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Whole blood fasting glucose level is _________ than in serum or plasma. A. 10 - 15% lower B. 10 - 15% higher C. 5 - 10% lower D. 5 - 10% higher

A. 10 - 15% lower

Current NCEP guidelines recommend patients be seated for how many minutes before sampling for cholesterol to prevent hemoconcentration: A. 5 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 20 minutes

A. 5 minutes

Urea is only a rough estimate of renal function and will not show any significant level of increased concentration until the glomerular filtration rate is decreased by: A. At least 50% B. At least 60% C. At least 75% D. At least 80%

A. At least 50%

RESPECT the decisions (self-determination) of those who have decision-making capacity. Moral rules or obligations: · Tell the truth · Respect the privacy of others · Protect confidential information · Obtain consent for interventions with patients A. Autonomy B. Beneficence C. Non-maleficence D. Justice

A. Autonomy

It is increased in hemolytic anemias: A. B1 B. B2 C. Both fractions

A. B1

Gilbert's syndrome: A. Bilirubin transport deficit B. Conjugation deficit

A. Bilirubin transport deficit

Signal amplification differs from target amplification when designing protocols for identification of nucleic acids. Which of the following is an example of a signal amplification technique? A. Branched-chain DNA detection B. Ligase chain reaction C. Polymerase chain reaction D. Reverse-transcriptase PCR

A. Branched-chain DNA detection

Albumin reagent strips utilizing the dye ________ has a higher sensitivity and specificity for albumin: A. DIDNTB B. TMB C. DBDH D. Tetrabromphenol blue

A. DIDNTB

In primary hypothyroidism, one would expect the serum FT4 level to be ____, the thyroid-stimulating hormone to be _____, and the thyroxine-binding globulin level to be _____. A. Decreased, increased, slightly increased B. Decreased, decreased, slightly increased C. Increased, decreased, slightly increased D. Decreased, increased, slightly decreased

A. Decreased, increased, slightly increased

Fluorophore-labeled thyroxine competes with patient thyroxine for antibody in homogeneous system. Antibody-bound labeled thyroxine rotates slowly, emitting lower energy light. A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA) B. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay C. Chemiluminescence D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)

Florence test: A. Iodine, potassium iodide B. Picric acid, trichloroacetic acid C. Ammonium sulfate D. Acetic acid

A. Iodine, potassium iodide

Low to absent fructose level in the semen: A. Low sperm concentration B. Low sperm motility C. Low sperm viability D. Presence of antisperm antibodies

A. Low sperm concentration

Crystals that appear needle-shaped under polarized light and are yellow when aligned with the slow vibration of compensated polarized light are: A. Monosodium urate B. Calcium pyrophosphate C. Hydroxyapatite D. Corticosteroid

A. Monosodium urate

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is characterized by flow cytometry results that are: A. Negative for CD55 and CD59 B. Positive for CD55 and CD59 C. Negative for CD4 and CD8 D. Positive for all normal CD markers

A. Negative for CD55 and CD59

Which enzyme deficiency is responsible for phenylketonuria (PKU)? A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Tyrosine transaminase C. p-Hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid oxidase D. Homogentisic acid oxidase

A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase

Babesia is an organism that has been implicated in disease from both splenectomized and nonsplenectomized patients. Morphologically, the parasites resemble: A. Plasmodium falciparum rings B. Leishmania donovani amastigotes C. Trypanosoma cruzi trypomastigotes D. Plasmodium vivax developing rings

A. Plasmodium falciparum rings

. Most frequently performed chemical test on CSF: A. Protein B. Glucose C. Uric acid D. Blood

A. Protein

In what area of the nephron does approximately 65% of renal reabsorption occur? A. Proximal tubule B. Distal tubule C. Bowman capsule D. Glomerulus

A. Proximal tubule

In terms of biologic activity, what is the most potent thyroid hormone? A. T3 B. T4 C. Calcitonin D. None of these

A. T3

Proteins that migrate in the alpha-2 globulin band in serum protein electrophoresis EXCEPT: A. Transferrin B. Haptoglobin C. Ceruloplasmin D. Alpha 2- macroglobulin

A. Transferrin

Living sperm cells in the Modified Bloom's test: A. Unstained, bluish-white B. Purple on a red background C. Purple on a black background D. Red on a purple background

A. Unstained, bluish-white

In performing a glucose tolerance test, the fasting specimen is drawn at 0815 hours and the patient finishes the glucose beverage at 0820 hours. When should the 1-hour specimen be collected? A. 0915 hours B. 0920 hours C. 0945 hours D. 0950 hours

B. 0920 hours

Which of the following values is the threshold critical value (alert or action level) for high plasma sodium? A. 150 mmol/L B. 160 mmol/L C. 170 mmol/L D. 180 mmol/L

B. 160 mmol/L

If left unprotected from light, bilirubin values may reduce by _______ per hour. A. 10 to 20% B. 30 to 50% C. 50 to 70% D. 80 to 100%

B. 30 to 50%

B lymphocytes are stimulated to produce antibodies to HIV that are detectable in: A. 2 week B. 6 weeks C. 6 months D. 12 months

B. 6 weeks

Negative acute phase reactants: A. CRP, serum amyloid B. Albumin, prealbumin, transferrin C. Fibrinogen, haptoglobin D. Alpha1-antitrypsin, orosomucoid

B. Albumin, prealbumin, transferrin

Growth hormone is inhibited by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Glucose loading B. Amino acids e.g. arginine C. Insulin deficiency D. Thyroxine deficiency

B. Amino acids e.g. arginine

. It is increased in bile duct obstruction: A. B1 B. B2 C. Both fractions

B. B2

An isolate recovered from a vaginal culture obtained from a 25-year-old female patient who is 8 months pregnant is shown to be a gram-positive cocci, catalase negative, and β-hemolytic on blood agar. Which tests are needed for further identification? A. Optochin, bile solubility, PYR B. Bacitracin, CAMP, PYR C. Methicillin, PYR, trehalose D. Coagulase, glucose, PYR

B. Bacitracin, CAMP, PYR

Eosinophils may be increased in CSF in fungal infections primarily with: A. Candida albicans B. Coccidioides immitis C. Cryptococcus neoformans D. Histoplasma capsulatum

B. Coccidioides immitis

A delta check refers to: A. Checking the wristband with the requisition. B. Comparing current test results with previous one. C. Documenting all of the results of the QC checks. D. Reporting new infection control precautions.

B. Comparing current test results with previous one.

Crigler-Najjar syndrome: A. Bilirubin transport deficit B. Conjugation deficit

B. Conjugation deficit

Which of the following reagents can be used to measure protein in cerebrospinal fluid? A. Biuret B. Coomassie brilliant blue C. Ponceau S D. Bromcresol green

B. Coomassie brilliant blue

. Which test is used for the determination of inducible clindamycin resistance in staphylococci and streptococci? A. E-test B. D-zone test C. A-test D. CAMP test

B. D-zone test

In pesticide poisoning, cholinesterase activity is: A. Normal B. Decreased C. Increased D. Variable

B. Decreased

Resistance to clindamycin can be induced in vitro by A. Ampicillin B. Erythromycin C. Gentamicin D. Penicillin

B. Erythromycin

The D-zone susceptibility test is used to test inducible resistance on S. aureus strains demonstrating an initial antibiotic susceptibility profile of: A. Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin sensitive B. Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin sensitive C. Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin resistant D. Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin resistant

B. Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin sensitive

Black color of Argyrol, an antiseptic, disappears with addition of: A. Copper sulfate B. Ferric chloride C. Sodium nitroprusside D. Trichloroacetic acid

B. Ferric chloride

Fluorogenic substrate-labeled TSH is competing with patient TSH for antibody in this homogeneous assay. Only unbound (leftover) labeled TSH reacts with the enzyme to form fluorescent product. There is a direct relationship between fluorescence and the amount of TSH present in the test sample. A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA) B. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay C. Chemiluminescence D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

B. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay

Specimens for fructose levels should be tested within 2 hours of collection or _______ to prevent fructolysis. A. Refrigerated B. Frozen C. Incubated at 37C D. Maintained at room temperature

B. Frozen

Most frequently performed chemical analysis on urine: A. Protein B. Glucose C. Uric acid D. Blood

B. Glucose

Most frequently requested test in synovial fluid: A. Protein B. Glucose C. Uric acid D. Blood

B. Glucose

It is usually the first viral marker detected in blood after HBV infection. A. HBeAg B. HBsAg C. HBcAg D. Anti-HBc

B. HBsAg

A hospital worker is found to be positive for hepatitis B surface antigen. Subsequent tests reveal the presence of HBeAg as well. Which of the following best describes the worker? A. Has a biologic false-positive test for hepatitis B. Is highly contagious C. Is less contagious D. Is not contagious E. Has resolved hepatitis B

B. Is highly contagious

Which of the following conditions is associated with normal urine color but produces red fluorescence when urine is examined with an ultraviolet (Wood's) lamp? A. Acute intermittent porphyria B. Lead poisoning C. Erythropoietic porphyria D. Porphyria cutanea tarda

B. Lead poisoning

All of the following are associated with febrile agglutinins except: A. Brucella melitensis B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae C. Salmonella typhi D. Rickettsia ricketsii

B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

As a cardiac biomarker, ________ has been used in conjunction with troponin to help diagnose or rule out a heart attack. A. BNP B. Myoglobin C. Troponin D. Adiponectin

B. Myoglobin

Errors in LDL-c become noticeable at triglyceride levels: A. Over 150 mg/dL B. Over 200 mg/dL C. Over 350 mg/dL D. Over 400 mg/dL

B. Over 200 mg/dL

A BARBITURATE that effectively controls several types of seizures: A. Ethosuximide B. Phenobarbital C. Phenytoin D. Valproic acid

B. Phenobarbital

. Barbiero's test: A. Iodine, potassium iodide B. Picric acid, trichloroacetic acid C. Ammonium sulfate D. Acetic acid

B. Picric acid, trichloroacetic acid

The modification of diet in renal disease (MDRD) formula for calculating eGFR requires which four parameters? A. Urine creatinine, serum creatinine, height, weight B. Serum creatinine, age, gender, race C. Serum creatinine, height, weight, age D. Urine creatinine, gender, weight, age

B. Serum creatinine, age, gender, race

Main (predominant) hormone produced by the thyroid: A. T3 B. T4 C. Calcitonin D. None of these

B. T4

Which set of results is consistent with uncompensated respiratory alkalosis? A. pH 7.70 HCO3- 30 mmol/L pCO2 25 mm Hg B. pH 7.66 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2 20 mm Hg C. pH 7.46 HCO3- 38 mmol/L pCO2 55 mm Hg D. pH 7.36 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2 38 mm Hg

B. pH 7.66 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2 20 mm Hg

. Main estrogen found in nonpregnant women: A.Estrone B.Estradiol C.Estriol D.Dehydroepiandrosterone

B.Estradiol

Used to measure the concentrations of large particles (such as antigen-antibody complexes, prealbumin, and other serum proteins): Nephelometry Turbidimetry Absorption spectroscopy A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1 and 2

Diluted bleach will inactivate HBV in __ minutes and HIV in ___ minutes. A. 2 minutes, 8 minutes B. 8 minutes, 4 minutes C. 10 minutes, 2 minutes D. 2 minutes, 10 minutes E. 8 minutes, 2 minutes

C. 10 minutes, 2 minutes

A universal fixative used for routine purposes: A. Zenker fluid B. Zamboni PAF C. 10% neutral buffered formalin D. Carnoy's fluid

C. 10% neutral buffered formalin

Analytical (examination) errors: 1. Verbal reporting of results 2. Oversight of instrument flags 3. Out-of-control QC results 4. Wrong assay performed A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

C. 2, 3 and 4

Glassware is usually calibrated at: A. 98F B. 72F C. 20C D. 37C

C. 20C

Increased in hepatitis: A. B1 B. B2 C. Both fractions

C. Both fractions

Which complement protein is present in the greatest concentration in human serum? A. C1 B. C2 C. C3 D. C4

C. C3

Individuals with a _________ are prone to developing severe, recurrent life-threatening infections with encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and may also be subject to immune complex diseases; such complexes can lodge in the kidney and result in glomerulonephritis: A. C1 deficiency B. C2 deficiency C. C3 deficiency D. C5 deficiency

C. C3 deficiency

Peroxidase-labeled antibody binds with patient hormone (antigen) to form complex (similar to ELISA). Addition of luminol or acridium esters substrate forms an oxidized product that emits light for short time. A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA) B. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay C. Chemiluminescence D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

C. Chemiluminescence

In order to maintain electrical neutrality in the red blood cell, bicarbonate leaves the red blood cell and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with what electrolyte? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Chloride D. Phosphate

C. Chloride

Pathological levels are DECREASED from the normal values, sometimes as much as 80 to 90%: A. Acid phosphatase B. Alkaline phosphatase C. Cholinesterase D. Creatine kinase

C. Cholinesterase

Hereditary angioedema is characterized by: A. Decreased activity of C3 B. Increased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor C. Decreased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor D. Increased activity of C2

C. Decreased activity of C1 esterase inhibitor

The physician is concerned that a pregnant patient may be at risk for delivering prematurely. What would be the best biochemical marker to measure to assess the situation? A. InhibinA B. Alpha-fetoprotein C. Fetal fibronectin D. Human chorionic gonadotropin

C. Fetal fibronectin

Anti-glomerular basement antibody is seen with: A. Wegener's granulomatosis B. IgA nephropathy C. Goodpasture's syndrome D. Diabetic nephropathy

C. Goodpasture's syndrome

Which of the following can cause cardiac arrest in the absence of warning symptoms or signs? A. Hypernatremia B. Hyponatremia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia

C. Hyperkalemia

Which of the following immunoglobulins is most efficient at activating complement via the classical pathway? A. IgG2 B. IgG4 C. IgM D. IgA

C. IgM

Which of the following best describes the function of the Rapoport-Luebering pathway? A. It produces ATP to help maintain RBC membrane deformability B. It results in the reduction of glutathione C. It produces 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3 DPG) D. It produces cytochrome b reductase

C. It produces 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3 DPG)

Which of the following enzyme activities can be determined by using a dilute OLIVE OIL emulsion substrate, whose hydrolyzed product is monitored as a decrease in turbidity or light scatter? A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Amylase C. Lipase D. Trypsin

C. Lipase

Measures the concentration of solute particles in a solution: A. Fluorometry B. Nephelometry C. Osmometry D. Turbidimetry

C. Osmometry

Distinct odor that is often referred to as a "chocolate cake" or "burnt chocolate" smell: A. Burkholderia cepacia B. Eikenella corrodens C. Proteus sp. D. Staphylococcus aureus

C. Proteus sp.

Which of the following is 5-hydroxy-indoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) the primary metabolite? A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine C. Serotonin D. Prolactin

C. Serotonin

What is the substrate used in the Bowers-McComb reaction for measurement of total ALP activity? A. Beta-glycerophosphate B. Phenylpyrophoshate C. p-nitrophenylphosphate D. Thymolphthalein monophosphate

C. p-nitrophenylphosphate

Main estrogen found in pregnant women: A.Estrone B.Estradiol C.Estriol D.Dehydroepiandrosterone

C.Estriol

Do not measure the concentration of solute particles in solution Fluorometry Nephelometry Osmometry Turbidimetry A. 1 only B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 4

Inability to digest gelatin in x-ray film indicates: A. Presence of gastrin B. Absence of gastrin C. Presence of trypsin D. Absence of trypsin

D. Absence of trypsin

A phlebotomist who encounters a comatose patient with no ID band should: A. Notify the phlebotomy supervisor B. Check the patient's identify with the patient's roommate C. Leave the requisition at the nurse's station D. Ask the nurse to band the patient

D. Ask the nurse to band the patient

The presence of dysmorphic red blood cells in the urine sediment is indicative of which of the following? A. A coagulation disorder B. Menstrual contamination C. Urinary tract infection D. Glomerular bleeding

D. Glomerular bleeding

Which technique involves probe amplification rather than target amplification? A. Southern blot B. PCR C. Transcription-mediated amplification D. Ligase chain reaction

D. Ligase chain reaction

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a progressive, disabling, and deadly brain disorder related to ______ infection. A. Chickenpox (varicella) B. Smallpox (variola major) C. German measles (rubella) D. Measles (rubeola)

D. Measles (rubeola)

Which test is the most useful way to evaluate the response to treatment for multiple myeloma? A. Measure of total immunoglobulin B. Measurement of 24-hour urinary light chain concentration (Bence-Jones protein) C. Capillary electrophoresis of M-protein recurrence D. Measurement of serum-free light chains

D. Measurement of serum-free light chains

Similar to ELISA in that there is a double-antibody system that forms a "sandwich" with the hormone: A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA) B. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay C. Chemiluminescence D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)

Nondestructive technique for determining the structure of organic compounds: A. Scintillation counter B. Freezing point osmometer C. Mass spectroscopy D. Nuclear magnetic resonance

D. Nuclear magnetic resonance

Specimens can be screened for the presence of fructose using the resorcinol test that produces an _______color when fructose is present. A. Blue B. Black C. Green D. Orange

D. Orange

A first morning specimen would be requested to confirm which of the following? A. Diabetes insipidus B. Fanconi's syndrome C. Urinary tract infection D. Orthostatic proteinuria

D. Orthostatic proteinuria

. Errors in LDL-c become unacceptably large at triglyceride levels: A. Over 150 mg/dL B. Over 200 mg/dL C. Over 350 mg/dL D. Over 400 mg/dL

D. Over 400 mg/dL

Friedewald formula is not valid for triglycerides: A. Over 150 mg/dL B. Over 200 mg/dL C. Over 350 mg/dL D. Over 400 mg/dL

D. Over 400 mg/dL

Symptoms and signs mimic those of TUBERCULOSIS, and should always be suspected in patients with tuberculosis who are non-responsive to treatment: A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Necator americanus C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Paragonimus westermani

D. Paragonimus westermani

An indicator of PREECLAMPSIA: A. Cylindruria B. Ketonuria C. Hematuria D. Proteinuria

D. Proteinuria

Effect of excess lipids or proteins to sodium value measured by flame photometry and indirect ISE: A. Hypernatremia B. Hyponatremia C. Pseudohypernatremia D. Pseudohyponatremia

D. Pseudohyponatremia

Dead sperm cells in the Modified Bloom's test: A. Unstained, bluish-white B. Purple on a red background C. Purple on a black background D. Red on a purple background

D. Red on a purple background

ISBT BEGINNING WITH 030: A. ABO B. Scianna C. John Milton Hagen D. Rh-associated glycoprotein (RHAG)

D. Rh-associated glycoprotein (RHAG)

Which test is the most sensitive in detecting early monoclonal gammopathies? A. High-resolution serum protein electrophoresis B. Urinary electrophoresis for monoclonal light chains C. Capillary electrophoresis of serum and urine D. Serum-free light chain immunoassay

D. Serum-free light chain immunoassay

The Oriental rat flea, Xenopsylla cheopis, can be involved in transmitting which of the following microorganisms? A. Rickettsia typhi B. Hymenolepis nana C. Yersinia pestis D. Plasmodium spp. E. A and C are correct

E. A and C are correct