Order Entry and Processing: Week 8
Which of the following abbreviations should NOT be used in prescriptions? A. "aa" B. "dc" C. "dtd" D. "emul"
"dc" *Should not be used because it may be misinterpreted to mean discontinue or discharge.
A prescription for isotretinoin is presented to the pharmacy; what is the maximum number of refills permitted for this prescription? A. 0 B. 1 C. 6 D. 12
0 *Refills are no permitted on prescription isotretinoin.
What is the maximum number of refills permitted by law for the following prescription? Hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5 mg/325 mg #40 1 tab PO q 4-6 h prn pain A. 0 B. 1 C. 5 D. 12
0 *The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 does not permit refills for Schedule II controlled substances, which Hydrocodone/acetaminophen is classified as.
Which is the maximum BUD that may be assigned to a water-containing oral formulation of a nonsterile compound at a controlled cold temperature? A. 10 days B. 12 days C. 14 days D. 16 days
14 days *USP 795 states that the maximum BUD for a water-containing oral formulation stored at controlled cold temperature is 14 days.
An individual wishes to purchase a 4-ounce bottle of guaifenesin with codeine, which is classified as an "exempt narcotic". How old must a person be to purchase this medication? A. 12 years B. 16 years C. 18 years D. 21 years
18 years *The Comprehensive Drug Abuse and Control Act of 1970 allows an individual age 18 years or older to purchase a 4-oz bottle of exempt narcotic every 48 hours.
Mary Smith presents a prescription to be filled for her child. Which relationship code should the pharmacy technician enter when processing the prescription? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
2 *A child is assigned to a relationship of code 2 *Cardholder: code 0 *Spouse: code 1
A patient is prescribed Proventil HFA for bronchospasms; which of the following would be appropriate directions? A. 1 inhalation every 12 hours B. 1 spray qid C. 1-2 sprays/nostril bid D. 2 puffs inhaled q4-6h
2 puffs inhaled q4-6h *Appropriate directions for Proventil HFA is 2 puffs inhaled every 4-6 hours.
The following prescription is presented to the pharmacy. How many days will the prescription last the patient? Alendronate Plus D #4 1 tab po q week A. 4 days B. 7 days C. 28 days D. 30 days
28 days *Prescription for Alendronate Plus D will last 28 days.
What is the minimum amount of time that a patient must wait before purchasing another bottle of an exempt narcotic? A. 24 hr B. 48 hr C. 72 hr D. 96 hr
48 hr *A person must wait 48 hours after purchasing an "exempt" controlled substance before purchasing another bottle.
A prescriber of controlled substances may issue multiple prescriptions authorizing the patient to receive a total of up to how many days of Schedule II controlled substance? A. 30 days B. 45 days C. 60 days D. 90 days
90 days *A prescriber of controlled substances may issue multiple prescription authorizing the patient to receive a total of up to a 90-day supply of a Schedule II controlled substance
What is MedWatch? A. A program that identifies controlled substances being overprescribed in areas where there has been an outbreak of heroin overdoses B. A reporting program available to pharmacies indicating physicians who may be overprescribing narcotics C. A reporting program available to health care providers to report adverse events that pose serious health threats D. A service established by the AARP to monitor polypharmacy in elderly adults
A reporting program available to health care providers to report adverse events that pose serious health threats *MedWatch is a program instituted by the FDA that involves the voluntary reporting of adverse health events.
The abbreviation "qs ad" appears on a prescription; what is its meaning? A sufficient quantity to deliver the correct dose B. A sufficient quantity for the right ear C. A sufficient quantity for the right eye D. A sufficient quantity to make
A sufficient quantity to make "qs ad" is a direction to the pharmacist in compounding a prescription meaning "to make up to" a given weights or volume of a substance.
Which term refers to the "0" in 5.0 mg? A. A leading zero B. A place holder C. A trailing zero D. The tenth's column
A trailing zero *According to The Joint Commission (TJC), the "0" in 5.0 mg is known as a trailing zero.
Which therapeutic equivalent code is assigned to a medication in conventional dosage forms not presenting bioequivalence problems? A. A B. AA C. B D. B*
AA *Conventional dosage forms not presenting bioequivalence problems. *A: therapeutically equivalent *B: not therapeutically equivalent (B* requires further investigation by the FDA)
Which of the following drugs requires a medication guide to be given to the patient every time they receive a prescription of that medication? A. Alendronate B. Ampicillin C. Cephalexin D. Normal saline
Alendronate *A medication guide for alendronate (fosamax) must be given to the patient every time they receive a prescription for it.
A patient is being treated for hypertension with hydrochlorothiazide. Their physician has ordered a chemistry panel be performed on the patient. What will the lab results indicate? A. A decrease in the patient' blood sugar B. A decrease in the patient's blood urea nitrogen (BUN) C. An increase in the patient's blood sugar D. An increase in the patient's BUN
An increase in the patient's blood sugar *A patient being prescribed hydrochlorothiazide may see an increase in blood sugar.
A patient is being prescribed Hytrin for benign prostate hypertrophy. When should the patient take their medication? A. After meals B. At bedtime C. Before meals D. In the morning
At bedtime *A patient should take Hytrin at bedtime.
Which Medication Error Reporting and Prevention (MERP) category is assigned when the error occurred may have contributed to the patient's death? A. Category G B. Category H C. Category I D. Category J
Category I *Medication errors that are defined as an error that may have contributed or resulted in patient's death.
Alkeran and Leukeran are examples of: A. Drugs found on the "Do Not Crush" drug list B. Medication found on The Joint Commission 's "Do Not Use" list C. Confused drug names D. Nonproprietary drugs
Confused drug names *Alkeran and Leukeran are examples of confused drug names by the Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)
Which of the following medications should be dispensed to the patient in the manufacturer's container? A. Crixivan B. Difluican C. Epitol D. Singulair
Crixivan *Crixivan capsules are sensitive to moisture. Should be dispensed and stored in the original container.
A physician has authorized a generic medication to be dispensed to a patient, but the patient wishes to receive the brand name drug. Which DAW number would be used in submitting this prescription claim to the third-party provider? A. DAW 0 B. DAW 1 C. DAW 2 D. DAW 3
DAW 2 *Substitution allowed *DAW 0: no product selection indicated *DAW 1: substitution not allowed by provider *DAW 3: substitution allowed-pharmacist selected product dispensed
Which of the following is a side effect of a diphenhydramine? A. Drowsiness B. Rapid heartbeat C. Stomach distress D. Watery eyes
Drowsiness *A common side effect of diphenhydramine is drowsiness.
What do the three sets of numbers in a National Drug Code (NDC) number reflect? A. Drug manufacturer, drug product, and the year the New Drug application (NDA) was filed B. Drug manufacturer, drug product, and drug schedule C. Drug manufacturer, drug name, and drug strength D. Drug manufacturer, drug product, and package
Drug manufacturer, drug product, and package *The Drug Listing Act of 1972 provided a unique numbering system for each product. This 11-digit number identifies the manufacturer, the product, and the packaging.
What do the last two numbers of a National Drug Code (NDC) number indicate? A. Drug manufacturer B. Drug product C. Drug package D. Drug quantity
Drug package *The last two digits of a NDC number indicates the drug package.
What is the meaning of DUE? A. Directions under evaluation B. Drug under evaluation C. Drug used externally D. Drug utilization evaluation
Drug utilization evaluation *DUE is an acronym for drug utilization evaluation, which is mandated under OBRA '90.
When must a pharmacy technician perform a biennial inventory of controlled substances stocked in the pharmacy? A. Every other year B. Every 2 years after an initial inventory is completed C. Twice a year after an initial inventory is completed D. When a new pharmacist assumes the role of the pharmacist-in-charge
Every 2 years after an initial inventory is completed *A biennial inventory must be performed every 2 years after initial inventory is completed.
A patient complains to the pharmacy of experiencing adverse effects associated with a specific medication. Which organization should be provided with this information? A. CDC B. FAERS C. ISMP D. VAERS
FAERS *Adverse effects associated with medications can be reported through the FDA Adverse Event Reporting System (FAERS). *Adverse effects associated with vaccines should be reported through VAERS. *ISMP operates two medication error reporting programs.
Which of the following organization's websites should a pharmacy technician refer to in obtaining information for a drug recall of valsartan? A. CDC B. CMS C. FDA D. USP
FDA *A pharmacy technician can obtain information regarding a drug recall of valsartan from the FDA website. *CDC provides information regarding recalled vaccines. *Information involving drug recalls does not appear on either the CMS or USP websites.
Which organization established and oversees MedWatch as a voluntary program to report adverse events or sentinel events that are observed or suspected for human medical products, which include serious drug side effects? A. CDC B. FDA C. ISMP D. TJC
FDA *Established and oversees MedWatch
Which of the following may increase the effects of griseofulvin? A. Cranberry juice B. Fatty foods C. Grapefruit juice D. Spinach
Fatty foods *May increase the effect of griseofulvin
What is the maximum number of allowable refills for a prescription of acetaminophen/codeine? A. None B. One C. Five D. Six
Five *Acetaminophen/codeine is considered a Schedule III; maximum number of refills is 5 within 6 months of the date the prescription was written
What is the maximum number of refills allowed for a lorazepam prescription? A. None B. One C. Five D. Unlimited
Five *Lorazepam is classified as a Schedule IV control. According to the Controlled Substances Act of 1970, the maximum number of authorized refills is five.
A patient pays $20/prescription for brand name drugs and $10/prescription for generic drugs. Which type of copayment is this? A. Fixed B. Percentage C. Variable D. Restricted
Fixed *Has a pre determined dollar amount per prescription filled
What auxiliary label should be included on a container of medication that has the following instruction: "iv gtt au bid"? A. For external use B. For the ear C. For the eye D. Use rectally
For the ear "au" means each ear
Which auxiliary label should be affixed to a prescription bottle for a medication that has the following instruction: "i gtt os bid" ? A. For external use B. For the ear C. For the eye D. Use rectally
For the eye *Os means left eye
Which is another name for a nonproprietary drug? A. Brand name drug B. Generic drug C. Investigational drug D. OTC drug
Generic drug *A nonproprietary drug is another name for a generic drug *A proprietary drug is another name for a brand drug *Investigational drugs have not been approved for use by the FDA. *An OTC medication is an over-the-counter medication that does not need a prescription from a physician to be purchased.
Which is the basic unit of measurement of weight in the metric system? A. Gram B. Kilogram C. Microgram D. Milligram
Gram *Basic unit of measurement of weight in the metric system
Which of the following provided for the first comprehensive federal protection for the privacy of health information? A. HIPAA Electronic Health Care Transactions and Code Set standards B. HIPAA Privacy Rule C. HIPAA Security Rule D. HIPAA Transaction Rule
HIPAA Privacy Rule *Addresses a patient's health information. Requires that provider does business electronically to use the same health care transactions, code sets, and identification. *Compels administrative, technic and physical safeguards to protect the patient's health information.
Which organization established a list of "high-alert medications" for acute care, community care, and long-term pharmacies? A. ASHP B. ISMP C. TJC D. USP
ISMP *Established high-alert medication lists for acute, community, and long-term care pharmacies.
MEDMARX is overseen by which organization? A. ASHP B. IOM C. ISMP D. USP
ISMP *The Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) oversees MEDMARX
A vaccine error was discovered by the pharmacy technician. To which organization should this error be reported? A. FDA B. ISMP C. TJC D. USP
ISMP *Vaccine errors should be reported to the ISMP National Vaccine Error Reporting Program (ISMP VERP).
Which organization issued the List of Error-Prone Abbreviations, Symbols, and Dose Designations? A. ISMP B. National Association Boards of Pharmacy C. State Board of Pharmacy D. TJC
ISMP (Institute of Safe Medication Practices) *Developed the List of Error-Prone Abbreviations, Symbols, and Dose Designations. *TJC (The Joint Commission) developed the "Do Not Use" list of pharmacy abbreviations.
Where is an otic medication administered? A. In the ear B. In the eye C. In the rectum D. Under the tongue
In the ear *Otc refers to ear.
While processing a prescription for prenatal vitamins for a woman from her 0B-GYN, you notice she filled a prescription for tetracycline last week from her dermatologist. What should you do? A. Contact her OB-GYN B. Contact her dermatologist C. Fill the prescription D. Inform the pharmacist
Inform the pharmacist *A pharmacy technician who receives contraindications while processing a prescription evaluation should inform the pharmacist immediately. *Only the pharmacist can make a decision on what should be done with the prescription.
A patient calls the pharmacy and informs you that they forgot to take their morning dose of their medication; what do you do? A. Inform the pharmacist B. Tell them that it is alright C. Tell them to call their physician D. Tell them to take the medicine immediately
Inform the pharmacist *Only a pharmacist can instruct a patient on what should be done if they miss a dose.
A 75-year old female patient presents a prescription for nitrofurantoin to be filled; what should the pharmacy technician do? A. Contact the prescriber's office B. Fill the prescription C. Inform the pharmacist of the situation D. Refuse to fill the prescription
Inform the pharmacist of the situation *Nitrofurantoin has been identified as potentially inappropriate medication for elderly patient by the American Geriatric Society. *The pharmacy technician should inform the pharmacist of the situation.
Which type of inventory must be performed prior to dispensing the first prescription at a new pharmacy? A. Biennial B. Initial C. Perpetual D. Physical
Initial *Performed before the pharmacy's first day of business.
Interpret the following prescription. Which of the following is appropriate for this prescription? prochlorperazine 25 mg supp #12 i supp pr q 6-8 h prn N&V A. Insert one suppository pr every 6-8 hours as needed for nausea and vomiting. B. Insert one suppository every 6-8 hours for nausea and vomiting. C. Insert one suppository every 6-8 hours as needed for N&V. D. Insert one suppository rectally every 6-8 hours as needed for nausea and vomiting.
Insert one suppository rectally every 6-8 hours as needed for nausea and vomiting. *Insert i (one) supp (suppository) pr (per rectum) q (every) 6-8 h (hours) prn (as needed) for N&V (nausea and vomiting)
Interpret the following signa: Terconazole supp #7 i supp pv q hs for yeast infection X 7 nights A. Use one suppository vaginally at bedtime for yeast infection for 7 nights. B. Insert one suppository vaginally at bedtime for 7 nights. C. Insert one suppository vaginally at bedtime for yeast infection for 7 nights. D. Take one suppository at bedtime for yeast infection for 7 nights.
Insert one suppository vaginally at bedtime for yeast infection for 7 nights. *i (one) sup (suppository) pv (per vagina) q (every) hs (bedtime) for yeast infection X 7 nights
Which of the following classifications of medications are considered as "High-Alert" medications in a long-term care facility by the ISMP? A. ACE inhibitors B. Insulins C. NSAIDs D. Macrolides
Insulins *All forms and strengths of insulin are considered as high-alert medications in a long-term care facility.
Which of the following is an Internet-accessible database that hospitals and health care systems can use to report medication errors? A. ISMP B. MEDMARX C. MedWatch D. NCCMERP
MEDMARX *An internet-accessible, anonymous, medication error reporting program designed for hospitals and health systems to systematically collect, analyze, and report medication errors.
While adjudicating a prescription, the pharmacy receives the following rejection codes: 6 & 7. What do these codes indicate? A. Missing or invalid birthdate; missing or invalid person code B. Missing or invalid group number; missing or invalid cardholder ID C. Missing or invalid group number; missing or invalid gender code D. Missing or invalid patient relationship code; missing or invalid days' supply
Missing or invalid group number; missing or invalid cardholder ID *Code 6: missing or invalid group number *Code 7: missing or invalid cardholder ID number
Which of the following pieces of information is useful to verify that the correct medication has been selected from the shelf to fill a prescription? A. Expiration date B. Lot number C. NDC number D. NPI number
NDC number *Identifies the drug manufacturer, drug entity, and packaging. *It should be used when selecting the correct medication from the shelf.
What is the BUD for water-containing oral formulation that is stored at a controlled cold temperature? A. 24 hours B. 48 hours C. Not more than 4 days D. Not more than 30 days
Not more than 14 days *According to USP 795, the BUD for water containing oral formulation is no more than 4 days when stored at a controlled cold temperature.
Which of the following is required of pharmacists under the Omnibus Budge Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA '90)? A. Be immunized yearly against influenza B. Offer to counsel patients C. Provide emergency medication to a patient so their drug therapy is not interrupted D. Provide medication to a patient in EZ open container if requested
Offer to counsel patients *The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA '90) requires that an offer is made to the patient to be counseled by the pharmacist.
Which of the following categories of medications is found on the list of "High-Alert Medications" issued by the ISMP for community/ambulatory care settings? A. Antibiotics B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors C. Opioids D. Proton pump inhibitors
Opioids *Have been identified by the ISMP as a high-alert medication in community/ambulatory care settings.
Who is responsible for notifying a patient that a medication they have been prescribed has been recalled by the drug manufacturer? A. Drug manufacturer B. FDA C. Pharmacy D. Physician
Pharmacy *Responsible for notifying the patient of a drug recall for a medication that was prescribed to them.
What is the meaning of "DAW 0", when billing a prescription to an insurance carrier? A. Brand dispensed as generic B. Physician approved the use of a generic drug C. Physician approved the use of a generic drug; the patient requested brand name D. Physician requested brand name
Physician approved the use of a generic drug *DAW 0: physician approved the dispensing of a generic drug *DAW 1: physicians wants the patient to receive the brand name drug only *DAW 2: physician approved the dispensing of a generic drug, but the patient requested the brand name drug *DAW 5: pharmacy has designated this drug as its generic drug of choice
Which of the following professions permits a practitioner to prescribe medications? A. Chiropractor B. Optometrist C. Physician assistant D. Psychologist
Physician assistant *A physician assistant is permitted to prescribe medications.
All of the following are required on a prescription label EXCEPT for which one? A. Directions for usage B. Drug name with strength and quantity C. Physician's DEA number D. Prescription or serial number
Physician's DEA number *A prescriber's DEA number is NOT required on a prescription label.
A valid prescription for a controlled substance must contain which of the following? A. Prescriber's DEA number B. Prescriber's NPI number C. Prescriber's medical license D. Prescriber's Medicare number
Prescriber's DEA number *A valid prescription for a controlled substance must contain the prescriber's DEA number.
Which of the following is an example of a scheduled listed chemical product (SLCP)? A. Acetaminophen/codeine B. Methylphenidate C. Pseudoephedrine D. Tramadol
Pseudoephedrine *An example of a scheduled listed chemical product (SLCP). *Acetaminophen/codeine: Schedule III *Methylphenidate: Schedule II *Tramadol: Schedule IV
Which of the following does the superscription contain? A. Directions for usage B. Name of the medication prescribed, strength, and quantity C. Refill information D. RX symbol
RX symbol *Superscription
Which color of C should the pharmacy technician stamp on filed-paper, controlled substance prescriptions? A. Black B. Blue C. Green D. Red
Red *The Controlled Substances Act requires that a red C be stamped on a filed-paper, controlled substance prescriptions.
The pharmacy technician observes an expired bottle of atorvastatin on the shelf. What should they do? A. Dispose of it with hazardous waste B. Fill out a DEA form 41 C. Inform the pharmacist and place it in the pharmacy trash D. Remove the bottle from the shelf and segregate it with other expired medications
Remove the bottle from the shelf and segregate it with other expired medications *Expired noncontrolled substances should be removed from the shelf, segregated with other expired medications, and disposed according to the institution's policy and procedure.
REMS are required risk management plans that use risk minimization strategies beyond the professional labeling to ensure that the benefits of certain prescription drugs outweigh their risks as authorized by the Food and Drug Administration Amendments Act of 2007 (FDAAA). What is the meaning of REMS? A. Risk Evaluation and Management Strategy B. Risk Evaluation and Medication Strategy C. Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy D. Risk Evaluation and Monitoring Strategy
Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy
All of the following pharmacy abbreviations would be used for regularly scheduled maintenance medication EXCEPT A. BID B. QID C. STAT D. TID
STAT *means immediately; not used in prescribing regularly scheduled maintenance medications.
Under OBRA '90, which of the following tasks is a pharmacy technician permitted to perform? A. Call a physician and recommend a different drug dosage B. Counsel a patient with regard to his or her drug therapy C. Offer a counsel to a patient, if allowed by state law D. Screen patient profiles for drug-disease contraindications
Screen patient profiles for drug-disease contraindications *A pharmacy technician may screen patient profiles for drug-disease contraindications. *Pharmacy technicians cannot perform duties that require any type of decision-making; they may only perform technical duties.
Which of the following would be an appropriate auxiliary label for an inhaled corticosteroid medication? A. Discard After 14 Days Use B. May Cause Drowsiness C. Refrigerate D. Shake Well
Shake Well *Prescriptions for inhaled corticosteroids should bear a "Shake Well" label affixed to the prescription box.
A patient is prescribed enoxaparin; how should it be administered? A. Intravenously B. Orally C. Subcutaneously D. Topically
Subcutaneously *Enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously.
Which of the following auxiliary labels would be appropriate for a prescription of potassium chloride extended release capsules? A. Avoid sunlight B. Swallow whole; Do not chew or crush C. Take on an empty stomach D. This medication may impair your ability to operate a vehicle, vessel, or machinery
Swallow whole; Do not chew or crush *Potassium chloride extended release capsules should not be chewed or crushed.
Which interpretation of the following instructions is correct? 30-mL MOM PO ac and hs prn A. Take one teaspoonful of milk of magnesia by mouth before meals and at bedtime as needed. B. Take one tablespoonful of milk of magnesia by mouth after meals and at bedtime as needed. C. Take 30 mL (1 oz) of milk of magnesia by mouth after meals and at bedtime as needed. D. Take 30 mL (1 oz) of milk of magnesia by mouth before meals and at bedtime as needed.
Take 30 mL (1 oz) of milk of magnesia by mouth before meals and at bedtime as needed. *30 mL (1 oz) of MOM (milk of magnesium) PO (by mouth) ac (before meals) and hs (at bedtime) prn (as needed).
A prescription is written for hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg. Which of the following would be appropriate directions for use? A. Take one tablet by mouth at bedtime. B. Take one tablet by mouth in the morning with food. C. Take one tablet by mouth in the morning with orange juice. D. Take one tablet by mouth on an empty stomach.
Take one tablet by mouth in the morning with orange juice. *Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic and should be taken in the morning. Orange juice contains potassium, which would replenish the body's reserve due to the diuretic effect of Hydrochlorothiazide.
Interpret the following prescription. Which directions for use should appear on the prescription label? Lorazepam 0.5 mg #30 1 tab PO TID prn anxiety Refill X 2 A. Take one tablet by mouth as needed for anxiety. B. Take one tablet by mouth three times a day for anxiety. C. Take one tablet by mouth three times a day as needed for anxiety. D. Take one tablet three times a day as needed for anxiety.
Take one tablet by mouth three times a day as needed for anxiety. *Take 1 tab (tablet) PO (by mouth) TID (three times/day) prn (as needed) for anxiety.
What is the correct interpretation of the following prescription: "1 tsp PCN 250 mg PO qid for 10 days"? A. Take one tablespoon of penicillin 250 mg by mouth four times a day for 10 days. B. Take one teaspoon of penicillin 250 mg by mouth every other day for 10 days. C. Take one teaspoon of penicillin G 250 mg by mouth four times a day for 10 days. D. Take one teaspoon of penicillin 250 mg by mouth four times a day for 10 days.
Take one teaspoon of penicillin 250 mg by mouth four times a day for 10 days. *1 tsp (teaspoon) PCN (penicillin) 250 mg PO (by mouth) qid (four times/day) for 10 days.
Which auxiliary label should be affixed to a prescription of naproxen? A. Refrigerate B. Shake well C. Take with food D. Take with orange juice
Take with food *Naproxen may irritate the stomach and should be taken with food to avoid stomach distress.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Controlled Substance Ordering System (CSOS)? A. A paper DEA form 222 must be submitted to the supplier. B. The CSOS requires a digital certificate. C. The order is reported by the supplier to the DEA within 7 business days. D. There is a limit of 10 line items per transmission.
The CSOS requires a digital certificate. *There is no limit on number of medications that can be ordered using this system. *A paper DEA form 222 is not required using a CSOS. *A supplier must report to the DEA within 2 days of receiving a CSOS order.
The pharmacy technician observes a BIN on the prescription drug card. Which of the following does it indicate? A. The health insurance company who issued the card B. The employer that contracted the insurance company for the policy C. The company that will reimburse the pharmacy for the prescription being filled D. The prescription provider
The company that will reimburse the pharmacy for the prescription being filled *BIN identifies the company that will reimburse the pharmacy for the prescription being filled. *Group code: identifies the employer that contracted the insurance company. *Issuer: health insurance company who issued the card. *Plan code: prescription provider.
The Latin abbreviation Signa appears on a prescription; what is its meaning? A. Directions to the pharmacist B. Dispense as written C. Take this drug D. Write on label
Write on label *Meaning of Signa
Which of the following pharmacy abbreviations appears on the "Do Not Use" list? A. as B. bid C. gtt D. prn
as *appears on The Joint Commission (TJC) "Do Not Use" list; can be mistaken for "ad" and "au"
A pharmacy must register with the CNR prior to dispensing which medication? A. ciprofloxacin B. clozapine C. isotretinoin D. thalidomide
clozapine *Prescribers and pharmacies must be registered with the Clozaril National Registry (CNR) before they can prescribe or dispense clozapine.
Cozaar and Zocor are examples of A. confused drug names B. medications used for tall man lettering C. medication that may be therapeutically substituted D. nonproprietary drugs
confused drug names *Cozaar and Zocor are examples of medications listed on the ISMP's List of Confused Drug Names.
Levemir and Lovenox are examples of A. confused drug names B. medications found on the "High-Alert" list for community pharmacy C. medications found on the "Do Not Crush" list D. nonproprietary drugs
confused drug names *Levemir and Lovenox are examples of medications designated as having confused drug names.
Which of the following does not need to be dispensed in a child-resistant container? A. amoxicillin B. ethinyl estradiol/norethindrone C. metformin D. prednisone
ethinyl estradiol/norethindrone *Oral contraceptive and does not need to be dispensed in a child-resistant container.
The MedWatch program can be used to report adverse events for all of the following EXCEPT A. biologics B. dietary supplements C. investigational drugs D. prescription drugs
investigational drugs *MedWatch is not used to report adverse events for investigational drugs. It is used for biologics, dietary supplements, and prescription drugs.
All of the following medications may be crushed or chewed EXCEPT A. amoxicillin B. ampicillin C. isotretinoin D. trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
isotretinoin *Should not be chewed or crushed according to the ISMP because it irritates the mucus membranes.
The iPledge is a mandatory program for patients receiving prescriptions of which medication? A. conjugated estrogens B. isotretinoin C. medroxyprogesterone D. methylphenidate
isotretinoin *The iPledge is a mandatory program for patients receiving prescriptions of isotretinoin.
All of the following are examples of medications contained on the ISMP high-alert medications for a community pharmacy EXCEPT A. carbamazepine B. levothyroxine C. metformin D. methotrexate
levothyroxine *Not a medication listed on the ISMP's list of high-alert medications for a community pharmacy. *Medications listed on the ISMP's list of high-alert medications for a community pharmacy: carbamazepine, heparin, liquid midazolam, metformin, methotrexate, propylthiouracil, and warfarin.
Which of the following medications has been associated with a high incidence of medication errors in community pharmacy? A. cephalexin B. ibuprofen C. metformin D. potassium chloride
metformin *According to the Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), metformin has been associated in a high incidence of medication errors in a community pharmacy.
What is the generic name for Glucophage? A. glimepiride B. glipizide C. glyburide D. metformin
metformin *Glimepiride (Amaryl) *Glipizide (Glucotrol) *Glyburide (DiaBeta)
Which of the following medications should have the auxiliary label "This Drug May Impair the Ability to Operate a Car" affixed to the prescription bottle? A. azithromycin B. metformin C. naproxen D. spironolactone
naproxen *Adverse effects associated with naproxen include dizziness and drowsiness, which may impair an individual's ability to operate a care or machinery.
All of the following medications must be packaged in a child-resistant container EXCEPT A. digoxin B. ibuprofen C. nitroglycerin D. simvastatin
nitroglycerin *The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 exempts nitroglycerin from being dispensed in child-resistant containers.
Which of the following medications should have the auxiliary label "May Discolor Urine" affixed to the prescription container? A. ciprofloxacin B. nitrofurantoin C. phenazopyridine D. tetracycline
phenazopyridine *An adverse effect of phenazopyridine is the discoloration of urine.
A patient is experiencing an overdose associated with Coumadin; which medication should be prescribed to treat this situation? A. cyanocobalamin B. folic acid C. phytonadione D. thiamine
phytonadione *Indicated for treating overdoses associated with Coumadin (warfarin)
The prescription label contains all of the following pieces of information EXCEPT A. drug manufacturer's name B. drug, strength, and dosage form C. pharmacist's initial D. prescriber's address and telephone number
prescriber's address and telephone number *Not required on a prescription label. *Information required on a label: date prescription was filled, serial (prescription) number, name and address of pharmacy, patient name, prescribing physician's name, directions for use, generic or brand name and strength of the prescription, drug manufacturer's name, drug quantity, expiration date of the prescription, licensed pharmacist's initials, and number of refills allowed.
According to the Combat Methamphetamine Act, which medication must be kept behind the pharmacy counter? A. diphenhydramine B. guaifenesin C. loperamide D. pseudoephedrine
pseudoephedrine *The Combat Methamphetamine Act requires that OTC medications containing pseudoephedrine be kept behind the counter.
The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act restricts the sale of which OTC medication? A. ibuprofen B. loratadine C. loperamide D. pseudoephedrine
pseudoephedrine *The sale of pseudoephedrine is regulated through the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act.
Which of the following medications should have the auxiliary label "Medications Causes Photosensitivity-Use Sunscreen"? a. erythromycin b. metronidazole c. penicillin d. tetracycline
tetracycline *Prescription bottles of tetracycline should bear an auxiliary label warning the patient of photosensitivity. *It has not been reported that photosensitivity occurs when a patient is prescribed the other medications.
MedWatch oversees all of the following EXCEPT A. biologics B. prescription drugs C. special nutritional products D. vaccines
vaccines *MedWatch is no used to report vaccine events. *VAERS
Which of the following medications has a narrow therapeutic range? A. citalopram B. isotretinoin C. naproxen D. warfarin
warfarin *Narrow therapeutic range
