oncology

9. A pt asks the nurse why untreated cancers cause GI problems. Which responses are appropriate? select all A "A tumor in the bowel can decrease your ability to absorb necessary nutrients." B "The tumor makes you not feel hungry or thirsty and affects your urinary output." C "It stops the absorption of necessary fat and protein enzymes." D "Cancers of the GI tract are known to cause related bowel problems." E "Tumors may increase metabolic needs which you are unable to meet."

A "A tumor in the bowel can decrease your ability to absorb necessary nutrients." A "A tumor in the bowel can decrease your ability to absorb necessary nutrients." E "Tumors may increase metabolic needs which you are unable to meet."

44. Indicate which chemotherapeutic agents are vesicants (V) and which are irritants (I) A Daunorubicin B Mitomycin C C leomycin D Vincristine E Paclitaxel

A Daunorubicin V B Mitomycin C V C leomycin I D Vincristine V E Paclitaxel I

45. When thinning or loss of hair is a known side effect of a drug being administered, what does the nurse do? select all A Have the pt use gentle hair shampoo B help the pt select the wigs, turbans, or scarves C instruct the pt that hair loss is permanent D Remind the pt to avoid washing the hair E suggest complementary and alternative therapies to the pt

A Have the pt use gentle hair shampoo B help the pt select the wigs, turbans, or scarves

Which statements about cell mitosis are true? A It is a term for cell division B. Mitosis occurs to develop normal tissue. C. Mitosis occurs to replace damaged or lost tissue. D. Mitosis occurs randomly throught the life cycle. E. Apoptosis is another term for mitosis. F. Mitosis occurs only when body conditions and nutritions are appropriate.

A It is a term for cell division B. Mitosis occurs to develop normal tissue. C. Mitosis occurs to replace damaged or lost tissue. F. Mitosis occurs only when body conditions and nutritions are appropriate.

Which pt would have the best prognosis for survival based on the TNM staging classification listed? A T15N0M0 B TxNxMx C T2N1M0 D T2N3M1

A T15N0M0

29. What are the side effects of radiation? select all A altered taste sensation B skin changes and permanent local hair loss C diarrhea and tooth loss D immunosuppression and weight gain E fatigue

A altered taste sensation B skin changes and permanent local hair loss E fatigue

What information can be obtained by surgical staging? A assessment of tumor size B number of tumors C sites of tumors D pattern of spread of tumors E pain related to tumors

A assessment of tumor size B number of tumors C sites of tumors D pattern of spread of tumors

Which characteristics describe a "high-grade" tumor? select all A barely resembles the parent cell B slow-growing C rapidly metastasizes D easiest to cure E very aggressive

A barely resembles the parent cell C rapidly metastasizes E very aggressive

For which types of cancer is risk modifable? select all A breast B colon C ovarian D prostate E cervical F lymphatic

A breast B colon C ovarian E cervical

Which are cancers that have genetic predisposition? select all A breast B colorectal C melanoma D bladder E lung

A breast B colorectal C melanoma

14. For what purpose may cancer survivors need reconstructive surgery? select all A breast reconstruction B revision of scars and release of contractures C bowel reconstruction D pain relief E increase organ function

A breast reconstruction B revision of scars and release of contractures C bowel reconstruction

How does the immune system protect the body from cancer? select all A by using cell-mediated immunity B by using natural killer cells C by using antibody-mediated immunity D by using helper T-cells E identifying cancer cells as "non-self" cells

A by using cell-mediated immunity B by using natural killer cells D by using helper T-cells E identifying cancer cells as "non-self" cells

Promoter may include which factors? select all A chemicals B hormones C drugs D antibodies E viruses

A chemicals B hormones C drugs E viruses

Which are actions of carcinogens? select all A damage the DNA B change the activity of a cell C turn off proto-oncogenes D create allergic reactions E begin the initation step of carcinogenesis

A damage the DNA B change the activity of a cell C turn off proto-oncogenes

30. For a pt undergoing external radiation therapy, what do the nurse's instructions include? select all A do not remove markings B do not use lotions or ointments C avoid direct skin exposure to sunlight for up to a year D use soap and water on the affected skin E do not rub treated areas

A do not remove markings B do not use lotions or ointments C avoid direct skin exposure to sunlight for up to a year E do not rub treated areas

What are the primary factors influencing the development of cancer? select all A environmental exposure to carcinogens B gender of pt C genetic predisposition D immune function E health history

A environmental exposure to carcinogens C genetic predisposition D immune function E health history

11. Which examples illustrate appropriate prophylactic cancer surgery? select all A excision of lesions shown on biopsy to be "precancerous." B removal of tissue which may be predisposed to cancer development due to family history C Removal of a mole that is often irritated by the pts wristbanc D breast reconstruction after a mastectomy E removing part of a tumor to provide pain relief

A excision of lesions shown on biopsy to be "precancerous." B removal of tissue which may be predisposed to cancer development due to family history

54. The nurse is responsible for teaching both the immunosuppressed pt and the family about health promoting activities. Which are the most important activities to teach? select all A handwashing B isolation C boiling dishes D wearing masks E eliminating fresh fruit from the pts diet

A handwashing E eliminating fresh fruit from the pts diet

Which are included in the sever warning signs of cancer? select all A hoarseness B a thickening lump C obvious change in a mole D inability of a sore to heal E difficulty swallowing

A hoarseness B a thickening lump C obvious change in a mole D inability of a sore to heal E difficulty swallowing

32. What are the rationales for chemotherapy as a cancer treatment? select all A increases survival time for the pt B decreases the pts risk for life-threatening complications C systemic treatment for cancer cells that may have escaped from the primary tumor D concentrates in secondary lymphoid tissues and widespread metastasis E less expensive and safer than radiation therapy

A increases survival time for the pt C systemic treatment for cancer cells that may have escaped from the primary tumor

A few viruses are known as oncoviruses because they perform which actions? select all A infect the cell B break the DNA chain C insert their own genetic material D mutate the cell's DNA E grow slowly

A infect the cell B break the DNA chain C insert their own genetic material D mutate the cell's DNA

25. Which factors are used to determine a cancer patient's absorbed radiation dose? select all A intensity of radiation exposure B proximity of radiation source to the cells C duration of exposure D age of the pt E previous radiation therapy

A intensity of radiation exposure B proximity of radiation source to the cells C duration of exposure

46. Which statements are true regarding nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy administration? select all A it is a common side effect of emetogenic agents B it usually lasts for 1 to 2 days after administration C it lasts as long as 3 wks after administration D it is purely psychosomatic E most chemotherapy drugs do not induce vomiting.

A it is a common side effect of emetogenic agents B it usually lasts for 1 to 2 days after administration

50. Bone marrow suppression causes a decrease in which bodily components to occur? select all A leukocytes B parenchyma C erythrocytes D platelets E blook

A leukocytes C erythrocytes D platelets

Which are dietary practices that may help reduce the risk of cancer? select all A low-fat diet B avoidance of nitrates C eating foods high in vitamins A and C D maximize intake of red meat E increase fiber intake

A low-fat diet B avoidance of nitrates C eating foods high in vitamins A and C E increase fiber intake

49. What techniques are included in oral care for a pt with stomatitis? select all A observation B hard-bristled toothbrush C saline mouthwash D glycerin swabs E commercial mouthwashes F petroleum jelly to lips after each mouth care

A observation C saline mouthwash F petroleum jelly to lips after each mouth care

Which people are considered to be at greater risk for develping cancer? select all A organ transplant recipients B adults over 60 C people with AIDS D african americans E people who are immunocompromised

A organ transplant recipients B adults over 60 C people with AIDS D african americans E people who are immunocompromised

Which characteristics describe the initiated cell's responses to the promoter? Select all A promoted or enhanced cell growth B shortened latency period C lengthened latency period D metastasis E irreversible changes in the cell

A promoted or enhanced cell growth B shortened latency period C lengthened latency period

Ionizing radiation is found in which elements? select all A radon B uranium C soil D water E medical x-rays

A radon B uranium C soil E medical x-rays

13. Palliative surgery may be performed for which reasons? select all A relieving pain B relieving an obstruction C curing the cancer D diagnostic staging E destroying the tumor

A relieving pain B relieving an obstruction

Which factors are forms of UV radiation? select all A sun (solar) B tanning beds C medical x-rays D radon E germicidal lights

A sun (solar) B tanning beds E germicidal lights

43. The nurse administering a vesicant must be prepared for complications and must have knowledge of which information? select all A the antidote B the pH of the vesicant C the correct method of documentation for extravasation D type of available dressing E how to use hot or cold packs

A the antidote C the correct method of documentation for extravasation

24. What is the meaning of the "inverse square law for radiation exposure? A the further away a person is from a radiation source, the less radiation is absorbed. B when chemotherapy is added to the treatment regiment, less radiation is needed C As the distance from the radiation source increases, more tumor cells are killed D Less radiation is needed if natural sources are used

A the further away a person is from a radiation source, the less radiation is absorbed.

28. At what point is a pt radioactive when receiving radiation treatment by teletherapy and therefore a potential danger to other people? A the pt is never radioactive B when the linear accelerator is turned on C for the first 24 to 48 hrs after treatment D until the radiation source has decayed by at least one half-life

A the pt is never radioactive

26. Which statements about stereotactic body radiotherapy are true? select all A the radiation beam is broken into thousands of smaller beams B a greater number of normal cells are "spared." C. Three dimensional tumor imaging is used. D. higher radiation doses may be used E radiation is implanted in the patient's tissue

A the radiation beam is broken into thousands of smaller beams B a greater number of normal cells are "spared." C. Three dimensional tumor imaging is used. D. higher radiation doses may be used

Which statement correctly describes metastatic tumors? \ A they are caused by cells breaking off from the primary tumor B they become less malignant over time C they are less harmful that a primary tumor D they become the tissue of the organ where they spread

A they are caused by cells breaking off from the primary tumor

Why do cancer cells spread throughout the body? select all A they make little fibronectin B they are able to metastasize C they are persistent in their growth D cell division occurs under adverse conditions E they have only one enzyme on their surface

A they make little fibronectin B they are able to metastasize C they are persistent in their growth D cell division occurs under adverse conditions

Benign cells have which characteristics? Select all A tissue unneccesary for normal function B Resemble the parent tissue C Have a small nucleus D. Perform their differentiated function E. Invade other tissues F. nonmigratory G. Aneuploid

A tissue unneccesary for normal function B Resemble the parent tissue C Have a small nucleus D. Perform their differentiated function F. nonmigratory

Which statements are true regarding tobacco use and cancer risk? select all A tobacco is considered an initiator of cancer B tobacco is considered a promotor of cancer C a person's risk for cancer depends on the amount of tobacco use D A persons risk for cancer depends on the type of tobacco use E those who receive secondhand tobacco smoke have the same risk for cancer as those in direct contact with tobacco smoke

A tobacco is considered an initiator of cancer B tobacco is considered a promotor of cancer C a person's risk for cancer depends on the amount of tobacco use D A persons risk for cancer depends on the type of tobacco use

During metastasis which actions take place? select all A tumor vascularization results in blood supply to the tumor B enzymes open up pores in the patient's blood vessels C clumps of the cells break off for transport D cells stop circulating and then invade E increased tumor size causes invasion of surrounding tissues

A tumor vascularization results in blood supply to the tumor B enzymes open up pores in the patient's blood vessels C clumps of the cells break off for transport D cells stop circulating and then invade E increased tumor size causes invasion of surrounding tissues

10. Which factors determine the type of therapy for cancer? select all A type and location of cancer B overall health of the pt C whether the cancer has metastasized D family history and genetics E previous lymph node biopsy

A type and location of cancer B overall health of the pt C whether the cancer has metastasized D family history and genetics

Which measures are considered secondary prevention for cancer? select all A yearly mammograms for women over 40 B avoidance of tobacco C yearly fecal occult blood testing in adults D removing colon polyps E using sunscreen when outdoors F colonoscopy at age 50 then every 10 yrs G chemoprevention with vitamin therapy

A yearly mammograms for women over 40 C yearly fecal occult blood testing in adults F colonoscopy at age 50 then every 10 yrs

Which are characteristics of neoplasia? Select all A. New or continued cell growth that is not needed for tissue replacement B. Is always malignant C. has a parent cell that was normal D. Typically leads to death E. Is always abnormal F. Some cause no harm

A. New or continued cell growth that is not needed for tissue replacement C. has a parent cell that was normal E. Is always abnormal F. Some cause no harm

Abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell

Aneuploidy

35. Cross-links DNA; prevents RNA synthesis

Anti-tumor antibiotics

33. "Counterfeit" chemicals that fool cancer cells into using them, but prevent cell division

Antimetabolites

36. A plant source that interferes with formation of microtubules

Antimitotic agents

Programmed cell death

Apoptosis

Which areas of the body contain cells which grow throughout the life span? Select all A Heart B Hair C Brain D Bone marrow E Skin

B Hair D Bone marrow E Skin

4. Which common hematologic conditions result from cancer invading the bone marrow? select all A cachexia B anemia C bruising D thrombocytopenia E bleeding

B anemia D thrombocytopenia

The American Cancer Society reports that the cancer incidence and survival rate are related to which factors? select all A gender B availability of health care services C early health care D age E race

B availability of health care services C early health care

38. Each chemotherapeutic agent has a specific nadir. what is important to do when giving combination therapy? A give two agents with like nadirs B avoid giving agents with like nadirs at the same time C allow for one agent's nadir to recover before giving another agent D give two agents from the same drug class

B avoid giving agents with like nadirs at the same time

12. What is the purpose of cytoreductive surgery for cancer? A cancer prevention by removal of "at risk" tissue B cancer control by reducing the size of the tumor C cancer cure by removing all gross and microscopic tumor tissue D improving the function or appearance of a previously treated body area

B cancer control by reducing the size of the tumor

2. Cancer invading the bone marrow can cause with effects? select all A hpyokalemia B decreased RBC's C pathologic fractures D degenerative joint disease E thrombocytopenia

B decreased RBC's C pathologic fractures E thrombocytopenia

51. What clinical manifiestations does the nurse expect in a pt who has chemotherapy induced bone marrow suppression? select all A alopecia B fatigue C bleeding gums D dry skin E diarrhea F pallor

B fatigue C bleeding gums F pallor

1. Which type of cancer puts pts at greatest rist for infection? A breast B leukemia C lung D prostate

B leukemia

37. What is the lowest level of bone marrow activity and WBCs called? A anemia B nadir C leukopenia D immunosuppression

B nadir

41. Most chemotherapy is administered intravenously. Which are major complications? select all A electrolyte imbalance B tissue damage C extravasation D thrombus formation E bruising

B tissue damage C extravasation

27. Why is the therapeutic dose of radiation fractionated for cancer treatment? A to reduce total treatment cost B to ensure a higher cancer cell kill with less damage to normal cells C to prevent profound bone marrow suppression with resulting anemia D to allow time for chemotherapy to first reduce the tumor size

B to ensure a higher cancer cell kill with less damage to normal cells

3. Which statements about gastrointestinal function and cancer are true? select all? A only cancers within the GI system alter the GI function B tumors may increase metabolic rate C a low-fat diet improves survival rates for people with cancer D the liver is a common site of cancer metastasis E gaining weight during cancer therapy indicates successful treatment.

B tumors may increase metabolic rate D the liver is a common site of cancer metastasis

40. What does a course of chemotherapy normally include? select all A rounds every week for a total of 6 wks B variance with pts responses to therapy C timed dosing of the therapy to minimize normal cell damage D a concurrent dose of radiation E the administration of one specific anticancer drug

B variance with pts responses to therapy C timed dosing of the therapy to minimize normal cell damage

39.Chemotherapy drug dosage is based on total body surface area (TBSA); therefore, what is it important for the nurse to do? A ask the pts height and weight B with and measure the pts height C assess body mass index D measure abdominal girth

B with and measure the pts height

Which statements are true of cancer cells? select all A. the are slow-growing B. Cancer cells divide nearly continuously C. they are harmful to the body. D. they are abnormal E cancer cells contain a small nucleus F they have an unlimited life span

B. Cancer cells divide nearly continuously C. they are harmful to the body. D. they are abnormal F they have an unlimited life span

Nurses have an important role in which components of cancer care? Select all A. Disclosing the initial diagnosis of cancer B. Education of the public regarding cancer prevention C. Education of the public regarding early detection D. Advising the patient about the various cancer treatment options E. Determining the best treatment modalities for the patient's cancer

B. Education of the public regarding cancer prevention E. Determining the best treatment modalities for the patient's cancer

Which statements is true about hypertrophy and hyperplasia? A Hypertrophy and hyperplasia are the same, except that one is an on organ and the other is in tissue. B. Hypertrophy is the expansion of cells; hyperplasia is an increased number of cells. C. Hypertrophy is an increase in the number of cells , hyperplasia is the expansion of cells. D. Hypertrophy is a decrease in the number of cells, hyperplasia is the shrinkage of cells.

B. Hypertrophy is the expansion of cells; hyperplasia is an increased number of cells.

How is a gene that is "turned on" described: A repressed B suppressed C Expressed D Depressed

C Expressed

If a primary tumor is located in a vital organ, what happens? A the organ's rate of cell division is increased B The organ's response to injury is decreased C There is interference with the organ's functioning D function of the organ is initially increased

C There is interference with the organ's functioning

Which groups have the highest rate of incidence, death rate, and largest increase in incidence of cancer? select all A whites B hispanics C african americans D asian americans E lower socioeconomic people

C african americans E lower socioeconomic people

48. Because of the rapid cell division in the GI tract, what is the effect of chemotherapy? A Kills off the cells immediately B prevents the body from replacing cells C causes cells to be killed more rapidly than they can be produced D helps to increase cell division

C causes cells to be killed more rapidly than they can be produced

31. Why does the nurse wear a dosimeter when providing care to a pt receiving brachytherapy? A indicate special expertise in radiation therapy B protect the nurse from absorbing radiation C determine the amount of radiation exposure experienced D ensure that the radiation source remains active

C determine the amount of radiation exposure experienced

Which information can be obtained from grading a tumor? select all A cause of the cancer B location of metastasis C evaluating prognosis and appropriate therapy D how long the cancer has been present E Cell differntiation

C evaluating prognosis and appropriate therapy E Cell differntiation

42. What is the major side effect that limits the dose of chemotherapy? A nausea and vomiting B peripheral neuropathy C bone marrow suppression D dry desquamation of the skin

D dry desquamation of the skin

47 Which phrase best describes stomatitis? A lesions located in the GI tract B an infection within the stomach lining C a generalized infection within the bowel lining D sores located in the mouth

D sores located in the mouth

The special function of a normal cell which contributes to homeostasis

Differentiated function

Normal number of chromosomes within the cells

Euploidy

What factors influence cancer development in a pt?

Exposure to carcinogens genetic predisposition immune function

Once a cell has been initiated, it is a recognizable tumor.

False, if promotion occurs and the cancer cell is able to divide

5.Pain is present with all cancers

False, pain does not always accompany cancer

17. Normal cells are not damaged during radiation therapy.

False, some damage to normal tissues cannot be avoided during radiation therapy

19. The goal of radiation therapy is to administer enough treatment to kill all of the cancer cells.

False, the optimum dose of radiation is one that can kill the cancer cells with an acceptable level of damage to normal tissues

7. The primary goal of cancer treatment is to cure the pt.

False, the purpose of cancer treatment is to prolong survival time and improve the quality of life

16. The dosage of radiation is commonly determined by cell cycle.

False, the total dose of radiation needed depends on the size and location of the tumor and on the radiation sensitivity of the tumor and surrounding normal tissues

22. Needles and seeds for sealed radiation sources make the pt and his or excrement radioactive.

False, with needles and seed implants the pt emits radiation while the implant is in place, but the exretes are not radioactive

Growth that causes tissue to increase in size by increasing the number of cells

Hyperplasia

Growth that causes tissue to increase in size by enlarging each cell

Hypertrophy

Cell division

Mitosis

34. Causes major damages to DNA and RNA synthesis

Topoisomerase inhibitor

15. Cell damage occurs with any exposure to radiation, which may cause the cell to die or lose the ability to divide.

True

18. Each cell has its own response to radiation such as dying, becoming sterile, or repairing itself.

True

20. Brachytherapy involves the use of isotopes placed on or near the cancer tissue, making the patient hazardous to others.

True

21. Unsealed radiation sources can be given orally, intravaneously, or as an instillation in a body cavity, making patients and their excrement radioactive f. or 48 hours.

True

23. Teletherapy is also called beam therapy

True

52. Biological response modifier drugs stimulate the immune system to recognize the immune system to recognize cancer cells and take action to eliminate or destroy them?

True

53. Some BRMs stimulate recovery of bone marrow function after treatment induced suppression

True

6. pts with lung cancer can develop pulmonary edema and dyspnea

True

8. Surgery for a cancer pt may be a part of diagnosis or treatment.

True

As the tumor cells grow, there are changes within the tumor cells themselves allowing for "selection advantages."

True

If growth conditions are right, wide-spread metastatic disease can develop from just one cancer cell

True

In carcinogenesis and oncogenesis a normal cell undergoes malignant transformation

True

Initiators start irreversible mutations in a normal cell

True