. Hypovolemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypoglycemia D. Hypertension

D

Which insulin can be administered by continuous intravenous (IV) infusion? A Insulin glargine (Lantus) B Insulin aspart (Novolog) C Insulin detemir (Levemir) D Regular insulin (Humulin R)

D

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking propylthiouracil (PTU). For which of the following adverse effects of this medication should the nurse monitor? A. Bradycardia B. Insomnia C. Heat intolerance D. Weight loss

A

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for metformin (Glucophage). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? A. Lactic acidosis B. Hypoglycemia C. Hyperlipidemia D. Respiratory alkalosis

A

6. A nurse is admitting a client to an acute care facility for a total hip arthroplasty. The client takes hydrocortisone for Addison's disease. Which of the following the priority nursing action? A. Administering a supplemental dose of hydrocortisone B. Instructing the client about coughing and deep breathing C. Collecting addition information from the client about his history of Addison's disease D. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter

A

After administering somatropin (Genotropin) to a patient, the nurse would assess for potential adverse effects of this medication by monitoring which laboratory test result? A Glucose B Platelets C Potassium D Magnesium

A

What advantage does loratadine (Claritin) have compared with traditional antihistamines such as diphenhydramine (Benadryl)? A Less sedative effect B Increase in bronchodilation C Minimal gastrointestinal upset D Decreased risk of cardiac dysrhythmias

A

Which long-acting insulin mimics natural, basal insulin with no peak action and a duration of 24 hours? A Insulin glargine (Lantus) B Insulin glulisine (Apidra) C Regular insulin (Humulin R) D NPH insulin

A

The nurse is reviewing the adverse effects of antithyroid medications for a patient prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). What potential serious adverse effects should the nurse discuss with the patient during discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.) A Joint pain B Liver toxicity C Kidney damage D Increased urination E Bone marrow toxicity

A,B,E

Which actions describe the beneficial effects produced by sulfonylurea oral hypoglycemics? (Select all that apply.) A Stimulate insulin secretion from beta cells B Increase hepatic glucose production C Enhance action of insulin in various tissues D Inhibit breakdown of insulin by liver

A,C,D

4. An adult client is taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for symptoms of allergic rhinitis. For which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse teach the client to watch? (Select all that apply.) A. Dry mouth B. Nonproductive cough C. Skin rash D. Diarrhea E. Urinary hesitation

A,E

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and pulmonary tuberculosis and has a new prescription for isoniazid (INH). Which of the following supplements should the nurse expect to administer to prevent an adverse effect of INH? A. Ascorbic acid B. Pyridoxine C. Folic acid D. Cyanocobalamin

B

1. A nurse is caring for a client who states she has been taking phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) nasal drops for the past 10 days for her upper respiratory symptoms. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse assess? A. Sedation B. Nasal congestion C. Productive cough D. Constipation

B

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus and is starting repaglinide (Prandin). Which of the following statements made by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication? A. "I'll take this medicine with my meals." B. "I'll take this medicine 30 minutes before I eat." C. "I'll take this medicine just before I go to bed." D. "I'll take this medicine as soon as I wake up in the morning."

B

A patient receiving propylthiouracil (PTU) asks the nurse, "How does this medication relieve symptoms?" What is the nurse's best response? A "PTU helps your thyroid gland synthesize and use iodine, which produces hormones better." B "PTU inhibits the formation of new thyroid hormone, thus returning your metabolism to normal." C "PTU causes the pituitary gland to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone, which blocks the production of hormones by the thyroid gland." D "PTU removes thyroid hormones that are already circulating in your bloodstream, thus decreasing the adverse effects of this medication."

B

For a patient taking levothyroxine (Synthroid) and warfarin (Coumadin) concurrently, the nurse would closely monitor for which possible serious adverse effect? A Acute confusion B Increased bruising C Cardiac dysrhythmias D Orthostatic hypotension

B

The nurse is discussing use of antitussive medications with a client. What common adverse effect does the nurse include in the client teaching? A Tremors and palpitations B Drowsiness and dizziness C Diarrhea and abdominal cramping D Flushing and decreased heart rate

B

The nurse would question a prescription for somatropin (Genotropin) in a patient with which condition? A Dwarfism B Acromegaly C Growth failure D Hypopituitarism

B

The nurse would suspect a patient is taking too much levothyroxine (Synthroid) when the patient exhibits which adverse effect? A Lethargy B Irritability C Feeling cold D Weight gain

B

When teaching a patient about insulin glargine (Lantus), which statement by the nurse about this drug is correct? A "You can mix this insulin with NPH insulin to enhance its effects on glucose metabolism." B "You cannot mix this insulin with regular insulin and thus will have to take two injections." C "It is often combined with regular insulin to decrease the number of insulin injections per day." D "The duration of action for this insulin is 8 to10 hours, so you will need to take it twice a day."

B

Which information should the nurse include in a teaching plan for patients taking oral hypoglycemic drugs? (Select all that apply.) A Take your medication only as needed. B Report symptoms of anorexia and fatigue. C Explain dietary changes are not necessary. D Advise to avoid smoking and alcohol consumption. E Instruct that it is okay to skip breakfast 1 to 2 times per week.

B,D

1. A nurse is teaching clients in an outpatient facility about the use of insulin to treat type 1 diabetes mellitus. For which of the following types of insulin should the nurse tell the clients to expect a peak effect 1 to 5 hr after administration? A. Insulin glargine (Lantus) B. NPH insulin (Humulin N) C. Regular insulin (Humulin R) D. Insulin lispro (Humalog)

C

2. A client asks a nurse why she is taking propranolol (Inderal) along with her therapy for hyperthyroidism. Which of the following replies by the nurse is appropriate? A. "Propranolol helps increase blood flow to your thyroid gland." B. "Propranolol is used to prevent excess glucose in your blood." C. "Propranolol will decrease your tremors and fast heart beat." D. "Propranolol promotes conversion of T4 to T3 in your body."

C

2. A nurse is infusing IV amphotericin B for a client who has a severe fungal infection. The nurse starts the infusion at 0800. When should the nurse begin to monitor the client for indications of an infusion reaction? A. 0805 B. 0830 C. 0900 D. 1200

C

2. A nurse is teaching a client to self-administer nasal drops for allergic rhinitis symptoms. The nurse should teach the client to lie in which of the following positions to obtain the best effect of the medication? A. Supine with head flexed B. Sitting with head in neutral position C. Lateral with head in low position D. Prone with head extended

C

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed somatropin (Genotropin) to stimulate growth. The nurse should plan to monitor the client's urine for which of the following? A. Bilirubin B. Protein C. Potassium D. Calcium

C

4. A nurse is teaching a client who is beginning a course of metronidazole (Flagyl) to treat an infection. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse teach the client to stop taking metronidazole and notify the provider? A. Metallic taste B. Nausea C. Ataxia D. Dark-colored urine

C

Assuming the patient eats breakfast at 8:30 AM, lunch at noon, and dinner at 6:00 AM, he or she is at highest risk of hypoglycemia after an 8:00 AM dose of NPH insulin at what time? A 10:00 AM B 2:00 PM C 5:00 PM D 8:00 PM

C

The nurse is caring for a patient with diabetes insipidus (DI) who is receiving vasopressin (Pitressin). What therapeutic effect does the nurse expect from this drug? A Increase in thirst B Improved skin turgor C Decrease in urine output D Normal serum albumin level

C

The nurse will instruct the patient to treat hypoglycemia with which drug? A Acarbose (Precose) B Propranolol (Inderal) C Glucagon (GlucaGen) D Bumetanide (Bumex)

C

What body system will the nurse assess for known common adverse effects of traditional antihistamines? A Respiratory B Cardiovascular C Central nervous D Gastrointestinal

C

What information should the nurse provide to a client prescribed rifampin (Rifadin)? A Oral contraception is the preferred method of birth control when using rifampin. B The patient will only need to take this medication for the prescribed 14-day period. C A nonharmful adverse effect of this medication is red-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, tears, skin, salvia, and feces. D Peripheral neuropathy is an expected side effect, and the patient should report any numbness or tingling of the extremities.

C

When assessing for potential serious adverse effects to propylthiouracil (PTU), the nurse will monitor which laboratory test? A Kidney function B Serum electrolytes C Complete blood count (CBC) D Brain natriuretic peptide

C

Which instruction should the nurse include when teaching a client who is prescribed an expectorant? A Take the medication once a day at bedtime. B Restrict fluids to decrease mucus production. C Increase fluid intake to decrease viscosity of secretions. D Take a drug with oral codeine when cough worsens.

C

Which oral hypoglycemic drug has a quick onset and short duration of action, enabling the patient to take the medication 30 minutes before eating and skip the dose if he or she does not eat? A Acarbose (Precose) B Metformin (Glucophage) C Repaglinide (Prandin) D Pioglitazone (Actos)

C

3. A nurse is administering IV amphotericin B to a client who has a systemic fungal infection. The nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values? (Select all that apply.) A. Blood glucose B. Serum amylase C. Serum potassium D. Hematocrit E. Serum creatinine

C,D,E

3. A nurse is caring for an older adult client in a long-term care facility who has hypothyroidism and is beginning levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which of the following dosage schedules should the nurse expect for this client? A. The client will start at a high dose, and the dose will be tapered down as needed. B. The client will remain on the initial dosage during the course of treatment. C. The clients dosage will be adjusted daily based on blood levels. D. The client will start on a low dose, which will be gradually increased.

D

3. A preschool child recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis has a new prescription for acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). The nurse teaches the client and her family that the purpose of this medication is to do which of the following? A. Suppress cough B. Decrease pain C. Minimize nasal congestion D. Loosen secretions

D

5. A nurse is caring for a client in an outpatient facility who has been taking acarbose (Precose) for type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to monitor? A. WBC B. Serum potassium C. Platelet count D. Liver function tests

D

The nurse anticipates a prescription for vitamin supplementation for a client who is receiving isoniazid (Nydrazid) therapy. What vitamin supplement is usually prescribed with isoniazid? A Folate B Calcium C Vitamin E D Vitamin B6

D

The nurse is preparing a patient for a computed tomography scan using iodine contrast media. Which medication should the nurse question if prescribed one day before the scheduled procedure? A Acarbose (Precose) B Pioglitazone (Actos) C Repaglinide (Prandin) D Metformin (Glucophage)

D

The nurse is providing education to a client with a history of chronic nasal congestion secondary to allergic rhinitis. Which class of medications should the nurse anticipate the provider would recommend for the client to use on a long-term basis? A Antitussives B Expectorants C Antihistamines D Intranasal steroids

D

The nurse is providing education to a patient for the prescription glipizide (Glucotrol). The nurse explains this medication is more effective when administered at which time? A At bedtime B In the morning C 15 minutes postprandial D 30 minutes before a meal

D

The nurse is teaching a patient taking an antithyroid medication to avoid food items high in iodine. Which food item should the nurse instruct the patient to avoid? A Milk B Eggs C Chicken D Seafood

D

The patient is prescribed 30 units of regular insulin and 70 units of insulin isophane suspension (NPH insulin) subcutaneously every morning. The nurse should provide which instruction to the patient for insulin administration? A "Inject the needle at a 30-degree angle." B "Rotate sites at least once or twice a week." C "Use a 23- to 25-gauge syringe with a 1-inch needle to increase insulin absorption." D "Draw up the regular insulin into the syringe first, followed by the cloudy NPH insulin."

D

What instruction should the nurse include for a client prescribed rifampin (Rifadin) and isoniazid (Nydrazid) prophylactically secondary to TB exposure? A Advise that these drugs will only need to be taken for 7 to 10 days. B Remind that sunscreen is not needed during outdoor activities. C Explain that isoniazid may decrease blood serum glucose in susceptible people. D Emphasize that oral contraceptives become ineffective when given with rifampin.

D

When providing general education on use of over-the-counter (OTC) medications for allergies, which instruction should the nurse to include? A Discontinue use 4 days before allergy testing. B It may cause dry mouth and difficulty urinating. C The medication treats the signs and symptoms but is not a cure. D Do not use in children younger than 2 years of age unless prescribed.

D

Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of discharge instructions given by the nurse about the newly prescribed medication levothyroxine (Synthroid)? A "I will take a double dose to make up for the missed one." B "I can expect improvement of my symptoms within 1 week." C "I will stop the medication immediately if I feel pain or weakness in my muscles." D "I will take this medication in the morning so it does not affect my sleep at night."

D

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a prescription for pramlintide (Symlin) for type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) A. "Take oral medications 1 hr before injection." B. "Use upper arms as preferred injection sites." C. "Mix pramlintide with breakfast dose of insulin." D. "Inject pramlintide just before a meal." E. "Discard open vials after 28 days."

D,E

When assessing for adverse effects to Rifamate (combination isoniazid and rifampin), the nurse would monitor which laboratory values? (Select all that apply.) A Cholesterol B Uric acid levels C Sputum cultures D Liver function tests E Complete blood cell count

D,E