Pharmacology - Prep U - Chapter 9

A client has been on an antibiotic for two weeks for treatment of an infection. The client asks the nurse why a superinfection has been caused by this medication. What is the nurse's best response?

"Antibiotics can disrupt the normal bacteria in your body, causing another infection to occur." Superinfections are caused when the antibiotic destroys the normal flora within the body and a secondary infection occurs. The infection is caused by a different bacterial or fungal infection.

Beta-lactam antibiotics, such as penicillins and cephalosporins, fight infection by inhibiting development of the causative bacteria. What specific component development do these drugs affect?

Cell wall synthesis Beta-lactam antibacterial drugs inhibit synthesis of bacterial cell walls by binding to proteins in bacterial cell membranes. This binding produces a defective cell wall that allows intracellular contents to leak out. These do no affect DNA replication or cell division.

Which of the following are examples of fluoroquinolones? Select all that apply.

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) Levofloxacin (Levaquin) The fluoroquinolones include ciprofloxacin (Cipro), moxifloxacin (Avelox), ofloxacin (Floxin), and levofloxacin (Levaquin)

Sulfonamides are bacteriostatic against a wide range of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, but they are becoming less useful for what reason?

Increasing resistance Sulfonamides are bacteriostatic against a wide range of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, although increasing resistance is making them less useful.

The pharmacology instructor is discussing antimicrobials with the nursing class. What would the instructor tell the students is the mechanism of action of some antimicrobials?

Inhibiting cell wall synthesis Some antibiotics inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis or activation of enzymes that disrupt bacterial cell walls. Therefore, Options A, B, and D are incorrect.

Michael, 25 years old, has had mitral valve regurgitation since age four, after having rheumatic fever. Michael is planning to go to his dentist to have his teeth cleaned. Because of Michael's history he will need to take antibiotics in conjunction with this procedure to prevent bacteremia. Which class of antibiotics will Michael most likely receive if he has no allergies?

Penicillin Penicillin G may also be used as prophylaxis in special patient populations to prevent bacterial endocarditis prior to procedures likely to produce temporary bacteremia, such as dental procedures. These patients include those with prosthetic heart valves, mitral valve prolapse, most congenital heart diseases, and acquired valvular heart disease. It may also be used as prophylaxis in patients with recurrent rheumatic fever or rheumatic heart disease.

Which of the following antitubercular drugs are used during the initial treatment phase of tuberculosis? Select all that apply:

Rifampin Isoniazid Ethambutol Pyrazinamide The initial phase involves using the following drugs: isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide, along with ethambutol.

A nurse is caring for a patient undergoing the second phase of standard TB treatment. The nurse knows that which of the following combinations of drugs need to be administered to the client?

Rifampin and isoniazid The nurse knows that a combination of Rifampin and isoniazid drugs should be used during the second phase of standard treatment. Isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide are not used together as combination drugs in the second phase of standard treatment. Dapsone is used for leprosy and cannot be used in combination with isoniazid or any other drug for TB.

A client with a complex medical history is showing signs and symptoms of sepsis. What aspect of this client's health history would rule out the safe and effective use of an aminoglycoside antibiotic?

The client has chronic renal failure Renal failure would preclude the use of an aminoglycoside. Nonadherence must always be addressed, but this client variable is not specific to aminoglycosides. Neither latex allergies nor type 2 diabetes would necessarily rule out the use of an aminoglycoside.

A client diagnosed with malaria has been prescribed treatment with sulfadiazine. The nurse should encourage the client to increase consumption of what dietary component?

fluids When this medication is used, it is imperative that the client maintain a fluid intake that allows for an output of 1500 mL of urine in 24 hours. While the client should attempt to consume a healthy well-balanced diet, fluid intake is vitally important.

What medical diagnosis is often treated with sulfasalazine therapy? Select all that apply.

rheumatoid arthritis ulcerative colitis Sulfasalazine is used for ulcerative colitis and rheumatoid arthritis. This drug is not normally used to treat endocarditis, cellulitis, or urosepsis.

When conducting health education for a client prescribed an oral penicillin for an infection caused by gram-negative bacilli, the nurse should emphasize which instructions?

the need to take the medication on an empty stomach Most penicillins should be best taken on an empty stomach since less medication is absorbed with food in the stomach. Increased fluid intake is not normally necessary. A rash is an unexpected finding that should be reported promptly. The client should take the full course of antibiotics to support the effectiveness of the medication.

A nurse is teaching a client about the medication regimen surrounding fluoroquinolones. Which statement made by the client would indicate the need for additional education?

"I will only drink enough water to swallow the drug." Clients taking fluoroquinilones should increase, not limit, their fluid intake. It is important that the client take all of the prescribed antibiotics and understand adverse reactions, such as abdominal pain. Difficulty breathing may indicate hypersensitivity and is an emergency.

The client has been taking levofloxacin IV since admission 12 hours ago for a urinary tract infection. The nurse assesses the client's temperature at 99.8ºF. What is the nurse's best response?

Continue to monitor vital signs. The provider should be notified if the client's temperature is greater than 101ºF. The nurse cannot discontinue or administer additional doses without a provider's order. The body's normal defense to infection is an elevated temp until it reaches 101 degrees. Only then would an antipyretic be given if ordered.

A client has been prescribed ciprofloxacin IV for the treatment of cellulitis. After initiating the infusion of the client's first scheduled dose, the client develops a pronounced rash on the chest and arms. How should the nurse respond initially to this event?

Discontinue the infusion and inform the care provider promptly. Severe hypersensitivity reactions have occurred with the administration of fluoroquinolones. The nurse discontinues the antibiotic immediately if skin rash or other signs or symptoms occur. Administration of acetylcysteine or diphenhydramine is not indicated. Slowing down the rate of infusion would not address the problem as it relates to exposure to the medication. Neither the administration of acetylcysteine nor diphenhydramine is indicated initially. Acetylcysteine is prescribed to treat thick mucus lung secretions. Treatment with diphenhydramine would be ineffective if the ciprofloxacin were not first discontinued.

The tetracyclines are effective against a wide range of which type of organisms?

Gram-positive and gram-negative organisms The tetracyclines are effective against a wide range of gram-positive and gram-negative organisms, although they are usually not drugs of choice.

A 72-year-old patient with TB is undergoing standard treatment in a health care facility. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform during ongoing assessment of the treatment?

Monitor for appearance of adverse reactions. The nurse should monitor for the appearance of adverse reactions in the patient during ongoing assessment of the treatment. The nurse should monitor vital signs of the patient every four hours and not every 24 hours when the patient is hospitalized. The nurse should assess the patient's history of contacts as part of the pre-administration assessment and not as part of the ongoing assessment. DOT can only be used by the nurse to administer antitubercular drugs when the patient is at home, at his place of employment, or in school. DOT is not used when the patient is hospitalized.

Which of the following should a nurse carefully monitor in a patient who has been administered cephalosporin as well as aminoglycosides for a wound infection?

Nephrotoxicity When cephalosporin is administered with aminoglycosides, it increases the risk for nephrotoxicity and should be closely monitored. Nausea is an adverse reaction of cephalosporins in patients with gastrointestinal tract infection. The risk of bleeding increases when cephalosporin is administered with oral anticoagulants. Risk for respiratory difficulty increases if alcohol is consumed within 72 hours after certain cephalosporin administration.

The nurse is giving discharge instructions to a woman who will be taking amoxicillin for treatment of acute otitis media. The nurse teaches the client that which symptom indicates the development of a superinfection and should be reported to the physician?

Vaginal itching and discharge A vaginal infection in a client who is taking amoxicillin is an example of a superinfection. The nausea and abdominal pain are adverse effects of the medication, and swelling and itching of the throat are an example of possible allergy to the drug.

After teaching a group of nursing students about the different classes of drugs, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify drugs that slow or retard the multiplication of bacteria as which types of medication?

bacteriostatic Drugs that slow or retard the multiplication of bacteria are known as bacteriostatic. Drugs that destroy the bacteria are referred to as bactericidal. Bacteriostationary keeps the bacteria in place, and bacteriophage uses enzymatic substances to destroy the bacteria.

Which medication is the drug of choice for Legionnaires disease?

erythromycin Erythromycin is the prototype macrolide used to treat Legionnaires disease. Loxapine hydrochloride is an antipsychotic agent. Meclizine is used to treat nausea and dizziness. Pravastatin is used to treat hypercholesterolemia.

A youngster has just returned home from the family's tropical vacation and is now reporting worsening tenderness in the right ear. When the child is diagnosed with otitis externa, what causative factor of this infection should the nurse focus upon?

frequent swimming and water sports while the child was on vacation People whose ears are frequently exposed to moisture are more prone to the development of otitis externa. Swimming is a more likely cause of infection than pressure changes, foodborne pathogens, or impaired immunity.

After teaching a group of students about the indications for use for aminoglycosides, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which type of infection as a primary indication?

gram-negative infections Aminoglycosides are used primarily in the treatment of infections caused by gram-negative microorganisms. Aminoglycosides are not effective on gram-positive bacteria. Since aminoglycosides are antibacterial, they are not effective on fungal or viral infections.

A client is to receive rifampin. Which would be most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan for this client?

"Your urine or sweat may become orange in color." This drug causes body fluids to turn orange. The client needs to be informed of this to avoid being frightened when it occurs. Any drug can cause a hypersensitivity reaction. Although this information is important, it is not the priority. GI adverse effects are common. Although this instruction would be important, it would not be the priority. Headache and dizziness are common CNS effects of the drug that do not need to be reported.

A client has been on sulfonamide therapy for the last six weeks. What client report may cause the health care provider to discontinue the sulfonamide?

10 lb weight loss GI side effects with sulfonamide therapy may be mild, such as decreased appetite, inability to eat spicy foods (due to stomatitis), or loose stools for two days. But the drug may need to be discontinued for more serious problems such as pronounced weight loss.

A client is caring for an 8-year-old child who weighs 30 kg. The health care provider orders gentamicin IM for the client. The recommended dosage range is 2-2.5 mg/kg q8h. What is the maximum amount of gentamicin the client will receive in a day?

225 mg Each dose is limited to 75 mg of gentamicin (30 kg × 2.5 mg/kg = 75 mg). Since three doses will be administered daily (i.e., q8h, or "every 8 hours"), the client will receive a maximum total dose of 225 mg per day.

A nurse is providing education to a client who is taking INH. The nurse is teaching the client to avoid which foods?

Cheese, dairy products, and bananas Clients who take INH should avoid eating tyramine, histamine-rich foods, and foods containing caffeine. Also, the client should be told to avoid consuming alcohol on a daily basis. Cheese, dairy products, chicken liver, beer, ale, bananas, and figs are rich in tyramine. Tuna, brine, and yeast extracts are rich in histamine. Clients need not refrain from eating potatoes, root vegetables, chicken, fish, or citrus fruits.

A female client is admitted to the critical care unit with sepsis related to a contaminated central line. The health care provider orders intravenous beta-lactam antimicrobials. The client's current laboratory report reflects renal impairment. What would the nurse expect the provider to do?

Decrease the drug dose. Beta-lactam antimicrobials are commonly used in critical care units to treat pneumonia, bloodstream infections, wound infections, and other infections. Renal, hepatic, and other organ functions should be monitored in critically ill clients, and drug dosages should be reduced when indicated.

A client is receiving rifampin and isoniazid in combination for treatment of tuberculosis. What would the nurse need to monitor closely?

Liver function studies When rifampin and isoniazid are used in combination, the possibility of toxic liver reactions increases, requiring close monitoring. Urine culture would not need to be monitored. Audiometric studies would be monitored for clients receiving ototoxic drugs such as aminoglycosides. Although pulmonary function studies may be indicated to evaluate the client's respiratory function, these would not be as important as monitoring liver function studies.

A patient with TB is admitted to a health care facility. The nurse is required to administer an antitubercular drug through the parenteral route to this patient. Which of the following precautions should the nurse take when administering frequent parenteral injections?

Rotate injection sites for frequent parenteral injections. The nurse should be careful to rotate injection sites when administering frequent parenteral injections. At the time of each injection, the nurse inspects previous injection sites for signs of swelling, redness, and tenderness. The nurse should monitor any signs of liver dysfunction monthly in patients who are being administered antitubercular drugs. The nurse should ensure that pyridoxine, and not streptomycin, is administered to the patient to promote nutrition, but this is only administered if the patient has been living in impoverished conditions and is malnourished. The nurse should monitor patient's vital signs every four hours and not once every morning.

A 35-year-old man being treated with isoniazid (INH) for exposure to TB has this medical history: diabetes mellitus type 2, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and coronary artery disease. He drinks one to two glasses of wine on the weekend and smokes two packs of cigarettes per day. Which adverse reaction should the nurse alert the client to report to his health care provider right away?

numbness and tingling in his feet INH should also be given with caution to clients with diabetes mellitus, malnutrition, or alcoholism because its effects (antagonism or increased excretion) on pyridoxine (vitamin B6) can cause peripheral neuropathy in these clients. Pyridoxine may be given concurrently with INH to decrease the risk for this adverse effect. Another frequent adverse effect is peripheral neuropathy. This effect may cause paresthesias in the hands and feet. As previously mentioned, malnourished people and those with diabetes and alcoholism have a higher risk for this adverse effect.

What event triggers the development of a superinfection?

proliferation of antibiotic-resistant microorganisms Superinfection is an infection after the occurrence of a previous infection, typically caused by microorganisms that are resistant to the antibiotics used earlier. None of the other options accurately describe this condition as it is associated with antibiotic-resistant microorganisms.

A client who takes zinc daily is diagnosed with a severe infection and is ordered levofloxacin (Levaquin). The nurse is aware that taking these two drugs may have what affect on the antibiotic?

Decreased absorption Antacids, iron salts and zinc can cause decreased absorption of the antibiotic. There is no affect on elimination of the antibiotic.

A 49-year-old client is diagnosed with TB. The client has a history of alcoholism but has been sober for 3 months now. The client has been prescribed INH. What should the nurse ensure is obtained before initiating the therapy?

baseline liver function test values' For a TB client, the nurse should obtain baseline liver function test values and schedule serial liver function tests throughout therapy. In addition, a nurse should ensure a baseline A1C evaluation for clients who are diabetics, because INH may cause hyperglycemia. Clients with preexisting anemias should have a baseline complete blood count (CBC), because they are at risk for hematologic disorders. For clients with a history of seizures, perform a baseline neurologic examination. Also assess baseline visual acuity. All other assessments such as height, weight, serum glucose level, and bone mass are not applicable to INH therapy.

A client has been treated several times for a recurring ear infection with ofloxacin. The nurse instructs the client to look for side effects from the prolonged use of the antibiotic and informs the client that this is known as:

superinfection Prolonged use of otic preparations containing an antibiotic may result in a superinfection (an overgrowth of bacterial or fungal microorganisms not affected by the antibiotic being administered).

A 5-year-old child has been brought to the clinic with signs and symptoms that are consistent with otitis externa. What assessment question should the nurse ask to address the etiology of this health problem?

"Has he been swimming a lot in the last little while?" Otitis externa in children is often attributable to moisture in the ear, often because of swimming. Poor hygiene, interaction with animals, and lack of immunizations are not likely to be relevant factors.

A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) has begun multi-drug therapy. The client has asked the nurse why it is necessary to take several different drugs. How should the nurse respond to the client's question?

"The use of multiple drugs prevents the development of drug-resistant TB." Use of multiple drugs to treat TB is necessary to prevent the development of drug-resistant TB. This approach to treatment is not necessitated by delays in testing, questionable diagnostic results, or the need to hasten the course of treatment.

A nurse is caring for a 39-year-old client who is taking INH, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. The client reports that her urine is red. What is the most likely cause of this discoloration?

Adverse effect of rifampin Rifampin causes a harmless red-orange discoloration of urine, tears, saliva, and other body secretions.

A nurse works in a community setting and follows clients who have TB. Which clients would likely require the most follow-up from rifampin therapy?

An HIV-positive client The nurse should pay special attention to the HIV-positive client because this client will require rifampin therapy for a longer period of time than the other clients. An HIV-positive person is immunocompromised, and it will take longer to fight the infection. This could increase the difficulty of adherence to the drug regimen. In addition, many of the drugs used to treat HIV are contraindicated in clients who take rifampin. Rifampin can be safely administered to nursing mothers, those with cancer, and people over 65 given certain conditions. However, their therapy should not be longer than normally required unless complications occur.

A patient with TB has been admitted to a health care facility. When providing instructions for the patient teaching related to antitubercular drugs, which instructions should the nurse provide in order to avoid complications in the patient's GI tract?

Avoid the consumption of alcohol. The nurse should instruct the patient to avoid the consumption of alcohol since alcoholism compounds patient's difficulties and complicates the general condition of the patient's gastrointestinal tract. The nurse should instruct the patient to take the prescribed dose of Ethambutol without regard to food and to take the prescribed Pyrazinamide along with food. The nurse should instruct the patient to avoid doubling the dose in case the earlier dose was missed.

A nurse monitoring a client taking penicillin should be aware of the common GI tract adverse reactions, including which of the following? Select all that apply.

Diarrhea Gastritis Glossitis Stomatitis A nurse monitoring a client taking penicillin should be aware of the common GI tract adverse reactions, including glossitis, stomatitis, gastritis, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain.

Oral ampicillin has been ordered for a client whose urinary tract infection will be treated in a home setting. When providing antibiotic teaching to this client, the nurse should stress which instruction?

Drink a full glass of water when taking a dose of the drug. Clients taking penicillins should take oral doses with a full glass of water to ensure sufficient hydration while taking the medication. The drugs should otherwise be taken on an empty stomach. Tapering is unnecessary, and it is not advised to take the drug with diphenhydramine in an effort to reduce the allergy risk.

A client is diagnosed with latent tuberculosis infection. The nurse expects that the treatment plan will include which drug?

INH INH is the treatment of choice for LTBI.

A client is prescribed penicillin V orally for a strep throat. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

It inhibits cell wall synthesis. Beta-lactam antibacterial drugs inhibit synthesis of bacterial cell walls by binding to proteins in bacterial cell membranes. Penicillin V does not inhibit protein synthesis. Penicillin V does not inhibit protein synthesis, cause mutations, or lower the pH of a bacterium's cellular contents.

What drug belongs to the group of carbapenems?

Primaxin The group consists of three drugs: Imipenem-cilastatin (Primaxin), Meropenem (Merrem), and Ertapenem (Invanz). Gemifloxacin is a Fluoroquinolones, Cefuroxime is a second-generation cephalosporin, and demeclocycline is a tetracycline.

The health care provider is selecting an antibiotic for a client with a known penicillin allergy. The provider knows that cephalosporins are a poor choice for this client because cephalosporins:

can cause allergic reactions in clients who are allergic to penicillins. Clients who are allergic to penicillins may also be allergic to cephalosporins. Although this cross-allergenicity (allergy to a drug of another class with similar chemical structure) is rare, cephalosporins are not typically administered to clients who have had life-threatening allergic reactions to a penicillin.

A client, hospitalized with active tuberculosis, is receiving antitubercular drug therapy. When it becomes apparent that the client is not responding to the medications, what condition will the primary health care provider identify as a possible cause?

drug-resistant tuberculosis. A client who is being treated with antitubercular drug therapy and is not responding to the medication regime is most likely experiencing drug-resistant tuberculosis. Human immunodeficiency virus causes tuberculosis to move more rapidly. This scenario does not provide any indication that the tuberculosis is related to the diminished client response. The scenario does not identify methicillin-resistant or vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.

A client comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. The nurse notes a sunburn-like appearance to the client's skin. The client's history reveals the use of ciprofloxacin. The nurse interprets which adverse effect regarding this finding?

photosensitivity A superinfection refers to the overgrowth of bacterial or fungal microorganisms not affected by the antibiotic administered. Pseudomembranous colitis is a severe, life-threatening form of diarrhea that occurs when normal flora of the bowel is eliminated and replaced with Clostridium difficile (C. diff) bacteria. Anaphylactic reaction is a severe exaggerated allergic reaction.

A 7-year-old child has been taking tetracycline for a bacterial infection. The nurse will be sure to inform the parents that this drug could cause

staining of permanent teeth. Tetracycline is an example of a drug that can adversely affect a body system during a phase of child development. If administered to a child between the ages of 4 months and 8 years, it can stain the child's permanent teeth. Discolored urine, deep muscle pain, and sleep deprivation are not associated with tetracycline.

A client, being treated for latent tuberculosis (TB) on an out-client basis, tells the nurse, "I've been feeling pretty good lately, so I haven't actually been all that consistent with taking my drugs." Subsequent health education by the nurse should focus on what subject?

the need to consistently take the prescribed drugs in order to cure TB Consistent adherence to treatment is imperative to ensure successful treatment of TB. Nonadherence leads to resistance and unsuccessful treatment, not increased adverse effects. Nonadherence has no relationship with matching dosage with signs and symptoms. Antivirals are ineffective against TB.