PART 141 IFR STAGE 2 CHECK
Magnetic
Are the courses on a Low Enroute magnetic or true?
Adherence to all restrictions on the DP is required unless clearance to deviate is received.
Are you required to accept a DP? AIM 5-2-6
Use of STAR's requires pilot possession of at least the approved textual description. As with any ATC clearance or portion thereof, it is the responsibility of each pilot to accept or refuse an issued STAR. Pilots should notify ATC if they do not wish to use a STAR by placing "NO STAR" in the remarks section of the flight plan or by the less desirable method of verbally stating the same to ATC.
Are you required to accept a STAR? AIM 5-4-1
Yes, however, its use is strictly limited to those areas/altitudes specifically authorized in the A/FD or appropriate supplement.
Can a VOT be done in the air?
No
Can you use the GPS as a sole source for IFR navigation?
-A safety pilot must possess a current medical certificate, occupy the other control seat, and be appropriately rated in the category and class aircraft flown [§ 61.3(c), § 61.51, § 61.57(c) and § 91.109]. The pilot operating under simulated instrument conditions must also log the name of the safety pilot.
Define "appropriately rated safety pilot." (61.3, 91.109)
Highest approach minimums when your GPS is LNAV capable. Horizontal guidance only.
Define LNAV
LNAV/VNAV minimums are appropriate for use when your aircraft's GPS is equipped with both horizontal and vertical guidance. Precision approach. Vertical component can either be from GPS, Radar Alt or barometric readings.
Define LNAV/VNAV
LPV approaches are the lowest minimums and highest precision. Utilizes GPS units eqipped with WAAS. WAAS
Define LPV
MCA: Minimum Crossing Altitude, Lowest altitude at which a navigational fix can be crossed that will allow an aircraft to clear all obstacles while carrying out normal climb.
Define MCA: Minimum Crossing Altitude.
Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude named MOCA is the minimum altitude for a defined segment that provides the required obstacle clearance. The MOCA will specify minimum vertical separation of 1000ft from the ground or landmarks. The MOCA may put an aircraft below ATC radar coverage (MRVA) and/or below the minimum reception altitude (MRA).
Define MOCA: Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude
Parellel, Teardrop, Direct. 3. Entry Procedures: (See FIG 5-3-4 (above).) (a) Parallel Procedure: When approaching the holding fix from anywhere in sector (a), the parallel entry procedure would be to turn to a heading to parallel the holding course outbound on the nonholding side for one minute, turn in the direction of the holding pattern through more than 180 degrees, and return to the holding fix or intercept the holding course inbound. (b) Teardrop Procedure: When approaching the holding fix from anywhere in sector (b), the teardrop entry procedure would be to fly to the fix, turn outbound to a heading for a 30 degree teardrop entry within the pattern (on the holding side) for a period of one minute, then turn in the direction of the holding pattern to intercept the inbound holding course. (c) Direct Entry Procedure: When approaching the holding fix from anywhere in sector (c), the direct entry procedure would be to fly directly to the fix and turn to follow the holding pattern. (d) While other entry procedures may enable the aircraft to enter the holding pattern and remain within protected airspace, the parallel, teardrop and direct entries are the procedures for entry and holding recommended by the FAA.
Describe entries to a hold? AIM 5-3-7
No, only VOR/DME and VORTAC
Do all VOR stations have the capability of providing distance information?
Turn OBS knob to designated radial, intercept radial. Fly inbound to station. Watch for to/from flip after cone of confusion.
Explain how to intercept and track a designated radial inbound to the station and outbound from the station
The station is broadcasting it's morse coded identifier. Tune to it and identify.
How do you determine the VOR station is operating properly?
Time and distance. Time in seconds between bearings/degrees of bearing change=min to station Distance is calculated by multiplying TAS or GS (in miles per minute) by the previously determined time in minutes. (example, AC is 7.5 min from station flying 120 KTAS/2NM per minute, the distance from station is 15NM (7.5*2=15)
How do you determine time and distance from a VOR station?
Tune to two separate VOR stations, IDENT them to ensure they are the correct ones. Turn OBS knob on each CDI until you get a from indication on each. Cross reference on chart.
How do you determine your position relative to a VOR station?
(NEED CLARIFICATION)
How is obstacle clearance assessed and guaranteed for a DP?
2 Degrees
How many degrees of deviation does each dot represent?
5
How many do we need for GPS RAIM capabilities?
24
How many satellites do we have in orbit?
Every 30 days for IFR operations
How often must a VOR Accuracy Test be completed?
must pass an IFR proficiency check w/ appropriately rated safety pilot
If a pilot allows his/her instrument currency to expire, what can be done to become current again? (61.57)
(a) Inbound Leg: (1) At or below 14,000 feet MSL: 1 minute. (2) Above 14,000 feet MSL: 11/2 minutes.
Leg Lengths for a hold? AIM 5-3-7
AVE-F-MEA Assigned Vectored Expected Filed Min en-route alt Expected Alt Assigned Alt (a)General. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each pilot who has two-way radio communications failure when operating under IFR shall comply with the rules of this section. (b)VFR conditions. If the failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. (c)IFR conditions. If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, or if paragraph (b) of this section cannot be complied with, each pilot shall continue the flight according to the following: (1)Route. (i) By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received; (ii) If being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance; (iii) In the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance; or (iv) In the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan. (2)Altitude. At the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segment being flown: (i) The altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received; (ii) The minimum altitude (converted, if appropriate, to minimum flight level as prescribed in § 91.121(c)) for IFR operations; or (iii) The altitude or flight level ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance. (3)Leave clearance limit. (i) When the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins, commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route. (ii) If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.
Lost communications procedures. 91.185 AIM 6-4-1
-MHA-6,000: 200 KIAS -6,001-14,000: 230 KIAS -14,001 and above: 265 KIAS
Maximum Hold speeds? AIM 5-3-7
Minimum En-route Altitude named MEA is the altitude for an en-route segment that provides adequate reception of relevant navigation facilities and ATS communications complies with the airspace structure and provides the required obstacle clearance.
Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA)
The Minimum Reception Altitude named MRA is the lowest altitude on an airway segment where an aircraft can be assured of receiving signals from navigation aids like VOR or NDB.
Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA)
Minimum Sector Altitude named MSA is the lowest altitude which may be used which will provide a minimum clearance of 300 m (= 1000ft) above all objects located in the area contained within a sector of a circle of 46 km (=25 NM) radius centred on a radio navigation aid .
Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA)
The minimum off route altitude named MORA is an altitude which provides 2,000 feet of terrain clearance in mountainous areas and 1,000 feet in non-mountainous regions; at the same time it provides a reference point of clearance of 10 nm from the route centreline.
Minimum off route altitudes (MORA)
GRABCARD Generator/Alternator Radios (appropriate for flight) Altimeter (sensitive/adjustable) Ball Clock (second hand sweep or digital) Attitude indicator Rate of turn Directional gyro
What aircraft/instruments/equipment are required for IFR operations? (91.205) GRABCARD
5 Degrees
What angular deviation from a VOR course is represented by half-scale deflection of the CDI?
When operating below 18,000 feet MSL and - (i) On a magnetic course of zero degrees through 179 degrees, any odd thousand foot MSL altitude (such as 3,000, 5,000, or 7,000); or (ii) On a magnetic course of 180 degrees through 359 degrees, any even thousand foot MSL altitude (such as 2,000, 4,000, or 6,000).
What are the IFR cruising altitudes? 91.179
The VOR and L/MF (nondirectional radiobeacons) Airway System consists of airwaysdesignated from 1,200 feet above the surface (or insome instances higher) up to but not including 18,000feet MSL. These airways are depicted on IFR EnrouteLow Altitude Charts.
What are the altitudes for Federal Airways? AIM 5-3-4
Localizer and Glideslope antennas
What are the components of an ILS? AIM 1-1-9
A contact approach is a visual approach a pilot must request from ATC. The pilot may be ASSIGNED a visual approach by ATC but only when higher WX minimums are present.
What are the differences between visual and contact approaches?What are the components of an ILS?
High, Low, Terminal
What are the different classes of VOR stations?
-VOR test facility or VOT. -Ground based VOR checkpoint -in flight VOR checkpoint, -Utilize a Victor airway along a VOR radial -Cross reference both NAV radials to the same VOR and ensure accuracy
What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment? VGAADB
Pilot Navigation Departure, Obstacle Departure Procedures, and Standard Instrument Departures.
What are the different types of DPs?
-The outer marker is located 3,5÷6 NM (5.556÷11.112 km) from the runway's threshold. Its beam intersects the glide slope's ray at an altitude of approximately 1400 ft (426.72 m) above the runway. -The middle marker is used to mark the point of transition from an approach by instruments to a visual one. It's located about 0,5÷0,8 NM (926÷1482 m) from the runway's threshold. When flying over it, the aircraft is at an altitude of 200÷250 ft (60,96÷76,2) above it. -The inner marker emits an AM wave with a modulated frequency of 3000 Hz. The identification signal has a pattern of series of dots, in frequency of six dots per second. The beacon is located 60m in front of the runway's threshold. The inner marker has to be used for systems of the II. and III. category.
What are the distances from the landing threshold of the outer, middle, and inner marker? AIM 1-1-9
Fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions. (a) No person may operate a civil aircraft in IFR conditions unless it carries enough fuel (considering weather reports and forecasts and weather conditions) to-- (1) Complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing; (2) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, fly from that airport to the alternate airport; and (3) Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed or, for helicopters, fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
What are the fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions? Night? (91.167)
-The procedure specifies NoPT, the pilot may not make the PT unless instructed by ATC -A teardrop procedure turn is depicted and a course reversal is required -When a holding pattern replaces a PT the hold must be followed except when radar vectoring or when NoPT is shown on appch crs.
What are the limitations for procedure turns?
Within 6 calendar months, the pilot has accomplished 6 instrument approaches, holds, intercepting and tracking courses using instruments, or passed an IFR proficency check
What are the recency-of-experience requirements to be PIC of a flight under IFR? (61.57)
Annual, 100 hour, progressive, life-limit (turbine rotorcraft) inspection (91.409 a/b or f, complex refer to FAR) Pitot/static system within preceding 24 months or opening or maint. of altitude encoder (91.411) Transponder within preceding 24 months (91.413) (IFR) VOR check within preceding 30 days (ground/VOT, test-set, airborne cross check. 91.171) ELT within preceding 12 months (91.207d)
What are the required tests and inspections of aircraft and equipment to be legal for IFR flight? (91.171, 91.409, 91.411, 91.413)
Initial, Intermediate and final.
What are the segments of an instrument approach?
Full scale deflection represents at least 10° when tuned to a VOR and only 2.5° when tuned to the localize
What are the sensitivity differences between the CDI tuned to a VOR and a CDI tuned to a LOC? AIM 1-1-9
The localizer provides course guidance throughout the descent path to the runway threshold from a distance of 18 NM from the antenna between an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest terrain along the course line and 4,500 feet above the elevation of the antenna site. Proper off-course indications are provided throughout the following angular areas of the operational service volume: (a) To 10 degrees either side of the course along a radius of 18 NM from the antenna, and (b) From 10 to 35 degrees either side of the course along a radius of 10 NM. (See FIG 1-1-6.) Unreliable signals may be received outside these areas.
What are the service volumes for the ILS/LOC?
A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the outer or middle marker. DME, VOR, or nondirectional beacon fixes authorized in the standard instrument approach procedure or surveillance radar may be substituted for the outer marker. Applicability of, and substitution for, the inner marker for Category II or III approaches is determined
What are the substitutes for an ILS OM/MM? 91.175
(ii) The threshold. (iii) The threshold markings. (iv) The threshold lights. (v) The runway end identifier lights. (vi) The visual approach slope indicator. (vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings. (viii) The touchdown zone lights. (ix) The runway or runway markings. (x) The runway lights
What constitutes the runway environment?
1.1 miles (course off=200xmiles divided by 5280)
What distance off-course would an aircraft be with 1 dot deflection 30 miles out from the VOR station?
Go to MAP. do not descend to the MDA.
What do you do if you have a RAIM failure during an approach? (Jepp 8-71)
ARROW Airworthiness Certificate Registration Certificate Radio Station License (international) Owners manual or operating limitations Weight and balance data
What documents need to be on board an aircraft to make it legal for IFR flight? (91.9, 91.203)
Initial approach fix
What does IAF stand for?
Medium Approach Light System with Runway Alignment Indicator lights
What does MALSR stand for?
Medium Intesity Runway Lights/High Intensity Runway Lights
What does MIRL or HIRL stand for?
The VOR function is not working but the DME function is working
What does it mean if there is only a single coded identification every 30 seconds on a VORTAC station?
Guarantees at least a 1000 ft clearance above all objects in the area contained within a 25 NM radius of a navaid.
What does the MSA guarantee?
Final approach fix on non precision appch. Lightning bolt is FAF on precision.
What does the Maltese cross represent? The Lightning bolt
NWKRAFT. Acronym. Definition. NWKRAFT. Notams Weather Known ATC Delays Runway Lengths Aletrnates Available Fuel Requirements Takeoff and Landing Distances (14 CFR 91.103 required preflight preparation)
What information must a PIC be familiar with before a flight? (91.103) NWKRAFT
Reverse sensing: When the VOR needle indicates the reverse of normal operation. This occurs when the aircraft is headed toward the station with a FROM indication or when the aircraft is headed away from the station with a TO indication.
What is "reverse sensing"? FAA-H-8083-15
Airport Reference Point Located at the geometric center of all useable runways
What is ARP?
Distance Measuring Equipment. DME is required when published and above FL240
What is DME? When is DME equipment required?
Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring
What is RAIM?
Runway Visual Range. The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centre line.
What is RVR?
Threshold Crossing Height. The theoretical height above the RWY threshold at which the aircraft's glideslope antenna would be if the aircraft maintend the glideslope trajectory.
What is TCH?
Touchdown Zone Elevation, the highest elevation in the first 3k feet of RWY
What is TDZE?
Departure Procedure
What is a DP? AIM 5-2-6
STANDARD TERMINAL ARRIVAL (STAR): a. A STAR is an ATC coded IFR arrival route established for application to arriving IFR aircraft destined for certain airports. FMSP's for arrivals serve the same purpose but are only used by aircraft equipped with FMS. The purpose of both is to simplify clearance delivery procedures and facilitate transition between en route and instrument approach procedures.
What is a STAR? AIM 5-4-1
a. Clearance Limit: The traffic clearance issued prior to departure will normally authorize flight to the airport of intended landing. Under certain conditions, at some locations a short-range clearance procedure is utilized whereby a clearance is issued to a fix within or just outside of the terminal area and pilots are advised of the frequency on which they will receive the long-range clearance direct from the center controller.
What is a clearance limit? AIM 4-4-3
Localizer Directional Aid appch. AT certain airports the localizer is not aligned with the RWY.
What is an LDA?
MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDE/MINIMUM SECTOR ALTITUDE:
What is an MSA?
Slant range distance is the actual distance between the aircraft and the ground station (as opposed to the horizontal distance). Altitude aircraft has a direct effect on slant range error. This error will be minimized if the aircraft is at least 1 mile away from the station for every 1000' of altitude.
What is slant-range distance? To minimize slant-range error, how far from the facility should you be and at what altitude?
10 Degrees
What is the angular width of the localizer? AIM 1-1-9
Decision height vs Decision alt. DA is measured in MSL, DH is AGL. Used for precision approaches.
What is the difference between DA and DH?
minimum descent altitude vs minimum descent height. MDA is in MSL, MDH is in AGL.
What is the difference between MDA and MDH?
A precision appch has both horozontal and vertical guidance to RWY. A non precision has only horozontal
What is the difference between a precision and non-precision approach?
It is the intercept of the glide slope at minimum altitude
What is the final approach fix on an ILS?
The pilot brief section includes all frequencies, courses, and altitudes needed to fly the approach, along with notes specific to each approach procedure. The pilot brief also includes a full description of the missed approach procedure. The plan view is designed as a broad "overhead" view of the approach course and any transition routes, along with the missed approach procedure. The profile view gives a "side view" of the approach so that the pilot can easily see what altitude they must fly during each segment of the approach. The profile view also includes distances between waypoints, approach angles, and a brief view of the missed approach. The minima table shows the various minimums for the different approaches depicted on the plate. Each minima includes a minimum altitude and visibility.
What is the first / second / third / fourth section of the appch plate called?
ODP: Obstacle Departure Procedure, used for obstacle clearance. Standard Instrument Departures: Exist predominantly for ATC reasons, though they can of course provide obstacle clearance as well.
What is the primary purpose for ODPs? SIDs?
LDA: to 10 degrees either side of the course along a radius of 18 NM from antenna and from 10 to 35 degrees either side of the course along a radius of 10 NM. An SDF has a course width of 6 to 12 degrees
What is the service volume for an LDA? SDF?
35 degrees of RWY within 10NM/10 degrees of RWY within 18 NM
What is the service volume of the localizer?
The glide path projection angle is normally adjusted to 3 degrees above horizontal so that it intersects the MM at about 200 feet and the OM at about 1,400 feet above the runway elevation. The glide slope is normally usable to the distance of 10 NM. However, at some locations, the glide slope has been certified for an extended service volume which exceeds 10 NM.
What is the usable range of the glide slope? AIM 1-1-9
This inspection (test) must be entered into a record that contains the Date, Place, Bearing Error and the Signature of the person performing the test.
What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?
It may translate a Morse Code of TEST ( ‒ • ••• ‒ ) or the code may be removed entirely
What would happen if the VOR station were undergoing maintenance?
To indicate the aircraft is 200FT AGL over the TDZ
When are the inner markers used? AIM 1-1-9
When guidance is established from the selected navaid. "I am established on the X"
When can you descend from the en route altitude to the altitudes published on the approach plate?
When you have the RWY environment in sight. Except for a Category II or Category III approach where any necessary visual reference requirements are specified by the Administrator, at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: -The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
When can you land?
When advised by ATC. By default, the procedure turn is required if depicted unless there is a specific reason not to.
When is a procedure turn not required?
61.3: Can't Operate below VFR wx mins without instrument rating. 91.135: Can't operate in Class A without instrument rating. 91.157: SVFR at night requires instrument rating.
When is an instrument rating required? (61.3e, 91.157)
AF/D
Where can you find the location of airborne, ground and VOT testing stations?
Begins at the FAF or whichever point establishes your final appch course
Where does the final segment begin?
Begins at the IAF. Ends where it joins the intermediate segment.
Where does the initial segment begin?
Begins at the intermediate fix, usually aligned within 30 degrees of the final appch course
Where does the intermediate segment begin?
Begins at the MAP and ends at a designated point such as initial appch or enroute fix
Where does the missed segment begin?
The glide slope transmitter is located between 750 feet and 1,250 feet from the approach end of the runway (down the runway) and offset 250 to 650 feet from the runway centerline.
Where is the glide slope antenna located? AIM 1-1-9
The localizer (LOC) ground antenna array is located on the extended centerline of the instrument runway of an airport, remote enough from the opposite (approach) end of the runway to prevent it from being a collision hazard.
Where is the localizer antenna located?
At airports with RVR sensing equipment, it will be published in the METAR. Also via the ATIS or FSS.
While inbound on an approach, how could you determine the flight visibility?
It is very important to know when you will receive further instructions when operating in IFR, especially concerning clearance limit situations.
Why is an EFC time important? AIM 5-3-7
