Pharmacology test 1, semester 3

¡Supera tus tareas y exámenes ahora con Quizwiz!

Which drug will be prescribed for a patient who presents with erectile dysfunction? finasteride alprostadil testosterone fluoxymesterone

alprostadil Alprostadil is used in the treatment of erectile dysfunction. A single injection into the base of the penis (intracavernous) is also used in the diagnosis of erectile dysfunction. Finasteride is used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia. Testosterone and fluoxymesterone are used to treat male hypogonadism.

A 67-year-old man is prescribed testosterone. Which sites may be used for the reservoir patch? Select all that apply. back thighs shoulder abdomen

back thighs abdomen Testosterone has to be applied to clean, dry, and shaved areas for optimal skin contact. Places like the back, thighs, and abdomen are the best areas for administering the patch. Bony areas, such as the shoulder, should be avoided; they restrain the absorption process of the testosterone.

testosterone has which functions in the body? select all that apply fat metabolism bone development production of red blood cels excretion of sodium and potassium development of secondary sexual characteristics

bone development production of red blood cells development of secondary sexual characteristics Testosterone is responsible for bone and tissue development, production of red blood cells, and, in the male, development of secondary sexual characteristics. Testosterone does not play a role in fat metabolism or in the excretion of sodium and potassium ions; instead, it helps in the distribution of fat and retention of sodium and potassium ions.

Sildenafil is used for which conditions? select all that apply hypoglycemia liver disorder hypothyroidism erectile dysfunction pulmonary hypertension

erectile dysfunction pulmonary hypertension Sildenafil is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, and it causes vasodilation, thereby enhancing the blood flow. Therefore it is commonly used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. Sildenafil does not alter insulin levels, liver functioning, or thyroid hormone levels. Therefore sildenafil is not prescribed for the treatment of hypoglycemia, liver disorders, or hypothyroidism.

Which prescription concerns the nurse for a patient taking estradiol? ferritin levothyroxine metformin amoxicillin

levothyroxine Estradiol may interfere with thyroid hormone absorption. The patient should be instructed to avoid concurrent use. Estradiol does not interfere with the absorption of ferritin, metformin, or amoxicillin.

Which contraceptive device is most likely to prevent the transmission of sexual transmitted disease? male condom spermicidal agent intrauterine device cervical diaphragm

male condoms Male condoms are most likely to prevent the transmission of a sexually transmitted disease because they provide the most barrier protection. A spermicidal agent kills sperm. An intrauterine device is placed in the uterus. A cervical diaphragm is not as effective as condoms.

Which medication is sued to treat amenorrhea? estradiol denosumab alendronate medroxyprogesterone acetate

medroxyprogesterone acetate Medroxyprogesterone acetate is a progestational medication used to treat amenorrhea. Estradiol is an estrogenic medication used to treat ovarian failure. Denosumab is used to treat osteoporosis. Alendronate is an oral bisphosphonate used in the treatment of osteoporosis.

Which drug prescription does the nurse report to the primary health care provider if the patient is taking tadalafil? 1 Ibuprofen 2 Famotidine 3 Furosemide 4 nitroglycerin

nitroglycerin The major contraindication to the use of tadalafil is concurrent nitrate therapy because this can result in severe hypotension. It includes the use of amyl nitrate, sublingual or topical nitroglycerin, and oral nitrate derivatives such as isosorbide mononitrates and dinitrates. Ibuprofen, famotidine, and furosemide are not contraindicated in patients taking tadalafil.

Which medication is used to induce labor? oxytocin terbutaline methylergonovine magnesium sulfate

oxytocin Oxytocin is a uterine stimulant that is used to induce uterine contractions for labor. Terbutaline is a medication used to arrest preterm labor. Methylergonovine is used to treat postpartum hemorrhage. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat gestational hypertension.

The nurse is explaining the effects of estrogen therapy to a patient. Which effect mentioned by the patient indicates a need for additional teaching? prevention of beast cancer treatment of prostate cancer decrease in vasomotor symptoms improvement of atrophic vaginitis

prevention of breast cancer Estrogen therapy increases the chances of breast cancer in women. Estrogen therapy leads to improvement of atrophic vaginitis, female hypogonadism, insufficient primary ovarian function, abnormal uterine bleeding, and severe vasomotor symptoms in women. It is also used to treat prostate cancer.

. The nurse is about to administer dinoprostone to a patient. Which condition is this medication used for? premature labor accelerated labor postpartum hemorrhage termination of pregnancy

termination of pregnancy The use of dinoprostone or other prostaglandin E2 drugs is indicated in specific situations requiring termination of pregnancy. Dinoprostone is not used during premature labor, accelerated labor, or postpartum hemorrhage.

Which medications listed in a patient's medical history concern the nurse for a patient prescribed raloxifene? Select all that apply. warfarin atenolol levothyroxine multivitamin cholestyramine

warfarin cholestyramine Raloxifene can decrease the effects of warfarin, and cholestyramine decreases the absorption of raloxifene. Atenolol, levothyroxine, and multivitamins can be taken with raloxifene without interaction.

Which medication is most likely to promote follicular maturation in an infertile female patient? Clomiphene Progesterone Ethinyl estradiol Choriogonadotropin alfa

Clomiphene Clomiphene facilitates follicular maturation by promoting the release of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone from the pituitary gland. Progesterone is more likely to be used to maintain a pregnancy. Ethinyl estradiol is a steroidal estrogen used in hormone replacement. Choriogonadotropin alfa causes ovulation from mature follicles.

A 22-year-old patient has presented to her primary care provider for her scheduled Pap smear. Abnormal results of this diagnostic test may imply infection with: HPV Chlamydial trachomatis Candida albicans trichomonad vaginalis

HPV a Pap smear does not test directly for HPV, abnormal cervical cells are very much related to HPV. Abnormal Pap smear does not indicate chlamydia, itch, or candidiasis

Which action of finasteride helps in the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy? Relieves male urine retention Relaxes the prostatic sphincter Increases the penile blood flow Inhibits the growth of the prostate

Inhibits the growth of the prostate Finasteride promotes the regression of prostate epithelial tissues, resulting in decreased mechanical obstruction of the urethra through the inhibition of 5-alpha reductase. Finasteride has no effect on urinary stasis. The prostatic sphincter does not exist. Finasteride has no effect on penile blood flow.

The nurse at the fertility clinic is instructing a patient about the adverse effects of clomiphene. Which effects should the nurse instruct the patient to report to the health care provider? select all that apply anxiety hirsutism dizziness bradycardia blurred vision

anxiety dizziness blurred vision

A 46-year-old female patient who complains of hot flashes, fatigue, and sleep disorders is unwilling to start hormonal therapy. Which is the best nursing intervention for this patient? ask the patient to include soy in her diet persuade to start the med advice the patient to have quiet activity tell the benefits and risks fo the therapy

ask the patient to include soy in her diet

Which medication is most likely to promote follicular maturation in an infertile female patient? clomiphene progesterone ethinyl estradiol cloriogonadotropin alfa

clomiphene Clomiphene facilitates follicular maturation by promoting the release of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone from the pituitary gland. Progesterone is more likely to be used to maintain a pregnancy. Ethinyl estradiol is a steroidal estrogen used in hormone replacement. Choriogonadotropin alfa causes ovulation from mature follicles.

Which black box warning for oral contraceptives would the nurse teach to a patient? select all that apply dementia breast cancer ovarian cancer cigarette smoking cardiovascular disease serious cardiovascular events

dementia breast cancer cigarette smoking cardiovascular disease serious cardiovascular events Oral contraceptives have a black box warning regarding dementia, breast cancer, ovarian cancer, cigarette smoking, cardiovascular disease, and serious cardiovascular events. Ovarian cancer is not a black box warning for oral contraceptives.

Which outcome is a benefit of synthetic androgens? 1 Prolonged erection 2 Increased hair growth 3 Relief from fluid retention 4 Enhancement of the male libido

enhancement of male libido Synthetic androgen, administered through androgen-replacement therapy, helps treat testicular failure in a male patient. It helps improve the performance of the male libido. Prolonged erection and fluid retention are adverse effects of androgens. Finasteride causes increased hair growth.

Which medication helps reduce postpartum uterine hemorrhage? megestrol raloxifene clomiphene methylergonovine

methylergonovine Methylergonovine is a uterine stimulant used to treat postpartum hemorrhage. Megestrol is a progestational medication used to treat uterine bleeding. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to prevent the occurrence of postmenopausal osteoporosis. Clomiphene is used to treat infertility.

The nurse observes that a female patient is at risk for postpartum uterine hemorrhage. Which medication would the nurse discuss with the health care provider to initiate? estradiol megestrol alendronate methylergonovine

methylergonovine Methylergonovine is used to prevent postpartum uterine hemorrhage. Estradiol is used for relieving vasomotor symptoms of menopause, female castration, and ovarian failure. Megestrol is used in the treatment of recurrent, inoperable, or metastatic endometrial or breast cancer. Alendronate is an oral bisphosphonate used for preventing bone loss.

Which medication is used to treat baldness in both men and women? sildenafil minoxidil finasteride methyltestosterone

minoxidil Minoxidil treats baldness in both men and women. Sildenafil treats erectile dysfunction in men. Finasteride treats baldness in men. Methyltestosterone treats postpubertal cryptorchidism.

What is adverse effect associated with estrogen therapy? nausea dry skin weight loss higher-pitches voice

nausea The most common undesirable effect of estrogen use is nausea. Photosensitivity may also occur with estrogen therapy. One common dermatologic effect of note is chloasma, not dry skin. Weight loss and a higher-pitched voice are not caused by estrogen therapy.

A patient has been taking sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. The patient reports episodes of dizziness and fainting spells after using this drug. For which other drug should the nurse assess while taking the drug history of the patient? nitrates anticoagulants antibiotics alpha agonists

nitrates

The nurse is planning to administer vardenafil to a patient with a past history of a myocardial infarction (MI). Which intervention would the nurse perform first? assess blood pressure perform thorough history including meds instruct patient to take all cardiac meds call to change prescription

perform thorough history including meds Vardenafil is safe for patients with a past history of MI; however, it is contraindicated with nitrate use. The nurse would teach the patient to avoid use of the medication if a nitrate medication is currently in use. Cardiac medications should not be held prior to dosing of vardenafil, as this constitutes increased risk of an adverse cardiovascular event, especially in a patient who has already experienced an MI. Vardenafil is a long-acting medication and, as such, is not to be taken more than once daily. Mild chest pain, or any type of chest pain, is not an expected side effect of the medication and should be reported to the prescriber immediately.

What is the purpose of giving estrogen therapy in combination with progestins? treat ovarian cancer treat breast cancer prevent endometrial cancer reduce chances of vaginal cancer

prevent endometrial cancer To reduce the risk of endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, the concurrent use of a progestin for 10 to 14 days of the cycle is recommended for women with an intact uterus. Estrogens are administered to prevent complications from ovarian failure but not to treat ovarian cancer. Estrogen therapy raises recurrence risk if administered to patients with breast cancer. Vaginal cancer is treated with surgery or chemotherapy.

testosterone drugs are in which pharmacologic class? schedule 1 schedule II schedule III schedule IV

schedule III Testosterone, a naturally occurring androgenic hormone produced primarily by the testes, regulates male sexual development. Most androgens are classified as Schedule III drugs in the United States. They have less abuse potential than Schedule II drugs and a moderate dependence liability. Schedule I and II drugs have a high potential for abuse. Schedule IV drugs have less abuse potential than Schedule III drugs.

Which clinical manifestations can be observed in a patient who is receiving teriparatide therapy? Select all that apply. 1 Vertigo 2 Joint pain 3 Chest pain 4 Hot flashes 5 Loss of appetite

vertigo joint pain chest pain Teriparatide is used to treat osteoporosis. Adverse reactions of this medication include vertigo (dizziness), joint pain (arthralgia), and chest pain. Hot flashes occur as an adverse effect of raloxifene therapy. Reduced appetite is an adverse effect of calcitonin therapy.

The nurse is teaching students about applying a transdermal estradiol patch. Which statement made by a student suggests effective learning? - "Rotate the patch every 2 weeks." - "Rotate the patch at the same time each day." - "Apply the patch to the breast area for better absorption." - "Apply the patch to the lower abdomen for better absorption."

- "Apply the patch to the lower abdomen for better absorption." The estradiol transdermal patch should be applied as prescribed, which is usually one patch applied once or twice weekly to the lower abdomen and not to the breast or chest areas. The patch is not rotated unless prescribed by the health care provider and is changed once or twice each week, not daily or biweekly.

A 46-year-old female patient who complains of hot flashes, fatigue, and sleep disorders is unwilling to start hormonal therapy. Which nursing intervention is appropriate for this patient? - Persuade the patient to start the therapy. - Ask the patient to include soy in her diet. - Advise the patient to engage in quiet activities. - Inform the patient about the benefits and risks of the therapy.

- Ask the patient to include soy in her diet. The isoflavones in soy are chemically similar to the female hormone estradiol. It helps to reduce menopausal symptoms in perimenopausal women. Hence the patient can be asked to include soy in her diet. It is ethically incorrect to persuade the patient; instead, the nurse can assess the reasons why the patient is unwilling to take the therapy and clear any misunderstandings that the patient has. Asking the patient to engage in quiet activities will not help diminish menopausal symptoms. Informing the patient about the benefits and risks of the therapy will not help to convince the patient if she is not interested in the therapy.

Which drugs can cause both syncope and dyspnea as adverse reactions? 1 Androgens 2 Alpha1-adrenergic blockers 3 5-alpha reductase inhibitors 4 Topical peripheral vasodilators

Alpha1-adrenergic blockers Alpha1-adrenergic blockers are associated with the adverse effects of producing syncope and dyspnea. Changes in libido, anxiety, and depression occur in patients prescribed androgens. 5-Alpha reductase inhibitors cause the adverse effects of hypotension, drowsiness, and dizziness. Topical peripheral vasodilators are associated with precipitating dermatologic reactions, such as erythema, pruritus, and eczema.

Which medication is contraindicated in patients who have osteoporosis and a history of renal dysfunction? 1 Calcitonin 2 Tamoxifen 3 Ibandronate 4 Denosumab

Denosumab Denosumab prevents bone resorption in patients who have osteoporosis; however, it is contraindicated for patients who have a history of renal dysfunction because it increases the risk for renal failure. Calcitonin is used to treat osteoporosis and is contraindicated in patients who are allergic to salmon because it is derived from salmon. Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to treat osteoporosis and is contraindicated in patients who have deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism because it increases the risk for thrombosis. Ibandronate is used in the treatment of osteoporosis and is contraindicated if the patient has hypocalcemia and esophageal dysfunction.

A female patient with strep throat is taking amoxicillin with clavulanate to treat the infection. Because the patient also takes an oral contraceptive (OC), how long would the nurse instruct the patient to use a different method of birth control? 1 For at least 1 month after starting the antibiotic 2 During the entire period the patient is taking the antibiotic 3 Until three throat cultures have been negative for the pathogen 4 For at least 6 weeks, starting at the end of the antibiotic regimen

For at least 1 month after starting the antibiotic Because antibiotics, especially penicillin and cephalosporins, can impair the action of OCs, the nurse would instruct the patient to use another method of birth control for at least 1 month after starting the antibiotic. The effect of OCs is reduced when antibiotic therapy is started. Hence using birth control only at the end of the antibiotic regimen is not effective. If three throat cultures are negative for the pathogen, it indicates a need to stop the antibiotic therapy, not to resume the use of birth control.

The nurse is assessing a patient who is taking fluoxymesterone to treat reduced testosterone levels. The patient has gained weight 1 week after beginning the medication. Which side effect caused the weight gain in the patient? 1 Impaired liver function 2 Impaired thyroid activity 3 Increased fluid retention 4 Impaired lipid metabolism

Increased fluid retention Fluoxymesterone is an androgenic drug that may cause fluid retention in some patients. Thus in this patient, fluid retention would have been the most probable cause of weight gain. Impaired liver function is a complication associated with anabolic steroids and not fluoxymesterone. Impaired thyroid activity may cause weight gain; however, androgenic drugs do not affect the thyroid activity. Impaired lipid metabolism is also a complication associated with androgens that causes elevated cholesterol levels. However, weight gain from high cholesterol levels takes place over a long period of time.

The nurse is assessing a professional weightlifter who has been banned from practicing weightlifting because of drug doping. The patient's reports reveal excessive concentration of nandrolone in the blood. Which risk would the nurse interpret from these findings? Select all that apply. 1 Anemia 2 Infertility 3 Muscle atrophy 4 Cardiovascular disorder 5 Malabsorption syndrome

Infertility Cardiovascular disorder Nandrolone is an anabolic steroid often abused by athletes for its muscle-building properties. These drugs are known to inhibit sperm production and increase cholesterol levels. Thus sterility and cardiovascular disorders are the consequences associated with the improper use of anabolic steroids. Nandrolone promotes the anabolic processes in the body and also helps in erythropoiesis; thus, it is medically prescribed for anemia. Anabolic steroids do not cause muscle atrophy; they build muscle. Anabolic steroids promote weight gain. Malabsorption syndrome is not associated with the excess use of nandrolone.

A 26-year-old woman is considering Depo-Provera as the form of contraception that is best for her since she does not like to worry about taking a pill every day. To assist this woman with decision making concerning this method of contraception, the nurse would tell her that Depo-Provera: Is a combination of progesterone and estrogen. Is a small adhesive hormonal birth control patch that is applied weekly. Thickens and decreases cervical mucus, thereby inhibiting sperm penetration and ovulation. Has an effectiveness rate in preventing pregnancy of 100% when used correctly

Thickens and decreases cervical mucus, thereby inhibiting sperm penetration and ovulation.

Which condition is a contradiction to the use of nandrolone? metazoic breast cancer androgen - sensitive tumor male hormone replacement to reverse muscle debilitation

androgen - sensitive tumor nandrolone is a synthetic androgen (an anabolic steroid) that is contradicted because it would promote growth of the tumor. Metastatic breast cancer is an indication for nadrolone use. Synthetic androgens are used in male hormone replacement and to reverse muscle debilitation

A patient is sterile because of low testosterone levels. Which other complication would the nurse suspect in this patient? anemia fatty liver hyperacidity hypoglycemia

anemia Testosterone is a hormone that plays an important role in erythropoiesis. It helps in the formation of red blood cells. Reduced levels of testosterone cause reduced production of red blood cells, which in turn causes anemia from reduced hemoglobin. Unlike alcohol consumption, low levels of testosterone do not cause fatty liver. Testosterone does not affect the function of the proton pump in the stomach, and hence, it does not cause hyperacidity. Testosterone does not affect the function of the pancreas. Therefore it does not cause hypoglycemia.

The nurse at the fertility clinic is instructing a patient about the adverse effects of clomiphene. Which effects would the nurse instruct the patient to report to the health care provider? Select all that apply. anxiety hirsutism dizziness bradycardia blurred vision increased diuresis

anxiety dizziness blurred vision Adverse effects of clomiphene, an ovarian stimulant, include anxiety, dizziness, blurred vision, tachycardia, deep vein thrombosis, nausea, constipation, urticaria, and others. Hirsutism, bradycardia, and increased diuresis are not known adverse effects associated with clomiphene.

A patient who is 26 weeks pregnant and who has diabetes mellitus begins to experience preterm labor. Which treatment is the best initial therapy for the prevention of uterine contractions and complications in this patient's pregnancy? ritodrine terbutaline magnesium sulfate bed rest and hydration

bed rest and hydration Bed rest and hydration are especially good choices for this patient because they do not carry the risk of increased blood sugar that terbutaline therapy does. Because pressure on the cervix or cervical incompetence can stimulate uterine contractions, bed rest may also be effective in relieving pressure on the cervix and inhibiting uterine activity. Ritodrine is generally reserved for when conservative measures and terbutaline have failed. Generally terbutaline, the drug of choice for preterm labor, is used after conservative measures have failed. Magnesium sulfate is used as an off-label therapy for preterm labor.

a patient is receiving intravenous methylergonovine after a vaginal delivery. Which postpartum assessment will the nurse conduct to prevent complications of therapy? blood pressure blood glucose temperature uterine contractions

blood pressure The therapeutic goal is contraction of the fundus to stop postpartum bleeding. Hypertension is likely to increase the severity of postpartum bleeding, so the prevention of hypertension is the nurse's priority for a postpartum patient receiving an ergot alkaloid because ergot alkaloids can increase blood pressure. Hypoglycemia is not an adverse effect of methylergonovine. Temperature will not alert the nurse to complications specific to administration of methylergonovine. Uterine contractions are expected during methylergonovine therapy because this is the mechanism of action behind the cessation of postpartum uterine bleeding.

The nurse will administer testosterone to a patient. Which route will provide the best absorption? oral buccal injection transdermal

buccal Testosterone tablets, which are administered in the buccal cavity, can be easily dissolved and absorbed into the blood stream. Compared to the buccal process, oral administration has a very poor rate of absorption; the dose undergoes first pass metabolism and is destroyed. Injections are another preferable way to administer the hormone, second to buccal application in bioavailability. The transdermal route, or skin patches, is useful when it comes to administration of the hormone, but they are not as bioavailable as buccal administration.

Anabolic steroids have which adverse effect? chest pain dermatitis tachycardia changes in libido

changes in libido The use of anabolic steroids is associated with changes in libido. Patients receiving medications for erectile dysfunction may report chest pain. Dermatitis is associated with the topical use of peripheral vasodilators. Tachycardia is an adverse effect associated with the use of alpha1 adrenergic blockers.

Which medication is most likely to promote follicular maturation in an infertile female patient? clomiphene progesterone ethinyl estradiol choriogonadotriphin alfa

Which medication is used for treating infertility? oxytocin clomiphene indomethacin dinoprostone

clomiphene Infertility is an absence of ovulation caused by an imbalance in reproductive hormones. Clomiphene stimulates the production of gonadotropin hormones, which in turn leads to ovulation. Oxytocin is used to induce labor when uterine contractions are weak. Indomethacin is used during preterm labor. Dinoprostone is used to evacuate the uterine contents during miscarriage and for cervical ripening.

A patient receiving finasteride has increased hair growth. Which nursing action is correct? 1 Continue to assess. 2 Hold the medication. 3 Measure testosterone levels. 4 Call the health care provider.

continue to assess Increased hair growth is a therapeutic effect of this medication. The nurse would continue to assess. It is not necessary to hold the medication or notify the provider. Because it is a therapeutic effect, drug levels do not need to be tested.

The nurse observes a patient who is taking finasteride for the treatment of hair loss. Which adverse effect is expected in the patient? fluid retention decreased libido prolonged erection increased amount of ejaculate

decreased libido Finasteride causes libido loss in men. Fluid retention is an undesirable effect of androgens. Prolonged erection is a side effect of erectile dysfunction drugs. Finasteride does not increase ejaculate but causes ejaculatory dysfunction and erection loss.

Which medication is contraindicated in patients who have osteoporosis and a history of renal dysfunction? calcitonin temoxifen ibandronate denosumab

denosumab Denosumab prevents bone resorption in patients who have osteoporosis; however, it is contraindicated for patients who have a history of renal dysfunction because it increases the risk for renal failure. Calcitonin is used to treat osteoporosis and is contraindicated in patients who are allergic to salmon because it is derived from salmon. Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to treat osteoporosis and is contraindicated in patients who have deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism because it increases the risk for thrombosis. Ibandronate is used in the treatment of osteoporosis and is contraindicated if the patient has hypocalcemia and esophageal dysfunction.

A patient who has been taking sildenafil has developed angina. The health care provider has prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which instruction will the nurse give the patient? "Take your blood pressure before either medication." "Do not take the sildenafil." "Take the medications on opposite days." "Take the isosorbide mononitrate before the sildenafil."

do not take the sildenafil When taken in conjunction with nitrates, sildenafil can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The patient should never take these medications together. The remaining responses are not correct instructions.

Which drug requires wearing gloves during administration? minoxidil stanozolol dutasteride tamsulosin

dutasteride Dutasteride is a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor used to treat BPH. It is a teratogenic medication that requires specific handling precautions. Stanozolol is an androgen that does not necessitate any kind of precautionary measures. Tamsulosin is an alpha1 adrenergic blocker and is safe for handling. Minoxidil is a peripheral vasodilator and does not need this kind of precaution.

Which conditions an indication for a primary health care provider to prescribe danazol for a female patient? facial hair endometriosis high testosterone levels cardiovascular disorder

endometriosis Danazol is a synthetic androgen. It is prescribed to women for the treatment of endometriosis because it causes atrophy of the endometrium and therefore helps alleviate its symptoms. Danazol increases the testosterone levels and may cause growth of facial hair. Therefore it is not given for the treatment of facial hair. Women treated with the drug may develop infertility from the medication because it also increases the production of testosterone. Danazol causes cardiovascular disorders. Therefore danazol should not be prescribed if the patient has facial hair, high testosterone levels, or cardiovascular disorders.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving androgen therapy. For which conditions is androgen therapy indicated? Select all that apply. priapism endometriosis prostate cancer hypergonadism refractory anemias

endometriosis refractory anemias Androgen therapy is indicated for the treatment of endometriosis, refractory anemias, advanced breast cancer in women, hypogonadism, angioneurotic edema, and tissue wasting associated with severe or chronic illness. It is not indicated for priapism, prostate cancer, or hypergonadism. In fact hypergonadism and prostate cancer may be worsened with androgen administration.

A male patient is taking sildenafil. Which health problem would the nurse expect in the patient? Gynecomastia Decreased libido Low sperm count Erectile dysfunction

erectile dysfunction Sildenafil is one of the primary agents used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction for patients. Finasteride is associated with gynecomastia and decreased libido. Testosterone is used for the treatment of oligospermia or fluctuating sperm count.

Which type of oral contraceptive delivers hormones for more than 30 days? biphasic triphasic monophasic extended cycle

extended cycle Extended-cycle oral contraceptives deliver hormones for 84 to 365 consecutive days, shortening or eliminating the hormone-free period. Biphasic OCs, which deliver estrogen in a fixed amount for 21 or 28 days, contain a low dose of progestin for the first 10 days and a higher dose of progestin for the remainder of the cycle. Triphasic OCs deliver three different estrogen-progestin combinations over the course of the cycle. Monophasic OCs deliver an unchanging combination of estrogen and progestin.

A client is diagnosed as being in the primary stage of syphilis? Which of the following would the nurse expect as a finding? genetical chancres palmar rash development of gummas development of CNS lesions

genital chancres

After teaching a group of students about sexually transmitted infections (STIs), the instructor determines that additional teaching is necessary when the students identify which STI as curable with treatment? syphillis gonorrhea genetical herpes chlamydia

genital herpes

A female patient is taking estrogen with progesterone. To facilitate monitoring of the risks associated with this therapy, which instruction would the nurse include in patient teaching? have a yearly mammogram have test for serum cholesterol perform weight bearing exercise report missed menstrual periods

have a yearly mammogram Estrogen in combination with progesterone increases the risk of breast cancer, so the nurse would instruct the patient to have a yearly mammogram. Although patients taking estrogen with progestin are at increased risk of thromboembolic events, the effect on serum lipids is unclear. The risk of osteoporosis decreases for women who take estrogen therapy; hence, it is not necessary to perform weight-bearing exercise. Pregnancy is generally not a concern when women take this combination as hormone replacement therapy, and missed periods are common.

A female patient is taking estrogen with progesterone. To facilitate monitoring of the risks associated with this therapy, which instruction would the nurse include in patient teaching? have a yearly manmmagram have tests for serum cholestrol perform weight bearing exercise report missing menstrual periods

Which adverse reaction may occur as a result of raloxifene use during perimenopause? hot flashes loss of hair brown discoloration of the face yellow undertone to the skin

hot flashes Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used in the treatment of osteoporosis. An adverse reaction associated with this medication, especially during perimenopause, is hot flashes. Although hair loss and chloasma may occur with other estrogen therapies, these are not adverse reactions associated with this specific medication. Progestin therapy can cause liver dysfunction and jaundice, which is a yellowing of the skin and the sclera of the eyes.

Before advising a 24-year-old client desiring oral contraceptives for family planning, the nurse would assess the client for signs and symptoms of which of the following? anemia hypertension dysmenorrhea acne vulgaris

hypertension

Which side effects would the nurse monitor for in a patient who has been administered finasteride for treatment of an enlarged prostate gland? Select all that apply. impotence bradycardia libido enhancement increase of hair growth reduction of prostate size

increase of hair growth reduction of prostate size Finasteride causes excessive hair growth because of prostatic dihydrotestosterone (DHT) concentrations in the patient's body. It mainly helps to reduce the size of the prostate. Finasteride does not cause impotence or bradycardia in adult males; however, it might decrease the libido, rather than increase it.

Which medication is used in management in preterm labor? megestrol indomethacin methylergovonvine medroxyprogesterone acetate

indomethacin Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agent used in management of preterm labor. Megestrol is a progestational medication used to treat uterine bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterine stimulant used to treat postpartum uterine hemorrhage. Medroxyprogesterone acetate is a progestational medication used to treat amenorrhea and uterine bleeding.

Which medication is used in management of preterm labor? megestrol indomethacin methylergonovine medroxyprogesterone acetate

Which assessment finding indicates that a patient is a suitable candidate for oxytocin therapy? vaginal bleeding at 38 weeks gestation ineffective contractions in a full term pregnancy absences of cervical ripening at 42 weeks gestation radiographic confirmation of cephalopelvic disproportion

ineffective contractions in a full term pregnancy A patient whose pregnancy is full term but who has ineffective contractions is a suitable candidate for oxytocin therapy to augment the strength and increase the frequency of contractions. Vaginal bleeding in a patient near term is an obstetric emergency, and oxytocin is contraindicated because it is likely to increase the bleeding, increase and strengthen the contractions, and cause fetal distress. Oxytocin is indicated for the induction of labor in a postterm patient, but the patient must have a soft cervix. In a patient with cephalopelvic disproportion, the fetus's head may be too large for the patient's pelvis; harm to both patient and fetus could occur if oxytocin were administered.

Which assessment finding indicates that a patient is a suitable candidate for oxytocin therapy? vaginal bleeding at 38 weeks ineffective contraction in full term absence of cervical ripening at 42 weeks radiographic confirmation of cephalopelvic

ineffective contractions in a full term pregnancy A patient whose pregnancy is full term but who has ineffective contractions is a suitable candidate for oxytocintherapy to augment the strength and increase the frequency of contractions. Vaginal bleeding in a patient near term is an obstetric emergency, and oxytocin is contraindicated because it is likely to increase the bleeding, increase and strengthen the contractions, and cause fetal distress. Oxytocin is indicated for the induction of labor in a postterm patient, but the patient must have a soft cervix. In a patient with cephalopelvic disproportion, the fetus's head may be too large for the patient's pelvis; harm to both patient and fetus could occur if oxytocin were administered.

The nurse is assessing a patient who is a professional weightlifter who has been banned from practicing weightlifting because of drug doping. The patient's reports reveal excessive concentration of nandrolone in the blood. What should the nurse interpret from these findings? select all that apply patient is at risk for anemia patient is at risk for infertility patient is at risk for muscle atrophy patient is at risk for cardiovascular disorder patient is at risk for malabsorption disorder patient is at risk for increase cholesterol

infertility cardiovascular disorder increased cholesterol

Which information does the nurse provide to a patient regarding how oral contraceptives prevent pregnancy? - Inhibition of the release of gonadotropins - Diminished endometrial tissue proliferation - Interference with the proliferation of the fertilized ovum - Elevated progesterone levels inhibiting the release of the luteinizing hormone

inhibition of the release of gonadotropins Oral contraceptive drugs prevent ovulation by inhibiting the release of gonadotropins and by increasing uterine mucous viscosity, which results in (1) decreased sperm movement and fertilization of the ovum and (2) possible inhibition of implantation of a fertilized egg (zygote) into the endometrial lining. Oral contraceptives do not diminish endometrial tissue proliferation, interfere with the proliferation of the fertilized ovum, or elevate progesterone levels inhibiting the release of the luteinizing hormone.

The nurse is teaching a group of students about the use of megestrol. Which statement by a student suggests the need for additional teaching? it is used for beast cancer it is used for endometrial cancer it is used for prevention of pregnancy it is used for cachexia or AIDs

it is used for prevention of pregnancy Megestrol is not used for prevention of pregnancy. It is a synthetic progestin that is structurally very similar to progesterone. Although megestrol shares the actions of the progestins, it is primarily used in the palliative management of recurrent, inoperable, or metastatic endometrial or breast cancer. Because it can cause appetite stimulation and weight gain, it is also used in the management of anorexia, cachexia, or unexplained substantial weight loss in patients with AIDS and in patients with cancer.

The nurse is providing care for a patient taking oxandrolone. Which test would the nurse evaluation to help prevent complications in this patient? glucose hematocrit hemoglobin liver function

liver function Oxandrolone causes the formation of blood-filled cavities, a condition known as peliosis of the liver; it is therefore necessary to monitor liver function tests. A glucose test is used to assess the blood glucose level in diabetic patients. Hematocrit and hemoglobin are evaluated for polycythemia.

Of which adverse effect would the nurse be cognizant while providing care for a patient taking finasteride? depression hypotension loss of libido pelisses of the liver

loss of libido Loss of libido is seen in patients taking finasteride. Depression is an adverse effect of androgenic steroids. The concurrent use of erectile dysfunction drugs and nitrates may cause severe hypotension. Peliosis of the liver is an adverse effect of androgenic steroids.

What medication help reduce postpartum uterine hemorrhage? megestrol reloxifene clomiphene methylergonovine

A pregnant patient has been prescribed oxytocin. Which nursing intervention is appropriate? asses pulse oximetry continuously administer acetaminophen monitor blood pressure frequently suggest the patient take aluminum hydroxide

monitor blood pressure frequently Hypertensive episodes can occur with oxytocin use, so the nurse would monitor the patient's blood pressure frequently. Pulse oximetry is not indicated. Acetaminophen is not given for pain. It is not necessary to give aluminum hydroxide.

The obstetrics nurse reviews a postpartum patient's history. The patient is prescribed methylergonovine for control of postpartum hemorrhage. Which are essential nursing interventions for a patient receiving this medication? Select all that apply. monitor the patient for blurred vision administer it before placenta delivery monitor blood pressure during administration assess for pelvic inflammatory disease question prescription if the patient has liver disease

monitor the patient for bluer vision monitor blood pressure assess for PID question if patient has liver disease Blurred vision is an adverse effect, and the patient should report this symptom to the nurse and health care provider. Blood pressure should be assessed throughout administration of methylergonovine because hypertension is a common adverse effect. If this drug is given to hypertensive women, it may precipitate seizures or a stroke. Pelvic inflammatory disease and liver disease are contraindications to the use of methylergonovine. Methylergonovine is administered after delivery of the placenta.

A patient has been taking sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. The patient reports episodes of dizziness and fainting spells after using this drug. For which other drug would the nurse assess while taking the drug history of the patient? nitrates antibiotics alpha agonists anticoagulants

nitrates Dizziness and fainting spells are signs associated with low blood pressure. Sildenafil decreases blood pressure by releasing nitric oxide. Nitrates also decrease the workload of the heart by reducing the blood pressure. Administration of both drugs may cause severe hypotension in the patient. Thus the nurse would determine whether the patient is taking nitrate drugs. Antibiotic drugs do not interact with sildenafil. Antibiotics such as erythromycin and clarithromycin increase the concentration of tamsulosin in the blood. Alpha-agonist drugs will cause hypertension, whereas sildenafil will be helpful in reducing blood pressure in patients taking an alpha agonist. Anticoagulants interact with androgens, thereby causing increased or decreased activity of oral anticoagulant drugs.

During a postpartum assessment, the nurse notes a boggy uterus and increased uterine bleeding. Which drug would the nurse anticipate will be prescribed? oxytocin terbutaline clomiphene postraglandin E

oxytocin Oxytocin is a uterine stimulant that causes uterine contractions, which will decrease the bleeding. Terbutaline was formerly the drug of choice for preterm labor; in 2011, the FDA stated that terbutaline should not be used to prevent preterm labor or for prolonged treatment because of maternal and fetal safety risks. Clomiphene is an ovulation stimulant and is not used for uterine bleeding. Prostaglandin E is used for termination of pregnancy.

The nurse is providing postpartum care for a female patient who is prescribed methylergonovine. Which aspect of the patient's medical history would be a contraindication for receiving this drug? hypertension uterine atony nausea and vomiting pelvic inflammatory disease

pelvic inflammatory disease Methylergonovine is used for postpartum uterine hemorrhage. It is contraindicated in patients with pelvic inflammatory disease. Hence the nurse needs to inform the primary health care provider about this. Methylergonovine should be used cautiously in patients with hypertension, but it is not a contraindication. The medication is used to treat uterine atony. Nausea and vomiting is not a contraindication.

Which phase of the menstrual cycle involves the release of an unfertilized ovum? phase 1 phase 2 phase 3 phase 4

phase 3 The menstrual cycle has four phases. The unfertilized ovum is released from the ovum during phase 3, which is the ovulation phase. Phase 1 is referred to as the menstruation phase. The phase initiates the cycle and lasts 5 to 7 days. Phase 2 is known as the follicular phase. During this phase, the mature ovum develops from the ovarian follicle. Phase 4 is the luteal phase. During this phase, the corpus luteum is formed from the ruptured ovarian follicle.

The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration classifies anabolic steroids as Schedule III medications because they cause which adverse effects? endometriosis erectile dysfunction physical dependence sedation and hyposis

physical dependence Anabolic steroids increase muscle growth; because of this, they are often abused and may cause physical and psychological dependence in the patient. Therefore anabolic steroids are classified as Schedule III medications by the United States Drug Enforcement Administration. Steroids enhance testosterone levels and therefore, they do not cause endometriosis or erectile dysfunction. Anabolic steroids do not have central nervous system depressant effects. Hence they do not cause sedation and hypnosis.

If fertilization of an ovum does not occur during a menstrual cycle, which of the following structures responds to the increased levels of estrogen and progesterone? ovary hypothalamus pituitary gland corpus luteum

pituitary gland If fertilization does not occur, the pituitary responds to the increased levels of estrogen and progesterone by shutting off the release of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone. The ovaries, hypothalamus, and corpus luteum are not directly involved.

The nurse is caring for a patient with erectile dysfunction who has been prescribed alprostadil. Which method will the nurse use to administer the medication to the patient? 1 Placing it in the patient's urethra 2 Placing it under the patient's tongue 3 Asking the patient to chew it thoroughly 4 Asking the patient to take it with milk

placing it in the patient's urethra Alprostadil is a prostaglandin analog that is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. It increases the blood flow into the penis by causing vasodilation. This medication is available as an intravenous injection and intraurethral suppository. Therefore the nurse can either insert the suppository by pushing it through the urethra, or the nurse may inject the medication into the erectile tissue of the penis. The medication is not available as sublingual tablets or chewable tablets. Therefore the nurse would neither place the tablet under the patient's tongue nor ask the patient to chew the tablet thoroughly. The medication cannot be taken with milk because this causes adverse effects.

Which medication is contraindicated in a patient who has osteoporosis and a history of deep vein thrombosis? raloxifene denusumab risedronate alendronate

raloxifene Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERM) are used to treat osteoporosis. Raloxifene is a SERM medication. This medication is contraindicated for patients who have a history of deep vein thrombosis because it increases the risk for blood clots. Denosumab is used to prevent bone resorption in patients who have osteoporosis and is contraindicated in patients who have a history of renal failure. Risedronate and alendronate are bisphosphonates used in treating osteoporosis and are contraindicated in patients who have hypocalcemia and esophageal dysfunction.

A patient with hypogonadism gives a return demonstration of application of a testosterone dermal patch. Which patient action when applying the patch indicates the need for additional teaching? applies the patch to the scrotum applied the patch on shaved skin replaces the patch every other day applies the patch on clean, dry skin

replaces the patch every other day The testosterone patch is usually prescribed to treat hypogonadism. The patch shows its maximum effect when it is used as prescribed. The patch is replaced every day, rather than on alternate days, for maximum benefit. Therefore the nurse would instruct the patient to replace the patch every day. The patch is applied only on the scrotal skin for optimal action. The patch should be applied on shaved scrotal skin to facilitate maximum skin contact. The scrotal skin should be clean and dry for easy application.

The nurse finds that concentrated solutions of magnesium sulfate administered to prevent premature labor have caused toxicity in a patient. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate? obtain a prescription for terbutaline decrease drug dose immediately obtain prescription for indomethacin requisition a prescription to give calcium gluconate

requisition a prescription to give calcium gluconate The nurse administers calcium gluconate, as it reverses magnesium toxicity in the patient. Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic drug used to prevent premature labor, but it has maternal and fetal safety risks. Decreasing the drug dose will not have the desired drug effect on the patient. Indomethacin is an effective drug for preterm labor, but the most important action here is to reverse magnesium toxicity.

The nurse is caring for a patient with prostate cancer who has been prescribed finasteride. After continuing the medication for a few months, the patient's prostate-specific antigen (PSA) value is less than 2.5 ng/mL. Which inference would the nurse make about the patient? non adherence to the medication hypersensitivity reaction increased risk of liver failure responding effectively to the treatment

responding effectively to the treatment Patients with prostate cancer have high levels of PSA. To determine the effectiveness of the treatment, the nurse would monitor the PSA levels of the patient. Values less than 2.5 to 3 ng/mL are considered to be normal and indicate that the patient is effectively responding to the medication. If the patient was not taking the medication as prescribed, the PSA value would be higher than 3 ng/mL. In addition, the patient would have difficulty in urination because of worsening of symptoms. PSA levels do not indicate that the patient has hypersensitivity. The presence of a localized infection or allergy indicates that the patient is hypersensitive to the medication. Alteration in the levels of the liver enzymes and bile is indicative of liver failure. Therefore the PSA values do not help the nurse to infer that the patient has an increased risk of liver failure.

Which location would be used for placing a transdermal patch of testosterone on a patient for the treatment of primary hypogonadism? 1 Thighs 2 Scrotum 3 Abdomen 4 Upper arms

scrotum A transdermal patch is applied on the scrotum to treat primary hypogonadism. A testosterone transdermal patch is not applied on the thighs, abdomen, or upper arms.

Which has the greatest potential to increase the risk of thromboembolism in a patient taking norethindrone and ethinyl estradiol? sedentary lifestyle smoking heavily every day consumption of saturated fats increased body mass index

smoking heavily every day Women taking oral contraceptives are at increased risk of thromboembolic events if they smoke heavily or have a history of thromboembolism; this higher risk is partially caused by an increase in circulating levels of clotting factors. A sedentary lifestyle and increased BMI elevate the risk of several health problems and can contribute to the development of thromboemboli, but that risk is secondary to the risk resulting from concurrent smoking and use of oral contraceptives. Consumption of saturated fats is likely to increase the risk of a thromboembolic event in a patient who takes an oral contraceptive, but not as much as smoking.

What important detail in her health history requires further teaching regarding her safety and potential adverse effects to combined birth control? drinking alcohol products while taking combination birth control smoking while taking combination birth control using ibuprofen while taking combination birth control using multivitamins while taking combination birth control

smoking while taking combination birth control

Which patient assessment finding does the nurse expect after the vaginal administration of dinoprostone? midline fundus decreased pain softened cervix strong contractions

softened cervix Dinoprostone is indicated to ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction. If labor induction is attempted without sufficient preparation of the cervix, cervical injury may occur. A midline fundus is expected during the postpartum period. Dinoprostone does not have analgesic properties and should not stimulate uterine contractions.

Which mechanism of action of raloxifene would the nurse include when conducting patient teaching? promotes bone absorption of calcium, inhibits osteoclast mediated bone reabsorption contains estrogen which stimulates bone reabsorption stimulated estrogen receptors on the bone to increase bone density

stimulated estrogen receptors on the bone to increase bone density Raloxifene stimulates estrogen receptors on the bone to increase bone density. Raloxifene does not promote bone absorption of calcium, inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone reabsorption, and does not contain estrogen.

Which effect of finasteride would the nurse expect? increase in libido weight gain of 1 to 2 lbs per week stronger urinary stream without hesitancy restoration of full head of hair in one month

stronger urinary stream Finasteride is given to treat symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia and would result in decreased nocturia, a stronger urinary stream that starts without hesitation, and an absence of urinary dribbling. Decreased libido is an adverse effect of the drug. Oxandrolone is used for weight gain. If finasteride is prescribed for male pattern baldness, restoration of a full head of hair is unlikely. Any hair regrowth will take at least 3 months to see an effect, and any improvement will last only as long as the medication is taken.

A patient who is taking terazosin for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) reports symptoms of hypotension. Which drug would the nurse expect to be prescribed to the patient as an alternative to terazosin? sildenafil doxazosin finasteride tamsulosin

tamsulosin Tamsulosin has a higher specificity to alpha1 receptors and is thus known to have fewer hypotensive effects in comparison to terazosin. Thus the patient would ideally be prescribed this drug in place of terazosin. Sildenafil is a drug prescribed for erectile dysfunction; it is not used to treat the symptoms associated with BPH. Doxazosin is another alpha1 receptor antagonist drug, but it may cause hypotensive effects. Finasteride takes a longer time to treat BPH when compared with terazosin and falls within a different category of medications for BPH, so it would not be used as an alternative to terazosin.

A male patient is diagnosed with mild prostate enlargement. Which drug would the nurse expect to administer to control the enlargement? 1 Minoxidil 2 Stanozolol 3 Finasteride 4 Tamsulosin

tamsulosin Tamsulosin is an alpha1-adrenergic blocker, which helps reduce prostate enlargement. Minoxidil is a peripheral vasodilator, used topically to treat baldness. Stanozolol is an androgen. Finasteride is used primarily for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and generally takes longer to take effect.

The nurse is about to administer dinoprostone to a patient. Which condition is this medication used for? premature labor accelerator labor postpartum hemorrhage termination of pregnancy

Which drug is a schedule III drug? goserelin minoxidil doxazosin testosterone

testosterone The hormone testosterone is primarily produced in the testes. It is categorized as an androgen. Androgens are labeled as Schedule III drugs in the United States. Goserelin is a hormone analog, used to suppress the sex hormones. Minoxidil is specifically a peripheral vasodilator that is used for widening the blood vessels and for relieving hypertension. Doxazosin is an alpha blocker used to treat hypertension.

The nurse administers diluted oxytocin solution to a female patient for labor induction and continuously monitors the maternal blood pressure and pulse rate, as well as the fetal heart rate. The nurse stops the oxytocin infusion when the contractions are more frequent than every 2 minutes. What is the purpose of this action? the fetal hart rate is stable the patient is ready for delivery the patients blood pressure is stable the contractions can be fetal to the patient

the contractions can be fatal to the patient Contractions every 2 minutes indicates hyperstimulation in the patient, which may result in uterine rupture. Therefore the nurse must stop the drug infusion immediately. Hyperstimulation also causes changes in other parameters, such as blood pressure and fetal heart rate, which may prove fatal to the patient. Hyperstimulation increases the patient's blood pressure level and also the fetal heart rate. The patient is not ready for delivery; rather, the patient is facing a serious complication. The nurse can administer intravenous fluids, administer oxygen, and place the patient in a side-lying position to reduce hyperstimulation.

Which statement by the nursing student regarding endogenous testosterone indicates effective learning? it promotes male catabolic metabolism it helps eliminate nitrogen from the body this drug is used to treat alcoholic hepatitis the seminiferous tubules produce testosterone

the seminiferous tubules produce testosterone Testosterone is produced in the testicles, in the interstitial cells of the seminiferous tubules. Testosterone promotes anabolic metabolism and helps retain nitrogen in the body. Oxandrolone is used to treat alcoholic hepatitis.

A patient with menopausal symptoms is seeking hormone replacement therapy. During the assessment, the nurse finds that the patient has a history of endometrial cancer and is a smoker. Which information would the nurse provide to the patient? - the therapy may cause thromboembolic events - you may need to stop smoking during the therapy - the treatment should be started as soon as possible - the treatment is likely is cause endometrial cancer

the therapy may cause thromboembolic events Progesterone therapy may result in thromboembolic events, which should be the first information shared with the patient. In patients with a history of endometrial cancer, estrogen therapy may increase the possibility of recurrence of cancer. The nurse may advise the patient to stop smoking if she starts the therapy. The treatment is not started as soon as possible and may be avoided based on the patient's risk factors.

A patient with menopausal symptoms is seeking hormone replacement therapy. During the assessment, the nurse finds that the patient has a history of endometrial cancer and is a smoker. Which is the most important information for this patient? the therapy may cause thromboembolic events to occur you will need to stop smoking you should start treatment asap the treatment is able to cause endometrial cancer

the therapy may cause thromboembolic events to occur

The nurse is teaching students about progestin-only oral contraceptives. Which statement by a student suggests effective learning? they are taken every week they produce anovulatory cycles they are taken after lunch and dinner they may cause breakthrough bleeding

they may cause breakthrough bleeding The use of progestin-only formulations (often referred to as the minipill) may cause breakthrough bleeding. They are taken daily. They have a higher incidence of ovulatory cycles. It is important for the patient to take this oral contraceptive at the same time every day to maintain effective hormone serum levels.

As a nurse, you know that the use of combined hormone therapy will be beneficial for which reason(s)? select all that apply to prevent unplanned pregnancy to control irregular and excessive menstrual cycles to replace deficient hormone levels to prevent endometrial cancer when she is older to treat infertility to stimulate uterine contractions

to prevent unplanned pregnancy to control irregular and excessive menstrual

What hormone is responsible for initiating activity in the ovary? luteotropic hormone luteinizing hormone follicle - stimulating hormone interstitial cell - stimulating hormone

Follicle stimulating hormone FSH is responsible for initiating ovarian activity in women. FSH stimulates the ovaries to produce estrogen (primarily estradiol). Prolactin (PRL), also known as luteotropic hormone or luteotropin, is a protein that allows women to produce milk. Later in the cycle, the combined surges in the levels of estrogen, FSH, and LH stimulate ovulation. In males, LH is also called interstitial cell-stimulating hormone and stimulates Leydig cell production of testosterone.

Which primary roles does testosterone play in the male body? Select all that apply. 1 Helps in production of red blood cells 2 Helps development of facial hair in men 3 Triggers better metabolic bodily functions 4 Helps develop the male sex characteristics 5 Triggers erectile dysfunction (ED)

Helps in production of red blood cells Helps development of facial hair in men Helps develop the male sex characteristics

Which medication may decrease the effectiveness of norethindrone and ethinyl estradiol? rifampin furosemide calcium citrate acetaminophen

Rifampin

A client is being treated for gonorrhea. Which agent would the nurse expect the physician to prescribe? Ceftriaxone tetracycline penicillin levofloxacin

ceftriaxone

What condition is a contraindication to birth control and for hormone replacement in women? deep vein thrombosis edema drug use

deep vein thrombosis

A student nurse is caring for a male patient diagnosed with gonorrhea. The patient is receiving ceftriaxone and doxycycline. The nursing instructor asks the student why the patient is receiving two antibiotics. What is the student nurse's best response? "This combination of medications will eradicate the infection faster than a single antibiotic." "Many people infected with gonorrhea are infected with chlamydia as well." "The combination of these two antibiotics reduces the risk of reinfection." "There are many resistant strains of gonorrhea, so more than one antibiotic may be required for successful treatment."

"Many people infected with gonorrhea are infected with chlamydia as well."

A patient is prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which is the best time to take the dose? 1 hour before sexual intercourse 2 hours before sexual intercourse 30 minutes before sexual intercourse 10 minutes before sexual intercourse

1 hour before sexual intercourse

Which condition is an indication of saw palmetto use? 1 Dysuria 2 Back pain 3 Gastrointestinal upset 4 BPH

BPH Saw palmetto is an herbal supplement used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and alopecia. Dysuria, back pain, and gastrointestinal upset are the adverse effects associated with the use of saw palmetto.

Which patient is not a candidate for oxandrolone therapy? - one with severe burns on 70% of body - a patient with catabolism after major abdominal surgery - one with aids - a high school athlete who has difficulty gaining weight

a high school athlete who has difficulty gaining weight Oxandrolone is indicated for weight gain in severe conditions with involuntary weight loss. Anabolic steroids are not approved to help athletes gain weight; there is no need to administer oxandrolone to this patient. Weight gain is important in patients with severe burns, to prevent further complications in patients with catabolism after surgery, and in patients with AIDS.

A pregnant patient is receiving magnesium sulfate to inhibit uterine contractions. The patient develops depressed reflexes and confusion. Which medication does the nurse anticipate administering? epinephrine protamine sulfate calcium gluconate atropine

calcium glutonate Calcium gluconate is the antidote if magnesium toxicity (maternal neurologic, respiratory, or cardiac depression) is evidenced. Epinephrine will not reverse magnesium toxicity; it is used for the treatment of anaphylactic reactions. Protamine sulfate will not reverse magnesium toxicity; it is the antidote for heparin overdose. Atropine will not reverse magnesium toxicity; it is used for insecticide intoxication or slow heart rates.

A client with primary syphilis is allergic to penicillin. The nurse would expect the physician to order which agent? podophyllum resin ceftriaxone doxycycline acyclovir

doxycycline

Which method of administration is used for testosterone cypionate? oral topical transdermal intramuscular

intramuscular Testosterone cypionate is administered by intramuscular injection. Finasteride is administered orally. Testosterone gel is administered topically, and transdermal testosterone is administered via transdermal patch.

While assessing a patient, the nurse finds that the patient is an athlete by profession and takes oxymetholone without a medical prescription. Which reason does the nurse suspect for the patient taking oxymetholone? 1 Pain relief 2 Stress relief 3 Euphoric effect 4 Muscle hypertrophy

muscle hypertrophy Oxymetholone is an anabolic steroid. It is usually taken by athletes and body builders to attain a muscular body because this medication has muscle-building properties. Therefore the nurse would suspect that the patient takes this medication for muscular hypertrophy. Oxymetholone does not have analgesic, anxiolytic, or sedative effects. Therefore the patient will not take this medication for pain relief, stress relief, or euphoric effects.

How does an increase progesterone level promote pregnancy? thinning of cervical mucosa thinking of vaginal mucosa suppressing uterine contractions stimulating the development of breast tissue

suppressing uterine contractions The progesterone level increases during pregnancy and helps sustain a pregnancy by suppressing uterine contractions. Estrogen thins the cervical mucosa, thickens the vaginal mucosa, and stimulates the development of breast tissue.

Which instruction would a nurse provide to a patient who is taking alendronate? take med with aspirin take with antacids take meds with calcium supplements take meds on empty stomach with 8-oz water

take meds on empty stomach with 8-oz water Alendronate is a bisphosphonate medication used to treat osteoporosis. This medication causes esophageal burns and can lead to gastrointestinal upset. To prevent the esophageal burns, the nurse would instruct the patient to take the medication with 8 oz of water on an empty stomach. The nurse would not instruct the patient to take the medication along with antacids because antacids can decrease the absorption of alendronate. Aspirin can cause gastric irritation if it is ingested along with alendronate. Calcium supplements can decrease the absorption of bisphosphonates; therefore the nurse would suggest that the patient take calcium supplements 1 hour after receiving alendronate.

As the nurse, you know which herbal remedy is not recommended while taking combination hormone therapy? vitamin B 12 st johns wart ergot alkaloids from rye plant fish oil

st johns wart

The nurse determines teaching regarding the levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine delivery system has been effective when the client makes which statement? "These devices are 100% effective.' "I can keep this device in place for up to 5 years." "I will need to use a barrier method of birth control in addition to this device." "I will have the device removed every two years and replaced."

"I can keep this device in place for up to 5 years."

Which medication treats erectile dysfunction? sildenafil minoxidil finasteride testosterone

sildenafil Sildenafil treats erectile dysfunction. Minoxidil treats female and male androgenetic alopecia. Finasteride treats benign prostatic hyperplasia. Testosterone treats primary or secondary hypogonadism.

Which statement indicates that the patient understands the benefit of continuous administration of progestin with an estrogen regimen? "Endometrial cancer risk can be reduced by adding progestin." 2 "The progestin in the regimen will help prevent breast cancer." 3 "The progestin in the regimen will help prevent ovarian cancer." 4 "Vaginal cancer is prevented by adding progestin to the regimen."

"Endometrial cancer risk can be reduced by adding progestin."

Which condition is an indication of saw palmetto use? dysuria back pain gastrointestinal upset benign prostatic hyperplasia

smoking heavily every day

Which statement made by the nurse regarding the hormonal activity during the monthly menstrual cycle needs correction? 1 "Estrogen levels inhibit the release of follicle-stimulating hormone." 2 "High progesterone levels inhibit the release of luteinizing hormone." 3 "Decreased Gn-RH suppresses the release of follicle-stimulating hormone." 4 "Surges of Gn-RH, follicle-stimulating hormone, and luteinizing hormone stimulate ovulation."

"High progesterone levels inhibit the release of luteinizing hormone." The release of GnRH from the hypothalamus is not decreased to suppress the release of follicle-stimulating hormone. High levels of estrogen on about the tenth day of the menstrual cycle inhibit the release of follicle-stimulating hormone. High progesterone levels inhibit the release of luteinizing hormone. Surges of Gn-RH, follicle-stimulating hormone, and luteinizing hormone stimulate ovulation.

What is the reason for prescribing dinoprostone to a patient who is at 38 weeks' gestation of pregnancy? to terminate pregnancy to induce cervical ripening to treat gestational hypertension to treat pelvic inflammatory disease

to induce cervical ripening Dinoprostone is a cervical ripening agent that is used to induce labor near term. Although certain forms of this medication can be used to terminate a pregnancy, this is not its use near term. This medication is not used to treat gestational hypertension or pelvic inflammatory disease.

What is the purpose of giving estrogen therapy in combination with progestins? to treat ovarian cancer to treat Brest cancer to prevent endometrial cancer to reduce the chances of vaginal cancer

to prevent endometrial cancer

What is the purpose of giving estrogen therapy in combination with progestins? to treat ovarian cancer to treat breast cancer to prevent endometrial cancer to reduce the chances of vaginal cancer

to prevent endometrial cancer To reduce the risk of endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, the concurrent use of a progestin for 10 to 14 days of the cycle is recommended for women with an intact uterus. Estrogens are administered to prevent complications from ovarian failure but not to treat ovarian cancer. Estrogen therapy raises recurrence risk if administered to patients with breast cancer. Vaginal cancer is treated with surgery or chemotherapy.

Which medication is sued to treat hypogonadism megastrol aldendronate esterified estrogens medroxyprogesterone

esterified estrogens Esterified estrogens are a type of estrogen used in the treatment of hypogonadism. Megestrol is a synthetic progestin used to treat uterine bleeding. Alendronate is used to minimize bone loss in osteoporosis. Medroxyprogesterone is used to prevent pregnancy.

Which patient statement indicates to the nurse full patient understanding of the discharge instructions regarding alendronate? 1 "I need to decrease my intake of dairy products to prevent hypercalcemia." 2 "I need to take this medication with food to prevent damage to my esophagus." 3 "This medication will help relieve the bone pain I have from my osteoporosis." 4 "I will take the medication on an empty stomach and not lie down for 30 minutes."

"I will take the medication on an empty stomach and not lie down for 30 minutes." Alendronate can cause erosive esophagitis. To prevent this side effect, it is important to take the medication first thing in the morning on an empty stomach without any other medications and to maintain an upright position for 30 minutes. These actions facilitate rapid absorption and prevent reflux into the esophagus. Decreasing dairy intake is not indicated. The medication does not directly relieve bone pain caused by osteoporosis.

he client taking an estrogen-progesterone combination oral contraceptive calls the clinic reporting that she has forgotten her pills for the last two days. what medication directions should the nurse provide? "Take two pills today and two pills tomorrow, then one pill daily for the rest of the pack." "Take two pills today and then one pill every day until the pack is finished." "Notify your health care provider of the missed dosage." "Stop taking the pills and have your partner use condoms until the next menses, then restart a new pill pack." Response Feedback:

"Take two pills today and two pills tomorrow, then one pill daily for the rest of the pack."

The nurse would inform a male patient about which potential type of cancer associated with testosterone therapy? kidney cancer prostate cancer bladder cancer intestine cancer

prostate cancer Testosterone plays a role in the development of prostate cancer, but the extent to which supplemental testosterone therapy increases cancer risk is unclear. Testosterone does not affect the kidneys, bladder, or intestines in a direct way.

. The nurse is teaching a patient about finasteride therapy. How long will the drug take to achieve its full effect? 1 to 2 weeks 2 to 4 weeks 1 to 3 months 3 to 6 months

3 to 6 months Finasteride is available in tablet form and must be taken orally. It is administered for the treatment of androgenetic alopecia in men (at a dose of 1 mg) or benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH; at a dose of 5 mg). The results take from 3 to 6 months to achieve complete effect.

The nurse encounters a male patient who is taking finasteride. Which condition would the nurse suspect in the patient? priapsim bladder cancer testicular cancer benign prostatic hyperplasia

BPH Finasteride is specifically administered for the treatment of BPH, which leads to enlargement of the prostate. Finasteride is also administered for the treatment of hair loss, occurring in men between the ages of 30 and 80. Finasteride helps lower the dihydrotestosterone (DHT) level. The medication is not directly related to priapism, bladder cancer, or testicular cancer.

A patient tests positive for pregnancy even though she has been taking oral contraceptives. Which situation represents a possible cause of this unintended pregnancy? Diabetes Hypertension Anticonvulsant therapy Antibiotic therapy

Antibiotic therapy Antibiotics reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives; hence, the nurse must instruct patients to use alternative birth control methods during antibiotic therapy. Diabetes does not reduce the effect of oral contraceptives. Hypertension may be an adverse effect of oral contraceptives. The effectiveness of anticonvulsants is reduced when taken with oral contraceptives.

he nurse is assessing an elderly patient who has angina pectoris who has been prescribed nitroglycerin. After reviewing the patient's medical history, the nurse advises the patient to avoid vardenafil. Which adverse effect of vardenafil does the nurse explain to the patient? Reduces the efficacy of nitroglycerin May cause erectile dysfunction in patients Is contraindicated for use in elderly patients Causes hypotension if taken with nitroglycerin

Causes hypotension if taken with nitroglycerin Vardenafil is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor. It is contraindicated in patients with cardiovascular disorders. This medication will be discontinued when nitrates such as nitroglycerin are prescribed for the patient because it causes hypotension. This effect is the result of synergistic action of the medications, which results in excessive vasodilation. Vardenafil does not reduce the efficacy of nitroglycerin. Vardenafil is prescribed for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. Therefore it does not cause erectile dysfunction. Vardenafil is not contraindicated in elderly patients. It can be prescribed for them unless they have cardiovascular disorders.

Which medication is most likely to promote follicular maturation in an infertile female patient? Clomiphene Progesterone Ethinyl estradiol Choriogonadotropin alfa

Which statement made by the patient indicates that ospemifene is effective? I no longer experience hot flashes I have not experienced uterine bleeding I am no longer experiencing painful intercourse I have seen great improvement in my sexual desire

I am no longer experiencing painful intercourse Ospemifene is an estrogen agonist/antagonist that is approved to treat moderate to severe dyspareunia (painful intercourse) in postmenopausal women. Ospemifene is not intended to be used to eliminate hot flashes, uterine bleeding, or improve the patient's sexual drive.

A nurse is teaching a patient how to self-administer sildenafil. Which patient statement indicates effective learning? "I will apply it to my abdomen." "I will apply it onto the scrotal skin." "I will push the suppository into my urethra." "I will take the tablet 1 hour before intercourse."

I will take the tablet 1 hour before intercourse Sildenafil is available in tablet form and should be taken 1 hour before intercourse. Gels, ointments, creams, and transdermal patches are applied topically. Sildenafil is not a topical or suppository medication; therefore, it cannot be applied to the abdomen or scrotal skin or pushed into the urethra.

Which method of administration of used for testosterone cypionate oral topical transdermal intramuscular

IM Testosterone cypionate is administered by intramuscular injection. Finasteride is administered orally. Testosterone gel is administered topically, and transdermal testosterone is administered via transdermal patch.

The labor and delivery nurse is caring for a patient in preterm labor who is receiving indomethacin. The patient develops hypotension. Which action would the nurse perform? Place the patient on her left side. Immediately discontinue intravenous (IV) fluids. Administer phentolamine mesylate. Instruct the patient to bear down and push.

Place the patient on her left side. Placement of the patient in the left lateral recumbent position minimizes hypotension, increases renal blood flow, and increases blood flow to the fetus. Phentolamine mesylate is an alpha-adrenergic blocker and antihypertensive and is not indicated in the treatment of hypotension. Bearing down and pushing when the patient is not ready to deliver could result in fetal compromise.

Minoxidil is prescribed to a patient to treat hair loss. Which nursing intervention will help curtail the adverse effects of the therapy? Drink excess water. Rest to eliminate high blood pressure. Stop eating sodium-rich foods. Report any occurrence of erythema.

Report any occurrence of erythema. Minoxidil is considered a potential peripheral vasodilator, but it causes extreme dermatologic reactions like erythema, dermatitis, eczema, and pruritus. Drinking excess water is the best option for patients suffering from hypotension. High blood pressure is not an adverse effect of minoxidil. Rest does not eliminate high blood pressure. Minoxidil can cause orthostatic hypotension. Avoiding sodium-rich food is a remedial option for patients suffering from hypertension.

The clinical reports of a patient taking a bisphosphonate and calcium supplement indicate poor therapeutic levels of the bisphosphonate. Which changes in the medication administration will the nurse need to encourage the patient to implement? "Discontinue the calcium supplement." "Space the medications 1 to 2 hours apart." "Replace the bisphosphonate with calcitonin." "Obtain a prescription for increasing the bisphosphonate dose."

Space the medications 1 to 2 hours apart Calcium supplements interfere with the absorption of bisphosphonates. Spacing the medications 1 to 2 hours apart helps prevent this interaction. The nurse does not replace the drug without consulting the primary health care provider. The nurse does not discontinue the calcium supplement because it may affect the patient's health. Increasing the dose of bisphosphonate will not aid in absorption if it interacts with calcium supplements.

Which medication is an alpha1-adrenergic blocker? alfuzosin goserelin nilutamide nandrolone

alfuzosin Alfuzosin is an alpha1-adrenergic blocker. Goserelin is a gonadotropin-hormone-releasing analogue. Nilutamide is an antiandrogen. Nandrolone is an anabolic steroid.

Which medication is an alpha1-adrenergic blocker? 1 Alfuzosin 2 Goserelin 3 Nilutamide 4 Nandrolone

alfuzosin Alfuzosin is an alpha1-adrenergic blocker. Goserelin is a gonadotropin-hormone-releasing analogue. Nilutamide is an antiandrogen. Nandrolone is an anabolic steroid.

The nurse is assessing a female patient who has osteoporosis. The nurse finds that the patient is prescribed a bisphosphonate instead of calcitonin. Which aspect of the patient's medical history may be a reason for this prescription? breast cancer current smoker allergy to salmon joint pain

allergy to salmon Calcitonin is derived from salmon; hence, the drug is not prescribed for patients who are allergic to salmon. Breast cancer is not a reason to prescribe a bisphosphonate. Smoking is harmful only if the patient is taking estrogen therapy because it leads to thrombosis. Joint pain is a potential adverse effect of a bisphosphonate.

Which drug will be prescribed for a patient who present with erectile dysfunction? finasteride alprostadil testosterone fluoxymesterone

Finasteride would likely be prescribed to treat which condition for a patient who does not have a history of difficulty with urination? baldness infertility hypertension BPH

baldness Finasteride is a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor drug that is also known to stimulate the hair follicles and stimulate hair growth. Thus it is recommended for treating male-pattern baldness. Sperm production is not affected by finasteride. Thus finasteride is not recommended for treating infertility in males. Finasteride does not affect blood pressure levels, unlike the alpha blockers used to treat BPH, which can cause hypotension. Because the patient had not reported any difficulty in urination in the past, it is unlikely that the patient ever had BPH.

The clinical reports of a patient taking fertility drugs indicate an increase in prolactin concentrations, which leads to impaired fertility. Which information would the nurse obtain from the patient? current smoking status presence of abnormal uterine bleeding current use of meds for depression compliance with fertility drugs

current use of meds for depression Tricyclic antidepressant medications, usually taken for depression, interact with the fertility drugs and increase prolactin concentrations. Smoking is harmful in patients who take estrogen therapy because it may lead to thrombosis. Smoking does not increase prolactin concentrations. Fertility drugs are contraindicated in patients with abnormal uterine bleeding. Abnormal uterine bleeding does not increase prolactin concentrations. Noncompliance with fertility drugs will not increase prolactin concentrations, nor will it aid in conception.

Which hormonal change directly causes the breakdown of the endometrium and resultant menstrual bleeding? increased levels of estrogen decreased level of progesterone increase LH decreased level of FSH

decreased level of progesterone The breakdown of the endometrium and the resultant menstrual bleeding are caused by the fall of the progesterone level at the end of the menstrual cycle. The decline in estrogens plays a role, but the decrease in progesterone is responsible for bleeding. The increase in estrogens after menstruation is responsible for the restoration of the endometrium. LH and FSH are not directly related to menstrual bleeding.

Which monitoring parameter should be evaluated for drug effectiveness for a patient in labor who is receiving oxytocin? Select all that apply. fetal heart rate fetal movement uterine hyyperactivity the patients blood pressure and pulse complete blood cell count

fetal heart rate fetal movement the patients blood pressure and pulse

Which medication is suitable therapy for oral contraception in women who cannot take estrogen? estrone megestrol estropipate medroxyprogresterone

medroxyprogesterone Because it prevents follicular maturation and ovulation, medroxyprogesterone is a suitable oral contraceptive for women who cannot take estrogen. Estrone and estropipate are synthetic estrogens. Megestrol is unsuitable because it is indicated in the palliative treatment of endometrial and breast cancers.

Which condition in a patients history is a contradiction for the administration of estrogens? weight gain hypertension dysmenorrhea thrombophlebitis

thrombophlebitis Contraindications for estrogen administration include known drug allergy, any estrogen-dependent cancer, undiagnosed abnormal vaginal bleeding, pregnancy, and active thromboembolic disorder (e.g., stroke and thrombophlebitis) or a history of such a disorder. It is not contraindicated in patients with weight gain, hypertension, or dysmenorrhea.

A patient who is pregnant tells the nurse, "My husband is losing his hair, and I apply finasteride cream on his scalp daily." Which test would the nurse discuss with the patient's health care provider? lipid profile liver function test exersize tolerence test ultrasonography of the fetus

ultrasonography of the fetus Exposure to finasteride is contraindicated in women of childbearing age because this drug has teratogenic effects. The patient has been applying finasteride to her husband; this indicates that the drug would have been topically absorbed into the skin of the patient. Thus the nurse would suggest an ultrasound scan of the fetus to check for fetal abnormalities. Unlike anabolic steroids, finasteride does not affect the lipid levels. Therefore the nurse need not refer the patient for a lipid profile. Unlike anabolic steroids, finasteride does not affect liver function; therefore, the nurse need not refer the patient for a liver function test. Finasteride does not affect cardiac function. Moreover an exercise tolerance test is contraindicated in pregnant women.

which information would the nurse include when teaching about cancer risks in postmenopausal women? estrogen mono therapy increases the risk of breast cancer mono therapy with a progestin increase breast cancer risk unopposed estrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer estradiol with progestin increase the risk of endometrial cancer

unopposed estrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer The prolonged use of estrogen alone is associated with an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Estrogens used alone are not associated with increased risk of breast cancer. Estrogen in combination with progestin is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer. When estrogen is combined with progestin, the risk of endometrial cancer diminishes.

Which clinical manifestations can be observed in a patient who is receiving teriparatide therapy? Select all that apply. vertigo joint pain chest pain hot flashes loss of appetite

Ver todos los conjuntos de estudio

Pharmacology test 1, semester 3

Conjuntos de estudio relacionados

Pulmonary Embolism (Chapter 23)

Java: Chapter 12 Quiz

Kemp Biol 111 Chapter 19

chapter 14, 15, 16 pharm meas 218 exam 4

Underwriting and Policy Issue - Chapter Exam Answers

NURS 334 EXAM 3

Section VI - Community Reinvestment Act, CRA Sunshine, and Prohibition against use of Interstate Branches Primarily for Deposit Production

Module 4 QBank Quiz

Gatsby Quotations

Psychosocial Final

Nurs 240 E5

Psychobiological Disorders

Lecture 3: Tsunamis, Coastal Hazards

Isaac Newton

Ch 24 Fluids and electrolytes Assignment

TKT Glossary CEDEPSI 2018

Weight Cycling / Obesity

INVESTIGATING NATURE QUIZ #4

Solving Equations and Inequalities

OSU CS 290 - WebDev