NURS 327 exam 3 chapter 45
Which of the following medications, used in the treatment of GERD, accelerate gastric emptying?
Metoclopramide (Reglan) Explanation: Prokinetic agents which accelerate gastric emptying, used in the treatment of GERD, include bethanechol (Urecholine), domperidone (Motilium), and metoclopramide (Reglan). If reflux persists, the patient may be given antacids or H2 receptor antagonists, such as famotidine (Pepcid), nizatidine (Axid), or ranitidine (Zantac). Proton pump inhibitors (medications that decrease the release of gastric acid, such as esomeprazole (Nexium) may be used, also.
A client has undergone a radical neck dissection. His skin graft site is pale. This indicates which condition?
Arterial thrombosis Explanation: A pale graft indicates arterial thrombosis. A cyanotic, cool graft indicates possible necrosis. A purple graft indicates venous congestion.
Which of the following is the most common type of diverticulum?
Zenker's diverticulum Explanation: The most common type of diverticulum, which is found three times more frequently in men than women, is Zenker's diverticulum (also known as pharyngoesophageal pulsion diverticulum or a pharyngeal pouch).
Postoperatively, a client with a radical neck dissection should be placed in which position?
Fowler Explanation: The client should be placed in the Fowler position to facilitate breathing and promote comfort. This position expands the lungs because the diaphragm is pulled downward and the abdominal viscera are pulled away from the lungs. The other positions are not the position of choice postoperatively.
A patient who is HIV positive comes to the clinic and is experiencing white patches with rough hairlike projections. The nurse observes the lesions on the lateral border of the tongue. What abnormality of the mouth does the nurse determine these lesions are?
Hairy leukoplakia Explanation: Hairy leukoplakia is a condition often seen in people who are HIV positive in which white patches with rough hairlike projections occur, typically found on lateral border of the tongue.
An elderly patient is diagnosed with parotitis. The nurse is aware that this bacterial infection is most likely caused by:
Staphylococcus aureus. Explanation: The elderly and debilitated experience decreased salivary flow from general dehydration or medications. The bacterial infection is usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus. The infecting organism travels from the mouth through the salivary gland.
A patient reports an inflamed salivary gland below the right ear. The nurse documents probable inflammation of which gland?
Parotid Explanation: The salivary glands consist of the parotid glands, one on each side of the face below the ear; the submandibular and sublingual glands, both in the floor of the mouth; and the buccal gland, beneath the lips.
A nurse practitioner, who is treating a patient with GERD, knows that responsiveness to this drug classification is validation of the disease. The drug classification is:
Proton pump inhibitors. Explanation: Proton pump inhibitors are the strongest inhibitors of acid secretions. The H2-receptor antagonists are the next most powerful.
A client is recovering from a neck dissection. What volume of serosanguineous secretions would the nurse expect to drain over the first 24 hours?
80 to 120 mL Explanation: Between 80 and 120 mL of serosanguineous secretions may drain over the first 24 hours.
A client in the emergency department reports that a piece of meat became stuck in the throat while eating. The nurse notes the client is anxious with respirations at 30 breaths/min, frequent swallowing, and little saliva in the mouth. An esophagogastroscopy with removal of foreign body is scheduled for today. What would be the first activity performed by the nurse?
Assess lung sounds bilaterally. Explanation: All these activities are things the nurse may do for a client with a foreign body in the esophagus. This client is at risk for esophageal perforation, and thus pneumothorax. By auscultating lung sounds the nurse will be able to assess if a pneumothorax is present. The client has little saliva in the oral cavity and does not need to be suctioned. A client may also report pain with a foreign body. However, ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) take priority. The consent for the esophagogastroscopy may be obtained after the nurse has completed the client assessment.
A client has a new order for metoclorpramide. What potential side effects should the nurse educate the client about?
Extrapyramidal Explanation: Metoclorpramide (Reglan) is a prokinetic agent that accelerates gastric emptying. Because metoclopramide can have extrapyramidal side effects that are increased in certain neuromuscular disorders, such as Parkinson's disease, it should be used only if no other option exists, and the client should be monitored closely. It is contraindicated with hemorrhage or perforation. It is not used to treat gastritis.
A client who reports increasing difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and fatigue is diagnosed with esophageal cancer. Because this client has difficulty swallowing, what should the nurse assign highest priority to?
Maintaining a patent airway Explanation: Rapid growth of cancer cells in the esophagus may put pressure on the adjacent trachea, jeopardizing the airway. Therefore, maintaining a patent airway is the highest care priority for a client with esophageal cancer. Helping the client cope with body image changes, ensuring adequate nutrition, and preventing injury are appropriate for a client with this disease, but are less crucial than maintaining airway patency.
Which term is used to describe stone formation in a salivary gland, usually the submandibular gland?
Sialolithiasis Explanation: Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate. Parotitis refers to inflammation of the parotid gland. Sialadenitis refers to inflammation of the salivary glands. Stomatitis refers to inflammation of the oral mucosa.
An older adult patient who has been living at home alone is diagnosed with parotitis. What causative bacteria does the nurse suspect is the cause of the parotitis?
Staphylococcus aureus Explanation: People who are older, acutely ill, or debilitated with decreased salivary flow from general dehydration or medications are at high risk for parotitis. The infecting organisms travel from the mouth through the salivary duct. The organism is usually Staphylococcus aureus (except in mumps)
The nurse is providing discharge instructions for a slightly overweight client seen in the Emergency Department with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The nurse notes in the client's record that the client is taking carbidopa/levodopa. Which order for the client by the health care provider should the nurse question?
metoclopramide Explanation: The instructions are appropriate for the client experiencing gastroesophageal reflux disease. The client is prescribed carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet), which is used for Parkinson's disease. Metoclopramide can have extrapyramidal effects, and these effects can be increased in clients with Parkinson's disease.