PHARM EXAM II (CH 26-30)

SATA: he nurse is reviewing the myocardial blood supply for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which statements made by the client indicate an understanding of the information? 1. "The heart has right and left arteries that arise from the aorta." 2. "The coronary arteries carry blood away from the heart to the right atrium." 3. "The heart receives its oxygen through the blood that fills it." 4. "Coronary arteries primarily carry blood to the left ventricle." 5. "The right and left arteries have smaller branches that go around the heart."

1. "The heart has right and left arteries that arise from the aorta." 5. "The right and left arteries have smaller branches that go around the heart."

Which information about the primary therapeutic action of an antianginal prescription should the nurse include in client teaching? 1. "The prescription decreases how much oxygen your heart needs." 2. "This prescription will thin your blood so your heart receives more oxygen." 3. "This prescription increases the amount of oxygen your heart receives." 4. "This prescription increases the oxygen to your heart by increasing nitric oxide production."

1. "The prescription decreases how much oxygen your heart needs."

The nurse has reinforced the treatment plan for the administration of normal human serum albumin (Albutein) for a client recovering from hypovolemic shock. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "The prescription is a protein that pulls water into my blood vessels." 2. "The prescription is a protein that causes my kidneys to conserve fluid." 3. "The prescription is a super-concentrated salt solution that helps my body conserve fluid." 4. "The prescription is a liquid that has electrolytes in it to pull water into my blood vessels."

1. "The prescription is a protein that pulls water into my blood vessels."

A client post-acute myocardial infarction asks the nurse why they are prescribed reteplase (Retavase) intravenously (IV). Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "The prescription dilates the arteries in the heart so it can get more oxygen." 2. "The prescription is dissolving the clot that has caused your heart attack." 3. "The prescription thins your blood so more clots will not develop." 4. "The prescription will increase the strength of the muscles in the heart during each beat."

1. "The prescription is dissolving the clot that has caused your heart attack."

A client tells the nurse they are nervous about taking prescribed verapamil (Calan). Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "This prescription is safe, and most patients do very well with it." 2. "This prescription increases your blood pressure, but we will be monitoring that." 3. "This prescription has many side effects, but you should be okay." 4. "This prescription is a potassium channel blocker and is considered safe."

1. "This prescription is safe, and most patients do very well with it."

SATA: Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client is prescribed an additional once-daily amiodarone to control persistent atrial fibrillation? 1. "I will avoid drinking grapefruit juice." 2. "I understand the effect of the prescription will last 4 to 8 weeks after I stop taking it." 3. "I will monitor my blood pressure and report any significant changes." 4. "I will avoid the use of St John's wort." 5. "I will follow a low sodium diet."

1. "I will avoid drinking grapefruit juice." 2. "I understand the effect of the prescription will last 4 to 8 weeks after I stop taking it." 3. "I will monitor my blood pressure and report any significant changes." 4. "I will avoid the use of St John's wort."

Which statement by the client receiving nitroglycerine (Nitrostat) should the nurse be concerned about? 1. "I'm getting married tomorrow; I hope my erectile dysfunction isn't a problem." 2. "I'm going water skiing tomorrow; I hope my angina isn't a problem." 3. "I really don't like taking those little pills, I would like to use a patch." 4. "My angina has been a little more frequent I would like something to take for the pain."

1. "I'm getting married tomorrow; I hope my erectile dysfunction isn't a problem."

A client prescribed verapamil (Calan) asks the nurse if it is okay to take herbal supplements with the prescription. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "Some herbal supplements may interact with your prescription." 2. "Using herbal supplements may increase your blood pressure too much." 3. "Herbal supplements are okay as long as you take calcium salts with them." 4. "Most herbal supplements are okay, but you should avoid St. John's wort."

1. "Some herbal supplements may interact with your prescription."

SATA: The nurse is providing education for nonpharmacological interventions to manage hypertension. Which information should the nurse include? 1. Increase your dietary intake of fruits and vegetables. 2. Decrease the consumption of alcohol. 3. Reduce the dietary intake of potassium. 4. Increase physical activity. 5. Restrict your intake of sodium.

1. Increase your dietary intake of fruits and vegetables. 2. Decrease the consumption of alcohol. 4. Increase physical activity. 5. Restrict your intake of sodium.

SATA: For which conditions is a client with hypertension at risk? 1. Kidney damage 2. Stroke 3. Liver failure 4. Heart failure 5. Blindness

1. Kidney damage 2. Stroke 4. Heart failure 5. Blindness

SATA: Which current prescriptions should the nurse be concerned with for a client requiring dopamine? 1. MAO inhibitor 2. Phenytoin 3. Beta blocker 4. Digoxin 5. Aspirin

1. MAO inhibitor 2. Phenytoin 3. Beta blocker 4. Digoxin

SATA: Which immediate goals should the nurse focus on for a client experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin? 1. Normalization of blood pressure 2. Reduction of blood volume 3. Identification of other allergies 4. Reduction of inflammatory response 5. Provision of basic life support

1. Normalization of blood pressure 4. Reduction of inflammatory response 5. Provision of basic life support

SATA: Which assessment findings indicate a client receiving dobutamine (Dobutrex) is experiencing an adverse effect? 1. Palpitations 2. Drop in blood pressure 3. Cold extremities 4. Headache 5. Blurred vision

1. Palpitations 2. Drop in blood pressure 3. Cold extremities

A client is to receive intravenous (IV) dopamine (Intropin). Which should the nurse have immediately available prior to initiating the dopamine? 1. Phentolamine (Regitine) 2. Naltrexone (Revia) 3. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) 4. Flumazenil (Romazicon)

1. Phentolamine (Regitine)

SATA: Which information should the nurse include when educating a client about coronary artery disease? 1. Plaque causes narrowing of the artery. 2. Plaque begins to accrue early in life. 3. Plaque causes narrowing of the veins. 4. Plaque affects the elasticity of the artery. 5. Plaque builds up in the myocardial tissue.

1. Plaque causes narrowing of the artery. 2. Plaque begins to accrue early in life. 4. Plaque affects the elasticity of the artery.

SATA: Which electrolytes should the nurse anticipate monitoring for a client prescribed losartan (Cozaar)? 1. Potassium 2. Sodium 3. Calcium 4. Chloride 5. Magnesium

1. Potassium 2. Sodium

Which classification of drug is used to treat ventricular tachycardia? 1. Potassium channel blocker 2. Calcium channel blocker 3. Beta-adrenergic antagonist 4. Sodium channel blocker

1. Potassium channel blocker

SATA: Which conditions should the nurse be concerned about prior to administering epinephrine for anaphylaxis? 1. Premature ventricular contractions 2. Hypertension 3. Hyperthyroidism 4. Pheochromocytoma 5. Hypotension

1. Premature ventricular contractions 2. Hypertension 3. Hyperthyroidism

A client asks which conditions will cause the heart to need more oxygen. Which information should the nurse be prepared to discuss? 1. Sleep apnea 2. Hyperthyroidism 3. Asthma 4. Hepatitis B

1. Sleep apnea

Which intervention is the highest priority for a 30-year-old female with a BMI of 20 who smokes and has a blood pressure of 137/88? 1. Smoking-cessation program 2. Diuretic therapy 3. Weight-loss program 4. Stress management

1. Smoking-cessation program

SATA: Which assessment findings indicate a client receiving verapamil (Calan) is experiencing adverse effects? 1. The client tells the nurse they have frequent headaches. 2. The client has 3+ edema in the ankles and feet. 3. The client states, "Everything I eat tastes like metal." 4. The client states, "I got so dizzy yesterday that I had to lie down for a while." 5. The client's face is flushed.

1. The client tells the nurse they have frequent headaches. 2. The client has 3+ edema in the ankles and feet. 4. The client states, "I got so dizzy yesterday that I had to lie down for a while."

Which is the priority outcome for the client with type 1 diabetes mellitus prescribed propranolol (Inderal)? 1. The client will maintain blood glucose within normal limits. 2. The client will decrease the required number of calories/day. 3. The client will maintain adequate peripheral circulation. 4. The patient will perform activities of daily living.

1. The client will maintain blood glucose within normal limits.

SATA: The nurse is preparing to discuss the use of primary hypertensive agents with a client. Which prescriptions should the nurse include? 1. Thiazide diuretics 2. Angiotensin-II receptor blockers (ARBs) 3. Beta-adrenergic antagonists 4. Direct-acting vasodilators 5. Peripheral adrenergic antagonists

1. Thiazide diuretics 2. Angiotensin-II receptor blockers (ARBs)

SATA: Which conditions contribute to heart failure? 1. Uncontrolled hypertension 2. Coronary artery disease (CAD) 3. Diabetes (DM) 4. HIV 5. Mitral stenosis

1. Uncontrolled hypertension 2. Coronary artery disease (CAD) 3. Diabetes (DM) 5. Mitral stenosis

Which is the most serious adverse effect associated with milrinone (Primacor)? 1. Ventricular dysrhythmia 2. Nausea 3. Headache 4. Atrial dysrhythmia

1. Ventricular dysrhythmia

Which antidysrhythmic agent also dilates coronary arteries and is frequently used to treat angina? 1. Verapamil (Calan) 2. Amiodarone (Cordarone) 3. Procainamide (Pronestyl) 4. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)

1. Verapamil (Calan)

1) Which adverse effect of lisinopril (Prinivil) should be reported to the healthcare provider? 1. Cough 2. Fever 3. Increased urine output 4. Facial flushing

1. cough

A client states to the nurse, "I read that my antidysrhythmic drug can actually cause me to have irregular heartbeats. How can this be?" Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "Your medication blocks the flow of the electrolytes in your heart, and this can cause irregular beats." 2. "The literature is not always accurate, but if you have concerns I recommend discussing them with your healthcare provider." 3. "The aspirin that you take every day will help you avoid experiencing the irregular heartbeats." 4. "Your prescription is not the problem; it is when you mix it with over-the-counter (OTC) drugs that you develop irregular beats."

1. "Your medication blocks the flow of the electrolytes in your heart, and this can cause irregular beats."

Which client should the nurse anticipate a prescription for reteplase (Retavase) therapy post myocardial infarction? 1. A 54-year-old female with type 2 diabetes 2. A 45-year-old female with a 2-week-old cranial artery repair 3. A 62-year-old with a recent hemorrhagic stroke 4. A 70-year-old male with active GI bleed

1. A 54-year-old female with type 2 diabetes

SATA: For which conditions should the nurse instruct a client to hold the application of nitroglycerin ointment and contact the healthcare provider? 1. Dyspnea 2. Productive cough 3. Headache 4. Fever 5. Confusion

1. Dyspnea 2. Productive cough 5. Confusion

Which prescription should the nurse be concerned about a pregnant client receiving? 1. Enalapril (Vasotec) 2. Potassium supplement 3. Doxazosin (Cardura) 4. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

1. Enalapril (Vasotec)

SATA: The educator is reviewing the mechanism of action of intravenous glucagon as a treatment for an overdose of propranolol (Inderol) with the nursing staff. Which information should the educator include? 1. Improves AV node conduction 2. Dilates the coronary arteries 3. Increases the heart rate 4. Enhances myocardial contractility 5. Increases the fluid volume in the vascular system

1. Improves AV node conduction 3. Increases the heart rate 4. Enhances myocardial contractility

The nurse has completed the education for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? 1. "I really need to avoid grapefruit juice when I take this medication." 2. "I need to avoid salt substitutes and potassium-rich foods." 3. "I take my medication early in the morning." 4. "If I develop a cough, I should call my physician."

3. "I take my medication early in the morning."

The nurse has completed the education for a client prescribed propranolol (Inderal). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "I will take my pulse every day and call my healthcare provider if it is higher than 100." 2. "I will call my healthcare provider if my anxiety increases and I start worrying again." 3. "I will take my pulse every day and call my healthcare provider if it is less than 60." 4. "I will call my healthcare provider if I lose more than 3 pounds a week."

3. "I will take my pulse every day and call my healthcare provider if it is less than 60."

The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed procainamide hydrochloride (Pronestyl). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "I will not take the prescription on an empty stomach." 2. "This prescription may make me feel confused." 3. "I will take this prescription even when I am feeling well." 4. "If my pulse is less than 60 I will not take my prescription."

3. "I will take this prescription even when I am feeling well."

SATA: A client in heart failure asks the nurse how difficulty breathing is related to a heart problem. Which information should the nurse provide the client? 1. "The right side of your heart has weakened and blood has entered your lungs." 2. "The right side of your heart has enlarged and cannot effectively pump blood." 3. "What you have is called congestive heart failure." 4. "The left side of your heart is weak and pumps blood too quickly." 5. "The left side of your heart has weakened and blood has entered your lungs."

3. "What you have is called congestive heart failure." 5. "The left side of your heart has weakened and blood has entered your lungs."

Which client is at greatest risk for developing heart failure? 1. A 50-year-old African American female who smokes 2. A 75-year-old Caucasian male who is overweight 3. A 69-year-old African American male with hypertension 4. A 52-year-old Caucasian female with asthma

3. A 69-year-old African American male with hypertension

1) Which should the nurse recognize are adverse effects associated with digoxin (Lanoxin)? 1. Tachycardia and hypotension 2. Blurred vision and tachycardia 3. Anorexia and nausea 4. Anorexia and constipation

3. Anorexia and nausea

The nurse notes that the intravenous (IV) norepinephrine (Levophed) has been accidentally abruptly discontinued. Which is the nurse's priority action? 1. Obtain an oxygen saturation reading. 2. Notify the healthcare provider. 3. Assess the client's blood pressure. 4. Administer oxygen via a rebreather mask.

3. Assess the client's blood pressure.

Which assessment finding should the nurse associate with shock? 1. B/P: 140/90 mmHg, P: 46, weak and irregular, R: 24, and shallow 2. B/P: 50/0 mmHg, P: 126, weak and thready, R: 14, and shallow 3. B/P: 80/20 mmHg, P: 122, weak and thready, R: 28, and shallow 4. B/P: 130/88 mmHg, P: 90, bounding, R: 32, and shallow

3. B/P: 80/20 mmHg, P: 122, weak and thready, R: 28, and shallow

Depolarization occurs when which two electrolytes rush into the cell? 1. Sodium and potassium 2. Calcium and magnesium 3. Calcium and sodium 4. Chloride and potassium

3. Calcium and sodium

Which statement is accurate regarding the physiological changes associated with heart failure? 1. Blood backs up into the lungs due to right ventricular hypertrophy. 2. The walls of the heart shrink, leading to lower cardiac output. 3. Cardiac remodeling occurs after prolonged ventricular hypertrophy. 4. Blood pressure increases, resulting in lowered afterload.

3. Cardiac remodeling occurs after prolonged ventricular hypertrophy.

Which information should the nurse include when discussing cardiogenic shock with a client? 1. Cardiogenic shock occurs due to a presence of bacteria and toxins in the blood. 2. Cardiogenic shock occurs in relation to blood loss. 3. Cardiogenic shock occurs due to pump failure. 4. Cardiogenic shock occurs due to loss of sympathetic nerve activity.

3. Cardiogenic shock occurs due to pump failure.

1) The nurse is preparing to administer nitroglycerine via the intravenous route. Which should the nurse do prior to the administration of the prescription? 1. Use gloves to prevent self-administration. 2. Instruct the client to avoid moving the arm in which the prescription is infusing. 3. Cover the intravenous (IV) bottle to decrease light exposure. 4. Darken the room to decrease light exposure.

3. Cover the intravenous (IV) bottle to decrease light exposure.

Which mechanism of action does beta-adrenergic agonists have on the cardiovascular system? 1. Increase cardiac output 2. Dilate arterial smooth muscle 3. Decrease the contractility of the heart 4. Dilate venous system

3. Decrease the contractility of the heart

Which adverse effect is common for clients prescribed topical nitroglycerin paste? 1. Rash 2. Shortness of breath 3. Headache 4. Ventricular tachycardia

3. Headache

Which is the nurse's priority assessment for a client treated with intravenous hydralazine (Apresoline)? 1. Hypotension and bradycardia 2. Hypotension and hyperthermia 3. Hypotension and tachycardia 4. Hypotension and tachypnea

3. Hypotension and tachycardia

Which describes the action of vasodilators in the relief of symptoms of heart failure? 1. Decrease afterload 2. Reduce preload 3. Improve cardiac contractility 4. Reduce fluid overload

3. Improve cardiac contractility

Which is the expected priority outcome for a client receiving normal serum albumin (Albuminar)? 1. Afebrile 2. Free of a rash 3. Normal breathing pattern 4. Alert and oriented

3. Normal breathing pattern

SATA: For which assessment findings should the nurse hold enalapril (Vasotec)? 1. Cough 2. Lightheadedness on ambulation 3. Periorbital edema 4. Sneezing 5. Difficulty swallowing

3. Periorbital edema 5. Difficulty swallowing

Which is the nurse's priority action when monitoring a client receiving norepinephrine (Levophed) with a blood pressure of 230/120 mmHg? 1. Assess the patient for signs/symptoms of a stroke. 2. Notify the healthcare provider. 3. Slow the rate of the infusion 4. Discontinue the administration of the prescription.

3. Slow the rate of the infusion

Which occurs initially in the cardiac conduction pathway? 1. The action potential moves over the bundle branches. 2. The action potential moves through the AV node. 3. The SA node generates an action potential. 4. The action potential travels across the bundle of His.

3. The SA node generates an action potential.

Which client prescribed metoprolol (Toprol-XL) is most at risk for adverse effects? 1. The client with an apical pulse rate of 100 2. The client with compensated heart failure 3. The client with chronic bronchitis 4. The client with a history of migraines

3. The client with chronic bronchitis

Which describes a characteristic of colloids? 1. Contain electrolytes 2. Readily leave the blood and enter cells 3. Too large to cross membranes 4. Promote urine output

3. Too large to cross membranes

Which effect should the nurse anticipate for a client receiving a low-dose dopamine (Intropin)? 1. Vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure 2. Stabilization of fluid loss 3. Urinary output of at least 50 mL/h 4. Increased cardiac output

3. Urinary output of at least 50 mL/h

Which current prescription should the nurse be concerned with for the client newly prescribed amiodarone (Cordarone)? 1. Oxycodone (OxyContin) 2. Omeprazole (Prilosec) 3. Warfarin (Coumadin) 4. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

3. Warfarin (Coumadin)

Which client has the greatest risk for developing heart disease? 1. A 35-year-old with diabetes mellitus and prehypertension 2. A 75-year-old with Parkinson's disease and normal blood pressure 3. A 52-year-old with osteoporosis and stage 1 hypertension 4. A 68-year-old with stage 2 hypertension and recent myocardial infarction

4. A 68-year-old with stage 2 hypertension and recent myocardial infarction

Which prescription is indicated for the prevention of blood clots? 1. Captopril (Capoten) 2. Reteplase (Retavase) 3. Morphine 4. Abciximab (ReoPro)

4. Abciximab (ReoPro)

A client experiencing syncope is suspected of taking a losartan (Cozaar) overdose? Which intervention should the nurse anticipate? 1. Administer a calcium infusion 2. Administer a loop diuretic 3. Administer a vasopressor 4. Administer an intravenous solution of normal saline

4. Administer an intravenous solution of normal saline

1) Which is the priority nursing assessment for the client receiving human serum albumin (Albuminar) as treatment for shock? 1. Auscultate breath sounds for hyper-resonance. 2. Auscultate for an absence of breath sounds in the lower lobes. 3. Auscultate breath sounds for inspiratory stridor. 4. Auscultate breath sounds for crackles.

4. Auscultate breath sounds for crackles.

The nurse notes that a client experiencing heart failure has been receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which is a priority assessment for the nurse? 1. Review recent lab results for hypokalemia. 2. Assess urinary output. 3. Assess level of orientation. 4. Auscultate breath sounds for crackles.

4. Auscultate breath sounds for crackles.

Which prescriptions reduce the heart's demand for oxygen by lowering heart rate? 1. Anticoagulants and beta-adrenergic blockers 2. Calcium channel blockers and anticoagulants 3. Organic nitrates and calcium channel blockers 4. Beta-adrenergic blockers and calcium channel blockers

4. Beta-adrenergic blockers and calcium channel blockers

Which classification of drug is used for the treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)? 1. Sodium channel blocker 2. Beta-adrenergic antagonist 3. Potassium channel blocker 4. Calcium channel blocker

4. Calcium channel blocker

Which initial intervention should the nurse be prepared for in the treatment of shock? 1. Initiate an intravenous line 2. Assess the level of consciousness 3. Assess the blood pressure and pulse 4. Connect the client to a cardiac monitor

4. Connect the client to a cardiac monitor

1) A client prescribed furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin) reports using an over-the-counter antacid for recurrent heartburn. Based on this information, which effect should the nurse be concerned about? 1. Hyponatremia 2. Hypermagnesemia 3. Increased effectiveness of furosemide (Lanoxin) 4. Decreased effectiveness of digoxin (Lanoxin)

4. Decreased effectiveness of digoxin (Lanoxin)

Which is the primary pharmacologic goal in the treatment of a client experiencing stable angina? 1. Increase venous blood flow to the right atrium. 2. Eliminate blockages by using thrombolytics. 3. Establish a regular exercise program and diet plan. 4. Increase cardiac oxygen supply and reduce cardiac oxygen demand.

4. Increase cardiac oxygen supply and reduce cardiac oxygen demand.

Which factor increases cardiac output? 1. Reduced cardiac contractility 2. Hypovolemia 3. Peripheral vascular resistance 4. Increase in preload

4. Increase in preload

SATA: Which are the goals of antianginal therapy? 1. Decreased oxygen consumption of the brain 2. Increased myocardial contractility 3. Increased blood flow to the peripheral blood vessels 4. Increased blood flow to the myocardium 5. Decreased myocardial oxygen demand

4. Increased blood flow to the myocardium 5. Decreased myocardial oxygen demand

Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor a client for that is prescribed an antidysrhythmic? 1. Depression, irritability, fatigue, and nausea 2. Anorexia, insomnia, confusion, and 2+ pitting peripheral edema 3. Low-grade fever, diaphoresis, weakness, and dry mucous membranes 4. Palpitations, chest pain, weakness, and fatigue

4. Palpitations, chest pain, weakness, and fatigue

1) The nurse reviewing the records of a client diagnosed with hypertension notes a weight of 200 lbs, height 5' 4", dietary intake includes primarily starches, an alcohol intake of three beers per week, and stressors include 60-hour workweeks. Based on this information, which should the nurse identify as a priority outcome? 1. Patient will eliminate alcohol from the diet. 2. Patient will decrease stress by limiting work to 40 hours/week. 3. Patient will balance diet according to the food pyramid. 4. Patient will achieve and maintain optimum weight.

4. Patient will achieve and maintain optimum weight.

Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse be concerned about for the client who is prescribed a thiazide diuretic? 1. Magnesium 2. Calcium 3. Chloride 4. Potassium

4. Potassium

Which adverse effect is shared among all antidysrhythmic drugs? 1. Edema 2. Impotence 3. Photosensitivity 4. Prodysrhythmic effects

4. Prodysrhythmic effects

Which symptom should the nurse anticipate for a client experiencing cardiogenic shock? 1. Bradycardia 2. Low temperature 3. Restlessness and anxiety 4. Tachycardia and low blood pressure

4. Tachycardia and low blood pressure

Which statement is accurate regarding the use of beta-adrenergic blockers for use in clients with heart failure? 1. Higher doses are used initially until optimal vital signs are achieved. 2. Dosage changes are done on a daily basis for the first 2 weeks. 3. This drug class does not have an effect on the bronchioles of the lungs. 4. They are generally used in combination with other heart-failure drugs.

4. They are generally used in combination with other heart-failure drugs.

Which describes the mechanism of action of norepinephrine? 1. Increased blood flow 2. Increase heart rate 3. Decrease cardiac output 4. Vasoconstriction

4. Vasoconstriction

Which is a contributing factor to hypovolemic shock? 1. Infectious process 2. Brain or spinal cord trauma 3. Inadequate cardiac output 4. Volume depletion

4. Volume depletion

A client asks the nurse if angina is the same thing as having a heart attack. Which response should the nurse provide? 1. "They have some things in common, for example, severe emotional distress and panic can accompany both angina and myocardial infarction." 2. "Angina means the heart muscle is not getting enough oxygen, while heart attack, or myocardial infarction, means part of your heart has died." 3. "Actually, it depends on what type of angina you mean; there are several types." 4. "They are basically the same."

2. "Angina means the heart muscle is not getting enough oxygen, while heart attack, or myocardial infarction, means part of your heart has died."

SATA: The nurse is preparing to administer clevidipine (Cleviprex) to a client experiencing a hypertensive crisis. Which interventions should the nurse implement? 1. Monitor bowel sounds 2. Administer the drug intravenously 3. Continually monitor blood pressure 4. Crush caplets for administration 5. Infuse prescription in normal saline at 125 mL/h

2. Administer the drug intravenously 3. Continually monitor blood pressure

Which medical condition should the nurse be concerned about for a client prescribed hydralazine? 1. Asthma 2. Angina 3. Diabetes 4. Hyperthyroidism

2. Angina

SATA: Which prescription should the nurse anticipate administering to a client treated for an anaphylactic reaction with epinephrine? 1. Antibiotics 2. Antihistamines 3. Corticosteroids 4. Vasopressors 5. Vasodilators

2. Antihistamines 3. Corticosteroids

A client experiencing bradycardia is suspected of overdosing on diltiazem (Cardizem). Which treatment should the nurse anticipate prescribed? 1. Dopamine 2. Atropine 3. Calcium chloride 4. Narcan

2. Atropine

The nurse completes the dietary education for a client prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which dietary choice indicates the client understood the teaching? 1. Cottage cheese, peach salad, and blueberry pie 2. Baked fish, sweet potatoes, and banana pudding 3. Green bean soup, whole-wheat bread, and an apple 4. Hamburger, French fries, and chocolate chip cookies

2. Baked fish, sweet potatoes, and banana pudding

Which changes are sensed by the baroreceptors and relayed to the vasomotor center? 1. Oxygenation 2. Blood pressure 3. Carbon dioxide 4. Blood pH

2. Blood pressure

SATA: Which laboratory values should the nurse assess for the client receiving lisinopril (Prinivil)? 1. Uric acid 2. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 3. Serum bilirubin 4. ALT/AST 5. Serum drug levels

2. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 3. Serum bilirubin 4. ALT/AST

SATA: Which classifications of prescriptions are used to increase cardiac output by increasing the force of myocardial contractions? 1. Angiotensin receptor blockers 2. Cardiac glycosides 3. Adrenergic blockers 4. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors 5. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

2. Cardiac glycosides 4. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

1) Which factors are responsible for blood pressure? 1. Blood volume, heart rate, and stroke volume 2. Cardiac output, blood volume, and peripheral vascular resistance 3. Age, weight, and race 4. Body mass index, diet, and genetics

2. Cardiac output, blood volume, and peripheral vascular resistance

A client is prescribed an intravenous infusion of milrinone (Primacor) for acute heart failure. Which is a priority nursing assessment during the infusion? 1. Monitor for symptoms of atrial fibrillation 2. Continuous ECG monitoring 3. Vital signs every 15 minutes 4. Monitor for hypertension

2. Continuous ECG monitoring

Which action of Lisinopril (Prinivil) results in a decrease in the blood volume? 1. Antagonistic effect on angiotensin-converting enzyme. 2. Decrease aldosterone secretion. 3. Causes hypernatremia and increased renal tubule permeability resulting in a diuretic effect. 4. Causes a diuretic effect by lowering the amount of sodium lost in the urine.

2. Decrease aldosterone secretion.

SATA: Which laboratory results should the nurse understand are associated with the treatment of epinephrine? 1. Elevated digoxin 2. Decreased potassium 3. Increased calcium 4. Decreased sodium 5. Elevated blood glucose

2. Decreased potassium 5. Elevated blood glucose

Which is the purpose of the AV node? 1. Pace the heart at 40-60 bpm. 2. Delay the impulse from the SA node. 3. Pace the heart at 60-100 bpm. 4. Enhance the impulse from the SA node.

2. Delay the impulse from the SA node.

The nurse has prescribed dietary education for a client prescribed nifedipine (Procardia XL). Which dietary choice should the nurse recognize requires further education? 1. Whole-wheat pancakes with syrup, and bacon, oatmeal, and orange juice 2. Eggs, whole-wheat toast with butter, cereal, milk, and grapefruit juice 3. Eggs and sausage, a biscuit with margarine, coffee with cream, and cranberry juice 4. Egg and cheese omelet, tea with sugar and lemon, hash brown potatoes, and prune juice

2. Eggs, whole-wheat toast with butter, cereal, milk, and grapefruit juice

SATA: Which conditions is the use of thrombolytic therapy contraindicated in? 1. Venous emboli 2. History of intracranial hemorrhage 3. Hemophilia 4. Liver disease 5. Peptic ulcer disease

2. History of intracranial hemorrhage 3. Hemophilia 4. Liver disease 5. Peptic ulcer disease

1) Which equipment should the nurse secure for use when administering dopamine (Intropin)? 1. Oxygen cannula 2. Intravenous (IV) pump 3. Pulse oximeter 4. Sequential compression devices

2. Intravenous (IV) pump

Which statement is accurate in regard to secondary hypertension? 1. There is no known cause. 2. It can result from chronic renal impairment. 3. It is also known as idiopathic. 4. It accounts for 90% of all hypertensive cases.

2. It can result from chronic renal impairment.

Which should the nurse anticipate to be included in the treatment plan for a client with stage A heart failure? 1. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor 2. Lifestyle modifications 3. Beta-blocker 4. Cardiac glycoside

2. Lifestyle modifications

Which condition should the nurse review a client's records for prior to administering epinephrine (Adrenalin) for a client? 1. Type 1 diabetes mellitus 2. Narrow angle glaucoma 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection

2. Narrow angle glaucoma

Which laboratory value should the nurse notify the healthcare provider prior to administering amiodarone (Cordarone)? 1. Sodium 140 mEq/L 2. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L 3. Potassium 4.9 mEq/L 4. International normalized ratio (INR) of 12 seconds

2. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L

SATA: Which should the nurse assess a client for prior to administering atenolol (Tenormin)? 1. Temperature 2. Pulse 3. Respirations 4. Blood pressure 5. Oxygen saturation

2. Pulse 4. Blood pressure

SATA: Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed a transdermal nitroglycerin patch? 1. Place the patch on the upper arm or leg. 2. Rotate sites of application. 3. Remove the patch for an hour each day. 4. Cleanse the skin under the patch after removal. 5. Triple wrap the patch in plastic wrap for disposal.

2. Rotate sites of application. 4. Cleanse the skin under the patch after removal.

Which is a client with a heart rate of 170 bpm and a normal QRS duration most likely experiencing? 1. Tachydysrhythmia originating from the bundle branches. 2. Tachydysrhythmia originating from the atria. 3. Tachydysrhythmia originating from the ventricles. 4. Tachydysrhythmia originating from the Purkinje fibers.

2. Tachydysrhythmia originating from the atria.

Which is a priority nursing intervention for a client who is newly prescribed enalapril (Vasotec)? 1. Monitor the client for headaches. 2. Take the client's blood pressure. 3. Order a sodium-restricted diet for the client. 4. Review the client's lab results for hypokalemia.

2. Take the client's blood pressure.

The nurse is assessing a male client prescribed propranolol (Inderal) for adherence to the treatment plan. Which is an important question for the nurse to ask the client? 1. "Have you noticed any changes in your sexual functioning?" 2. "Has your appetite increased or decreased?" 3. "Have you noticed any changes in your bowel function?" 4. "Have you noticed any difficulty in your ability to concentrate?"

1. "Have you noticed any changes in your sexual functioning?"

A client with a dysrhythmia asks the nurse why they cannot take a prescription instead of have cardioversion for treatment? Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "Antidysrhythmic prescriptions have many side effects; cardioversion is considered safer." 2. "Special diets are necessary with antidysrhythmic prescriptions, and they are hard to follow." 3. "Antidysrhythmic prescriptions don't really work very well for most dysrhythmias." 4. "There is a high risk of seizures when you take antidysrhythmic prescriptions."

1. "Antidysrhythmic prescriptions have many side effects; cardioversion is considered safer."

A client receiving diltiazem (Cardizem) asks the nurse why they get a headache after taking the prescription. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "Diltiazem (Cardizem) causes the blood vessels in your brain to widen, giving you the headache." 2. "Diltiazem (Cardizem) increases prostaglandin synthesis, giving you the headache." 3. "Diltiazem (Cardizem) releases Substance P, activating pain receptors in your brain and giving you the headache." 4. "Diltiazem (Cardizem) causes the blood vessels in your brain to narrow, giving you the headache."

1. "Diltiazem (Cardizem) causes the blood vessels in your brain to widen, giving you the headache."

Which prescription should the nurse anticipate to increase the myocardial contractility for a client with heart failure? 1. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 2. Lisinopril (Prinivil) 3. Carvedilol (Coreg) 4. Furosemide (Lasix)

1. Digoxin (Lanoxin)

A client asks the nurse how hypertension can lead to heart failure. Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "Hypertension increases the resistance in the blood vessels causing the heart to work harder to pump the blood out against the resistance of the arteries." 2. "Hypertension limits the ability of the heart to stretch before emptying resulting in the heart working harder to pump the blood out into the arterial system." 3. "Hypertension causes resistance in the venous system requiring the heart to work harder to pump the blood forward." 4. "Hypertension limits the amount of blood entering the left ventricle increasing the workload of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood into the circulatory system."

1. "Hypertension increases the resistance in the blood vessels causing the heart to work harder to pump the blood out against the resistance of the arteries."

The nurse has completed the education for a client with angina prescribed nitroglycerine (Nitrostat). Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? 1. "I can take up to 5 tablets to resolve the chest pain." 2. "If my pain is not reduced 5 minutes after taking one tablet I should call EMS." 3. "I should take a tablet as soon as chest pain occurs." 4. "I can take three tablets, one every 5 minutes."

1. "I can take up to 5 tablets to resolve the chest pain."

Which statement made by a client receiving amiodarone should the nurse be most concerned about? 1. "I have a cough that is getting worse." 2. "I often feel tired throughout the day." 3. "I have lost 5 pounds over the last 3 weeks." 4. "I have a rash on my skin that will not go away."

1. "I have a cough that is getting worse."

SATA: The nurse is educating a patient whose blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg on ways to lower blood pressure and avoid hypertension. Which lifestyle choices may eliminate the need for pharmacotherapy in this patient? 1. "I have incorporated yoga into my exercise program." 2. "I will monitor my daily sodium intake." 3. "I will drink a glass of red wine daily to help lower my blood pressure." 4. "I am receiving acupuncture to help me stop smoking."

1. "I have incorporated yoga into my exercise program." 2. "I will monitor my daily sodium intake." 4. "I am receiving acupuncture to help me stop smoking."

SATA: A male client states to the nurse, "I am going to stop taking my metoprolol (Lopressor). I have been experiencing problems having sex." Which responses should the nurse include in the discussion with the client? 1. "I understand sexual dysfunction can be a common problem with this drug." 2. "Perhaps it would be better if you took atenolol (Tenormin)." 3. "I cannot stop you from discontinuing the drug." 4. "Stopping the prescription abruptly may cause your blood pressure to elevate even higher." 5. "Try taking the drug early in the morning."

1. "I understand sexual dysfunction can be a common problem with this drug." 4. "Stopping the prescription abruptly may cause your blood pressure to elevate even higher."

SATA: The nurse has provided education for a client who will self-administer a twice-daily antidysrhythmic prescription. Which statements made by the client indicate further teaching is needed? 1. "If I get the flu, I should stop taking the medication until my fever goes down." 2. "I should take my doses as close to 12 hours apart as I can." 3. "If I forget a dose of the prescription I should take two pills for the next dose." 4. "If I can't take the prescription for a couple of days because I am sick, I should call the clinic for advice." 5. "I should get my prescription refilled before I am completely out of medicine."

1. "If I get the flu, I should stop taking the medication until my fever goes down." 3. "If I forget a dose of the prescription I should take two pills for the next dose."

SATA: Which statements by the client are specifically associated with unstable angina? 1. "My chest has started hurting even if I am just watching television." 2. "My chest starts hurting if I climb one set of stairs." 3. "My attacks of chest pain are coming more frequently now." 4. "The pain occurs most often after I eat a meal." 5. "The pain is worse than it used to be."

1. "My chest has started hurting even if I am just watching television." 3. "My attacks of chest pain are coming more frequently now." 5. "The pain is worse than it used to be."

SATA: Which statements made by the client indicate an understanding of the compensatory mechanisms associated with heart failure? 1. "My heart enlarged in order to compensate for the effects of heart failure." 2. "My nervous system kicks in to compensate for the effects of heart failure." 3. "My body will decrease blood flow to other organs in order to compensate for heart failure." 4. "My body will increase urine output in order to compensate for the effects of heart failure." 5. "My body will produce anti-inflammatory agents to compensate for heart failure."

1. "My heart enlarged in order to compensate for the effects of heart failure." 2. "My nervous system kicks in to compensate for the effects of heart failure." 3. "My body will decrease blood flow to other organs in order to compensate for heart failure."

SATA: Which statements made by a client that has been receiving a prescription for an atrial dysrhythmia indicate the client requires further information? 1. "Since I can't drink coffee anymore, I have started drinking diet cola in the mornings." 2. "I have found that a glass of wine after work and one with dinner helps me to relax from my stressful job." 3. "We have celebrated several birthdays since I saw you last. I love chocolate birthday cake." 4. "I have really worked at stopping my smoking since I was last here." 5. "My friends and I have found several restaurants in our area that offer good, low-fat meals."

1. "Since I can't drink coffee anymore, I have started drinking diet cola in the mornings." 2. "I have found that a glass of wine after work and one with dinner helps me to relax from my stressful job." 3. "We have celebrated several birthdays since I saw you last. I love chocolate birthday cake."

SATA: Which lifestyle behaviors should the nurse discuss with a client to help reduce their risk of coronary artery disease? 1. Abstinence from smoking 2. Decrease stress 3. Limit alcohol consumption 4. Maintain optimal weight 5. Limit sodium intake

1. Abstinence from smoking 3. Limit alcohol consumption 4. Maintain optimal weight 5. Limit sodium intake

SATA: For which conditions should the nurse anticipate norepinephrine to be prescribed? 1. Acute shock 2. Cardiac arrest 3. Septic shock 4. Hypovolemic shock 5. Cardiogenic shock

1. Acute shock 2. Cardiac arrest 3. Septic shock

Which classification of prescription should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed to a client newly diagnosed with chronic heart failure? 1. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor 2. Beta-adrenergic blockers 3. Cardiac glycosides 4. Diuretics

1. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

SATA: Which findings should the nurse anticipate when assessing a client developing right-sided heart failure? 1. Ankle edema 2. Enlarged liver 3. Displaced apical heart rate 4. Shortness of breath 5. Coughing

1. Ankle edema 2. Enlarged liver 3. Displaced apical heart rate

Which vital sign is of the greatest concern to the nurse prior to administering digoxin (Lanoxin)? 1. Apical pulse 2. Temperature 3. Blood pressure 4. Respiratory rate

1. Apical pulse

SATA: Which prescriptions does the nurse anticipate to be included in the goal to reduce the post-MI mortality of a client? 1. Aspirin 2. Beta blockers 3. Narcotic analgesics 4. ACE inhibitors 5. Antidysrhythmics

1. Aspirin 2. Beta blockers 4. ACE inhibitors

SATA: Which physiological systems should the nurse recognize are most at risk for a client in a hypertensive crisis? 1. Cardiac 2. Respiratory 3. Integumentary 4. Gastrointestinal 5. Renal

1. Cardiac 5. Renal

SATA: Which should the nurse prepare for the client experiencing shock? 1. Cardiac monitor 2. Pulse oximeter 3. Oxygen 4. Whole blood 5. Dextran 40

1. Cardiac monitor 2. Pulse oximeter 3. Oxygen

SATA: A client treated previously for a fractured leg and multiple abrasions returns to the emergency department experiencing anaphylactic shock. Which prescriptions should the nurse suspect have caused the reaction? 1. Cephalosporin antibiotic 2. Topical antibiotic for use on abrasions 3. NSAIDs 4. Opioid analgesic 5. Normal saline wash for abrasions

1. Cephalosporin antibiotic 3. NSAIDs 4. Opioid analgesic

Which symptom is most likely to be related to angina as opposed to a myocardial infarction? 1. Chest pain relieved by one sublingual nitroglycerin 2. Chest pain that radiates to the patient's back 3. Chest pain that occurred while the patient was eating breakfast 4. Chest pain accompanied by shortness of breath

1. Chest pain relieved by one sublingual nitroglycerin

SATA: 1) Which symptoms should the nurse anticipate to treat with epinephrine (EpiPen) for a child allergic to bee stings that has been stung? 1. Cold clammy skin 2. Excessive thirst 3. Warm dry skin 4. Restlessness 5. Hyperactivity

1. Cold clammy skin 2. Excessive thirst 4. Restlessness

Which is a priority assessment for the client receiving reteplase (Retavase) intravenously? 1. Fluid balance 2. Abnormal bleeding 3. Blood glucose 4. Respiratory rate

2. Abnormal bleeding

The nurse educator is reviewing the physiological regulation blood pressure. Which should the educator identify as initially involved? 1. Production of angiotensin II 2. Action of renin 3. Antidiuretic hormone 4. Production of angiotensin I

2. Action of renin

SATA: A client states to the nurse, "This educational video you gave me shows normal electrical conduction through the heart, but I still don't understand it. Can you explain it to me?" Which responses should the nurse include in the discussion? 1. "Conduction through the bundle of His is the slowest in the heart." 2. "Conduction begins in the sinoatrial (SA) node and travels to the atrioventricular (AV) node." 3. "Conduction continues through the bundle branches to the Purkinje fibers." 4. "Conduction travels from the atrioventricular (AV) node through the bundle of His." 5. "The sinoatrial (SA) node is located in the left atrium."

2. "Conduction begins in the sinoatrial (SA) node and travels to the atrioventricular (AV) node." 3. "Conduction continues through the bundle branches to the Purkinje fibers." 4. "Conduction travels from the atrioventricular (AV) node through the bundle of His."

1A client receiving hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) asks the nurse why they are urinating so frequently. Which statement should the nurse provide the client? 1. "Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) enhances kidney function causing you to urinate more and that decreases your blood pressure." 2. "Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) decreases the fluid in your bloodstream and this lowers your blood pressure." 3. "Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) dilates your blood vessels so you urinate more and your blood pressure decreases." 4. "Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) increases your heart rate; this pumps blood faster to your kidneys so you urinate more and your blood pressure decreases."

2. "Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) decreases the fluid in your bloodstream and this lowers your blood pressure."

SATA: The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed nifedipine (Adalat CC). Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? 1. "If I drink alcohol while taking this medication, I will get very sick to my stomach." 2. "I should stop taking my melatonin sleep medication." 3. "I should no longer drink grapefruit juice." 4. "I should no longer drink sports drinks with caffeine in them." 5. "I should stop taking my vitamin C supplement."

2. "I should stop taking my melatonin sleep medication." 3. "I should no longer drink grapefruit juice."

SATA: Which statements by a client treated with epinephrine should the nurse be concerned about? 1. "I feel jittery." 2. "My heart is skipping beats." 3. "I have a pounding headache." 4. "I am so dizzy." 5. "That really hurt when you gave me that med."

2. "My heart is skipping beats." 3. "I have a pounding headache."

Which information should the nurse include in the discharge plan for a client prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin)? 1. "Report the development of a metallic taste in the mouth." 2. "Report mental changes such as feelings of depression." 3. "Stop the prescription if your pulse is irregular." 4. "If you miss a dose, take two doses."

2. "Report mental changes such as feelings of depression."

SATA: The client tells the nurse, "My healthcare provider says I have atrial fibrillation. Is this serious and how is it treated?" Which responses should the nurse provide the client? 1. "This condition is best treated with what we call antidysrhythmic drugs." 2. "This is very common; your doctor will discuss the best treatment with you." 3. "Depending on your symptoms, your healthcare provider may use an electrical shock." "This is quite serious; did your healthcare provider discuss a heart transplant

2. "This is very common; your doctor will discuss the best treatment with you." 3. "Depending on your symptoms, your healthcare provider may use an electrical shock."

SATA: Which clients should the nurse anticipate will require a pharmacological intervention to manage their blood pressure? 1. A 30-year-old female whose blood pressure is 138/88 mmHg who is otherwise healthy 2. A 61-year-old man whose blood pressure is 144/90 mmHg who also has type 2 diabetes 3. A 56-year-old woman whose blood pressure is 135/84 mmHg who also has Cushing's disease 4. A 65-year-old man whose blood pressure is 148/88 mmHg who is otherwise healthy 5. A 61-year-old woman whose blood pressure is 153/92 mmHg who is otherwise healthy

2. A 61-year-old man whose blood pressure is 144/90 mmHg who also has type 2 diabetes 5. A 61-year-old woman whose blood pressure is 153/92 mmHg who is otherwise healthy

Which is the primary desired outcome for a client that has experienced several episodes of angina? 1. The client will experience relief of chest pain with anticoagulant therapy. 2. The client will experience relief of chest pain with nitrate therapy. 3. The client will experience relief of chest pain with aspirin therapy. 4. The client will experience relief of chest pain with therapeutic lifestyle changes.

2. The client will experience relief of chest pain with nitrate therapy

SATA: Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed antianginal therapy? 1. The prescriptions increase the heart rate. 2. The prescriptions dilate the veins so that the heart receives less blood. 3. The prescriptions cause the heart to contract with less force. 4. The prescriptions increase blood pressure. 5. The prescriptions increase the ability of the body to produce red blood cells.

2. The prescriptions dilate the veins so that the heart receives less blood. 3. The prescriptions cause the heart to contract with less force.

Which is the most sensitive and effective biomarker of a myocardial infarction? 1. White blood cells 2. Troponin 3. Myoglobin 4. Creatine kinase

2. Troponin

A client prescribed doxazosin (Cardura) asks how the medication works. Which information should the nurse provide the client? 1. "Doxazosin causes the kidneys to excrete more urine." 2. "Doxazosin helps the heart work more efficiently." 3. "Doxazosin helps dilate the blood vessels." 4. "Doxazosin decreases the release of the stress hormones."

3. "Doxazosin helps dilate the blood vessels."

The nurse is providing a client education about dysrhythmias. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching? 1. "Dysrhythmias cause serious electrolyte imbalances; this results in heart block." 2. "Dysrhythmias are the result of longstanding, uncontrolled hypertension." 3. "Dysrhythmias interrupt the normal electrical pathways in the heart so it can't beat properly." 4. "Dysrhythmias alter the blood flow through the heart and cause it to stop beating."

3. "Dysrhythmias interrupt the normal electrical pathways in the heart so it can't beat properly."

The nurse has discussed lifestyle modifications to help manage the client's hypertension. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "I need to get started on my medications right away." 2. "My father had hypertension, did nothing, and lived to be 90 years old." 3. "I know I need to give up my cigarettes and alcohol." 4. "I won't be able to run in the marathon race anymore."

3. "I know I need to give up my cigarettes and alcohol."

1) The nurse has provided education for a client with diabetes mellitus prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor) for hypertension. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "I might not need to check my blood sugars as often with metoprolol (Lopressor)." 2. "I might be able to change from insulin to a pill with metoprolol (Lopressor)." 3. "I might need less insulin when I take metoprolol (Lopressor)." 4. "I might need more insulin when I take metoprolol (Lopressor)."

3. "I might need less insulin when I take metoprolol (Lopressor)."

Which information should the nurse include in the education for a client prescribed an antidysrhythmic? 1. "Elevate your extremities if you notice any swelling." 2. "Weigh yourself every other day." 3. "Take the first dose of your prescription before bed." 4. "Take your medication while you are lying down."

3. "Take the first dose of your prescription before bed."

A family member of a client receiving dobutamine intravenously asks the nurse how that will help their blood pressure. Which response should the nurse provide? 1. "The prescription is a vasopressor and helps the heart beat more effectively, which will increase blood pressure." 2. "Vasopressor drugs act on the renin-angiotensin system which will increase the blood pressure." 3. "The prescription is a vasopressor and will help stabilize blood pressure by making the blood vessels smaller." 4. "The prescription is a vasopressor which will help increase blood flow to peripheral muscles."

3. "The prescription is a vasopressor and will help stabilize blood pressure by making the blood vessels smaller."

The nurse has provided education about dysrhythmias for a group of clients. Which statement made by a client indicates an understanding of the information? 1. "The sodium, potassium, and magnesium levels must be okay for the heart to have an electrical impulse." 2. "Potassium is the most important electrolyte when it comes to the electrical impulse in the heart." 3. "The sodium, potassium, and calcium levels must be okay for the heart to have an electrical impulse." 4. "Enhancing potassium and sodium is how our prescriptions will work to prevent dysrhythmias."

3. "The sodium, potassium, and calcium levels must be okay for the heart to have an electrical impulse."

A client asks the nurse about the different types of shock. Which response should the nurse provide? 1. "There are many kinds of shock: heart failure, nervous system damage, loss of blood, and respiratory failure." 2. "Allergic response is the most fatal type of shock; other types involve loss of blood, heart failure, and liver failure." 3. "There are many kinds of shock that also include infection, nervous system damage, and loss of blood." 4. "Heart failure is the most serious kind of shock; others include infection, kidney failure, and a significant loss of blood."

3. "There are many kinds of shock that also include infection, nervous system damage, and loss of blood."

A client experiencing a severe allergic reaction to peanuts tells the nurse they have a known hypersensitivity to epinephrine (Adrenalin). Which response should the nurse provide the client? 1. "I will let the healthcare provider know about this immediately; we will need to choose an alternative prescription." 2. "Do you know what has been used before with this allergic response?" 3. "This is a life-threatening situation; a prior hypersensitivity is not an absolute contraindication." 4. "You most likely will be prescribed IV diphenhydramine (Benadryl)."

3. "This is a life-threatening situation; a prior hypersensitivity is not an absolute contraindication."

SATA: Which statements made by a client indicates an understanding of the education provided by the nurse regarding digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity? 1. "I should limit my fluids while taking this medication." 2. "It is okay to keep taking my ginseng." 3. "If I have nausea, it means I must stop the medication." 4. "I can drink orange juice every morning." 5. "I must check my pulse and not take the medication if it is less than 60."

4. "I can drink orange juice every morning." 5. "I must check my pulse and not take the medication if it is less than 60."

Which statement made by a client newly prescribed a beta-adrenergic blocker should the nurse be concerned about? 1. "I don't handle stress well; I have a lot of diarrhea." 2. "When I have a migraine headache, I need to have the room darkened." 3. "My father died of a heart attack when he was 48 years old." 4. "I have always had problems with my asthma."

4. "I have always had problems with my asthma."

The nurse has provided education for a client prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is required? 1. "I will monitor my blood pressure until my next appointment." 2. "I will avoid using salt substitutes for seasoning." 3. "It takes a while for this medication to take effect." 4. "I will not need to worry about having additional blood tests done."

4. "I will not need to worry about having additional blood tests done."

Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of self-care while taking prescriptions to treat their heart failure? 1. "I will cut back on my smoking." 2. "I will check my pulse every few days." 3. "I will schedule my lab work if I am not feeling well." 4. "I will weigh myself every day in the morning after I wake up."

4. "I will weigh myself every day in the morning after I wake up."