Pilot Glossary
How far from the final approach fix will the approach gate be established?
1 mile
An ILS approach to Category II minimums provides for an approach to a height above touchdown of not less than:
100 feet and RVR of not less than 1200 feet.
In spite of its small horizontal scale, an intense microburst could induce wind speeds as high as:
150 kts.
When two IFR aircraft are established inbound toward an airport on adjacent final approach courses, they will be radar separated by at least:
2 miles
In designated mountainous areas, the minimum IFR altitude is ____ feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of _____ NM.
2000; 4.
A precision obstacle free zone is designed to protect aircraft flying precision approaches from ground vehicles and other aircraft when the ceiling is less than:
250 feet and the visibility is less than 3/4 SM.
Gross navigation error is a lateral deviation from a cleared track, normally in excess of how much?
25NM
A Localizer Type Directional Aid is a localizer with an angular offset that exceeds the runway alignment by how much?
3 degrees
Predictive wind shear alert systems typically monitor up to what distance from the aircraft heading?
3 miles ahead and 25 degrees left and right.
AIRMET is issued for sustained winds of:
30 kts or more at the surface.
How can pilots at uncontrolled fields contact the appropriate ATC facility using a ground communication outlet?
4 key clicks on the VHF radio.
The Outer Marker is normally located on the extended centerline of the runway and ______ miles from the runway threshold.
4-7
How long can the winds of a downburst last?
5 to 30 minutes
Unless authorized to conduct autoland operations, a coupled precision approach must be flown manually when below what altitude?
50 feet AGL.
Which of the following is considered a special emergency?
A condition of air piracy or other hostile act by a person aboard an aircraft.
How does a precision approach path indicator show a pilot is "on path"?
An equal number of white and red lights.
When is a fix, point, or object considered to be "abeam" of an aircraft? It is:
Approximately 90 degrees to the left or right of the aircraft track.
What are the visibility requirements for a contact approach?
At least 1 SM visibility.
If you are flying an aircraft that falls into a specific approach category, such as Category A, yet are circling to land at a speed in excess of the upper limit for that category, what approach minimums do you use?
Category B, the next approach category.
What type of ice forms from large, supercooled water droplets?
Clear
In order to execute a missed approach, prior to the missed approach point, what must be done?
Continue along the final approach to the missed approach point.
A profile descent is an uninterrupted descent from what altitude?
Cruising altitude to the interception of a glide slope or to a minimum altitude specified for a non-precision approach.
During the time when braking action advisories are in effect, who will ATC issue the most current braking action report to?
Each arriving and departing aircraft.
A Runway Lead in Light System (RLLS) consists of flashing lights along the approach path. How are these lights arranged?
Either curvy or straight, depending on terrain, obstructions, or noise abatement procedures.
What are Minimum Safe Altitudes provided for?
Emergency use; they do not assure acceptable navigational signal coverage.
Instrument Departure Procedures charts are designed to:
Expedite clearance delivery and to facilitate transition between takeoff and en route operations.
How does a rotating beacon indicate the location of a military airport?
Flashes alternately white and green with a dual peaked (two quick) white flash between the green.
The Available Landing Distance (ALD) is the portion of the runway available for landing and rollout:
For aircraft cleared for Land And Hold Short Operations (LAHSO).
According to ICAO terminology, how is ceiling height determined?
Height above ground/water of the lowest cloud layer that covers more than half the sky.
What does a "Descend Via" clearance provide clearance for?
Pilot to descend at his/her discretion to comply with published altitude restrictions.
When ATC includes "Expedite" in a climb/descent clearance, what does this indicate to the pilot? Approximate best:
Rate of climb/descent should be used without requiring an exceptional change in aircraft handling characteristics.
Which of the following best describes Obstacle Departure Procedures?
Recommended for obstacle clearance and may be flown without ATC clearance.
When operating within Class B airspace, a clearance is required which enables you to receive what services?
Separation services.
What effects does Light Chop turbulence have on an aircraft?
Somewhat rhythmic bumpiness without appreciable changes in aircraft altitude or attitude.
A clearance of "pilot's discretion" means the pilot is permitted to do what?
Temporarily level off at any intermediate altitude.
What is Decision Altitude?
The altitude on an approach chart at which the pilot must decide whether or not to continue the approach.
In response to either a controller question or a pilot initiated cautionary advisory to ATC, how will the pilot transmit fuel remaining information?
The approximate number of minutes the flight can continue with the fuel remaining
What are VFR Flyways recommended to be used for?
To bypass areas heavily used by large turbine-powered aircraft.
What is a Center Weather Advisory used to do?
Alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next 2 hours.
In addition to basic radar service, a Terminal Radar Service Area provides sequencing of:
All IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft to the primary airport.
What is characteristic of an Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ)?
All aircraft must be identified, located, and controlled for national security purposes
What does an ILS PRM approach require?
All of the answers are correct.
What is the international radiotelephony urgency signal?
Pan-Pan, repeated three times.
A random route is:
A route that is not established, charted, or published.
What is the minimum information required for an abbreviated IFR flight plan?
Aircraft identification, location, and pilot request.
Under what circumstances may the Pilot in Command of an aircraft deviate from the provisions of a VFR air traffic clearance?
In an emergency
Why are preferred IFR routes established?
It increases system efficiency and capacity between busier airports.
Which of the following components are usually included in the Instrument Landing System?
Localizer, glideslope, outer marker, middle marker, and approach lights.
Is turbulence always associated with fluctuation in airspeed and altitude caused by mountain waves?.
No. Turbulence is not always associated with mountain wave activity
Airport elevation is defined as the highest point:
Of an airport's usable runways measured in feet from MSL.
