Phlebotomy Test

If a patient has a blood type of B, what agglutinins are present? A. Neither Anti-A nor Anti-B B. Anti-A and Anti-B C. Anti-B D. Anti-A

Anti-A

Which of the following specimens would be analyzed in the anatomical pathology area? A. Synovial fluid B. Cerebrospinal fluid C. Biopsy tissue D. Urine sediment

Biopsy tissue

Mrs. Morris is a 34 year old female who arrived at the emergency room with FUO. What would be the first test the phlebotomist would draw? A. Blood culture B. CBC C. Lactic Acid Measurement D. GTT

Blood culture

Which tube is used to check coagulation factors? A. Green top tube B. Yellow top tube C. Blue top tube D. Grey top tube

Blue top tube

Which of the following is not included in the antecubital fossa region?***** A. Median Cubital B. Basilic C. Cephalic D. Brachial

Brachial (because it can be an artery or vein)

Which immunology test detects streptococcus infection? A. CRP B. ASO C. RA D. RPR

ASO

How long can the tourniquet be left on during a routine venipuncture? A. 1 and 1/2 mins B. 1 min C. 2 and 1/2 mins D. 2 mins

1 minute

According to the NCCLS, what is the maximum depth not to exceed when performing a heel puncture on an infant? A. 1.0 mm B. 1.7 mm C. 2.6 mm D. 2.0 mm

2.0 mm

Which of the following gauge sizes would be appropriate to use when drawing a hand with a winged infusion? A. 16 B. 23 C. 17 D. 20

23

How many tubes are drawn for a three (3) hour glucose tolerance test? A. 3 tubes B. 4 tubes C. 5 tubes D. 6 tubes

4 tubes

When performing a bleeding time test, the blood pressure cuff must be inflated to: A. 200 mm Hg B. 40 mm Hg C. 20 mm Hg D. 80 mm Hg

40 mm Hg

The common solution used to clean a site before routine venipuncture is: A. Soap and water B. Providine Gluconate C. Providine-iodine D. 70% isopropyl alcohol

70% isopropyl alcohol

Which of the following is not part of a complete blood count? A. Activated partial thromboplastin time B. Hemoglobin C. Differential D. Hematocrit

Activated partial thromboplastin time

An internal process focused on identifying and minimizing situations that pose danger to patients and employees is: A. A performance improvement plan B. Sentinel (early warning) events C. The delta check procedure D. Facility-wide risk management

A performance improvement plan

Which of the following is the best site for a capillary puncture on an adult? A. Middle finger B. Thumb C. Heel D. Index finger

A. Middle finger

Which of the following is a blood bank test? A. AFP B. Retic C. DAT D. NH4

AFP

When a phlebotomist observes actions or suspect's child abuse or neglect, which of the following should be the next step? A. Notify the police B. Wait for further confirmation C. Notify the health department D. Advise your supervisor privately of your suspicions

Advise your supervisor privately of your suspicions

Blood collection tubes are labeled: A. Once the phlebotomist receives the requisition B. Before the specimen is collected C. After the specimen is collected D. During transport to the lab

After the specimen is collected

During a venipuncture, when should the needle safety device be activated? A. Just before you put it in the sharps container B. Before the beginning of the procedure C. After you label the specimen D. After you withdraw the needle from the vein

After you withdraw the needle from the vein

Which of the following precautions require special air handling and ventilation? A. Standard precautions B. Contact precautions C. Droplet precautions D. Airborne precautions

Airborne precautions

Before administering any medication, it is important to always check for: A. Antibodies B. Anergies C. Allergies D. Antibodies

Allergies

Which test should be collected in a royal blue-top tube? A. Calcitonin B. Lipoprotein C. Aluminum D. Magnesium

Aluminum

Which of the following structure contains oxygenated blood? A. Aorta B. Right Atrium C. Right ventricle D. Superior vena cava

Aorta

What is the best way to control bleeding from a venipuncture site after a blood draw? A. Apply a band aid B. Apply the tourniquet C. Elevate the site over the level of the heart D. Apply direct pressure with gauze

Apply direct pressure with gauze

Which test is used in the ED as a "cardiac marker"? A. HCG B. BNP C. MCV D. PSA

BNP

An obese patient comes into the lab to have blood work done. The vein of choice would be: A. Median cubital B. Hand vein C. Basilic D. Cephalic

Basilic

At what angle would the phlebotomist enter a vein for a routine blood draw? A. Bevel up at 15-30 degree angle B. Bevel up at 45-50 degree angle C. Bevel down at a 15 degree angle D. Bevel down at a 45 degree angle

Bevel up at 15-30 degree angle

What are the three parts of a needle? A. Bevel, shaft, hub B. Shovel, lance, shaft C. Bevel, staff, shaft D. Point, shaft, hub

Bevel, shaft, hub

The most common test requiring a lavender top tube is: A. PTT B. BT C. CBC D. GTT

CBC

Which test require a whole blood specimen? A. CMV B. CRP C. CBC D. EBV

CBC

The purpose of the pulmonary system is to: A. Carry nutrients to the cells B. Carry blood to and from the lungs C. Carry wastes to the blood D. Carry blood to the system system

Carry blood to and from the lungs

The function of the platelet is to: A. Carry nutrients B. Cause the blood to clot C. Fight infection D. Carry oxygen

Cause the blood to clot

The clear colorless fluid that functions in protecting and nourishing the brain and the spinal cord is called: A. Synovial fluid B. Pericardial fluid C. Ascetic fluid D. Cerebral spinal fluid

Cerebral spinal fluid

An example of a QC measure in phlebotomy is: A. Checking the expiration date of evacuated tubes B. Documenting every missed venipuncture C. Logging hours on your time sheet daily D. Recording QA indicators daily

Checking the expiration date of evacuated tubes

A serum separator tube (SST) is frequently used for which department of the laboratory? A. Hematology B. Toxicology C. Chemistry D. Microbiology

Chemistry

A sample for fibrin degradation products (FDP) testing would be sent to which of the following departments? A. Blood bank B. Chemistry C. Coagulation D. Microbiology

Coagulation

What type of motion would a phlebotomist use when cleaning a site for a routine venipuncture? A. Horizontal B. Vertical C. Crossing D. Concentric

Concentric

Plasma is made up of 90% water and 10% of what solution? A. RBC's B. WBC's C. Dissolved substances D. Granulocytes

Dissolved substances

Which of the following test may require a special chain-of-custody form? A. Blood culture B. Blood donor C. Drug screen D. Therapeautic drug monitoring

Drug screen

The principals of right and wrong conduct as they apply to professional problems are defined as: A. Morals B. Torts C. Ethics D. Values

Ethics

Which of the following is not an example of Kinesics? A. Eye contact B. Verbal expressions C. Facial expressions D. Gestures

Eye contact

This test requires whole blood collected from a stasis-free vein. A. Calcitonin B. Lactic Acid C. Fibrinogen D. Zinc RBC

Fibrinogen

Which of the following is found in plasma, but not in serum? A. Tissue thromboplastin B. Fibrinogen C. Prothrombin D. Thrombin

Fibrinogen

The field of medicine that specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of the elderly population is called: A. Geriatrics B. Pediatrics C. Obstetrics D. Orthodontics

Geriatrics

Before a phlebotomist enters a room of a patient in strict isolation, the phlebotomist should wear: A. Mask and gloves only B. Gown, mask, and eyewear C. Gloves, gown, and mask D. Gloves only

Gloves, gown, and mask

A positive urine pregnancy test detects which hormone? A. ESR B. HCG C. TSH D. FSH

HCG

Which of the following tests is not associated with the muscular system? A. CPK B. LDH C. C&S D. HCG

HCG

What is the most commonly occurring laboratory nosocomial infection? A. HAV B. HCV C. HBV D. HIV

HCV

The preferred way to prepare a child for blood collection as an outpatient is: A. Have the parent/or another adult hold the child in their lab in an upright position B. Perform the collection while the child is sleeping C. Medicate the child D. Use restraints

Have the parent/or another adult hold the child in their lab in an upright position

Which department would perform a hemogram? A. Hematology B. Blood Bank C. Chemistry D. Immunology

Hematology

The condition where a healthy body, through constant changes and functioning, remains the same is: A. Hemoconcentration B. Hematoma C. Homeostasis D. Hemostasis

Homeostasis

Which of the following is an abbreviation for a type of antibody? A. AFB B. CEA C. PSA D. IgM

IgM

Which of the following, according to the CLIS order of draw, would be filled last? A. Light-blue tube B. Red top C. Anerobic culture bottle D. Lavender top

Lavender top

A patient came to the clinic for a low grade fever of one month duration. As part of the laboratory work-up, the physician ordered erythrocyte sedimentation (ESR). What color tube would be used for this test? A. Red-topped tube B. Lavender-topped tube C. Light blue topped tube D. Green topped tube

Lavender top tube

Which of the following is collected in a trace-element-free tube? A. Occult blood B. BUN C. ABG's D. Lead

Lead

Most coagulation tests require a plasma specimen collected in a: A. Light-blue top tube B. Gray top tube C. Lavender top tube D. Plasma separator tube

Light-blue top tube

A green top tube contains: A. Sodium fluoride B. Lithium heparin C. Sodium citrate D. Potassium Oxalate

Lithium heparin

Alanine amino-transferase (ALT) test is associated with which body system? A. Liver B. Bone C. Heart D. Kidney

Liver

Legal actions in which the alleged injured party sues for monetary damages are: A. Criminal actions B. Malpractice C. Civil actions D. Vicarious

Malpractice

The process by which complex substances in food are broken down into simple substances while releasing energy is: A. Catabolism B. Anabolism C. Embolism D. Metabolism

Metabolism

The muscle layer of the heart is called: A. Endocardium B. Myocardium C. Epicardium D. Pericardium

Myocardium

What is the abbreviation for an agency that has an approval process for phlebotomy programs? A. CLIA '88 B. NAACLS C. CLSI D. NCCT

NAACLS

Failure to give a patient appropriate care is called? A. Unreasonable care B. Defamation C. Negligence D. Battery

Negligence

An infection acquired in a health care facility is called: A. Nosocomial B. Nosophobia C. Nosotoxicosis D. Nosotropic

Nosocomial

The patient's specimen is lipemic. This is usually an indicator that the patient is: A. Normal B. Not fasting C. Smoking D. In basal state

Not fasting

The abbreviation NPO means: A. New patients only B. Negative patient output C. Nothing by mouth D. No positive outcome

Nothing by mouth

During a venipuncture procedure, when should you release the tourniquet? A. Once good blood flow is obtained B. After the needle is withdrawn C. Before the needle is inserted D. Before you bandage the patient

Once good blood flow is obtained

What is the most important step in any blood collection? A. Patient identification B. Post-phlebotomy patient care C. Patient preparation D. Patient approach

Patient identification

Which of the following elements is not necessary for informed consent? A. Patient's diagnosis B. Risks and benefits C. Alternative treatments D. Insurance options

Patient's diagnosis

What are the four items required when filling out labels on specimen blood tubes? A. Name, date, test to be performed, physician's name B. Patient's name, date, test to be performed, physician's name C. Patient's name, date, time, and phlebotomist initials D. Diagnosis, age, and isolation precautions

Patient's name, date, time, and phlebotomist initials

According to the zone of comfort, if you are standing 3 feet from a person you are within: A. Intimate distance B. Personal distance C. Social distance D. Public distance

Personal distance

What is the function of an antiglycolitic agent? A. Increase glucose in blood specimens B. Decrease glucose in blood specimens C. Preserve glucose in blood specimens D. Eliminate glucose specimens

Preserve glucose in blood specimens

What laboratory document describes in detail the steps to follow for specimen collection? A. Policy guidelines B. Procedure manual C. OSHA safety manual D. QC manual

Procedure manual

The level of care that a person of ordinary intelligence and good sense would exercise under the given circumstances is the definition of: A. Quality care B. Due care C. Quality essentials D. Standard of care

Quality care

Guides used to monitor all aspects of patient care are called: A. QA indicators B. QI core measurements C. Quality system essentials D. Threshold values

Quality system essentials

Which of the following would most likely be performed in the serology department? A. RPR B. CBC C. PTT D. BUN

RPR

Samples appear to have been mislabeled and mixed on two patients. Each outpatient has orders for both blood and urine test, so there were two samples for each. What would be the best course of action? A. Re-label the urine samples, but redraw the blood B. Have the patients come back and identify their specimens C. Re-label all the specimens D. Recollect all four specimens from the patients

Recollect all four specimens from the patients

Erythrocytes are also known as: A. Red blood cells B. White blood cells C. Clotting cells D. Engulfing cells

Red blood cells

If a laboratory test requires serum, which Vacutainer tube is the tube of choice? A. Lavender topped tubes B. Red-topped tubes C. Yellow topped tubes D. Black topped tubes

Red-topped tubes

Which of the following additive would be found in a yellow-topped vacuum tube? A. EDTA B. SSC C. SST D. SPS

SPS

What is the additive in the green top tube? A. Potassium Oxalate B. Sodium citrate C. Ethylene diamine tetra acidic acid D. Sodium heparin

Sodium Heparin

Electrolyte testing includes: A. Bilirubin and creatinine B. BUN and cholesterol C. Glucose and uric acid D. Sodium and potassium

Sodium and potassium

What is the antiglycolitic agent in a grey-top tube? A. Sodium citrate B. Potassium sodium C. Sodium fluoride D. Potassium coagulate

Sodium fluoride

The three components of the chain of infection are: A. Source, viability, mode of transportation B. Site, viability, virulence C. Source, mode of transport, virulence D. Source, mode of transport, susceptible host

Source, mode of transmission, suspectible host

The current CDC guideline for infection control is which of the following? A. Standard precaution B. Reverse isolation C. Waived precaution D. Isolation

Standard precaution

What is the process used to wash and remove blood and tissue from medical instruments called? A. Inspection B. Disinfection C. Sanitization D. Sterilization

Sterilization

What is the substance called inside a serum separator tube? A. Triplasmic Gel B. Thixotropic Gel C. Sodium Citrate D. Tricyclic Gel

Thixotropic Gel

In order to monitor therapeutic drug levels, the lab needs to know: A. Time of last dose B. Pharmacist's name C. Number of pills D. Formulation of the drug

Time of last dose

During a dermal puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped? A. To decrease the possibility of bloodborne pathogen transmission B. To remove any interstitial fluid contamination C. To limit the amount of blood released D. To increase the amount of blood released

To remove any interstitial fluid contamination

The principal reason for requesting feedback when communicating with patients is to determine whether they: A. Have a vision problem B. Are cooperative C. Understand what is being said D. Are mentally alert

Understand what is being said

Treating all human blood as if it were infectious is known as: A. Universal precautions B. Work practice controls C. Asepsis D. Engineering controls

Universal precautions

The blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are the: A. Veins B. Vena cava C. Capillaries D. Arteries

Veins

Before capillary collection, it is suggested to: A. Wipe away the second drop of blood B. Wipe away the fourth drop of blood C. Wipe away the first drop of blood D. Wipe away the sixth drop of blood

Wipe away the first drop of blood

Identify the tubes needed to collect a PT, STAT lytes, and BC in proper order of collection? A. SST, yellow, light-blue B. Light-blue, lavender, yellow C. Gold, light-blue, yellow D. Yellow, light-blue, PST

Yellow, light-blue, PST