Patho Unit 2 Chapter 11 PrepU with explanations
The nurse is administering a rabies vaccine to a client who was bitten by a wild squirrel. The nurse explains the mechanism of action of the medication to the client. Which type of immunity does the nurse say this vaccination provides? active naturally-acquired immunity active artificially-acquired immunity passive naturally-acquired immunity passive artificially-acquired immunity
Active immunity is acquired through either natural means (exposure to an antigen through illness) or artificial means (exposure to an antigen through immunization). Despite the antigen being delivered via vaccination, it is still active immunity because it requires the host's own immune system to develop an immunologic response. Passive immunity is where antibodies are supplied directly from another source rather than being created by the host in response to an antigen. The most common form of passive immunity is that conferred from mother to fetus. Passive immunity produces only short-term protection that lasts weeks to months while active immunity produces lasting immunological memory.
The nurse is administering a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination to a pediatric client. When the nurse explains immunity to the mother, which type of immunity will she explain that this vaccination provides? Active natural immunity Active artificial immunity Passive natural immunity Passive artificial immunity
Active immunity is acquired when the host mounts an immune response to an antigen either through the process of vaccination (artificial means) or from environmental exposure (natural means). It is called active immunity because it requires the host's own immune system to develop an immunological response. The process by which active immunity is acquired through the administration of a vaccine is termed immunization. An acquired immune response can improve on repeated exposures to an injected antigen (booster vaccines) or a natural infection.
A teenager has been exposed to a person infected with chicken pox. After 2 weeks, the client has not contracted the virus. How is this possible? Select all that apply. The client was vaccinated for chickenpox. The client was previously exposed to chickenpox. The client is naturally immune from birth. The chickenpox virus is not contagious. Only children are at risk of contracting chickenpox; teens and adults are immune.
Active immunity is acquired when the host mounts an immune response to an antigen either through the process of vaccination or from environmental exposure. It is called active immunity because it requires the host's own immune system to develop an immunologic response, including the development of memory. Passive immunity transferred from mother to fetus only lasts a few weeks to months following birth.
A lactation nurse visits a new mother after delivery of her first child and encourages the mother to breast-feed her infant, even for a short time. Which statement made by the nurse correctly explains the importance of breast-feeding? For several months, colostrum will provide the infant with passive immunity to diseases to which the mother has immunity. Colostrum will provide the infant with active immunity to many childhood illnesses for several years. Colostrum will provide the infant with passive immunity to all childhood illnesses for several months. Colostrum will provide the infant with innate immunity to diseases to which the mother is immune.
After birth, the neonate receives IgG antibodies from the mother in breast milk or colostrum. Therefore, infants are provided with some degree of protection from infection for approximately 3 to 6 months, giving their own immune systems time to mature. IgA is primarily a secretory Ig that is found in saliva, tears, colostrum (i.e., first milk of a nursing mother), and bronchial, gastrointestinal, prostatic, and vaginal secretions. Its primary function is in local immunity on mucosal surfaces. IgA prevents the attachment of viruses and bacteria to epithelial cells.
A sixth-grade science teacher asks the students to explain the role of cilia in the lower respiratory tract. Which student response is best? "These little hairs move germs trapped in mucus toward the throat so the body can cough them out." "Cilia help to warm the airways so that moisture in the air can neutralize any germs that get in our lungs." "Cilia can trap the microbes in one location so the body can grow scar tissue around them and wall them off so they can't cause disease." "Cilia help facilitate a chemical defense against germs by secreting an enzyme that will cement the germ to the lining of the airways."
Also in the lower respiratory tract, hair-like structures called cilia protrude through the epithelial cells. The synchronous action of the cilia moves many microbes trapped in the mucus toward the throat. The physiologic responses of coughing and sneezing further aid in their removal from the body. Chemical defenses against trapped microbes include the following: lysozyme, which is a hydrolytic enzyme capable of cleaving the walls of bacterial cells; complement, which binds and aggregates bacteria to increase their susceptibility to phagocytosis or disrupt their lipid membrane; and members of the collectin family of surfactant proteins in the respiratory tract. The best-defined function of the surfactants is their ability to opsonize pathogens, including bacteria and viruses, and to facilitate phagocytosis by innate immune cells such as macrophages.
A nurse is teaching a group of seniors about the decline of the immune system due to aging. Which topic should be included in the teaching plan regarding the immune response of older adults? Select all that apply. Increase in activation of immune responsiveness Increase in susceptibility to infections Higher incidence of cancer Weakened response to vaccinations Decrease in autoimmune disorders
As we age, the ability of the immune system to protect the body from pathogenic organisms and environmental toxins declines as a result of an overall decline in immune responsiveness. This results from changes in both cell-mediated and humoral immune responses. As a result, older adults are more susceptible to infections, have more evidence of autoimmune and immune complex disorders, and have a higher incidence of cancer than do younger people. In addition, the immune system of older adults is less likely to respond appropriately to immunization. As a result, older adults have a weakened response to vaccination. Older adults also frequently have many comorbid conditions that impair normal immune function and compromise the immune response.
The cells that mediate humoral immunity do so because they are capable of producing: Platelets Antibodies Stem cells Helper T cells
B lymphocytes (B cells) are the only cells capable of producing antibodies; therefore, they are the cells that mediate humoral immunity. B lymphocytes (B cells) differentiate into plasma cells that produce the needed immunoglobulins (antibodies) for responding to that particular antigen. Stem cells are undifferentiated cells. T helper cells differentiate into cytotoxic and other T-cell forms.
Select the type of lymphocyte that matures in the bone marrow. B lymphocytes T lymphocytes Macrophages Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow and are essential for humoral or antibody-mediated immunity. The T lymphocytes mature in the thymus. Macrophages are part of the monocytic phagocyte system, are in almost all tissues, and are the mature form of monocytes. Cytotoxic T cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity.
A nurse is teaching a new mother diagnosed with HIV about the transfer of the infection to her newborn. The mother begins to cry and states, "It's too late, the lab tests on my baby are already positive for HIV." How should the nurse respond? "Just because the test is positive for HIV does not mean your baby is infected with the virus." "I'm sorry I did not realize the test results were back yet; let me check your baby's chart." "I understand you are upset; would you like me to call someone to come and talk with you?" "Let's discuss the progression of HIV and plan for your baby's care once you go home."
Because of maternal transfer of IgG antibodies to the fetus, an infant born to a mother infected with HIV has a positive HIV antibody test result, although the child may not be infected with the virus.
Which statement correctly identifies the role of the C3b subcomponent of the complement system? Opsonizes microbes to facilitate phagocytosis Dilates arterioles Lyses cells Induces rapid degranulation of mast cells
C3b is a key opsonin that coats bacteria and allows them to be phagocytized.
What is the term for a subset of cytokines that stimulate the production of large numbers of platelets, erythrocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils, and monocytes, eosinophils, basophils, and dendritic cells? Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) Chemokines Immunoglobulins Natural killer (NK) cells
Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) are cytokines that stimulate bone marrow pluripotent stem and progenitor or precursor cells to produce large numbers of platelets, erythrocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils, and dendritic cells. Chemokines are cytokines that stimulate the migration and activation of immune and inflammatory cells. Antibodies are immunoglobulins. Natural killer (NK) cells are a class of lymphocytes that recognize infected and stressed cells and respond by killing these cells.
Which of the types of T cells is responsible for destroying pathogens by punching holes in their cell membrane and by secreting cytokines/lymphokines? Cytotoxic T cells Regulatory T cells Memory T cells
Cytotoxic T cells destroy the pathogens. Regulatory T cells suppress immune response. Memory T cells are derived from normal T cells. The principal cells of the adaptive immune system are the T and B lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells. T lymphocytes differentiate into helper T cells, regulatory T cells, and cytotoxic T cells, providing cell-mediated immunity. CD4+ helper T cells serve as a trigger for the immune response and are essential for the differentiation of B cells into antibody-producing plasma cells and the differentiation of T lymphocytes into CD8+ cytotoxic T cells.
A clinical research study is evaluating cells that bridge both the innate and adaptive immune systems. A nurse has identified the dendritic cells (DCs) as a key component. Which statement validates this finding? Dendritic cells (DCs) directly sense pathogens, capture foreign agents, and transport them to secondary lymphoid tissues. Once activated, they undergo a maturation process and function as antigen-presenting cells (APCs) capable of initiating adaptive immunity. Dendritic cells (DCs) spontaneously kill target tumor and/or infected cells without previous exposure to surface antigens. Dendritic cells (DCs) destroy the invading organism through the process of phagocytosis. Dendritic cells (DCs) can also act as opsonins and can coat cellular particles on pathogens and enhance the phagocytic function of innate cells.
Dendritic cells (DCs) are specialized, bone marrow-derived leukocytes found in lymphoid tissue and are the bridge between the innate and adaptive immune systems. They are present primarily in an immature form that is available to directly sense pathogens, capture foreign agents, and transport them to secondary lymphoid tissues. Once activated, DCs undergo a complex maturation process in order to function as key antigen-presenting cells (APCs) capable of initiating adaptive immunity. They are responsible for the processing and presentation of foreign antigens to the lymphocytes.
A nurse is reviewing the process required for the development of a healthy innate immune response. Which components need to be included in the review? Select all that apply. Leukocytes Opsonins Cytokines Complement B cells
Development of a healthy innate immune response is dependent not only upon the coordinated activity of the leukocytes but on the secretion of chemical mediators and soluble molecules, such as opsonins, cytokines, acute-phase proteins, and complement. Opsonins bind to and tag microorganisms for more efficient recognition by phagocytes. Activated leukocytes release cytokines that stimulate the migration of leukocytes to the site of inflammation, stimulate production of acute-phase proteins, and enhance phagocytosis.
Which cells block the entry of microbes and destroy them by secreting antimicrobial enzymes, proteins, and peptides within the mucous membrane linings of the gastrointestinal, respiratory, and urogenital tract? Immune Lymphatic Leukocytes Epithelial
Epithelial cells line the body systems and are joined by tight junctions to protect from invasion. Lymphatic tissue underlies the epithelia as a secondary barrier. Immune cells are present everywhere but are not used to line tissues. Leukocytes are white blood cells.
A client diagnosed with sepsis has a critically low neutrophil count. The nurse expects which drug or drug class to be used to stimulate white blood cell production? Granulocyte CSF (G-CSF) such as filgrastim Interferons Monoclonal antibodies such as adalimumab Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents such as epoetin alfa
Granulocyte CSF (G-CSF) promotes growth and maturation of neutrophils consumed in inflammatory reactions. In clinical practice, recombinant CSF is being used to increase the success rates of bone marrow transplantations and neutropenia. The availability of recombinant CSFs and cytokines offers the possibility of several clinical therapies where stimulation or inhibition of the immune response or cell production is desirable.
During a blood transfusion, a client begins to have chills, back pain, and develops a fever. The nurse determines the client is experiencing a transfusion reaction. The nurse educates the client about transfusion reactions. Which statement indicates the cause of the reaction? Each person has two HLA haplotypes that identify human cells. Blood typing involves the identification of these haplotypes (ABO compatibility). The closer the matching of HLA types, the greater is the probability of identical antigens and the lower the chance of rejection. A reaction occurs if the immune system views the HLA types as foreign. Blood is typed based on the haplotype compatibility. A reaction occurs when the blood is not typed correctly. There is no known cause for blood reactions. Even if the correct haplotypes are identified the body can still activate the immune system and reject the blood. Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) are the major target involved in rejection. ABO blood compatibility must be determined to avoid transfusion reactions. If the blood is correctly typed, the reaction is being caused by another antigen in the body.
Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) are the major target involved in rejection. Each person inherits one chromosome from each parent, supplying two HLA haplotypes. Blood typing involves the identification of these haplotypes. In transplantation, the closer the matching of HLA types, the greater the probability of identical antigens and the lower the chance of rejection. A reaction occurs if the blood types do not exactly match and the immune system views the HLA types as foreign.
Which immunoglobulin is primarily found in secretions and has a primary function of providing local immunity on mucosal surfaces? IgG IgM IgA IgD
IgA is found in saliva and tears, and is a primary defense against infections in mucosal tissues. IgM is the first immunoglobulin to appear in response to antigen invasion. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin and can cross the placenta. IgD is an antigen receptor on B-cell membranes.
The nurse is assisting a new mother with breastfeeding. What does the nurse understand is a primary secretory immunoglobulin (Ig) that is found in the colostrum? IgD IgM IgA IgE
IgA is primarily a secretory Ig that is found in saliva, tears, colostrum, and bronchial, gastrointestinal, prostatic, and vaginal secretions. Because it is found in secretions, its primary function is in local immunity on mucosal surfaces. IgA prevents the attachment of viruses and bacteria to epithelial cells.
A client is being evaluated for atopic dermatitis possibly caused by a latex-related allergic reaction. The nurse will review which lab results to determine if an allergy is present? Serum IgE Serum IgG Basophils Neutrophils
IgE binds to mast cells and basophils and is involved in parasitic infections, as well as allergic and hypersensitivity reactions. Serum IgE causes the symptoms of allergic reactions and is elevated in type 1 hypersensitivity disorders.
A client experiences an allergic reaction. Select the immunoglobulin that would bind to mast cells and release histamine. IgE IgA IgG IgD
IgE responds to allergic exposures and parasitic infections. IgA is the primary defense against local infections in mucosal tissues. IgG protects against bacteria, toxins, and viruses and activates the complement system. IgD acts as an antigen receptor for initiating the B cells.
The nurse is aware that the only class of immunoglobulins to cross the placenta is: IgG IgM IgA IgD
IgG is the only class of immunoglobulins to cross the placenta. Levels of maternal IgG decrease significantly during the first 3 to 6 months of life, while infant synthesis of immunoglobulins increases.
A newborn has been lethargic, is not nursing well, and is basically looking ill. Following lab tests, it has been found that the newborn has IgM present in his blood. How should the nurse interpret this finding? All newborns have IgM in their blood so this is a normal finding. IgM in the blood means the infant may be allergic to breast milk. The presence of IgM suggests the infant has a current infection. IgM is usually only found in saliva so the specimen must be contaminated.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to appear in response to antigen and is the first antibody type made by a newborn. This is diagnostically useful because the presence of IgM suggests a current infection in the infant by a specific pathogen. IgE is involved in inflammation, allergic responses, and combating parasitic infections. It binds to mast cells and basophils. The binding of antigen to mast cell- or basophil-bound IgE triggers these cells to release histamine and other mediators important in inflammation and allergies. IgA is found in saliva and tears, and is a primary defense against infections in mucosal tissues.
A client has recently received a pneumococcal vaccine and the client's B cells are consequently producing antibodies. Which cells may enhance this production of antibodies? Helper T cells Regulatory T cells Cytotoxic T cells Natural killer cells
In order for B lymphocytes to produce antibodies, they require the help of specific T lymphocytes, called helper T cells, which help B lymphocytes produce antibodies. Natural killer cells as well as regulatory and cytotoxic T cells do not perform this function.
Innate immunity, also called natural or native immunity, consists of mechanisms that respond specifically to which potential threat? Self-cells Microbes Antibodies Inflammation
Innate immunity is the first line of defense against microbial invasion and is in place before infection. Inflammation and antibody production are responses to microbes after they have invaded the body. The innate immune system is able to identify non-self-cells from self-cells.
Select the statement that best describes the effectiveness of vaccination in the older adult population. Experimental evidence suggests that vaccination is less successful in inducing immunization in older persons than in younger adults. Older adults who are immunized have the same effective response in immunity as younger persons do. Age does not influence the effectiveness; it depends on the amount of medication you receive. Vaccinations are only effective in older adult populations if their families have been vaccinated.
Older adults tend to be more susceptible to infections, have more evidence of autoimmune and immune complex disorders than younger persons, and have a higher incidence of cancer. Experimental evidence suggests that vaccination is less successful in inducing immunization in older persons than in younger adults. However, the effect of altered immune function on the health of older adults is clouded by the fact that age-related changes or disease may affect the immune response.
While explaining immunity to a client, the nurse responds, "The body's internal organs are protected from pathogens because: our mucosal tissue contains all the necessary cell components to fight a pathogen with an immune response." the tonsils store a large amount of natural killer cells at that location." we have special glands that can secrete cytokines on a moment's notice." the actions of the cytokines in the mouth can act on different cell types at the same time it is fighting pathogens."
Secondary lymphoid tissues contain all the necessary cell components (i.e., T cells, B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells) for an immune response. Because of the continuous stimulation of the lymphocytes in these tissues by microorganisms constantly entering the body, large numbers of plasma cells are evident. Immunity at the mucosal layers helps to exclude many pathogens and thus protects the vulnerable internal organs. Although cells of both the innate and adaptive immune systems communicate critical information by cell-to-cell contact, many interactions and effector responses depend on the secretion of short-acting soluble molecules called cytokines. The actions of cytokines are often pleiotropic and redundant. Pleiotropism refers to the ability of a cytokine to act on different cell types.
A client comes to the clinic with reports of runny nose, itchy eyes, and congestion due to seasonal allergies. The nurse teaches the client about the allergic reaction. The nurse knows that teaching has been effective when the client identifies which CD4 helper T-cell cytokine as the cause of this Type I hypersensitivity reaction? IL-2 IL-4 IL-6 Interferons
T cells produce IL-4, which induces differentiation toward the T2H subtype. The T2H cells direct B lymphocytes to switch class and produce the IgE antibodies and prime the mast cell, which causes an allergic or hypersensitivity response.
A client who was exposed to hepatitis A at a local restaurant has recovered from the disease. At the annual physical, the client asks whether to get the hepatitis A "shot." How will the nurse respond, based on the concepts of adaptive immunity? "Yes, because you could get a worse case the next time you are exposed." "Of course. The virus changes every year." "I would not recommend getting it; the vaccine can damage your liver." "No, because having an active case, you have already developed antibodies against hepatitis A."
The adaptive immune system consists of two groups of lymphocytes and their products, including antibodies. Whereas the cells of the innate immune system recognize structures shared by classes of microorganisms, the cells of the adaptive immune system are capable of recognizing numerous microbial and noninfectious substances and developing a unique specific immune response for each substance. Substances that elicit adaptive immune responses are called antigens. A memory of the substance is also developed so that a repeat exposure to the same microbe or agent produces a quicker and more vigorous response. The hepatitis A virus does not change from year to year. The vaccine does not damage the liver; however, the active hepatitis A disease can.
A client experiencing severe neck pain and fever comes to the emergency room and is diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Knowing that the client's immune system is fighting the infection, the infectious disease nurse correctly identifies which pathway as the activation of the complement system? The classical The lectin The alternative Compliment has not been activated
The classical pathway is initiated by an antigen-antibody complex (either IgG or IgM mediated), which causes a specific reactive site on the antibody to be "uncovered" so that it can bind directly to the C1 molecule in the complement system. Once C1 is activated, a "cascade" of sequential reactions is set in motion. Initially, a small amount of enzyme is produced, but with activation of successive complement proteins successively increasing, concentrations of proteolytic enzymes are produced.
The nurse is planning care for a client with a diagnosis of primary immunodeficiency. What is a priority intervention to incorporate into the plan? Protecting the client from infection Identifying the cause of the immune deficiency Providing a referral to a support group prior to discharge Educating the client about required lifestyle changes
The client with immunodeficiency has an absent or inadequate immune response. Cell-mediated, or cellular, immunity is mediated by the cytotoxic T lymphocytes (T cells) and functions in the elimination of intracellular pathogens. A lack of this response increases the client's risk of infection.
The entrance of a microbe into an individual's vascular space has initiated opsonization. How will the health care provider explain this process that is critical in stopping the infiltration of the microbe through opsonization? Opsonization: stimulates B cells by helper T cells. coats a microbe to activate phagocytosis recognition. releases proteins that stimulate cell production by the bone marrow. involves lysis of intracellular microbes by cytotoxic T cells.
The coating of particles, such as microbes, is called opsonization, and the coating materials are called opsonins. The opsonin bound to the microbe then activates the phagocyte after attachment to a complementary receptor on the phagocyte. Opsonization does not involve stimulation by T cells, stimulation of the bone marrow, or the lysis of microbes by cytotoxic T cells.
The nurse is reviewing the functions of immunoglobulins and determines which immunoglobulin is associated with its correct action? IgM, the first antibody to be produced by a developing fetus. IgA, plays a role in B-cell differentiation. IgE, functions as a receptor for antigen. IgD, prevents the attachment of viruses and bacterial to epithelial cells.
The correct actions are as follows: IgM is the first circulating immunoglobulin that is produced by the developing fetus. It is instrumental in the ultimate lysis of microorganisms. It also is an effective agglutinating antibody. IgA prevents the attachment of viruses and bacteria to epithelial cells. IgE is involved in inflammation, allergic responses, and combating parasitic infections. It binds to mast cells and basophils. IgD serves as an antigen receptor for initiating the differentiation of B cells.
Which actions would be considered an effector response of innate immunity? Select all that apply. Phagocytosis Viral destruction Initiation of inflammatory response Recruitment of the complement system Bacterial destruction
The effector responses of innate immunity involve viral destruction by natural killer (NK) cells, phagocytosis of microbes by neutrophils and monocytes, initiation of the inflammatory response, and recruitment of the complement system.
A client stepped on a nail at work. The emergency room physician prescribes a tetanus "booster" shot. The client asks the nurse, "If I have already been vaccinated for tetanus why do I need to have another shot?" How should the nurse respond? "The booster shot will stimulate your immune system's memory, causing an immediate rise in antibodies to protect you from an infection." "Your initial vaccination is outdated so you are no longer immune to tetanus." "If you have questions about your treatment, I will ask the physician to come back in and talk to you." "Tetanus can mutate and form a new strain; therefore yearly vaccinations are recommended."
The immunization process makes use of the primary and secondary immune responses. The initial vaccination causes production of both plasma cells and memory cells. The plasma cells destroy the invading organism or toxin, and the memory cells provide defense against future exposure. "Booster" immunizations produce an immediate antigen-antibody response that simulates an immediate rise in antibody levels.
In an attempt to best explain the innate immune system to a class of first-year nursing students, the instructor should describe what characteristic? The innate immune system is mediated by molecules called antibodies and is the principal defense against extracellular microbes and toxins. The response of the innate immune system is rapid, usually within minutes to hours, and prevents the establishment of infection and deeper tissue penetration of microorganisms. The innate immune system consists of lymphocytes and their products, including antibodies. The innate immune system is mediated by specific T-cells and defends against intracellular microbes such as viruses.
The innate immune system is the first line of defense. The adaptive immune system is composed of lymphocytes and their products. Antibodies comprise humoral immunity and T-cells provide cellular immunity.
A client tells the nurse she is at risk to prematurely deliver her baby and is concerned that the baby does not have a developed immune system. The best response would be: Infants born prematurely may have deficient immunity. The immune system and protection are completed early in pregnancy. Antibiotics are available; do not worry. All babies have deficient systems.
The largest amount of IgG crosses the placenta during the last weeks of pregnancy and is stored in fetal tissues; therefore, infants born prematurely may be deficient.
A client with infectious mononucleosis asks the nurse why the lymph nodes are enlarged. Which statement is the nurse's appropriate response? "Your lymph nodes trap and destroy viruses." "Your lymph nodes are blocked and need to be drained." "Your lymph nodes are infected and should be removed." "Your lymph nodes multiply to fight infection."
The lymph nodes remove foreign material from the lymph system before the fluid can enter the bloodstream. Mononucleosis is an infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The lymph nodes trap the virus where the lymphocytes and macrophages can destroy it. Enlargement may occur with increased production of lymphocytes, backup of lymph fluid, or malignancy.
A blood smear is being examined and a stain has been added that will identify granulocytes. Which cell types will be visible with the stain? Select all that apply. Neutrophil Eosinophil Macrophage Basophil Monocytes
The macrophage does not contain cytoplasmic granules, and neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils do. The granules contain the mediators of the acute inflammatory response. Monocytes are not granulocytes.
A person has been exposed to a particular antigen and a now experiences a repeat exposure. What stimulates a quicker immune response? Memory T cells Immunity Macrophages Antibodies
The memory T and B lymphocytes that are generated remain in the body for a longer time and can respond more rapidly during repeat exposures to an antigen related to their acquired memory.
A client comes to the emergency room concerned about infection after being cut on the hand by a piece of glass; the skin surrounding the wound is red, warm and painful. After assisting with suture insertion, the nurse develops discharge instructions to include which information on the body's natural defenses? Select all that apply. Innate immunity is the body's first line of defense. The epithelial layers of the skin provide innate immunity. Redness, heat, pain and swelling are part of the normal inflammatory process. The inflammatory process is also known as the adaptive immune response. Initiation of the inflammatory process means an infection is present.
The skin and its epithelial layers in conjunction with the body's normal inflammatory processes (redness, heat, pain and swelling) make up the first line of the body's defense and confer innate or natural immunity to the host.
Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid structure located high in the left abdominal cavity? Spleen Thymus Lymph node Peyer patch
The spleen is a large, ovoid secondary lymphoid organ located high in the left upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity between the diaphragm and the stomach. The thymus is an elongated, bilobed structure located in the mediastinum above the heart. Lymph nodes are small aggregates of lymphoid tissue located along lymphatic vessels throughout the body. Peyer patches are peripheral lymphoid tissue found in the intestine.
A nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome with thymic hypoplasia. Which immune response would the nurse anticipate in this child? Increased risk of infection No change in immunity Reduced risk of infection Reduced antigen response
The thymus is essential to the development of the immune system because it is responsible for the production of mature, immunocompetent T lymphocytes. Mature, immunocompetent T-helper and T-cytotoxic cells leave the thymus in 2 to 3 days and enter the peripheral lymphoid tissues through the bloodstream. Without a thymus, infections would occur frequently. These T cells recognize foreign antigens and build an immune response. Therefore, with thymic hypoplasia, there is a risk for increased infection (not reduced infection or no change). Obviously, there is an antigen response.
A client seeks treatment in the clinic for exposure to poison ivy with a rash over the right arm and hand. The nurse is aware that what toxin is found in the oils on poison ivy that is responsible for eliciting an allergic reaction? Urushiol Lymphocytes Kupffer cells Streptococcus pneumonia
Urushiol is a toxin found in the oils on poison ivy that is responsible for initiating an allergic reaction.
