Pharmacology Exam #4 ebook questions

¡Supera tus tareas y exámenes ahora con Quizwiz!

Which of the following nursing diagnoses would the nurse most likely place on the care plan of a client with AD that is related to adverse reactions of the cholinesterase inhibitors? 1. Imbalanced Nutrition 2. Confusion 3. Risk for Suicide 4. Bowel Incontinence

Imbalanced Nutrition

Cephalosporins are divided into "generations" according to: 1. when they were discovered 2. their administration method 3. manufacturer's preference 4. sensitivity to microorganisms

sensitivity to microorganisms

When administering donepezil (Aricept) to a client with AD, the nurse would most likely expect which diagnostic test to have been prescribed? 1. complete blood count 2. cholesterol levels 3. brain scan 4. electrolyte analysis

brain scan

Which of the following antidepressants would be most likely to cause the client to have a seizure? 1. amitriptyline 2. bupropion 3. sertraline 4. venlafaxine

bupropion

When giving doxycline for gonorrhea, the nurse advises the client to _______. 1. return for a follow-up examination 2. limit fluid intake to 1200 mL/day while taking the drug 3. return the next day for a second injection 4. avoid drinking alcohol for the next 10 days

return for a follow-up examination

Which of the following behaviors would the nurse expect to see in a client experiencing TD? 1. muscle rigidity, dry mouth, insomnia 2. rhythmic, involuntary movements of the tongue, face, mouth, or jaw 3. muscle weakness, paralysis of the eyelids, diarrhea 4. dyspnea, somnolence, muscle spasms

rhythmic, involuntary movements of the tongue, face, mouth, or jaw

Which of the following drugs is least likely to produce extrapyramidal effects? 1. chlorpromazine 2. haloperidol 3. fluphenazine 4. risperidone

risperidone

A client asks the nurse why the primary health care provider prescribed an antibiotic when she was told that she has a viral infection. The correct response by the nurse is that the antibiotic may be used for a suspected _______. 1. primary fungal infection 2. repeat viral infection 3. secondary bacterial infection 4. breakdown of the immune system

secondary bacterial infection

Which of the following adverse reactions would the nurse expect to find in a client taking amitriptyline? 1. constipation and abdominal cramps 2. bradycardia and double vision 3. sedation and dry mouth 4. polyuria and hypotension

sedation and dry mouth

When a histamine H2 antagonist drug is prescribed for the treatment of a peptic ulcer, the nurse monitors the client for which of the following adverse effects? 1. Dry mouth, urinary retention 2. Edema, tachycardia 3. Constipation, anorexia 4. Headache, somnolence

Headache, somnolence

Alprazolam (Xanax) is contraindicated in clients with ______. 1. glaucoma 2. congestive heart failure 3. diabetes 4. hypertension

glaucoma

A nurse asks if the client is allergic to penicillin before the first dose of the cephalosporin is given. The rationale for this question is that persons allergic to penicillin _______. 1. are usually allergic to most antibiotics 2. respond poorly to antibiotic therapy 3. require higher doses of other antibiotics 4. have a higher incidence of allergy to the cephalosporins

have a higher incidence of allergy to the cephalosporins

Nonbarbiturates are used instead of barbiturates because they ______. 1. produce better sleep patterns 2. have fewer adverse reactions 3. are newer formulas 4. cause less amnesia

have fewer adverse reactions

A family member calls the nurse to report that the client taking an antianxiety medication is hypotensive. The nurse instructs the family member to: 1. give oral fluids to increase the blood pressure 2. have the client rise more slowly from a lying or sitting position 3. take the client to a local fire station three times a week to check blood pressure 4. stop the medication until the nurse checks with the primary health care provider

have the client rise more slowly from a lying or sitting position

Which of the following complaints by a man taking tetracycline would be most indicative that he is experiencing ototoxicity? 1. tingling of the extremities 2. he is unable to hear the television 3. changes in mental status 4. short periods of dizziness

he is unable to hear the television

When assessing the client receiving doxapram for chronic pulmonary disease, the nurse observes the client for adverse drug reactions, which may include ______. 1. headache, dizziness, variations in heart rate 2. diarrhea, drowsiness, hypotension 3. decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, bradycardia 4. fever, dysuria, constipation

headache, dizziness, variations in heart rate

The nurse can evaluate the client's response to therapy by asking him if _______. 1. he completed the entire course of therapy 2. his symptoms have been relieved 3. he has seen any evidence of blood in the urine 4. he has experienced any constipation

his symptoms have been relieved

In giving discharge instructions to a client taking lithium, the nurse stresses that the client should: 1. eat a diet high in carbohydrates and low in proteins 2. increase oral fluid intake to approximately 3000 mL/day 3. have blood drawn before each dose of lithium is administered 4. avoid eating foods high in amines

increase oral fluid intake to approximately 3000 mL/day

Clients taking a fluoroquinolone are encouraged to _______. 1. nap 1 to 2 hours daily while taking the drug 2. eat a high-protein diet 3. increase their fluid intake 4. avoid foods high in carbohydrates

increase their fluid intake

A nurse working in the clinic asks how the sulfonamides control an infection. The most accurate answer is that these drugs _______. 1. encourage the production of antibodies 2. inhibit folic acid metabolism 3. reduce urine output 4. make the urine alkaline, which eliminates bacteria

inhibit folic acid metabolism

When administering an antidepressant to a client with suicidal ideation, it is most important for the nurse to ______. 1. have the client remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the antidepressant 2. assess the client in 30 minutes for a therapeutic response to the drug 3. monitor the client for an occipital headache 4. inspect the client's oral cavity to be sure the drug was swallowed

inspect the client's oral cavity to be sure the drug was swallowed

When monitoring the IV infusion of levofloxacin, the nurse makes sure the needle is in the vein because if not it can result in _______. 1. irritation of the surrounding tissue 2. a blood clot in the arm 3. fluid deficit and dehydration 4. a sudden and severe rise in blood pressure

irritation of the surrounding tissue

When teaching a client who is receiving an amphetamine for a diagnosis of narcolepsy, the nurse instructs the client to ______. 1. record the times of the day the medication is taken 2. take the medication at bedtime as well as in the morning 3. take the drug with meals 4. keep a record of how often periods of sleepiness occur

keep a record of how often periods of sleepiness occur

The nurse correctly administers donepezil (Aricept) ______. 1. three times daily around the clock 2. twice daily 1 hour before meals or 2 hours after meals 3. once daily in the morning 4. once daily at bedtime

once daily at bedtime

Which of these assessments should the nurse report immediately to the primary health provider? 1. dizziness when arising from the chair 2. heart rate of 80 beats/min 3. respiration rate of 8 breaths/min 4. joint pain

respiration rate of 8 breaths/min

Harmful drug interactions exist when aminosalicylates are taken with the following drugs. Select all that apply. 1. Cardiotonics 2. Beta-adrenergic blockers 3. Oral hypoglycemics 4. Anticoagulants

-Cardiotonics -Oral hypoglycemics -Anticoagulants

Which of the following are used to monitor progression of AD? Select all that apply. 1. MMSE 2. brain scan 3. blood studies 4. urinalysis 5. memory testing

-MMSE -brain scan -blood studies -memory testing

An obese female client is starting an anorexiant for weight loss. Select all the points the nurse should emphasize in teaching this client about the drug. Select all that apply. 1. You should modify your diet and exercise when taking these drugs. 2. Never take over-the-counter diet pills when taking these drugs. 3. You may take these drugs if your BMI is 22. 4. Stop the anorexiant if you plan to get pregnant.

-You should modify your diet and exercise when taking these drugs. -Never take over-the-counter diet pills when taking these drugs. -Stop the anorexiant if you plan to get pregnant.

Describe the feelings of anxiety. Select all that apply. 1. apprehension 2. panic 3. uneasiness 4. worry 5. jitters

-apprehension -panic -uneasiness -worry -jitters ALL OF THE ABOVE

Identify the correct properties of sulfonamide drugs. Select all that apply. 1. bactericidal 2. reduces inflammation in colon 3. inhibits folic acid in bacterial cells 4. antibacterial

-bactericidal -reduces inflammation in colon -inhibits folic acid in bacterial cells -antibacterial ALL OF THE ABOVE

When administering a second-generation antipsychotic to a client, the nurse would most likely expect which diagnostic test(s) to be prescribed? Select all that apply. 1. complete blood count 2. fasting blood glucose levels 3. cholesterol levels 4. electrolyte analysis

-complete blood count -fasting blood glucose levels -cholesterol levels

Antidepressant drugs prevent the reuptake of which neurotransmitter(s)? Select all that apply. 1. acetylcholine 2. dopamine 3. norepinephrine 4. serotonin

-dopamine -norepinephrine -serotonin

Benzodiazepines potentiate which neurotransmitter? 1. acetylcholine 2. GABA 3. norepinephrine 4. serotonin

GABA

Which of the following is an indicator of delirium? 1. progressive, insidious onset 2. caused by bladder infection 3. ongoing confusion 4. problems with memory

caused by bladder infection

Which of the following drugs is a schedule IV controlled substance? 1. hydroxyzine 2. doxepin 3. buspirone 4. chlordiazepoxide

chlordiazepoxide

Which of the following is a negative symptom associated with schizophrenia? 1. hallucinations 2. delusions 3. flat affect 4. agitation

flat affect

Adverse reactions that the nurse would assess for in a client taking rivastigmine (Exelon) include ______. 1. occipital headache 2. vomiting 3. hyperactivity 4. hypoactivity

vomiting

The nurse is leading a medication support group. Which is the best statement to make when a client says the drugs don't work? 1. "They won't work if you don't take them." 2. "I know it is hard to keep taking the medicine when you can't readily see the effects." 3. "That's not appropriate to say in front of everyone else here." 4. "Statements like that give me a headache."

"I know it is hard to keep taking the medicine when you can't readily see the effects."

Which of the following statements made by the client would be of concern to the nurse? 1. "Take this pill if I feel nauseated." 2. "I will take this antacid right before I eat." 3. "I should avoid drinking alcoholic beverages for a while." 4. "Eating a diet high in protein will help me feel better."

"I will take this antacid right before I eat."

The clinic nurse prepares teaching materials to give a client about use of a hypnotic. Which statement would prompt the nurse to contact the primary health care provider? 1. "I plan to listen to some relaxing music tonight." 2. "Stopping off at the tavern should help calm me before bedtime." 3. "I will have a coworker pick me up tomorrow morning." 4. "A nutritious meal may help me sleep better."

"Stopping off at the tavern should help calm me before bedtime."

Which of the following statements if made by the client would indicate that he or she understands to take the entire course of an antibacterial medication? 1. "If it gets red, stop taking the medicine that is not working." 2. "When the pain stops, stop the medicine." 3. "Take this until you get diarrhea." 4. "Take all the medicine in the bottle."

"Take all the medicine in the bottle."

When teaching about the nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics, certain foods should not be taken because they interfere with absorption. Select all of the foods that should not be taken with these drugs. 1. peanut butter and crackers 2. ice cream 3. apple pie with ice cream 4. chocolate pudding

-peanut butter and crackers -ice cream -apple pie with ice cream

Which of the following are signs and symptoms of a drug hypersensitivity reaction? Select all that apply. 1. skin rash 2. wheezing 3. hypertension 4. angioedema 5. urinary incontinence

-skin rash -wheezing -angioedema

For drug development purposes, AD is now defined in three stages. Cholinesterase inhibitors are used during which stage(s)? Select all that apply. 1. stage 1 2. stage 2 3. stage 3

-stage 2 -stage 3

Bacterial cells are different from human cells because they: 1. have a cell wall 2. synthesize DNA and RNA 3. contain a beta-lactam ring 4. contain proteins

-synthesize DNA and RNA

A client with limited health literacy is prescribed controlled release fluoxetine for a depression. It will be prescribed to take one 90-mg capsule weekly. What methods should you use to help this client remember when to take the medication? Select all that apply. 1. use a calendar on the wall 2. ask a family member to call the client weekly 3. set a cell phone to alarm weekly 4. have the clinic receptionist call weekly

-use a calendar on the wall -ask a family member to call the client weekly -set a cell phone to alarm weekly

Identify the interventions to use when taking drugs with photosensitive reactions. Select all that apply. 1. wash the skin frequently 2. use high SPF value sunscreen 3. wear head coverings on overcast days 4. clothing should be long sleeved

-use high SPF value sunscreen -wear head coverings on overcast days -clothing should be long sleeved

Criteria for diagnosing insomnia include which of the items below? Select all that apply. 1. waking too early 2. sleeping in the middle of the day 3. difficulty falling asleep 4. trouble returning to sleep at night

-waking too early -difficulty falling asleep -trouble returning to sleep at night

When a client is instructed not to take a drug with dairy products, what can the client drink when swallowing the medication? Select all that apply. 1. water 2. yogurt fruit smoothie 3. iced tea 4. cranberry juice 5. milk

-water -iced tea -cranberry juice

The nurse correctly administers penicillin V: 1. 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals 2. without regard to meals 3. with meals to prevent GI upset 4. every 3 hours around the clock

1 hour before or 2 hours after meals

How would the nurse correctly administer an antacid to a client taking other oral medications? 1. With the other drugs 2. 30 minutes before or after administration of other drugs 3. 2 hours before or after administration of other drugs 4. In early morning and at bedtime

2 hours before or after administration of other drugs

Which of the following urinary output measurements should be reported to the primary health care provider immediately? 1. 2400 mL in 24 hours 2. 30 mL in 1 hour 3. 750 mL in 1 hour 4. 1000 mL in 1 day

30 mL in 1 hour

A child with ADHD is admitted to the pediatric unit for a fractured tibia. Dexmethylphenidate is prescribed 7.5 mg BID; when should these doses be given? 1. 7 AM and 11 AM 2. 7 AM and 5 PM 3. 9 AM and 5 PM 4. 9 AM and 9 PM

7 AM and 11 AM

Sedative and hypnotic drugs exert action to depress the ______. 1. peripheral nervous system 2. cardiovascular and respiratory systems 3. musculoskeletal system 4. CNS

CNS

Which of the following points should be included in a teaching plan for a client taking a sedative or hypnotic? 1. An alcoholic beverage may be served 1 to 2 hours before a sedative is taken without any ill effects. 2. Dosage of the sedative may be increased if sleep is not restful. 3. These drugs may safely be used for 6 months to 1 year when given for insomnia. 4. Do not use any OTC cold, cough, or allergy medications while taking a sedative or hypnotic.

Do not use any OTC cold, cough, or allergy medications while taking a sedative or hypnotic.

Which of the following points should be included in a teaching plan for a client taking a laxative? 1. They may be used for minor weight loss 2. Drink more fluid and eat more high-fiber foods 3. The abdominal pain is probably gas buildup 4. Using daily promotes good bowel health

Drink more fluid and eat more high-fiber foods

What is the most common adverse reaction the nurse would expect in a client receiving an antiemetic? 1. Occipital headache 2. Drowsiness 3. Edema 4. Nausea

Drowsiness

Which of the following is the best description of the cause of Crohn disease? 1. Somatic response to psychological stress 2. Infection due to bacteria or parasites 3. Inflammatory response in the colon 4. Precancerous stage in the bowel

Inflammatory response in the colon

In which area of the GI tract is water primarily reabsorbed? 1. Stomach 2. Small intestine 3. Large intestine (colon) 4. Pancreas

Large intestine (colon)

If a client is taking metoclopramide, which of the following behaviors indicates an irreversible condition that should be reported immediately to the primary health care provider? 1. Muscle rigidity, dry mouth, insomnia 2. Rhythmic, involuntary movements of the tongue, face, mouth, or jaw 3. Muscle weakness, paralysis of the eyelids, diarrhea 4. Dyspnea, somnolence, muscle spasms

Rhythmic, involuntary movements of the tongue, face, mouth, or jaw

Why is atropine put in an antidiarrheal? 1. To neutralize acid 2. To kill bacteria in the bowel 3. To reduce addictive property 4. To promote bowel health

To reduce addictive property

When giving a cephalosporin by the IM route, the nurse tells the client that _______. 1. a stinging or burning sensation and soreness at the site may be experienced 2. the injection site will be red for several days 3. all injections will be given in the same area 4. the injection will not cause any discomfort

a stinging or burning sensation and soreness at the site may be experienced

A client taking oral penicillin reports he has a sore mouth. On inspection, the nurse notes a black, furry tongue and bright red oral mucous membranes. The primary care provider is notified immediately, because these symptoms may be caused by: 1. a vitamin C deficiency 2. a superinfection 3. an allergic reaction 4. poor oral hygiene

a superinfection

AD involves protein plaques and nerve tangles that limit which neurotransmitter? 1. acetylcholine 2. dopamine 3. norepinephrine 4. serotonin

acetylcholine

The nurse administers antidiarrheal drugs ________. 1. after each loose bowel movement 2. hourly until diarrhea ceases 3. with food 4. three times a day

after each loose bowel movement

Which of the listed drug categories is not included as a class of CNS stimulants? 1. amphetamines 2. analeptics 3. analgesics 4. anorexiants

analgesics

After administering penicillin in an outpatient setting, the nurse: 1. asks the client to wait 10 to 15 minutes before leaving the clinic 2. instructs the client to report any numbness or tingling of the extremities 3. keeps pressure on the injection site for 10 minutes 4. asks the client to wait in the area for at least 30 minutes

asks the client to wait in the area for at least 30 minutes

When explaining how to use transdermal scopolamine, the nurse tells the client to apply the system to ______. 1. a nonhairy region of the chest 2. the upper back 3. behind the ear 4. the forearm

behind the ear

When a client's dementia causes him or her to pick at items, the rivastigmine transdermal patch should be placed: 1. on the abdomen 2. on the upper arms 3. between the shoulder blades 4. on the thigh

between the shoulder blades

A client exhibits high energy and disorganized behavior on the mental health unit. This is best termed ______. 1. clinical depression 2. unipolar disorder 3. major depressive disorder 4. bipolar disorder

bipolar disorder

A client is receiving erythromycin for an infection. The patient's response to therapy is best evaluated by _______. 1. monitoring vital signs every 4 hours 2. comparing initial and current signs and symptoms 3. monitoring fluid intake and output 4. asking the patient if he is feeling better

comparing initial and current signs and symptoms

As a nurse on a mental health unit, you are ordering weekly lab draws for morning rounds. Three clients are taking the drug clozapine. Which of the following labs should be drawn on these clients? 1. fasting blood glucose 2. LDL 3. complete blood count 4. amylase

complete blood count

An obese client is weighed at the clinic. The starting weight was 370 lb; after 12 weeks the client now weighs 348 lb. The best action at this time is to: 1. continue the anorexiant 2. increase the anorexiant 3. reduce the anorexiant 4. stop the anorexiant

continue the anorexiant

The nurse correctly disposes the rivastigmine transdermal patch by first: 1. placing it in a tissue and discarding in trash can 2. flushing the patch in the client's toilet 3. folding it over so the adhesive side sticks together 4. disposing in a sharps contaminated box in the client's room

folding it over so the adhesive side sticks together

The nurse instructs Mrs. Moore to drink at least 2000 mL of fluid while taking a sulfa drug. The client states she cannot drink that much. The nurse should ask questions to assess which body system? 1. respiratory 2. genitourinary 3. neurologic 4. cardiac

genitourinary

Select the most helpful resource for the nurse assisting the client to determine the best antacid to purchase. 1. scan magazines and newspaper ads 2. discuss with the clinical pharmacist 3. search the Internet for drug ads 4. contact the drug company

discuss with the clinical pharmacist

When recording the administration of diphenoxylate for multiple loose stools: 1. document the daily number of drugs given 2. record all stools once each shift 3. indicate all stools on the medication administration record (MAR) next to the drug 4. document each dose on the MAR

document each dose on the MAR

Schizophrenia involves an overabundance of which neurotransmitter? 1. acetylcholine 2. dopamine 3. norepinephrine 4. serotonin

dopamine

When asked to describe a photosensitivity reaction, the nurse correctly states that this reaction may be described as a(n) _______. 1. tearing of the eyes on exposure to bright light 2. aversion to bright lights and sunlight 3. sensitivity to products in the environment 4. exaggerated sunburn reaction when the skin is exposed to sunlight

exaggerated sunburn reaction when the skin is exposed to sunlight

The nurse observes a client receiving a sulfonamide for Stevens-Johnson syndrome. The signs and symptoms that might indicate this syndrome include ______. 1. swelling of the extremities 2. increased blood pressure and pulse rate 3. lesions on the skin or mucous membranes 4. pain in the joints

lesions on the skin or mucous membranes

The benzodiazepines are pregnancy category D drugs that should not be taken while lactating because the newborn may become ______. 1. depressed 2. excited and irritable 3. lethargic and lose weight 4. hypoglycemic

lethargic and lose weight

Major depressive disorder is suspected in which of the following clients? 1. woman who is crying about her mastectomy performed yesterday 2. line worker who lost his job in a manufacturing plant 3 months ago 3. person diagnosed with hypothyroidism 4. child who had a parent die from suicide

line worker who lost his job in a manufacturing plant 3 months ago

A client with diabetes who takes oral medications is receiving a sulfonamide for a UTI. The client is taught that compared to what the usual reading has been, the blood glucose level will be: 1. higher 2. the same 3. lower 4. unreadable because of the medication

lower

Clients receiving sulfasalazine for ulcerative colitis are told that the drug _______. 1. is not to be taken with food 2. rarely causes adverse effects 3. may cause hair loss 4. may turn the urine an orange-yellow color

may turn the urine an orange-yellow color

Which of the following is a sign of drug withdrawal and not an adverse reaction? 1. dizziness 2. metallic taste 3. constipation 4. sedation

metallic taste

To avoid a superinfection when taking fluoroquinolones, instruct the client to _______. 1. eat a high-fiber diet 2. wash with antibacterial soaps 3. monitor for diarrhea 4. use over-the-counter (OTC) creams on skin rashes

monitor for diarrhea

The nurse observes a client taking a cephalosporin for common adverse reactions, which include _______. 1. hypotension, dizziness, urticaria 2. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea 3. skin rash, constipation, headache 4. bradycardia, pruritus, insomnia

nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

Which of the following symptoms would indicate to the nurse that a client taking lithium is experiencing toxicity? 1. constipation, abdominal cramps, rash 2. stupor, oliguria, hypertension 3. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea 4. dry mouth, blurred vision, difficulty swallowing

nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

An elderly woman has arthritis in her lower back, and the pain keeps her awake at night. She asks if she can have a "sleeping pill." In considering her request, the nurse must take into account that hypnotic medications might ______. 1. not be the drug of choice when pain causes insomnia 2. be given instead of an analgesic to relieve her pain 3. increase the pain threshold 4. be added to an analgesic to improve this situation

not be the drug of choice when pain causes insomnia

Initial assessment of the child with ADHD includes ______. 1. assessing which stimuli the child responds to the most 2. determining the child's intelligence 3. obtaining a record of the child's behavior pattern 4. obtaining vital signs

obtaining a record of the child's behavior pattern

A client is prescribed moxifloxacin. The nurse notes that the client is also taking an antacid. The nurse correctly administers moxifloxacin _______. 1. once daily orally, 4 hours before the antacid 2. twice daily orally, immediately after the antacid 3. once daily IM, without regard to the administration of the antacid 4. every 12 hours IV, without regard to the administration of the antacid

once daily orally, 4 hours before the antacid

When reviewing a client's culture and sensitivity test results, the nurse learns that the bacteria causing the infection are sensitive to penicillin. The nurse interprets this result to mean that: 1. the client is allergic to penicillin 2. penicillin will be effective in treating the infection 3. penicillin will not be effective in treating the infection 4. the test must be repeated to obtain accurate results

penicillin will be effective in treating the infection

The pregnancy category for the antiflatulent drug simethicone is _________. 1. pregnancy category A 2. pregnancy category C 3. pregnancy category X 4. pregnancy category unknown

pregnancy category unknown

Which condition is best treated with benzodiazepines? 1. obsessive-compulsive anxiety disorder 2. presurgical apprehension 3. posttraumatic stress disorder 4. grief reactions

presurgical apprehension

Fluoroquinolones kill bacterial cells by _______. 1. inhibiting protein synthesis 2. destroying the bacterial cell wall 3. eliminating oxygen from the ribosome 4. prohibiting DNA synthesis

prohibiting DNA synthesis

The client asks how stool softeners relieve constipation. Which of the following would be the best response by the nurse? Stool softeners relieve constipation by __________. 1. stimulating the walls of the intestine 2. promoting the retention of sodium in the fecal mass 3. promoting water retention in the fecal mass 4. lubricating the intestinal walls

promoting water retention in the fecal mass

Antianxiety medications are used cautiously in older adults because of the: 1. inability to absorb the drugs because of decreased acid production 2. drug not being distributed as well because of poor circulation 3. liver metabolizing the drug faster, making it ineffective 4. reduced elimination, making it build up in the circulation

reduced elimination, making it build up in the circulation

A client taking fluphenazine for schizophrenia is also prescribed an antiparkinson drug. What is the best explanation for adding an antiparkinson drug to the regimen? 1. prevents severe allergic reaction from sun exposure 2. promotes the effects of fluphenazine 3. reduces fine tremors, muscle rigidity, and slow movement 4. decreases hallucinations and delusions

reduces fine tremors, muscle rigidity, and slow movement

When giving one of the macrolide antibiotics, the nurse assesses the client for the most common adverse reactions, which are _______. 1. related to the GI tract 2. skin rash and urinary retention 3. sores in the mouth and hypertension 4. related to the nervous system

related to the GI tract

When giving a hypnotic to an older client, the nurse is aware that ______. 1. smaller doses of the drug are usually given to older clients 2. older clients usually require larger doses of a hypnotic 3. older adults excrete the drug faster than younger adults 4. dosages of the hypnotic may be increased each night until the desired effect is achieved

smaller doses of the drug are usually given to older clients

The client taking a fluoroquinolone plans to enter a marathon after treatment. The nurse is concerned about _______. 1. prolonged QT interval cardiac changes 2. spontaneous tendon rupture 3. phlebitis at the IV site 4. pseudomembranous colitis symptoms

spontaneous tendon rupture

Which of the following sedatives/hypnotics is a pregnancy category X drug? 1. zolpidem (Ambien) 2. ramelteon (Rozerem) 3. temazepam (Restoril) 4. eszopiclone (Lunesta)

temazepam (Restoril)

When administering an amphetamine, the nurse first checks to see if the client is taking or has taken a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) because ______. 1. a lower dosage of the amphetamine may be needed 2. a higher dosage of the amphetamine may be needed 3. the amphetamine can be substituted as the antidepressant drug 4. the amphetamine is not given within 14 days of the MAOI

the amphetamine is not given within 14 days of the MAOI

The parent of a child with ADHD asks why a stimulant is used on a child who is too stimulated already. The best answer is: 1. the stimulation to the pleasure center relaxes the child 2. the drug strengthens the nerve pathway to focus concentration 3. the drug stimulates the child to wear him down enough to focus 4. the drug is additive with the behavior to cancel out the bad behaviors

the drug strengthens the nerve pathway to focus concentration

Which of the following medications may be taken with food? 1. erythromycin 2. doxycycline 3. demeclocycline 4. tigecycline

tigecycline

History of which disease is significant when administering a second-generation antipsychotic? 1. hypertension 2. liver failure 3. type 2 diabetes 4. cardiac failure

type 2 diabetes

The nurse instructs the client taking an MAOI not to eat foods containing ______. 1. glutamine 2. sugar 3. tyramine 4. large amounts of iron

tyramine

When mafenide (Sulfamylon) is applied to a burned area, the nurse _______. 1. first covers the burned area with a sterile compress 2. irrigates the area with normal saline solution 3. warns the client that stinging or burning may be felt 4. instructs the client to drink two to three extra glasses of water each day

warns the client that stinging or burning may be felt

When taking levofloxacin the client is taught to _______. 1. wear sun protection whenever outside 2. assess for hearing loss 3. carry an EpiPen at all times 4. eat more fruits and vegetables

wear sun protection whenever outside

On an overcast day, the nurse instructs the client taking sulfonamides to _______. 1. wear sunscreen 2. sunbathe without fear of skin reaction 3. stay indoors with blinds shut 4. protect feet from harm

wear sunscreen


Conjuntos de estudio relacionados

OB Gyn C4 Ch3 - AL: Congenital Anomalies of Female Genital System

View Set

AP LIT Exam- "Advice to a Prophet"

View Set

Accounting test 2 multiple choice

View Set

Hazard Communication: Right to Understand (GHS)

View Set