OB
The condition in which there is no nose and a proboscis separating to close set orbits is: a. Epignathus b. Ethmocephaly c. Micrognathia d. Cebocephaly
Ethmocephaly
Bilateral choroid plexus cysts, micrognathia, and rocker bottom feet are sonographic findings of a 27-week fetus with an omphalocele. These findings are most consistent with: a. Trisomy 18 b. Triploidy c. Trisomy 21 d. Trisomy 13
a. Trisomy 18
The image below notes scalloping of the frontal bones of the fetal head this is known as a a. lemon sign b. normal head c. banana sign d. strawberry head
a. lemon sign
The cervix should measure at least _______cm a. 3 cm b. 4 cm c. 5 cm d. 8 cm
a. 3 cm
The major hormones of pregnancy typically screened are: a. human chorionic gonadotropin, alpha fetoprotein, and estriol b. Human chorionic gonadotropin, progesterone, and alpha Fetoprotein c. human chorionic gonadotropin, follicle stimulating hormone and alpha fetoprotein d. Human chorionic gonadotropin, progesterone and estriol
a. human chorionic gonadotropin, alpha fetoprotein, and estriol
The thickness for the nuchal fold in the second trimester should not exceed: a. 3 mm b. 6 mm c. 10 mm d. 12 mm
b. 6 mm
Fusion of the orbits and holoprosencephaly are associated with: a. Down syndrome b. Patau syndrome c. Edwards syndrome d. Turner syndrome
b. Patau syndrome SEE QUIZ 3 for short answer part
An abnormality in the number of chromosomes is called: a. multifactorial b. aneuploidy c. mosaicism d. an x-linked disorder
b. aneuploidy
In VACTERL Association, the letter "C" stands for: a. Cranial b. C-spine c. Cardiac d. Cerebellar
c. Cardiac
Bilateral renal agenesis associated with pulmonary hypoplasia, facial anomalies, and oligohydramnios is indicative of a. fetal hydrops b. Hirschprung's Disease c. Potter's Syndrome d. Meckel-Gruber syndrome
c. Potter's Syndrome
An abnormally small mandible is known as a. micromandible b. macromandible c. micrognathia d. microstoma e. macrognathia
c. micrognathia
Which of the following anomalies is associated with a cloverleaf skull? a. osteogenesis imperfecta b. congenital hypophosphatasia c. thanatophoric dysplasia d. achondroplasia
c. thanatophoric dysplasia
In twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome: Selected Answer: a. is a common complication of multiple gestations b. the venous blood of one twin is pumped into the arterial system of the other twin c. the arterial blood of one twin is pumped into the venous system of the other twin d. occurs between the fetal umbilical cords
c. the arterial blood of one twin is pumped into the venous system of the other twin
Agenesis of Corpus Callosum suggests chromosomal abnormalities such as a. trisomy 13 b. trisomy 18 c. trisomy 13 and 18 d. trisomy 18 and 21
c. trisomy 13 and 18
What test performed during pregnancy is the least Invasive and uses maternal serum to screen hCG, alpha fetoprotein, and estriol a. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) b. Hysterosonogram c. Biochemical Serum Screening d. Amniocentesis
c. Biochemical Serum Screening
Mothers with pregestational diabetes opposed to gestational diabetes have an increased risk of their fetus developing a. TORCH b. DES c. Neural tube defects d. Proteinuria
c. Neural tube defects
"Stuck twin" syndrome usually manifests between: a. 12-14 weeks gestation b. 12-24 weeks gestation c. 16-20 weeks gestation d. 16-26 weeks gestation
d. 16-26 weeks gestation
Acardiac twining results from: a. Dizygotic gestations b. Poor maternal nutrition c. Twin embolization syndrome d. Abnormal links among the placental vessels
d. Abnormal links among the placental vessels
Variations in normal anatomy that are unlikely to be clinically significant. are referred to as a. "Soft" sonographic markers b. "Spaulding" sonographic markers c. "Aneuploidy" sonographic markers d. "Dandy Walker" sonographic markers
a. "Soft" sonographic markers
Which of the following is not associated with Ellis-Van Creveld Syndrome ? a. 50% have congenital heart disease, most commonly are ventricular septal defects b. High prevalence in the Amish population c. Thoracic dysplasia d. Polydactyly
a. 50% have congenital heart disease, most commonly are ventricular septal defects
What's new serum screening test that indicates if a pregnancy is at increased risk of being affected by trisomy 21,18 or 13? a. Cell-free fetal DNA testing b. Quad screen c. Triple screen
a. Cell-free fetal DNA testing
A malformation of the lymphatic system that leads to single or multiloculated lymph-filled cavities around the neck results in a. Cystic hygroma b. occipital cephalocele c. Fetal hydrops d. Encephalocele
a. Cystic hygroma
Which of the following anomalies is characterized by the presence of a posterior fossa cyst and splaying of the cerebellar hemispheres? a. Dandy-Walker malformation b. arachnoid cyst c. encephalocele d. agenesis of the corpus callosum
a. Dandy-Walker malformation
The first sonographic manifestation of twin to twin syndrome is: a. Discordant fetal growth b. Dichorionic twinning c. Polyhydramnios d. Oligohydramnois
a. Discordant fetal growth
An abnormally small mandible is known as a. Micrognathia b. Macromandible c. Macrognathia d. Microstoma
a. Micrognathia
A herniation of intra-abdominal structures into the base of the umbilical cord is known as a. Omphalocele b. Prune Belly Syndrome c. Diaphragmatic hernia d. Gastrochisis
a. Omphalocele
Upon sonographic interrogation of a 28 week pregnancy, you note that when pressure is applied to the fetal skull, the skull can be easily distorted. This is this is sonographic evidence of: a. Osteogenesis imperfecta b. Achondroplasia c. Thanatophoric dysplasia d. Arnold Chiari II malformation
a. Osteogenesis imperfecta
The twin that will appear larger in twin to twin transfusion syndrome is the: a. Recipient b. Both will be the same c. Both will be demised d. Donor
a. Recipient
Monochorionic twin pregnancy, in which one develops without a heart or upper body, is termed: a. acardiac anomaly b. conjoined twins c. twin-to-twin transfusion d. stuck twin
a. acardiac anomaly
Which of the following anomalies may be characterized by the presence of colpocephaly? a. agenesis of the corpus callosum b. Arnold-Chiari malformation c. Dandy-Walker malformation d. holoprosencephaly Answer Feedback: Agenesis of the corpus callosum demonstrates dilated occipital horns (colpocephaly), giving the lateral ventricles a teardrop appearance on ultrasound.
a. agenesis of the corpus callosum
This neural tube defect is incompatible with life. It is characterized by the lack of development of the cranial vault, cerebral and cerebellar hemispheres. a. anencephaly b. Dandy-Walker malformation c. cephalocele d. acrania
a. anencephaly
Conditions commonly associated with fetal hydrocephalus include all except which of a. choroid plexus cyst b. meningomyelocele c. agenesis of the corpus callosum d. Dandy-Walker malformation
a. choroid plexus cyst
Which of the following terms is used to describe herniation of the meninges and brain through a calvarium defect? a. encephalocele b. holoprosencephaly c. cebocephacele d. Dandy-Walker malformation
a. encephalocele
Evaluation of the fetal abdominal wall demonstrated evisceration of the bowel to the right of the umbilical cord. This is most representative of: a. gastroschisis b. omphalocele c. limb-body wall defect d. umbilical hernia .
a. gastroschisis
What is defined as ventriculomegaly in the neonate; abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the cerebral ventricles, resulting in compression and frequently destruction of brain tissue? a. hydrocephalus b. Dandy-Walker malformation c. Arnold-Chiari syndrome d. microscopically
a. hydrocephalus
A heterogeneous group of rare and lethal autosomal recessive dysplasias is known as a. short-rib polydactyly dysplasias b. achondrogenesis type II c. osteogenesis imperfecta d. thanatophoric dysplasia type I
a. short-rib polydactyly dysplasias
A vertebral defect involving L5 and or S1 without any back problems reported in 10% of the population is a. spina bifida occulta b. spina bifida with myelochisis c. spina bifida with meningocele d. spina bifida with a meningomyelocele
a. spina bifida occulta
Fetal TORCH is frequently associated with a. Intracranial calcifications b. Maternal hypertension c. Twin-twin transfusion d. Renal cystic disease
a. Intracranial calcifications
Mothers with gestational diabetes are at a higher risk of having a fetus that is considered a. Macrosomic b. Nutritionally deficient c. Acromegalic d. Microsomic
a. Macrosomic
1. Which of the following is not a complication of pregnancy in women over 35? a. Rh factor b. Infertility c. Fibroids d. Cesarean sections
a. Rh factor
Strawberry shaped head secondary to bulging of the frontal bones is appreciated sonographically in : a. 90% of fetuses withTrisomy 21 b. 80% of fetuses withTrisomy 18 c. 80% of fetuses withTrisomy 13 d. 90% of fetuses withTriploidy
b. 80% of fetuses withTrisomy 18
A spectrum of abnormalities ranging from absence of part of the sacrum to absence of the lumbar spine a. osteogenic imperfecta syndrome b. Caudal regression c. lumbosacral agenesis d. Sacrococcygeal syndrome
b. Caudal regression
Hypotelorism with flattened rudimentary nose frequently with a single nostril is noted with : a. Chondrodysplasia punctata b. Cebocephaly c. Otocephaly d. Micrognathiacephaly
b. Cebocephaly
Which of the following is not associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome? a. Omphalocele b. Gastroschisis c. Organomegaly d. Macroglossia
b. Gastroschisis
A germinal matrix hemorrhage and intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) without ventricular dilatation is a a. INTRACRANIAL HEMORRHAGE:Grade III b. INTRACRANIAL HEMORRHAGE:Grade II c. INTRACRANIAL HEMORRHAGE:Grade I d. INTRACRANIAL HEMORRHAGE:Grade IV
b. INTRACRANIAL HEMORRHAGE:Grade II
Variants of holoprosencephaly and facial clefting are classic skull and brain anomalies found in a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 13 c. Trisomy 18 d. aneuploidy
b. Trisomy 13
A large cystic hygroma, hydrops, and coarctation of the aorta may be seen in a fetus with: a. Trisomy 21 b. Turner's syndrome c. Trisomy 13 d. Trisomy 18
b. Turner's syndrome
Protrusion of the brain from the cranial cavity is called: a. acrania b. a cephalocele c. anencephaly d. cephalosyndactyly
b. a cephalocele
This sonographic image of the head and neck notes a. a normal appearing head and neck b. a cystic hygroma c. massive hydrocephalus d. an anecephalic fetus
b. a cystic hygroma -see pic quiz 2
A condition associated with anencephaly in which there is complete or partial absence of the cranial bones is called: a. anencephaly b. acrania c. hydranencephaly d. cebocephaly
b. acrania
Which of the following is the most common open neural tube defect? a. cephalocele b. anencephaly c. encephalocele d. acrania
b. anencephaly
An early noninvasive means of assessing the risk of aneuploidy is: a. fetal position b. nuchal translucency c. biophysical profile d. facial analysis
b. nuchal translucency
If division of one fertilized egg occurs 4 to 8 days after fertilization, there will be: a. two chorions and two amnions b. one chorion and two amnions c. one amnion and two chorions d. one amnion and one chorion
b. one chorion and two amnions
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis when multiple fractures and a compressible calvarium are identified? a. achondrogenesis b. osteogenesis imperfecta c. thanatophoric dysplasia d. achondroplasia
b. osteogenesis imperfecta
Shortening of the proximal portion of the extremity is termed: a. hemimelia b. rhizomelia c. mesomelia d. micromelia
b. rhizomelia
A 26 year old female has reported to the ultrasound department for her screening survey. When you are scanning the extremities you capture this image. What have you discovered about this fetus? a. polydactaly equinovarus b. talipes equinovarus c. syndactyly equinovarus d. clinodactyly eqinovarus Response Feedback: The sonographic image notes an image of a sagittal project of the lower leg and the bottom of the fetal foot indicative of a club foot.
b. talipes equinovarus
If the circulation of blood in a monozygotic twin gestation communicates through a single placenta, they are at a higher risk for: a. edwards syndrome b. twin-twin transfusion syndrome. c. turner's syndrome d. preeclampsia
b. twin-twin transfusion syndrome.
IUGR is evident when the fetal weight is a. Above the 10th percentile b. Below the 10th percentile c. Above the 90th percentile d. Below the 90th percentile
b. Below the 10th percentile
Which of the following is not associated with a thin placenta? a. Long standing diabetes b. Fetal Hydrops c. IUGR d. Pre-eclampsia
b. Fetal Hydrops
A full set of matched chromosomes in a fetus is referred to as a. aneuploid b. diploid c. triploid d. polyploid
b. diploid
Which of the following is not true about fibroids? a. occurs in 20-30% of women over 30 years b. may decrease in size during anovulatory cycles and pregnancy c. estrogen dependent and may be associated with pain and dysfunctional uterine bleeding d. more common in African American population at younger ages as a common cause of uterine enlargement in non-gravid female
b. may decrease in size during anovulatory cycles and pregnancy
A 28 year old female reports to the ultrasound department for an emergency ultrasound. She is very upset because her doctor could not hear her baby's heart beat. You place your transducer on the patients pelvis area and capture the image below. What do you think. a. this is a normal appearing first trimester pregnancy b. this is an abnormal appearing first trimester pregnancy c. this is an ectopic pregnancy d. there is not enough information available to make a diagnosis
b. this is an abnormal appearing first trimester pregnancy
The development of conjoined twins occurs when the division of the egg occurs: a. 3 days postconception b. 8 days postconception c. 13 days post conception d. 25 days postconception
c. 13 days post conception
The three forms of holoprosencephaly are Alobar, Semilobar and Lobar. The most severe form is a. Bilobar b. Lobar c. Alobar d. Semilobar
c. Alobar
The growth disorder syndrome synonymous with organ, skull, and tongue enlargement is: a. Apert syndrome b. Klinefelter syndrome c. Beckwith Weidman syndrome d. Meckel-Gruber syndrome
c. Beckwith Weidman syndrome
Which of the following is not a sonographic feature of holoprosencephaly? a. Proboscis with Cyclopedia b. Fused thalamus c. Cystic hydroma d. Monoventricle
c. Cystic hydroma
Widen pelvic angles and duodenal atresia are most consistent with sonographic markers for: a. Patau syndrome b. Edward syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Triploidy
c. Down syndrome
Ovulation induction drugs do not only increase the likelihood of multiple gestations, but also increase the likelihood of: a. Ovarian prolapse b. Maternal diabetes c. Heterotrophic pregnancies d. Choriocarcinoma
c. Heterotrophic pregnancies
Which of the following laboratory findings would not be consistent with trisomy 21? a. Low PAPP-A b. Low estriol c. High AFP d. High hCG
c. High AFP
A leading cause of mortality in the premature neonate is a. vein of Galen aneurysm b. Aqueductal Stenosis c. Intracranial hemorrhage d. Periventricular leukomalacia
c. Intracranial hemorrhage
Which of the following statements about microcephaly is incorrect? a. Microcephaly may manifest later in pregnancy. b. The prognosis for fetuses with microcephaly is always poor. c. Microcephaly is an abnormally large head. d. Microcephaly does not affect the head circumference.
c. Microcephaly is an abnormally large head.
Which of the following is not a sign of Arnold Chiari II syndrome? a. Colpocephaly b. Banana sign c. S-shaped spine d. Lemon sign
c. S-shaped spine
Absence of the nasal bone noted between 11 -14 weeks gestation is associated with : a. Trisomy 13 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 21 d. Pagets disease
c. Trisomy 21
The collection of fluid noted in the brain which makes the fluid that cushions the brain seen in the image below is known as a. holoprosencephaly b. hydrocephalus c. a choroid plexus cyst d. venticulomegaly
c. a choroid plexus cyst
When evaluating the nasal bone sonographically, you must tilt the probe until you see two echogenic parallel lines. What does the upper and lower lines represent a. nasal bone and the sinus cavity b. cutaneous plane and the sinus cavity c. cutaneous plane and nasal bone d. the two nasal bones
c. cutaneous plane and nasal bone
Twins that arise from two separately fertilized ova are known as: a. monozygotic b. diamniotic c. dizygotic d. monochorionic
c. dizygotic
This is the congenital absence of the cerebral hemispheres resulting from an occlusion of the carotid arteries. a. holoprosencephaly b. hydrocephalus c. hydranencephaly d. agenesis of the corpus callosum
c. hydranencephaly
A condition characterized by a decreased distance between the orbits is known as a. microphthalmia b. anophthalmia c. hypotelorism d. hypertelorism
c. hypotelorism
A 26 year old female is brought to the ultrasound department from the emergency room. She has a positive pregnancy test. She has had some vaginal bleeding and is in severe pain. You begin your sonogram and capture the image below. Based on the patients history and your sonographic image what is your impression a. this is an abnormal appearing sagittal image of the uterus and right ovary with a small prominant follicle b. this is a normal appearing sagittal image of the uterus and right ovary with a small prominant follicle c. this is an abnormal appearing coronal image of the uterus and a right adnexal mass with a sonolucent center d. this is a coronal image of the uterus and a dilated loop of bowel in the rt adnexa
c. this is an abnormal appearing coronal image of the uterus and a right adnexal mass with a sonolucent center
The maternal serum screening of a mother with the fetus with trisomy 18 will reveal: a. Increased human chorionic gonadotropin, alpha-fetoprotein, and estriol b. Decreased human chorionic gonadotropin, elevated alpha-fetoprotein, and normal estriol c. Increased alpha-fetoprotein, increased human chorionic gonadotropin, and decreased esteriol d. Decreased human chorionic gonadotropin, alpha-fetoprotein, and estriol
d. Decreased human chorionic gonadotropin, alpha-fetoprotein, and estriol
The sonographic examination of twins reveals a triangular extension of the placenta at the base of the membrane. This finding is indicative of: a. Dichorionic biamniotic twins b. Monochorionic diamniotic twins c. Biamniotic dichorionic twins d. Dichorionic diamniotic twins
d. Dichorionic diamniotic twins
Which of the following is not a complication associated with multiple gestations a. Maternal anemia b. Preterm delivery c. Maternal preeclampsia d. High birth weight
d. High birth weight
The TORCH group of infections are the most common cause of a. Arachnoid cysts b. Vermian hypoplasia c. Alobar Holoprosencephaly d. Intracranial calcifications
d. Intracranial calcifications
Identification of an encephalocele accompanied by dysplastic enlarged kidneys in the first trimester fetus is suggestive of : a. Dandy - Walker malformation b. Ventriculomegaly c. Fetal goiter d. Meckel Gruber syndrome
d. Meckel Gruber syndrome
Hydrops fetalis refers to the presence of two or more of the following fetal findings except a. Pleural effusion b. Pericardial effusion c. Skin edema d. Oligohydramnios
d. Oligohydramnios
What rare disorder is characterized by clefts in the cerebral cortex a. Rachischisis b. Lissencephaly c. Anencephaly d. Schizencephaly
d. Schizencephaly
A fetus with a karyotype revealing it has 69 chromosomes with sonographic findings of webbed fingers and intrauterine growth restriction most likely has: a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Turner syndrome d. Triploidy
d. Triploidy
Nonimmune hydrops and ovarian dysgenesis are found in fetuses affected by: a. Trisomy 13 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 21 d. Turner syndrome
d. Turner syndrome
A high venous flow is found in fetuses with what rare arteriovenous malformation of the central nervous system a. Dandy Walker Malformation b. Choroid papilloma c. Arachnoid cysts d. Vein of Galen malformation
d. Vein of Galen malformation
A vein of Galen malformation is: Selected Answer: a. a sporadic event b. a rare arteriovenous malformation c. an aneurysm of the Galen vein d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Which of the following is the most severe form of holoprosencephaly, characterized by a single common ventricle and malformed brain? Orbital anomalies range from fused orbits to hypotelorism, with frequent nasal anomalies and clefting of the lip and palate. a. anencephaly b. acrania c. cephalocele d. alobar
d. alobar
The sonographic image below notes: a. a cebocephalic fetus b. a fetus with an encephalocele c. a normal profile of a fetus d. an anencephalic fetus Response Feedback: The sonographic image notes a profile of a fetus. Note that the calvarium is missing, consistent with anencephaly
d. an anencephalic fetus
Which of the following fetal head anomalies is characterized by the presence of a single primitive ventricle? a. arachnoid cyst b. schizencephaly c. Dandy-Walker malformation d. holoprosencephaly
d. holoprosencephaly
A common reason for concern with an elevation in maternal serum AFP (MSAFP) is: a. chromosomal abnormality b. neural tube defect c. abdominal wall defect d. incorrect dates
d. incorrect dates
What vessel in the "Circle of Willis" is commonly sampled to obtain Doppler waveforms during fetal cerebral circulation studies a. posterior cerebral artery b. anterior cerebral artery c. siphon of the internal carotid artery d. middle cerebral artery
d. middle cerebral artery
Diabetes during pregnancy increases the neonates risk of: a. hyperbilirubinemia b. respiratory distress c. polycythemia d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Chronic hypertension is blood pressure that: a. is documented before pregnancy b. is documented prior to 20 weeks gestational age c. complicates about 1 to 5% of all pregnancies. d. all of these are descritors of chronic hypertension
d. all of these are descritors of chronic hypertension
Question 14 1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of pre-eclampsia a. high blood pressure b. rapid weight gain in the second half of pregnancy c. proteinuria d. increased blood flow to the placenta
d. increased blood flow to the placenta
A 45 year old women has arrived in the genetics department for a fetal survey and possible amniocentesis. You completed the sonogram and everything looks normal. The nurse has taken the women and her husband off to counsel them about their risk of having a baby with a chromosomal defect. The patient has returned to your room and is waiting to be talk with the doctor about having an amniocentesis. The parents decide that they do not want to have the amniocentesis. What should be done a. the doctor should insist that they have the procedure since he knows what is best b. the doctor or nurse should consult longer with the family to make sure they understand that they are wrong c. nothing since you did a sonogram and did not see anything wrong why should the patient be forced to have a test she doesn't want d. respect the patients decision and allow them to leave without incident
d. respect the patients decision and allow them to leave without incident
The most common true cysts of the brain making up 1% of all space occupying lesions in children is a. Subependymal cyst b. Choroid plexus cyst c. Colloid cyst d. Dandy-Walker variant. e. arachnoid cyst
e. arachnoid cyst