PARASITOLOGY PE

Surgery is the most common form of treatment for hydatid disease. The procedure involves surgical removal of cysts or inactivation of hydatid sand by injecting the cyst with __________ and then removing it. 10% formalin 70% ethanol 95% ethanol Acetone

10% formalin

Largest of the INTESTINAL trematodes, and infection is acquired by ingestion of raw water chestnuts or caltrop: A. Fasciolopsis buski B. Fasciola gigantica C. Heterophyes heterophyes D. Metagonimus yokogawai

A. Fasciolopsis buski

Organisms that should be considered in a waterborne outbreak of diarrheal disease include: A. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium spp. B. Endolimax nana and Entamoeba histolytica C. Blastocystis hominis and Trichomonas vaginalis D. Toxoplasma gondii and Schistosoma mansoni

A. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium spp.

The microsporidia are protozoans (now classified with the fungi) that have been implicated in human disease primarily in: A. Immunocompromised patients B. Pediatric patients under the age of 5 years C. Adult patients with congenital immunodeficiencies D. Patients who have been traveling in the tropics

A. Immunocompromised patients

Microsporidial infections can be confirmed using: A. Light microscopy and modified trichrome stains B. Phase contrast microscopy and routine trichrome stains C. Electron microscopy and modified acid-fast stains D. Fluorescence microscopy and hematoxylin stains

A. Light microscopy and modified trichrome stains An infection with microsporidia can be confirmed using modified trichrome stains (10X the normal dye content found in routine trichrome stains) and light microscopy. The internal polar tubule will be visible within some of the spores; this will serve as confirmation of the infection.

Babesia has been implicated in disease from both splenectomized and nonsplenectomized patients. Morphologically, the parasites resemble: A. Plasmodium falciparum rings B. Leishmania donovani amastigotes C. Microsporidial spores D. Trypanosoma cruzi trypomastigotes

A. Plasmodium falciparum rings

Key characteristics of infection with Plasmodium knowlesi include: A. Rapid erythrocytic cycle (24 hr), will infect all ages of RBCs, and can cause serious disease B. Erythrocytic cycle limited to young RBCs and causes a relatively benign disease C. The possibility of a true relapse from the liver, infection in older RBCs, and causes serious disease D. Extended life cycle (72 hr), will infect all ages of RBCs, and disease is similar to that caused by P. ovale

A. Rapid erythrocytic cycle (24 hr), will infect all ages of RBCs, and can cause serious disease Key characteristics of an infection with Plasmodium knowlesi include a rapid life cycle (24 hr), the potential to infect all ages of RBCs, and the possibility of serious symptoms similar to those seen with P. falciparum infections. There is no relapse from the liver with this species.

A transplant patient on immunosuppressive drugs developed increasing diarrhea. The most likely combination of disease and diagnostic procedure is: A. Trichinosis and trichrome stain B. Microsporidiosis and modified trichrome stain C. Paragonimiasis and wet preparation D. Toxoplasmosis and Gram stain

B. Microsporidiosis and modified trichrome stain

The formalin-ether (ethyl acetate) concentration procedure for feces is used to demonstrate:* A. Motility of helminth larvae B. Protozoan cysts and helminth eggs C . Formation of amoebic pseudopods D. Trophozoites

B. Protozoan cysts and helminth eggs

Resembles egg of S. haematobium, but acid-fast positive: A. A. S. japonicum B. S. intercalatum C. S. mansoni D. S. mekongi

B. S. intercalatum

The adult tapeworm of Echinococcus granulosus is found in the intestine of: Dogs Sheep Humans Cattle

Dogs Although the hydatid cysts are found in sheep or in humans (accidental intermediate host), the adult tapeworms of E. granulosus are found in the intestine of the dog.

Oocysts survive in the environment for several months to more than 1 year and are resistant to disinfectants, freezing, and drying. However, they are killed by heating to 70°C for 10 minutes. Balamuthia mandrillaris Pentatrichomonas hominis Isospora belli Toxoplasma gondii

Toxoplasma gondii

Parasitic organisms that are most often transmitted sexually include: Entamoeba gingivalis Dientamoeba fragilis Trichomonas vaginalis Diphyllobothrium latum

Trichomonas vaginalis

Which of the following is the best technique to identify Dientamoeba fragilis in stool? Formalin concentrate Trichrome-stained smear Modified acid-fast-stained smear Giemsa's stain

Trichrome-stained smear

Patients with severe diarrhea should use "enteric precautions" to prevent nosocomial infections with: Giardia lamblia Ascaris lumbricoides Cystoisospora belli Cryptosporidium spp.

Cryptosporidium spp. Cryptosporidium oocysts (unlike those of C. belli) are immediately infective when passed in stool, and nosocomial infections have been well documented with this coccidian.

In an outbreak of diarrheal disease traced to a municipal water supply, the most likely causative agent is: Cryptosporidium spp. Cystoisospora belli Entamoeba histolytica Dientamoeba fragilis

Cryptosporidium spp. Cryptosporidium oocysts have been transmitted through contaminated municipal water supplies. Such outbreaks have been well documented.

Parasite stages that are immediately infective for humans on passage from the gastrointestinal tract include: Schistosoma spp. eggs Toxoplasma gondii bradyzoites Giardia lamblia trophozoites Cryptosporidium spp. oocysts

Cryptosporidium spp. oocysts Cryptosporidium spp. oocysts are immediately infectious when passed in the stool, regardless of the stool consistency (formed—liquid).

Sporadic mini-outbreaks of diarrheal disease have been associated with the ingestion of strawberries, raspberries, fresh basil, mesclun (baby lettuce leaves), and snow peas. The most likely causative agent is: Dientamoeba fragilis Cystoisospora belli Cyclospora cayetanensis Schistosoma mansoni

Cyclospora cayetanensis

Examination of a modified acid-fast stained fecal smear reveals round structures measuring approximately 8-10 μm, some of which are stained and some of which are not. They do not appear to show any internal morphology. The patient is symptomatic with diarrhea, and the cause may be: Blastocystis hominis Polymorphonuclear leukocytes Large yeast cells Cyclospora cayetanensis

Cyclospora cayetanensis One of the newer coccidian parasites, C. cayetanensis, has been implicated in cases of human diarrhea. The recommended stains are modified acid-fast stains, and the organisms are quite variable in their staining characteristics. The oocysts are immature when passed (no internal morphology) and they measure about 8-10 μm.

Humans acquire infections with Diphyllobothrium latum adult worms by: A. Ingestion of freshwater crabs B. Skin penetration of cercariae C. Ingestion of water chestnuts D. Ingestion of raw freshwater fish

D. Ingestion of raw freshwater fish

Microsporidia have been identified as causing severe diarrhea, disseminated disease in other body sites, and ocular infections. Routes of infection have been identified as: A. Ingestion B. Inhalation C. Direct contamination from the environment E. Ingestion, inhalation, and direct contamination

D. Ingestion, inhalation, and direct contamination

When the undercooked meat is digested in the stomach, the larvae are resistant to the gastric pH and pass to the intestine, where they invade the mucosa: A. Ascaris B. Enterobius C. Trichuris D. Trichinella

D. Trichinella

A 45-year-old hunter developed fever, myalgia, and periorbital edema. He has a history of bear meat consumption. The most likely causative agent is: A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Taenia solium C. Hymenolepis nana D. Trichinella spiralis

D. Trichinella spiralis

Larva with heart to lung migration, except: A. Ascaris lumbricoides B.Hookworms C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichiura

D. Trichuris trichiura

A Gram stain from a gum lesion showed what appeared to be amoebae. A trichrome smear showed amoebae with a single nucleus and partially digested PMNs. The correct identification is: Trichomonas tenax Entamoeba histolytica/E. dispar Entamoeba polecki Entamoeba gingivalis

Entamoeba gingivalis

Older developing stages (trophs, schizonts) of the fifth human malaria, Plasmodium knowlesi, resemble those of: Plasmodium malariae Plasmodium ovale Plasmodium falciparum Plasmodium vivax

Plasmodium malariae

All of the following are sexually transmitted protozoans except: Trichomonas vaginalis Entamoeba histolytica Giardia lamblia Cryptosporidium spp. Balantidium coli

Balantidium coli The World Health Organization has ranked trichomoniasis as the most prevalent, nonviral, sexually transmitted disease in the world with an estimated 172 million new cases a year.The intestinal protozoa Giardia lamblia, Entamoeba histolytica, and Cryptosporidium spp. are significant causes of STDs, especially among homosexual populations.

The eggs (70 to 85 μm by 60 to 80 μm) are large, ovoid, yellowish, and moderately thick-shelled. The eggs contain a six-hooked oncosphere with the absence of polar filaments in the space between the oncosphere and the eggshell. H. diminuta H. nana Both of these None of these

H. diminuta

Eggs are small and have polar filaments present in the space between the oncospheres and the eggshell. H. diminuta H. nana Both of these None of these

H. nana

Infection is more frequent in populations living in conditions of poverty or poor hygiene, in day care centers, and in persons living in institutional settings or prisons. D. latum D. caninum H. nana T. saginata

H. nana

The examination of sputum may be necessary to diagnose infection with: A. Paragonimus westermani B. Trichinella spiralis C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Fasciola hepatica

A. Paragonimus westermani

Which of the following causes granulomatous amebic encephalitis (GAE), primarily in immunosuppressed, chronically ill, or otherwise debilitated individuals? Acanthamoeba Dientamoeba Iodamoeba Naegleria

Acanthamoeba

The parasites penetrate the skin and cause cutaneous larva migrans (CLM), also referred to as creeping eruption: A. Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus B. Ancylostoma braziliense and Ancylostoma caninum C. Toxocara cati and Toxocara canis D. Brugia malayi and Loa loa

B. Ancylostoma braziliense and Ancylostoma caninum

May be associated with vertical transmission and congenital infections: A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Ancylostoma duodenale C. Necator americanus D. Enterobius vermicularis

B. Ancylostoma duodenale

Which parasite causes eosinophilic meningoencephalitis, a form of larva migrans causing fever, headache, stiff neck, and increased cells in the spinal fluid? A. Necator americanus B. Angiostrongylus cantonensis C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Ancylostoma braziliense

B. Angiostrongylus cantonensis

The worm has a characteristic, thick cuticle and a large uterus that fills the body cavity and contains rhabditoid larvae. A. Ancylostoma caninum B. Dracunculus medinensis C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichinella spiralis

B. Dracunculus medinensis

A mother states that she has observed her 4-year-old son scratching his anal area frequently. The most likely cause of this condition is:* A. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Enterobius vermicularis C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Necator americanus E. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Enterobius vermicularis

Cysts of Iodamoeba bütschlii typically have: A. Chromatoidal bars with rounded ends B. A heavily vacuolated cytoplasm C. A large glycogen vacuole D. Many ingested bacteria and yeast cells

C. A large glycogen vacuole

Confirmation of an infection with microsporidia can be achieved by seeing: A. The oocyst wall B. Sporozoites within the spore C. Evidence of the polar tubule D. Organisms stained with modified acid-fast stains

C. Evidence of the polar tubule Confirmation of an infection with microsporidial spores can be achieved by seeing evidence of the polar tubule within the spores (horizontal or diagonal line across/within the spore).

There are few procedures considered STAT in parasitology. The most obvious situation would be: A. Ova and parasite examination for giardiasis B. Baermann's concentration for strongyloidiasis C. Culture of amoebic keratitis D. Blood films for malaria

D. Blood films for malaria

Autofluorescence requires no stain and is recommended for the identification of: A. Entamoeba histolytica cysts B. Toxoplasma gondii tachyzoites C. Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites D. Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts

D. Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts

Layers obtained in the formalin ether sedimentation technique (top to bottom): A. Sediment > formalin > debris > ether B. Sediment > debris > formalin > ether C. Ether > formalin > debris > sediment D. Ether > debris > formalin > sediment

D. Ether > debris > formalin > sediment

"Cultures of parasites are different from bacterial cultures; no quality control is needed." This statement is:* A. True, if two tubes of media are set up for each patient B. True, if the media are checked every 24 hours C. False, unless two different types of media are used D. False, and organism and media controls need to be set up

D. False, and organism and media controls need to be set up Duplicate cultures should be set up, and specific American Type Culture Collection (ATCC) strains should be cultured along with the patient specimens to confirm that the culture system is operating properly. This approach is somewhat different from that used in diagnostic bacteriology and mycology.

Schistosoma intercalatum eggs are found in: Stool Urine Both of these None of these

Stool S. intercalatum eggs are only found in feces, not in urine specimens.

Tapeworm that causes coenurosis in humans: Echinococcus multilocularis Spirometra mansonoides Taenia multiceps Taenia solium

Taenia multiceps

Eye infections with Acanthamoeba spp. have most commonly been traced to: Use of soft contact lenses Use of hard contact lenses Use of contaminated lens care solutions Failure to remove lenses while swimming

Use of contaminated lens care solutions

Severe infections may cause obstruction of the biliary ducts, resulting in enlargement and tenderness of the liver, cirrhosis, cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder), and cholangiocarcinoma (cancerous growth in bile duct epithelium). A. C. sinensis and O. viverrini B. H. heterophyes and M. yokogawai C. P. westermani and P, mexicanus D. S. japonicum and S. mansoni

A. C. sinensis and O. viverrini

An Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite has the following characteristics: A. Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingested RBCs, and clear pseudopodia B. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, and uneven chromatin on the nuclear membrane C. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, and large glycogen vacuoles in cytoplasm D. Large, blotlike karyosome, ingested white blood cells (WBCs), and granular pseudopods

A. Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingested RBCs, and clear pseudopodia

A patient has been diagnosed as having amebiasis but continues to be asymptomatic. The physician has asked for an explanation and recommendations regarding follow-up. Suggestions should include: A. Consideration of Entamoeba histolytica versus Entamoeba dispar B. A request for an additional three stools for culture C. Initiating therapy, regardless of the patient's asymptomatic status D. Performance of barium x-ray studies

A. Consideration of Entamoeba histolytica versus Entamoeba dispar

Two helminth eggs that may resemble one another are: A. Diphyllobothrium latum and Paragonimus westermani B. Opisthorchis sinensis and Fasciolopsis buski C. Taenia saginata and Hymenolepis nana D. Ascaris lumbricoides and Trichostrongylus

A. Diphyllobothrium latum and Paragonimus westermani

Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale are similar because they: A. Exhibit Schüffner's dots and have a true relapse in the life cycle B. Commonly have appliqué forms in the red cells C. Have true stippling, do not have a relapse stage, and infect old red cells D. Have no malarial pigment and multiple rings

A. Exhibit Schüffner's dots and have a true relapse in the life cycle

An apparently fatigued but alert 38-year-old woman has spent 6 months as a teacher in a rural Thailand village school. Her chief complaints include frequent headaches, occasional nausea and vomiting, and periodic fever. You suspect malaria and indeed find parasites in red blood cells in a thin blood smear. To rule out the dangerous falciparum form of malaria, which one of the following choices is NOT consistent with a diagnosis of Plasmodium falciparum malaria based on a microscopic examination of the blood smear? A. Red blood cells containing trophozoites with Schuffner's dots B. Red blood cells containing >1 parasite per RBC C. Banana-shaped or crescent-shaped gametocytes D. Parasites within normal-sized red blood cells E. Parasites with double nuclei

A. Red blood cells containing trophozoites with Schuffner's dots

Characteristics of the rhabditiform (noninfective) larvae of Strongyloides stercoralis include a: A. Short buccal capsule and large genital primordial B. Long buccal capsule and pointed tail C. Short buccal capsule and small genital primordium D. Small genital primordium and notch in tail

A. Short buccal capsule and large genital primordial

Eating poorly cooked pork can lead to an infection with: A. Taenia solium and Trichinella spiralis B. Taenia saginata and Hymenolepis nana C. Trichuris trichiura and Hymenolepis diminuta D. Diphyllobothrium latum and Ascaris lumbricoides

A. Taenia solium and Trichinella spiralis

Visceral larva migrans is associated with which of the following organisms? A. Toxocara—serology B. Onchocerca—skin snips C. Dracunculus—skin biopsy D. Angiostrongylus—CSF examination

A. Toxocara—serology

Charcot-Leyden crystals in stool may be associated with an immune response and are thought to be formed from the breakdown products of: A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Lymphocytes D. Monocytes

B. Eosinophils

Fecal immunoassays have become more commonly used to diagnose infections with: A. Endolimax nana and Blastocystis hominis B. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium spp. C. Ascaris lumbricoides and Trichuris trichiura D. Strongyloides stercoralis and Trichomonas vaginalis

B. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium spp. Rapid fecal immunoassays have become more widely used for the diagnosis of infections with G. lamblia and Cryptosporidium. For these two organisms, the fecal immunoassays are more sensitive than the routine O&P examination.

Organisms that should be considered in a nursery school outbreak of diarrhea include: A. Endolimax nana, Giardia lamblia, and Entamoeba coli B. Giardia lamblia, Dientamoeba fragilis, and Cryptosporidium spp. C. Cryptosporidium spp., Trichomonas vaginalis, and Entamoeba coli D. Pentatrichomonas hominis, Dientamoeba fragilis, and Endolimax nana

B. Giardia lamblia, Dientamoeba fragilis, and Cryptosporidium spp. G. lamblia, D. fragilis, and Cryptosporidium have been implicated in nursery school outbreaks. Among the many protozoa and coccidia found in the human, these three organisms have become the most likely parasites in this type of setting.

Eggs are operculated with slight opercular shoulders, yellow-brown, embryonated: A. Fasciola hepatica B. Heterophyes heterophyes C. Paragonimus westermani D. Schistosma japonicum

B. Heterophyes heterophyes

A 32-year-old male tourist traveled to Senegal for 1 month. During the trip, he swam in the Gambia river. Two months after his return, he began complaining of intermittent lower abdominal pain with dysuria. Laboratory results of ova and parasites revealed eggs with a terminal spine. Which of the following parasites is the cause of the patient's symptoms? A. Schistosoma mansoni B. Schistosoma haematobium C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Taenia solium

B. Schistosoma haematobium

An immunosuppressed man has several episodes of pneumonia, intestinal pain, sepsis with gram-negative rods, and a history of military service in Southeast Asia 20 years earlier. The most likely cause is infection with: A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Strongyloides stercoralis C. Paragonimus westermani D. Naegleria fowleri

B. Strongyloides stercoralis

When staining Cystoisospora belli oocysts with modified acid-fast stains, the important difference between these methods and the acid-fast stains used for acid-fast bacilli (AFB) is: A. The staining time is much longer with regular AFB acid-fast stains B. The decolorizer is weaker than acid alcohol used for AFB decolorizing C. A counterstain must be used for the modified methods D. The stain is more concentrated when staining for AFB

B. The decolorizer is weaker than acid alcohol used for AFB decolorizing

A helminth egg is described as having terminal polar plugs. The most likely helminth is: A. Hookworm B. Trichuris trichiura C. Fasciola hepatica D. Diphyllobothrium latum

B. Trichuris trichiura

The term internal autoinfection can be associated with the following parasites: A. Cryptosporidium spp. and Giardia lamblia B. Cystoisospora belli and Strongyloides stercoralis C. Cryptosporidium spp. and Strongyloides stercoralis D. Giardia lamblia and Cystoisospora belli

C. Cryptosporidium spp. and Strongyloides stercoralis Both Cryptosporidium and S. stercoralis have an internal autoinfection capability in their life cycles. This means that the cycle and infection can continue even after the patient has left the endemic area. In the case of Cryptosporidium, the cycle continues in patients who are immunocompromised and unable to self-cure.

The worms are incapable of maturation within the human host and migrate aimlessly, causing tissue damage and inflammation. A. Brugia malayi B. Dracunculus medinensis C. Gnathostoma spinigerum D. Trichinella spiralis

C. Gnathostoma spinigerum

You are working in a rural medical clinic in China and a 3-year- old girl is brought in by her mother. The child appears emaciated and, upon testing, is found to have a hemoglobin level of 5 g/dL. Her feet and ankles are swollen, and there is an extensive rash on her feet, ankles, and knees. The most likely parasitic infection that causes the child's condition is: A. Schistosomiasis B. Cercarial dermatitis C. Hookworm infection D. Ascariasis

C. Hookworm infection

The tail is often referred to as a "shepherd's crook." A. B.rugia malayi B. Mansonella perstans C. Mansonella streptocerca D. Onchocerca volvulus

C. Mansonella streptocerca

A 12-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with meningitis and a history of swimming in a warm-water spring. Motile amoebae that measure 10 μ in size are seen in the CSF and are most likely: A.Iodamoeba bütschlii trophozoites B. Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites C. Naegleria fowleri trophozoites D. Endolimax nana trophozoites

C. Naegleria fowleri trophozoites

Which microfilariae are usually not found circulating in the peripheral blood? A. Brugia malayi B. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Onchocerca volvulus D. Loa loa

C. Onchocerca volvulus

ECOFRIENDLY fecal fixative: A. Formalin B. Schaudin C. PVA D. Merthiolate-Iodine-Formalin

C. PVA

Triad of infection or unholy 3, except: A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Hookworms C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichiura

C. Strongyloides stercoralis

Which of the following statements is true regarding onchocerciasis? A. The adult worm is present in the blood B. The microfilariae are in the blood during the late evening hours C. The diagnostic test of choice is the skin snip D. The parasite resides in the deep lymphatics

C. The diagnostic test of choice is the skin snip

Select the most sensitive recovery method for Acanthamoeba spp. from lens care solutions or corneal biopsies. A. The trichrome staining method B. The use of monoclonal reagents for the detection of antibody C. The use of non-nutrient agar cultures seeded with Escherichia coli D. The Giemsa's stain method

C. The use of non-nutrient agar cultures seeded with Escherichia coli

After returning from a 2-year stay in India, a patient has eosinophilia, an enlarged left spermatic cord, and bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy. The most likely clinical specimen and organism match is: A. Thin blood films—Leishmania B.Urine—concentration for Trichomonas vaginalis C. Thick blood films—microfilariae D. Thin blood films—Babesia

C. Thick blood films—microfilariae

Ingestion of which of the following eggs will result in infection? A. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Opisthorchis sinensis C. Toxocara canis D. Schistosoma japonicum

C. Toxocara canis The eggs of T. canis are infectious for humans and cause visceral larva migrans. These ascarid eggs of the dog can infect humans; the eggs hatch and the larvae wander through the deep tissues, occasionally the eye. In this case, the human becomes the accidental intermediate host.

When malaria smears are requested, what patient information should be obtained? A. Diet, age, sex B. Age, antimalarial medication, sex C. Travel history, antimalarial medication, date of return to United States D. Fever patterns, travel history, diet

C. Travel history, antimalarial medication, date of return to United States

A sexually active 24-year-old woman complains of vaginal itching and vaginal discharge. To verify your tentative diagnosis of trichomoniasis, you should include which of the following in your workup? A. Specific serologic test B. Ova and parasite fecal smear C. Wet mount of vaginal fluid D. Enzyme-linked immunoassay (ELISA) test of serum E. Stool culture

C. Wet mount of vaginal fluid

Cysts have a single nucleus and a typical curved cytostomal fibril, called the shepherd's crook: C. mesnili D. fragilis G. lamblia I. butschlii

C. mesnili

In a condition resulting from the accidental ingestion of eggs, the human becomes the intermediate rather than the definitive host. The correct answer is: Trichinosis Strongyloidiasis Ascariasis Cysticercosis

Cysticercosis

Recommended stain for all parasitic blood works: Giemsa Wright Modified acid fast stain Modified trichrome stain

Giemsa

A patient is being seen in the emergency department for a low-grade fever, headache, and general malaise after returning from Africa on a photographic safari. The physician has requested blood for malaria; the laboratory would like to have patient information regarding: A. Specific travel history and body temperature every 4 hours B. Liver function tests and prophylactic medication history C. Transfusion history and body temperature every 4 hours D. Prophylactic medication history and specific travel history

D. Prophylactic medication history and specific travel history If the patient has malaria and has been taking prophylaxis (often sporadically), the number of parasites on the blood smear will be reduced and examination of routine thick and thin blood films should be more exhaustive. Also specific geographic travel history may help to determine whether chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium falciparum may be a factor.

A 60-year-old Brazilian patient with cardiac irregularities and congestive heart failure suddenly dies. Examination of the myocardium revealed numerous amastigotes, an indication that the cause of death was most likely: A. Leishmaniasis with Leishmania donovani B. Leishmaniasis with Leishmania braziliense C. Trypanosomiasis with Trypanosoma gambiense D. Trypanosomiasis with Trypanosoma cruzi

D. Trypanosomiasis with Trypanosoma cruzi T. cruzi, the cause of Chagas disease, has two forms within the human: the trypomastigote in the blood and the amastigote in the striated muscle (usually cardiac muscle and intestinal tract muscle).

The most common identified species of filarial worms that infect humans: A. Brugia malayi B. Loa loa C. Onchocerca volvulus D. Wuchereria bancrofti

D. Wuchereria bancrofti

The life cycle and mode of transmission of this protozoan are not known, although transmission in helminth eggs (e.g., Ascaris and Enterobius spp.) has been postulated: C. mesnili D. fragilis G. lamblia I. butschlii

D. fragilis

An operculated cestode egg that can be recovered from human feces is: Clonorchis sinensis Diphyllobothrium latum Paragonimus westermani Dipylidium caninum

Diphyllobothrium latum D. latum is the only operculated cestode egg that is found in humans; the infection is acquired from the ingestion of raw freshwater fish.

Several Papua New Guinea villagers known to eat pork during celebrations were reported to be suffering from an outbreak of epileptiform seizures. One of the first things you should investigate is: A. The prevalence of Ascaris infections in the population B. The prevalence of schistosomiasis in the population C. The presence of Trypanosoma brucei gambiense in the villagers D. The presence of Giardia cysts in the drinking water E. The presence of Taenia solium in the pigs

E. The presence of Taenia solium in the pigs

Most lethal of all helminthic diseases: Taenia saginata Taenia solium Echinococcus granulosus Echinococcus multilocularis

Echinococcus multilocularis

In infections with Taenia solium, humans can serve as the: Definitive host Intermediate host Either the definitive or the intermediate host None of these options

Either the definitive or the intermediate host If humans ingest T. solium cysticerci in uncooked or rare pork, the adult tapeworm will mature within the intestine (human will serve as definitive host); if eggs from the adult tapeworm are ingested, then the cysticerci will develop in human tissues (accidental intermediate host), causing cysticercosis.

Which specimen is the LEAST likely to provide recovery of Trichomonas vaginalis? Urine Urethral discharge Vaginal discharge Feces

Feces

Infection mimics acute viral enteritis, bacillary dysentery, bacterial or other food poisonings, acute intestinal amebiasis, or "traveler's diarrhea" C. mesnili D. fragilis E. hartmanni G. lamblia

G. lamblia

Trophozoites are teardrop shaped and have been described as "someone looking at you" C. mesnili D. fragilis G. lamblia T. vaginalis

G. lamblia

One of the following protozoan organisms has been implicated in waterborne and foodborne outbreaks. The suspect organism is: Pentatrichomonas hominis Giardia lamblia Balantidium coli Dientamoeba fragilis

Giardia lamblia

The organism is found most commonly in the CRYPTS IN THE DUODENUM: Cryptosporidium Isospora spp. Giardia lamblia Entamoeba histolytica

Giardia lamblia

Humans can serve as both the intermediate and definitive host in infections caused by:* Enterobius vermicularis Hymenolepis nana Schistosoma japonicum Ascaris lumbricoides

Hymenolepis nana

If the granules are on one side, the nucleus may appear to have a "basket nucleus" arrangement of chromatin, more commonly seen in the cyst stage. D. fragilis E. gingivalis E. nana I. butschlii

I. butschlii

Oocysts of Cryptosporidium spp. can be detected in stool specimens using: Modified Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain Gram stain Methenamine silver stain Trichrome stain

Modified Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain

Early ring stages of the fifth human malaria, Plasmodium knowlesi, resemble those of: Plasmodium malariae Plasmodium ovale Plasmodium falciparum Plasmodium vivax

Plasmodium falciparum

Massive hemolysis, blackwater fever, and central nervous system involvement are most common with: Plasmodium vivax Plasmodium falciparum Plasmodium malariae Plasmodium ovale

Plasmodium falciparum

Examination of 24-hour unpreserved urine specimen is sometimes helpful in the recovery of: Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoites Schistosoma haematobium eggs Strongyloides stercoralis larvae Enterobius vermicularis eggs

Schistosoma haematobium eggs

The miracidial hatching test helps to demonstrate the viability of eggs of: Taenia species Schistosoma species Hookworm species Opisthorchis species

Schistosoma species

Primary infections with the microsporidia may originate in: The lung The nervous system The gastrointestinal tract Mucocutaneous lesions

The gastrointestinal tract