Pathology final
Chronic infection of sinuses, middle ear, or mastoids or systemic infection (pneumonia)
A brain abscess is usually the result of a: A. trauma. B. osteomyelitis. C. herpes simplex virus. D. chronic infection of sinuses, middle ear, or mastoids or systemic infection (i.e., pneumonia).
Crohn's disease
A chronic inflammatory disorder of unknown cause that often affects the terminal ileum is called: A. Crohn's disease. B. malabsorption syndrome. C. diverticulosis. D. gastritis.
Osteogenic sarcomas
A classic sunburst pattern of bony spicules that extend in a radiating fashion is a characteristic radiographic appearance of: A. giant cell carcinomas. B. multiple myelomas. C. osteomas. D. osteogenic sarcomas.
Epilepsy
A condition in which brain impulses are disturbed and that causes symptoms ranging from loss of consciousness to violent seizures is: A. Huntington's disease. B. Epilepsy. C. Parkinson's disease. D. Multiple scleros
Diverticulosis
A condition of acquired herniations of mucosa and submucosa through muscular layers at points of weaknesses of the bowel wall is known as: A. diverticulosis. B. ulcerative colitis. C. Crohn's colitis. D. volvulus.
Atelectasis
A condition of diminished air within the lung associated with reduced lung volume is: A. adult respiratory distress syndrome. B. atelectasis. C. pleural effusion. D. septic embolism.
Emphysema
A crippling and debilitating condition resulting from trapped air causing a loss of elasticity in the alveoli is called: A. bronchitis. B. asthma. C. emphysema. D. pneumoconiosis.
Ureterocele
A cystic dilatation of the distal ureter near its insertion into the urinary bladder is called A. ureterocele. B. pyelonephritis. C. ureteral aneurysm. D. renal cyst.
Anemia
A decrease in the amount of oxygen-carrying hemoglobin in the blood is termed: A. spherocytosis. B. anemia. C. polycythemia. D. leukemia.
Papillary necrosis
A destructive condition involving the terminal portion of the renal pyramids A. Cystitis B. Glomerulonephritis C. Pyelonephritis D. Papillary necrosis
Iatrogenic
A disease process caused by physicians or their treatment is: A. idiopathic. B. iatrogenic. C. neoplasia. D. community acquired.
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
A focal neurologic defect that completely resolves within 24 hours is known as a: A. stroke. B. AVM. C. aneurysm. D. transient ischemic attack (TIA).
Hangman's fracture
A fracture of the arch of C2 anterior to the inferior facet usually associated with anterior subluxation of C2 and C3 is known as a: A. clay shoveler's fracture. B. seat belt fracture. C. Jefferson's fracture. D. Hangman's fracture.
Pathologic
A fracture resulting from a weakness in the bone caused by a tumor or infection is known as what type of fracture? A. Greenstick B. Stress C. Fatigue D. Pathologic
Colle's fracture
A fracture usually caused by falling on an outstretched hand resulting in posterior displacement of the distal fragment of the radius is a: A. Boxer's fracture. B. Smith's fracture. C. Colles' fracture. D. Monteggia's fracture.
Aneurysm
A localized dilatation of an artery is termed a(n): A. aneurysm. B. coarctation. C. stenosis. D. dissection.
Leukemia
A neoplastic proliferation of white blood cells is termed: A. leukemia. B. polycythemia. C. lymphoma. D. mononucleosis.
Glomerulonephrititis
A nonsuppurative inflammatory process involving the tuft of capillaries within the Bowman's capsule is called: a. ureterocele. b. pyelonephritis. c. glomerulonephritis. d. papillary necrosis.
Projecting mass from an inner mucous membrane
A polyp is a: A. projecting mass from an inner mucous membrane. B. malignant epithelial neoplasm. C. benign cartilaginous tumor. D. cancer.
Unilateral renal agenesis
A rare anomaly in which a kidney fails to develop is called: A. unilateral renal agenesis. B. hypoplastic kidney. C. compensatory hypertrophy. D. supernumerary kidney.
Supernumerary kidney
A rare anomaly in which there is a third, rudimentary kidney is termed: A. an ectopic kidney. B. compensatory hypertrophy. C. hypoplastic kidney. D. supernumerary kidney.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
A rupture of a berry aneurysm is a major cause of: A. Huntington's disease. B. Alzheimer's. C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage. D. TIA.
False
A thrombus is a piece of an embolism that has broken free into the circulating bloodstream.
Volvulus
A twisting of the bowel on itself that may lead to obstruction is termed: A. intussusception. B bcolitis. C. appendicitis. D. volvulus.
A transitional vertebra
A vertebra with characteristics of more than one major division of the spine is called: A. spina bifida. B. a transitional vertebra. C. spondylolysis. D. spondylolisthesis.
Hypoplastic kidney
A. A miniature replica of a kidney is termed: B. ectopic kidney. hypoplastic kidney. C. compensatory hypertrophy. D. supernumerary kidney.
Emphysema
Air into the tissue A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B. Emphysema C. Pneumoconiosis D. Pulmonary mycosis
Neoplasia
Alterations of cell growth, specifically an abnormal proliferation of cells, is called: A. hyperplasia. B. dysplasia. C. neoplasia. D. aplasia.
Pulmonary edema
An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the extravascular pulmonary tissues is termed: A. pulmonary edema. B. congestive heart failure. C. pulmonary embolism. D. pulmonary infarct.
Anasarca
An accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in the intercellular tissue throughout the body is called: A. bacteremia. B. elephantiasis. C. filariasis. D. anasarca.
Hematoma
An accumulation of blood trapped within the body tissues is known as a(an): A. hematoma. B. ecchymosis. C. petechiae. D. pleural effusion.
Lung abscess
An air/fluid level within an encapsulated, opaque mass is seen on a chest radiograph. Which respiratory disease demonstrates this characteristic? A. Tuberculosis B. Pulmonary metastasis C. Lung abscess D. SARS
Hemophilia
An inherited anomaly in blood coagulation that appears clinically only in males is termed: A. leukemia, B. hemophilia, C. polycythemia. D. mononucleosis.
Adrenal glands
Androgens A. Pituitary gland B. Parathyroid glands C. Thyroid gland D. Adrenal glands.
Grading
Assessing the aggressiveness or degree of malignancy is referred to as: A. staging. B. grading. C. seeding. D. metastatic.
Le fort fracture
Bilateral horizontal fractures of maxillae A. Tripod fracture B. Le Fort fracture C. Stellate fracture D. Blow-out fracture
Petechiae
Bleeding into mucous membranes or serosal surfaces is referred to as: A. petechiae. B. hemorrhage. C. purpura. D. ecchymosis.
Gout
Blood levels with an increased uric acid leading to deposits of crystals in the joints and cartilage is: A. osteomalacia. B. Paget's disease. C. rheumatoid arthritis. D. gout.
Osteomalacia
Body weight on weight-bearing long bones may bend or bow as a result of softened bones in cases of: A. rickets. B. osteomalacia. C. osteoporosis. D. achondroplasia.
Heat
Calor A. Heat B. Pain C. Redness D. Swelling
Embolism
Clot material in the circulating blood A. Atherosclerosis B. Embolism C. Myocardial infarct D. Thrombus
Both A and B
Coccidioidomycosis is: A. caused by fungal exposure. B. an example of pulmonary mycosis. C. caused by viral exposure. D. Both A and B.
Adrenal glands
Cushing's syndrome A. Thyroid gland B. Pituitary gland C. Adrenal glands D. Parathyroid glands
An excess of glucocorticoid hormones
Cushing's syndrome is caused by: A. an excess of glucocorticoid hormones. B. an insufficiency of glucocorticoid hormones. C. an excess of androgen hormones. D. an insufficiency of androgen hormones.
Myocardial infarct
Dead heart muscle cells A. Atherosclerosis B. Embolism C. Myocardial infarct D. Thrombus
Myocardial infarction
Death of myocardial cells caused by a lack of blood supply is known as a: A. congestive heart failure (CHF). B. cardiogenic shock. C. cardiopulmonary ischemia. D. myocardial infarction.
True
Deep vein thrombosis is a primary source of pulmonary embolism.
Superior and inferior vena cava
Deoxygenated venous blood returns to the heart via the: A. right and left coronary arteries. B. pulmonary veins. C. superior and inferior vena cava. D. pulmonary arteries.
Ischemia
Depriving tissues of oxygen and nutrients caused by an arterial vessel narrowing is referred to as: A. ischemia. B. petechiae. C. filariasis. D. gangrene.
Multiple sclerosis
Deterioration of the myelin sheath is a characteristic abnormality of: A. meningitis. B. neoplasm. C. osteomyelitis. D. multiple sclerosis.
Pituitary gland
Diabetes insipidus A. Thyroid gland B. Pituitary gland C. Adrenal glands D. Parathyroid glands
Seeding
Diffuse spread of malignant neoplasms by invasion into a natural body cavity is called: a. A. tumor grading. B. staging. C. seeding. D. lymphatic spread.
Varices
Dilated veins in the walls of the esophagus are termed: A. diverticula. B. varices. C. dysphagia. D. achalasia.
Complete fracture
Discontinuity of two or more fragments is considered a(n): A. incomplete fracture. B. open fracture. C. complete fracture. D. nonunion fracture.
Pain
Dolor A. Heat B. Pain C. Redness D. Swelling
Goiter
Enlargement of the thyroid gland not associated with inflammatory or neoplastic processes and not initially associated with hyperthyroidism and myxedema is known as: A. goiter. B. Graves' disease. C. cretinism. D. acromegaly.
Adrenal glands
Epinephrine A. Pituitary gland B. Parathyroid glands C. Thyroid gland D. Adrenal glands.
Pneumoconiosis
Exposure to particulates in the occupational setting A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B. Emphysema C. Pneumoconiosis D. Pulmonary mycosis
Diabetes mellitus
Failure of the pancreas to secrete insulin or a failure of target organs to respond to this hormone causes. A. diabetes mellitus. B. diabetes insipidus. C. Graves' disease. D. Cushing's syndrome.
Atherosclerosis
Fatty deposits along the lining of arterial walls is termed: A. coarctation. B. atherosclerosis. C. Eisenmenger's syndrome. D. myocardial infarction.
Atherosclerosis
Fatty material deposits on inner arterial walls A. Atherosclerosis B. Embolism C. Myocardial infarct D. Thrombus
Pituitary gland
Follicle-stimulating hormone A. Pituitary gland B. Parathyroid glands C. Thyroid gland D. Adrenal glands.
Decrease the exposure factors
For brittle bone disease, the radiographer should: A. increase the exposure factors. B. decrease the exposure factors. C. change to high-speed screens. D. make no change in factors.
Spondylolisthesis
Forward displacement of one vertebra on the other resulting in back pain caused by cleft in the pars interarticularis is: A. spondylolysis. B. intervertebral herniation. C. spondylolisthesis. D. vertebral slippage.
Tripod fracture
Fracture that separates zygoma from other facial bones A. Tripod fracture B. Le Fort fracture C. Stellate fracture D. Blow-out fracture
Pituitary gland
Gigantism A. Thyroid gland B. Pituitary gland C. Adrenal glands D. Parathyroid glands
Thyroid gland
Graves' disease A. Thyroid gland B. Pituitary gland C. Adrenal glands D. Parathyroid glands
Pituitary gland
Growth hormone A. Pituitary gland B. Parathyroid glands C. Thyroid gland D. Adrenal glands.
Measurement of the cardiothoracic ratio
How is cardiomegaly evaluated on a PA chest radiograph? A. Measurement of the cardiothoracic ratio B. Evaluation of the height of the right hemidiaphragm C. Evaluation of the left hemidiaphragm D. Cardiomegaly cannot be evaluated on a PA chest radiograph
Gigantism
If hyperpituitarism occurs in a person whose bone growth is still active, then A. gigantism B. acromegaly C. prognathism D. goiter
Pus
In pyogenic infections, the body responds by producing a thick, yellow fluid called: A. bacteria. B. pus. C. edema. D. a scar.
Empyema
Infected fluid in the pleural cavity is a(n): A. pleural effusion. B. empyema. C. lung abscess. D. atelectasis.
Cystitis
Inflammation of the urinary bladder A. Cystitis B. Glomerulonephritis C. Pyelonephritis D. Papillary necrosis
Hemophilia
Inherited anomaly A. Hemophilia B. Purpura C. Anemia D. Mononucleosis
Thrombus
Intravascular clot A. Atherosclerosis B. Embolism C. Myocardial infarct D. Thrombus
Anemia
Iron deficiency A. Hemophilia B. Purpura C. Anemia D. Mononucleosis
Hemoglobin
Iron-based protein needed for oxygen-carrying capacity A. Erythrocyte B. Leukocyte C. Thrombocyte D. Hemoglobin
Pulmonary mycosis
Lung disease caused by a fungal infection A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B. Emphysema C. Pneumoconiosis D. Pulmonary mycosis
Glomerulonephritis
Nonsuppurative inflammation of the tuft of capillaries in the Bowman's capsule A. Cystitis B. Glomerulonephritis C. Pyelonephritis D. Papillary necrosis
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Obstructive airway condition causing ineffective gas exchange A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B. Emphysema C. Pneumoconiosis D. Pulmonary mycosis
Thrombocyte
Platelet A. Erythrocyte B. Leukocyte C. Thrombocyte D. Hemoglobin
Purpura
Platelet deficiency A. Hemophilia B. Purpura C. Anemia D. Mononucleosis
False
Primary liver cancer is more common than liver metastasis.
Asymmetric, bilaterally enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes
Radiographic evidence of lymphoma on a chest x-ray is characterized by: A. bone erosion in the thoracic spine. B. splenomegaly. C. asymmetric, bilaterally enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes. D. obstruction of the small intestine.
Erythrocyte
Red blood cell A. Erythrocyte B. Leukocyte C. Thrombocyte D. Hemoglobin
Osteochondroma
Refer to the image below. Notice the tumor grows parallel to the bone and points away from the adjacent joint. Which common benign bone tumor is demonstrated with this image? A. Osteochondroma B. Osteoid osteoma C. Osteoclastoma D. Osteogenic sarcoma
Diverticulosis
Refer to the image below. This typical saw-tooth configuration demonstrated on a barium enema exam is evidence of: A. ulcerative colitis. B. diverticulosis. C. appendicitis. D. intussusception.
Horseshoe kidney
Refer to the image below. What developmental anomaly is demonstrated? A. Crossed ectopia B. Horseshoe kidney C. Unilateral renal agenesis D. Supernumerary kidney
Ectopic kidney
Refer to the image. Note the arrows. What condition is indicated by the arrows in this image of an intravenous urogram? A. Ureterocele B. Kidney agenesis C. Ectopic kidney D. Hypertrophic kidney
Adynamic ileus
Refer to the image. This disorder is caused by a loss of bowel motility. What disorder is demonstrated in this abdominal radiograph? A. Mechanical obstruction B. Adynamic ileus C. Volvulus D. Intussusception
Varices
Refer to the image. This esophageal pathologic condition is described as resembling beads on a rosary. What pathologic condition is evident in this image? A. Varices B. Hiatal hernia C. Esophageal diverticula D. Gastric ulcer
Esophageal diverticulum
Refer to the image. What esophageal pathologic condition is demonstrated? A. Varices. B. Hiatal hernia. C. Barrett's esophagus. D. Esophageal diverticulum.
True
Regurgitation of blood through a heart valve means that blood is flowing backward from an opening that is too large or through cusps that do not close properly.
Blow out fracture
Results from direct blow to orbit A. Tripod fracture B. Le Fort fracture C. Stellate fracture D. Blow-out fracture
Tuberculosis
Rod-shaped bacteria that have a waxy coat permitting existence outside the host for long periods cause: A. bacterial pneumonia. B. chronic bronchitis. C. tuberculosis. D. bronchopneumonia.
Redness
Rubor A. Heat B. Pain C. Redness D. Swelling
Stellate fracture
Star-shaped fracture with multiple fracture lines radiating from a central point A. Tripod fracture B. Le Fort fracture C. Stellate fracture D. Blow-out fracture
Pyelonephritis
Suppurative infection of the kidneys and renal pelvis A. Cystitis B. Glomerulonephritis C. Pyelonephritis D. Papillary necrosis
Epiglottitis
Swelling of the epiglottic tissue commonly caused by the flu is: A. croup. B. epiglottitis. C. pleurisy. D. pneumonia.
False
Telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another is called volvulus.
True
Tetralogy of Fallot involves four abnormalities.
Pericardial effusion
The accumulation of fluid in the membrane surrounding the heart is termed: A. infective endocarditis. B. deep vein thrombosis. C. pericardial effusion. D. pulmonary edema.
Neuron
The basic unit of the nervous system is the: A. neuron. B. glioma. C. meningi. D. corpus callosum.
Pericardium
The double-walled membranous sac that protects against friction and permits the heart to move freely during contraction is called the: A. epicardium. B. pericardium. C. endocardium. D. myocardium.
Pleural effusion
The earliest sign of this disease process is blunting of the normal sharp angle between the diaphragm and the rib cage. A. Pneumothorax B. Pleurisy C. Pulmonary emboli D. Pleural effusion
Bursitis
The fluid-filled sacs located near joints may become inflamed, which results in: A. bursitis. B. osteomyelitis. C. tendonitis. D. arthritis.
Malunion
The healing of fracture fragments in a faulty position is: A. malunion. B. delayed union. C. nonunion. D. external reduction.
Cystic fibrosis
The hereditary disease process characterized by the excretion of viscous mucus blocking the air passages is: A. cystic fibrosis. B. histoplasmosis. C. pneumonia. D. pleurisy.
Medullary cavity
The hollow, tubelike structure within the diaphysis is the: A. epiphyses. B. medullary cavity. C. compact bone. D. metaphysic.
Regulate calcium and phosphate levels in the blood
The hormones secreted by the parathyroid glands function to: A. regulate water and salt balance in the body. B. maintain proper electrolyte levels in the blood. C. stimulate secondary sex characteristics. D. regulate calcium and phosphate levels in the blood.
Dura mater
The inner protective layer of the central nervous system is composed of three layers. The tough, outermost covering is called the: A. dura mater. B. arachnoid membrane. C. pia mater. D. myelin sheath.
False
The most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease is atrial septal defect.
Achondroplasia
The most common form of dwarfism, caused by decreased enchondral bone formation, is: A. osteomalacia. B. hip dysplasia. C. achondroplasia. D. osteopetrosis.
Hypernephroma
The most common renal neoplasm is a: A. hypernephroma. B. nephroblastoma. C. pyelocarcinoma. D. renal cell sarcoma.
Thyroxine
The only natural iodine-containing substance in the body is: A. TSH. B. aldosterone. C. cortisone. D. thyroxine.
Left atrium
The pulmonary veins empty into the: A. right atrium. B. right ventricle. C. left atrium. D. left ventricle.
Pulmonary artery
The right ventricle pumps blood into the: A. pulmonary veins. B. aorta. C. superior and inferior vena cava. D. pulmonary artery.
Parietal pleura
The serous membrane lining that adheres to the chest wall is the: A. parietal viscera. B. visceral pleura. C. parietal pleura. D. serous fibrous pleura.
Autonomic nervous system
The smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular epithelial tissue are controlled by the: A. olfactory cranial nerve. B. vagus cranial nerve. C. autonomic nervous system. D. somatic nervous system.
Alveolus
The thin-walled sac where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged with the blood in the pulmonary circulatory system is a(n): A. bronchiole. B. alveolus. C. tertiary bronchus. D. alveolar duct.
True
The twisting of the bowel on itself is called a volvulus.
Cerebrospinal fluid
The ventricles of the brain are filled with: A. air. B. cerebrospinal fluid. C. blood. D. lymph.
Four
There are ___________ parathyroid glands in the body. A. two B. three C. four D. eight
Pulmonary emboli
Thrombi that develop in the deep venous system of the lower extremity and are trapped in the lung circulation are: A. alveolar emboli. B. pulmonary emboli. C. bronchial emboli. D. pulmonary arteriovenous fistulas.
High resolution CT
To best demonstrate pulmonary emboli, the noninvasive modality of choice is: A. high-resolution CT. B. nuclear medicine lung scan. C. Doppler ultrasound. D. PET lung scan.
Weight-bearing standing AP and lateral
To demonstrate degenerative knee joint narrowing most accurately requires the image to be: A. completed with stress inversion and eversion. B. weight-bearing standing AP and lateral. C. recumbent, AP, and lateral. D. a unilateral study.
Swelling
Tumor A. Heat B. Pain C. Redness D. Swelling
Benign
Tumors closely resembling their cells of origin in structure and function are called: A. malignant. B. benign. C. cancerous. D. dysplastic.
Hemorrhoids
Varicose veins of the lower end of the rectum that cause symptoms of pain, itching, and bleeding are: A. volvulus. B. intussusception. C. hemorrhoids. D. Crohn's disease.
Encephalitis
Viral inflammation of the brain is termed: A. Encephalitis. B. Meningitis. C. Brain abscess. D. Subdural empyema.
Mononucleosis
Virus A. Hemophilia B. Purpura C. Anemia D. Mononucleosis
Lung and breast
What are the most common primary malignancies that metastasize to the brain? A. Liver and lung B. Prostate and breast C. Pancreas and kidneys D. Lung and breast
Barrett's esophagus
What condition is associated with severe reflux esophagitis? A. Varices B. Barrett's esophagus C. Traction diverticula D. TE fistula
Porcelain gallbladder
What condition results from chronic cholecystitis in which the gallbladder becomes fibrotic and calcified? A. Cholecystectomy B. Pseudocyst C. Biliary carcinoma D. Porcelain gallbladder
Disruption of the intima allowing blood to flow between the layers of the wall
What is an aortic dissection? A. Complete tear of arterial wall B. Congenital anomaly in which the lumen is duplicated C. Traumatic disruption of the aorta from the root at the junction of the left ventricle D. Disruption of the intima allowing blood to flow between the layers of the wall
A kidney that is not located in the normal location
What is an ectopic kidney? A. A third, rudimentary kidney B. A kidney that is not located in the normal location C. A kidney that is enlarged because it has to do the job of both kidneys D. The most common type of fusion anomaly
Congenital condition in which the esophagus ends in a blind pouch
What is esophageal atresia? A. An abnormal communication between the esophagus and the respiratory system B. Dilated, tortuous veins of the esophagus C. Functional obstruction causing proximal dilatation D. Congenital condition in which the esophagus ends in a blind pouch
The telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another
What is intussusception? A. A twisting of the bowel on itself B. A type of inflammatory bowel disease of unknown cause, with an associated psychogenic element C. Acquired herniation of the mucosa and submucosa of the intestinal wall D. The telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another
Blockage above the level of the bladder
What is the cause of hydronephrosis? A. Chronic glomerulonephritis B. Blockage above the level of the bladder C. Staghorn calculus D. Aldosterone deficiency
nephron
What is the functional unit of the kidney? A. Lobule B. Nephron C. Glomerulus D. Ureterocele
Wilm's tumor
What is the most common abdominal neoplasm of infancy and childhood? A. Hypernephroma B. Wilms' tumor C. Polycystic kidneys D. Renal cell carcinoma
Hiatal hernia
What is the most common abnormality found on upper GI exams? A. Hiatal hernia B. Esophageal varices C. Esophageal diverticula D. Gastric ulcer
Peptic ulcer disease
What is the most common cause of acute gastrointestinal bleeding? A. Peptic ulcer disease B. Esophageal varices C. Esophageal diverticula D. Gastric cancer
Nasal bones
What is the most common facial bone fracture? A. Maxillae B. Nasal bones C. Zygoma D. Mandible
Cystitis
What is the most common hospital-acquired infection? A. Cystitis B. Pyelonephritis C. Vasculitis D. Tuberculosis
Glioma
What is the most common primary malignant brain tumor? A. Dendroma B. Glioma C. Acoustic neuroma D. Meningioma
Horseshoe kidney
What is the most common type of fusion anomaly? A. Horseshoe kidney B. Crossed ectopia C. Doughnut kidney D. Unilateral renal agenesis
A fatty insulation covering of the axon
What is the myelin sheath? A. The basic unit of the nervous system B. The innermost layer of the protective covering of the CNS C. A fatty insulation covering of the axon D. A long, threadlike extension of the nerve cell
Impacted gallstones in the cystic duct
What is the primary cause of acute cholecystitis? A. Infection of the biliary system B. Cirrhosis of the liver C. Impacted gallstone in the cystic duct D. Peptic ulcer disease
Heart valves
What structures are typically damaged by rheumatic fever? A. Coronary arteries B. Myocardium and endocardium C. Red blood cells and blood platelets D. Heart valves
Staghorn calculus
What term is applied to a renal calculus that completely fills the renal pelvis? A. Pelvolithiasis B. Staghorn calculus C. Pelvocalcinosis D. Nephrocalcinosis
Systole
What term is applied to the contraction phase of the heart? A. Diastole B. Systole C. Impulse D. Synapse
Idiopathic
What term is used to denote a disease in which the underlying cause is unknown? A. Idiopathic B. Antietiologic C. Iatrogenic D. Nosocomial
Stroke
What term is used to denote the sudden and dramatic development of a focal neurologic deficit? A. Stroke B. Arteriovenous malformation (AVM) C. Hematoma D. Aneurysm
Red bone marrow
Where are red blood cells produced? a. A. Spleen B. Red bone marrow C. Yellow bone marrow D. Lymph nodes
Red bone marrow and lymphoid tissue
Where are white blood cells produced? A. Red bone marrow only b. B. Yellow bone marrow only C. Red bone marrow and lymphoid tissue D. Yellow bone marrow and lymphoid tissue
The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
Where is the pituitary gland located? A. The mediastinum B. The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone C. The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone D. On the upper poles of the kidneys
In the neck at the level of the larynx
Where is the thyroid gland located? A. On the superior poles of the kidneys B. In the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone C. In the neck at the level of the larynx D. In the mediastinum at the level of the sternal angle
Pheochromocytoma
Which endocrine system disorder is demonstrated in the image below? A. Adrenal metastasis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Pheochromocytoma D. Diabetes insipidus
Thalassemia
Which form of hemolytic anemia causes the most severe radiographic changes? A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Thalassemia C. Sickle cell anemia D. Spherocytosis
Tripod
Which fracture separates the zygoma from the other facial bones? A. Le Fort b. B. Blow-out C. Depressed D. Tripod
Glucocorticoids
Which group of steroid hormones regulates carbohydrate metabolism? A. Androgens B. Glucocorticoids C. Mineralocorticoids D. Sex hormones
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
Which hormones are known as "fight or flight" hormones? A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine B. Aldosterone and cortisone C. Cortisone and epinephrine D. Corisone and pierin
MRI
Which imaging modality is most commonly used to demonstrate rotator cuff tears? A. Radiography B. MRI C. СТ D. Nuclear medicine
Angiography
Which imaging modality is the most definitive, yet the most invasive, for demonstration of the heart atria and ventricles? A. MRI B. Echocardiography c. C. CT D. Angiography
Non contrast helical CT
Which imaging modality is the safest and most accurate in detecting renal calculi? A. Ultrasound B. Excretory urography C. Noncontrast helical CT D. MRI
Nuclear medicine
Which modality is superior for imaging of the thyroid gland? A. Nuclear medicine B. CT C. MRI D. Radiography
Polycystic renal disease and renal vein thrombosis
Which of the following are causes of enlarged kidneys? A. Polycystic renal disease b. B. Renal vein thrombosis C. Nephrosclerosis and Polycystic renal disease D. Polycystic renal disease and renal vein thrombosis
Brain and spinal cord
Which of the following are components of the central nervous system? A. Brain and spinal cord B. Spinal cord and twelve pairs of cranial nerves C. Brain and twelve pairs of cranial nerves D. Brain
Adrenal and Thyroid
Which of the following are major glands of the endocrine system? (1) Adrenal (2) Liver (3) Thyroid A. Adrenal and Liver B. Adrenal and Thyroid C. Liver and Thyroid D. Adrenal, Liver, and Thyroid
Blow out fracture
Which of the following facial fractures is usually caused by a direct blow to the orbit? A. Stellate fracture B. Le Fort fracture C. Blow-out fracture D. Tripod fracture
Le Fort fracture
Which of the following involves bilateral and horizontal fractures of the maxillae? A. Stellate fracture B. Le Fort fracture C. Blow-out fracture D. Tripod fracture
Pneumoperitoneum
Which of the following is a sign of perforation of the GI tract? A. Acute pancreatitis B. Pneumoperitoneum C. Pseudocysts D. Localized ileus
Patent ductus artriosus
Which of the following is an abnormal vascular connection between the pulmonary artery and aorta? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. Patent foramen ovale C. Rheumatic heart disease D. Chordae tendineae
Bile
Which of the following is an emulsifier that aids in the breakdown of fats during digestion? A. Bile B. Trypsin C. Pepsin D. Chyme
Hemoglobin
Which of the following is defined as an iron-based protein that carries oxygen from the respiratory tract to the body tissues? A. Eosinophil B. Monocyte C. Platelet D. Hemoglobin
Hyperpituitarism
Which of the following results from excessive growth hormone? A. Diabetes insipidus B. Diabetes mellitus C. Hyperpituitarism D. Hypopituitarism
Coarctation of the aorta
Which of the following shows up clinically as normal blood pressure in the upper extremities and low blood pressure in the lower extremities? A. Aortic prolapse B. Mitral valve prolapse C. Coarctation of the aorta D. Ventricular septal defect
SMV
Which projection is useful in demonstrating fractures of the zygomatic arches? A. SMV B. Parietoacanthial (Waters') C. AP D. Lateral
Cholesterol
Which type of gallstone is most prevalent in the United States? A. Cholesterol B. Pigment C. Mixed cholesterol and calcium carbonate D. Gallstones are not prevalent rare in the United States.
Sickle cell anemia
Which type of hemolytic anemia is generally confined to African-Americans? A. Spherocytosis B. Sickle cell anemia C. Thalassemia D. None of the hemolytic anemias occur mostly in the African-American population
Thalassemia
Which type of hemolytic anemia occurs preponderantly in persons of Italian, Greek, or Sicilian descent? A. Spherocytosis B. Sickle cell anemia C. Thalassemia D. Leukemia
Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)
Which type of internal device is used for chemotherapy and long-term venous access? A. Endotracheal tube B. Swan-Ganz catheter C. Central venous catheter D. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)
Diastatic
Which type of skull fracture can cause separation of the suture? A. Diastatic B. Le Fort C. Stellate D. Depressed
Leukocyte
White blood cell A. Erythrocyte B. Leukocyte C. Thrombocyte D. Hemoglobin