Practice Exam 2
What body organ would be affected by hepatotoxicity? Intestines Kidneys --Liver Thyroid
"Hepat" means liver.
What is the correct meaning for signa in the following prescription: "Timoptic 0.25% 15 mL, i gtt ou bid"?
"Ⅰ" is the Roman numeral for one, "gtt" means drop, "ou" means each eye, and "bid" means twice per day. Instill 1 drop in each eye twice a day.
Which of the following interpretations of the signa "ii gtt os bid" is correct?
"Ⅱ" is the Roman numeral for 2, "gtt" is drops, "os" is the left eye, and "bid" is twice per day. Instill 2 drops in left eye twice a day.
Which of the following would be found on a hospital medication order but not on a retail prescription? --Dosage schedule Drug name Drug strength Patient name
A dosage schedule states exactly when a medication is to be administered to the patients such as 8 am or 4 pm.
An IV line has been ordered for a patient, and it is to be administered at 14:00 hours. What time is that using standard time?
14:00 is the same as 2 pm
Which of the following forms is associated with hazardous materials? DEA Form 106 IND --SDS PPI
A Safety Data Sheet must be provided to a purchaser of hazardous materials.
Which of the following is an example of an automated dispensing system? --Centralized system Modernized system Process control devices All of the above
A centralized system is located in a central pharmacy that is used to improve the manual unit-dose cart-fill process.
Which classification of drug recall occurs if the patient experiences a reversible side effect? Class I --Class II Class III Class IV
A class II drug recall is one in which the probability exists that the use of the product will cause adverse health events that are temporary or medically reversible. A class I drug recall shows that there is a reasonable probability that use of the product will cause or lead to serious adverse events or death. A class III recall is one in which use of the product will probably not cause an adverse health event.
Which of the following is defined as a report summarizing all items that were not purchased on bid? 80/20 report --Compliance report PAR report Velocity report
A compliance report is a report summarizing all items that were not purchased on bid. An 80/20 report is a detailed summary of purchasing history based on the 80/20 rule, designating medications that account for 80% of the drug costs for that period of time. A PAR report identifies the PAR level for each medication in stock. A velocity report provides a measure of the rate of work accomplished per iteration unit of time.
What type of unit-dose system is referred to as a punch card, a bingo card, or a blister pack? Blended unit-dose system --Modified unit-dose system Modular cassette Multiple medication packages
A modified unit-dose system is a drug distribution system that combines unit-dose medications blister packaged onto a multiple-dose card instead of being placed into a box. They are referred to as punch cards, bingo cards, or blister packs and may contain 30, 60, or 90 units on one card.
Which of the following orders calls for receiving a specific drug at a specified time each day? ASAP order prn order --Standing order STAT order
A standing order calls for receiving a specific drug at a specified time each day.
Which of the following describes the system approach to medication errors? It holds the individual(s) involved in the error responsible for the error. It holds the individual(s) involved in the error responsible for the error. --It involves analyzing, categorizing, and evaluating the error to develop processes and procedures to prevent the error form occurring again. It warns the entire the entire pharmacy department when an error occurs. It resolves the issue as soon as possible.
A system approach attempts to find the cause of incident and work to find a solution to prevent the error from occurring again. It is not used to punish the individual(s).
Where should used needles be placed after use? In a biohazard container In a red plastic bag --In a sharps container With normal trash
A used needle should be disposed in a red plastic sharps container to prevent individuals from being injured by needles.
What is the direction for airflow in a vertical laminar airflow hood?
A vertical airflow hood is similar to the horizontal except that the air cannot be recirculated into the room. This air goes through two HEPA filters and is released into an open area or is vented to the outside.
What would be the infusion rate for a 50 mg/mL magnesium sulfate solution to provide 1.2 g/hr?
Convert grams to milligrams (1.2 g × 1,000 mg/g = 1,200 mg). Use a proportion to calculate the volume to be infused (50 mg/1 mL = 1200 mg/X mL) X = 24 mL
Acetaminophen with codeine is classified in what drug schedule?
Acetaminophen with codeine is a Schedule III controlled substance.
Which of the following is not an example of a sound-alike, look-alike drug? Aciphex-Accupril Adderall-Inderal Alprazolam-lorazepam --Metformin-methadone
Aciphex-Accupril, Adderall-Inderal, and alprazolam-lorazepam have been identified by the Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) after being reported to ISMP-MERP as being involved in many medication errors because of their sound-alike or look-alike names.
What does ASHP mean? American Schools of Health Practices --American Society of Health-System Pharmacists American Society of Hospital Pharmacists Association of Specialty Health Practitioners
ASHP is an acronym standing for American Society of Health-System Pharmacists.
What does Syrup USP contain? Alcohol in water Oleaginous in water PEG in water --Sucrose in water
According to the United States Pharmacopoeia, Syrup USP contains sucrose (sugar) dissolved in water.
Which step in the processing of a prescription will inform the pharmacy that a prescription claim has been rejected? --Adjudication Counseling Entering information into the computer Translating the prescription
Adjudication is the process of electronically billing an insurance carrier for payment of a prescription.
Who is responsible for maintaining the inventory stock in the pharmacy? Certified pharmacy technician Pharmacist Pharmacy technician --All pharmacy staff
All pharmacy employees are responsible to ensure the correct medications and quantities are being maintained in the pharmacy.
Which of the following antiviral agents is used in the prophylaxis of influenza A? Acyclovir --Amantadine Cidofovir Vidarabine
Amantadine (Symmetrel) is used as a prophylaxis treatment for influenza A. Acyclovir (Zovirax) is used to treat genital herpes, herpes zoster, and varicella. Cidofovir (Vistide) is used to treat cytomegalovirus. Vidarabine (Vira A) is an ophthalmic agent.
What does the pharmacy abbreviation MDI mean? Measured density of intestines --Metered-dose inhaler Measured-dose insulin Mild diabetes insipidus
An MDI is a metered-dose inhaler.
A hospital may adopt for specific medications, such as antibiotics, an automatic stop-order policy that requires a physician to reorder the medication after a predetermined period. Which of the following is an acronym for this process? --ASO ASOP Autostop Stop
An automatic stop order is abbreviated ASO.
Which of the following would require a potassium supplement? Aldactone Dyazide Dyrenium --Lasix
An individual taking Lasix as a diuretic may lose potassium and require a potassium supplement. Aldactone, Dyazide, and Dyrenium are potassium-sparing diuretics.
Which of the following can be done using pharmacy automation? Compounding medications Dispensing medications Distributing medications --All of the above
Automation can compound, package, dispense, distribute, and store medication.
On a patient's chart, what does the acronym "BS" mean? Body surface --Blood sugar Bloody solutions Bloody stools
BS on a patient's chart indicates blood sugar.
Which of the following medications may be used to minimize the side effects of antipsychotics? --Benztropine Olanzapine Prednisone Propranolol
Benztropine (Cogentin), which is an anticholinergic, is used to treat some of the adverse effects of antipsychotics, such as trembling.
What is the generic name for Glucophage? Glimepiride Glipizide Glyburide --Metformin
Brand names and their generics are as follows: Glucophage—metformin, Amaryl—glimepiride, glipizide—Glucotrol, and Micronase—glyburide.
Which of the following is an example of drug duplication? Aldactone and Coreg --Calan and Isoptin Coumadin and Zetia Dyazide and Vasotec
Calan and Isoptin are brand names for verapamil.
The infusion rate of an IV is over a 12-hour period. The total exact volume is 800 mL. What would be the infusion rate in mL/min?
Calculate rate/hour and then divide by 60 min/hr: 800 mL/12 hr = 66 mL/hr; 66 mL/hr/60 min/hr = 1.11 mL/min.
Which of the following medications is the generic name for Biaxin? Azithromycin --Clarithromycin Dirithromycin Erythromycin ethylsuccinate
Clarithromycin is the generic name for Biaxin. Azithromycin (Zithromax or Z-Pak), dirithromycin (Dynabac), and erythromycin ethylsuccinate (EES) are all macrolide antibiotics, as is clarithromycin.
What term describes the willingness of the patient to take a drug in the amounts and on schedule as prescribed?
Compliance is an act of adhering to particular directions. The ease of administration is a factor in a patient's compliance of taking a medication. Both first and second pass are components of pharmacokinetics.
How many times may a controlled substance with five refills be transferred to another pharmacy?
Controlled substances can be transferred only once.
How much dextrose does 1 L of D10W contain? 10 mg 100 mg 1 g --100 g
D10W stands for 10% dextrose dissolved in water. w/v% is the number of grams dissolved in 100 mL of solution. Set the problem where 10 g/100 mL = X g/1000 mL, X= 100 g.
Which DEA form is used to report a theft of controlled substances? DEA Form 41 --DEA Form 106 DEA Form 222 DEA Form 224
DEA Form 106 is used to report the theft of controlled substances, DEA Form 41 is used for the destruction of controlled substances, DEA Form 222 orders Schedule II medications, and DEA Form 224 registers a pharmacy with the DEA.
Which of the following can be accessed through the pharmacy terminal? Drug Facts and Comparisons MEDLINE Physicians' Desk Reference --All of the above
Drug Facts and Comparisons can be accessed at www.factsandcomparisions.com, MEDLINE can found at www.nlm.nih.gov, and the Physicians' Desk Reference can be accessed at www.pdr.net.
Which of the following medications is not identified as a "high-alert medication" by the ISMP? --Amoxicillin Heparin Metformin Propranolol
Drug classifications considered as "high-alert classifications" include antithrombotic agents (heparin), oral hypoglycemic agents (metformin), and adrenergic antagonists (propranolol).
What should be done in preparing a prescription for etoposide? Flush the remaining contents down a sink or toilet. Wear protective clothing if you are allergic to etoposide. Place labels on the container so it has a professional appearance. --Prepare it in a biological safety cabinet.
Etoposide needs to be prepared in a biological safety cabinet because it is a plant alkaloid used in the treatment of cancer.
Which of the following does HIPAA require covered entities to do?
HIPAA requires health care organizations to create privacy practices that are appropriate for the services offered, educate employees about privacy practices, have a privacy official oversee the privacy practices, carefully control breaches of privacy, and notify patients about how their information can be disclosed or used.
What type of mortar and pestle should be used in mixing liquid compounds?
Glass mortars and pestles are best used for mixing liquids because of the smooth surface, and they will not stain like porcelain or Wedgwood.
Which of the following is a goal of inventory management? Minimize capital charge on average inventory Minimize shrinkage, breakage, and obsolescence of inventory Provide an adequate stock of pharmaceuticals and supplies --All of the above
Goals of inventory management include provide an adequate stock of pharmaceuticals and supplies; reduce unexpected stock-outs and temporary shortages, which may affect patient care; reduce carrying cost (financial investment) in drug products; minimize costs associated with placing orders to the wholesaler; minimize time spent on purchasing functions; minimize capital charge on average inventory; minimize shrinkage, breakage, and obsolescence of inventory; and reduce purchasing dollars spent by selecting products based on organizational formulary requirements, bioequivalence, and cost.
What is the trade name for guaifenesin? Benadryl --Robitussin Tessalon Tussionex
Guaifenesin is the generic name for Robitussin or Humibid. The generic names for the other products are follows: Benadryl—diphenhydramine, Tessalon—benzonatate, and Tussionex—hydrocodone and chlorpheniramine.
Which of the following agencies is responsible for approving hospitals for Medicaid reimbursement? BOP DPH --HCFA TJC
HCFA stands for Health Care Financing Administration.
Which of the following is not an example of a decentralized automated dispensing system? McKesson Acudose-Rx --McKesson Robot-RXD Omnicell SureMed Pyxis MedStation
McKesson Acudose-Rx, Omnicell SureMed, and Pyxix MedStation are examples of centralized dispensing systems
How long must controlled substance records be retained according to federal law? 6 months 1 year --2 years 7 years
The Federal Controlled Substances Act requires that all pharmacy records be maintained for a minimum of 2 years.
Which two drug classifications should not be taken together? TCAs and MAOIs TCAs and SSRIs --MAOIs and SSRIs TCAs and lithium
MAOIs and SSRIs should not be taken together. An MAOI must be washed out of the body before SSRI treatment is initiated. This washing-out period is approximately 2 weeks.
What does Medicare Part B cover? Hospice care Hospital care Nursing facility care --Outpatient services
Medicare Part B covers outpatient services, physician services, and durable medical equipment. Medicare Part A covers hospital, nursing facility, home health, hospice, and inpatient care. Medicare Part C (Medicare + Choice) provides health care options in addition to those covered under Medicare Parts A and B. Medicare Part D covers prescription medications.
Which of the following drug classifications would not be included on automatic stop orders in a hospital? Antibiotics Anticoagulants Antihistamines --Diabetic medications
Medications for the treatment of diabetes are not included on automatic stop orders in hospitals.
Which of the following drugs is not a selective 5-HT receptor agonist used to treat migraine headaches? Imitrex Maxalt --Midrin Zomig
Midrin is a combination product used to abort migraine headaches but is not a selective 5-HT receptor agonist. Imitrex, Maxalt, and Zomig are 5-HT receptor agonists.
Which of the following standard development organizations has developed and maintained standards for each step in the prescribing process? --NCPDP SCRIPT PSTAC All of the above
NCPDP is the only standards development organization that focuses on pharmacy services. NCPDP works to develop and maintain standards for each step in the prescribing process. NCPDP has established e-prescribing standards known as SCRIPT. SCRIPT standards facilitate the transfer of prescription data among pharmacies, prescribers, intermediaries, and payers. PSTAC has established HIPPA-compliant Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) billing codes for pharmacists when performing Medication Therapy Management (MTM) services.
Which of the following medications is not indicated for osteoporosis? Actonel Evista Fosamax --Naprosyn
Naprosyn is not indicated for osteoporosis.
Who makes notations and signs medication administration records (MARs) in an institution? Doctors --Nurses Pharmacists Pharmacy technicians
Nurses administer medication to patients and therefore would document the MAR. Physicians diagnose and prescribe, pharmacists dispense, and pharmacy technicians assist pharmacists in performing their duties.
What does the abbreviation "hs" mean on a prescription?
The abbreviation "hs" means at the hour of bed, hour of sleep, or at bedtime.
Which of the following patients must have a patient profile? --All patients All new patients All patients who have transferred prescriptions into a pharmacy All patients receiving controlled substance prescriptions
OBRA '90 requires that all patients receiving prescriptions in a pharmacy have a patient profile.
Which schedule contains medications that do not require a prescription?
One may purchase "exempt narcotics" without a prescription if specific conditions are met. Exempt narcotics are Schedule V medications.
What is the direction for airflow in a horizontal laminar airflow hood?
Outside air flows into the back of the horizontal airflow hood, through the hood's HEPA filter, and out toward the opening, and the air is recirculated into the room.
What does the term "overhead" refer to in business? --All of the costs associated with a business Ceilings Inventory Payroll
Overhead is the sum of all the expenses in a business. Examples of overhead found in a pharmacy include the salaries of all the employees, cost of inventory, expense-associated utilities, supplies, licenses, and computer hardware and software.
What does the acronym PAR affect in the practice of pharmacy? Compounding Customer service Drug utilization evaluation --Inventory management
PAR stands for periodic automatic replacement and is used in inventory management in the practice of pharmacy.
What auxiliary label should be included on a container of medication that has the following signa: "i gtt os bid"?
The abbreviation "os" means left eye.
Which of the following is the generic name for Percocet? Acetaminophen + codeine Acetaminophen + hydrocodone --Acetaminophen + oxycodone Acetaminophen + propoxyphene
Percocet is oxycodone + acetaminophen; Tylenol C codeine is acetaminophen + codeine, Vicodin-Lortab is hydrocodone + acetaminophen, and Darvocet N is propoxyphene + acetaminophen.
Which of the following is the primary source of medication for community pharmacies? Chain pharmacy warehouses GPOs --Manufacturers and wholesalers Store-to-store vendors
Pharmacies purchase their medications either directly from the manufacturer or from a secondary vendor such as a wholesaler. A chain pharmacy warehouse is a secondary vendor for a particular chain. GPOs negotiate prices for hospitals.
What is the study of the action of drugs within the body, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion?
Pharmacokinetics examines the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of medications. Pharmacology is the study of how drugs work, such as their mechanism of action. A pharmacopoeia is a listing of drugs. Pharmacy is the art of preparing and dispensing drugs.
Which of the following terms refers to the requirements that patients, providers, or institutions must meet before the insurance company will approve diagnostic testing, hospital admissions, or inpatient or outpatient surgical procedures? Coordination of benefits Eligibility --Preauthorization Waiting period
Preauthorization refers to the requirements that patients, providers, or institutions must meet before the insurance company will approve diagnostic testing, hospital admissions, or inpatient or outpatient surgical procedures. Coordination of benefits prevents duplicate payment for the same service. Eligibility can be verified by contacting the "help desk" either over the telephone, through a voice-automated system, or electronically. A waiting period is the amount of time an individual must wait to become eligible for insurance coverage.
What is the nonproprietary name for Deltasone? Lithium Methylprednisolone Prednisolone --Prednisone
Prednisone is the generic name for Deltasone. The generic names for the other products are follows: lithium—Eskalith, methylprednisolone—Medrol, prednisolone—Pediapred.
What are the four elements of medical and pharmaceutical nomenclature?
Prefixes, suffixes, root words, and combining vowels. A prefix occurs before the root word, which is followed by a suffix. Vowels combine the prefix, root word, and suffix together.
What type of pharmacy literature provides the original reports of scientific, clinical, technical, and administrative research projects? --Primary Secondary Tertiary None of the above
Primary literature provides the original reports of scientific, clinical, technical, and administrative research projects.
Why is it important to follow the procedures of an institution?
Procedures are a way to avoid errors in performing a specific task.
Which of the following medications would be used prophylactically in the treatment of migraine headaches? Butorphanol Maxalt --Propranolol Sumatriptan
Propranolol (Inderal) is a prophylactic agent used to prevent migraine headaches. Butorphanol (Stadol), Maxalt, and sumatriptan (Imitrex) are agents used to abort migraine headaches.
Which of the following medications is contraindicated for an individual with hypertension? Diphenhydramine Ibuprofen Loperamide --Pseudoephedrine
Pseudoephedrine is a central nervous stimulant that excites the heart, resulting in the heart's pumping harder at an increased rate.
Which vitamin deficiency would result in rickets? Vitamin A Vitamin B1 Vitamin C --Vitamin D
Rickets is caused by a deficiency of vitamin D. Deficiencies of vitamin A result in night blindness, deficiencies of vitamin B1 result in beriberi, and deficiencies of vitamin C result in scurvy.
What is the meaning of the Latin abbreviation "Rx" on a prescription? Insigna Sig --Take Write on label
Rx means to take a given product of a given strength and quantity.
What is the meaning of SDS? --Safety Data Sheets Material Sterile Delivery System Miscellaneous Secondary Drug Supplier Morphine sulfate depot system
SDS means Safety Data Sheets. SDS contain information about hazardous products.
Which of the following auxiliary labels would not be appropriate for a prescription of sulfasalazine? Avoid sunlight Drink plenty of water --Keep refrigerated May discolor urine
Sulfasalazine may cause photosensitivity to an individual if he or she is exposed to direct sunlight; one should drink plenty of water to prevent crystals from developing in the kidneys. Sulfasalazine has the tendency to change the color of one's urine from a yellow to an orange-brown color.
By what route should Phenergan 25 mg suppository be taken? PO --PR SL TOP
Suppositories are inserted into body orifices such as the rectum, urethra, and vagina. PR is an abbreviation meaning "per rectum."
Which of the following did TRICARE replace? BCBSA --CHAMPUS CHAMPVA Workers Compensation
TRICARE was formerly known as Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS).
Which of the following terms refers to the price a pharmacy pays for a drug after all discounts and shipping costs have been applied? --Actual acquisition cost (AAC) Average wholesale price (AWP) Discounted price Premium
The actual acquisition cost is the price that is paid for a drug after all discounts and costs have been applied; average wholesale price is the national calculated average price that a pharmacy might pay for a given package size of a drug.
What does the "tall man" list issued by the ISMP and the FDA highlight? --Dissimilarities in drug names Dissimilarities in nonproprietary drug names Dissimilarities in proprietary drug names Similarities in drug names
The "tall man" list capitalizes the dissimilarities in similarly spelled drug names, both proprietary and nonproprietary drugs
Which organization replaced the HCFA? --CMS DEA FDA TJC
The Centers for Medicaid and Medicare Services (CMS) replaced the Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA).
What organizations administers Medicare?
The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) administers Medicare.
What form must be submitted to the DEA to destroy controlled substances? --Form 41 Form 49 Form 224 Form 225
The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 requires that pharmacies submit DEA Form 41 in triplicate before the destruction of any controlled substances.
Which of the following is not considered a scheduled medication, which includes maintenance doses that are administered in a standard, repeated cycle of frequency? BID Q4H QID -PRN
The ISMP does not consider the following as regularly scheduled times for maintenance medication: STAT and NOW doses, first doses and loading doses, one-time doses, specifically timed doses, on-call medications, time-sequenced or concomitant medications, medications administered at specific times to ensure accurate drug levels, PRN medications, and investigational drugs.
Which of the following is a criterion for a drug to be placed on the ISMP's "do not crush" list? Enteric-coated tablet Film-coated tablet Skin irritant --All of the above
The ISMP has established a list of medications that should never be crushed before administration because of a variety of reasons, including slow-release dosage form, extended-release dosage form, enteric-coated dosage form, may irritate the mucous membranes, rate of absorption may be increased, coating of tablet may release the drug over a period of time, taste, skin irritant, liquid filled sublingual dosage form, film-coated dosage form, effervescent tablet, teratogenic effect, and local anesthesia of the oral mucosa.
Who initiated use of the "do not use" list? FDA ISMP MERP --TJC
The Joint Commission (TJC) initiated the use of the "do not use" list to be included in all TJC formularies to assist in eliminating prescription errors.
Which of the following is an explanation for why a drug manufacturer would recall a particular drug product? Drug batch was contaminated Drug labeling is wrong Drug product was not packaged or produced properly --All of the above
The Pure Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 defined both adulteration and misbranding. Adulteration is concerned about the medication's purity, and misbranding involves truthful disclosure through labeling. The drug batch being contaminated is an example of adulteration. Incorrect drug labeling and the drug product being packaged or produced incorrectly are examples of misbranding.
You have received a prescription for amoxicillin 500 mg po. The patient is unable to chew or swallow capsules or tablets. How many milliliters should be given in each dose if the concentration is 125 mg/5 mL?
The problem can be solved using a proportion: 125 mg/5 mL = 500 mg/X mL where X = 20 mL.
What is the maximum number of different items that may be ordered on a Form 222? 5 --10 15 20
The maximum number of different Schedule II medications legally allowed on a Form 222 is 10, which is found in the Controlled Substances Act of 1970.
You have been asked to prepare 20 mL of a drug dilution of 50 mg/mL from a stock solution of 2 g/5 mL. How many milliliters of diluent will be needed?
The problem can be solved using the following formula: (IS)(IV) = (FS)(FV), where 2 g/5 mL is the initial strength, 20 mL is the final volume, and 50 mg/mL is the final strength, which will yield an initial volume of 2.5 mL. Final volume (20 mL) - Initial volume (2.5 mL) = Amount of diluent (17.5 mL).
Which of the following is not a reason to return medications to the warehouse or manufacturer? Drug damaged during delivery Drug expired --Drug incorrectly reconstituted Drug recall
The pharmacy has terms or agreement with a warehouse, wholesaler, or drug manufacturer regarding purchases and returns. A pharmacy that fails to reconstitutes a drug properly is not able to return the medication to the warehouse, wholesaler or drug manufacturer for credit under the terms and agreements for drug purchases and returns.
A manufacturer's invoice totals $500.00 with the term 3% net. How much should be remitted to the manufacturer if it is paid in 30 days?
The term 3% net means that a purchaser can reduce a purchase by 3% if he or she pays within a stated period (30 days in this case). Multiplying $500.00 by 0.03 = $15.00 (amount of discount). Invoice - Discount = Amount to be remitted ($500.00 - $15.00 = $485.00).
What does "U&C" mean when billing prescriptions? Unusual customer Unusual and customary Usual customer --Usual and customary
U&C means the charge is the usual and customary charge, which a patient would pay if his or her third-party payer were not involved in the transaction.
A pharmacy technician receives a prescription to make 4 oz of a 10% solution and has a 25% stock solution on hand. How much diluent will be added to fill this prescription?
Use the following equation: (IS)(IV) = (FS)(FV), where IS is initial strength or 25%; IV is the initial volume being calculated; FS is final strength or 10%; and FV is final volume, which is 4 fl oz or 120 mL. 25(x) = (10) (120) This calculation yields 48 mL. Subtract the initial volume (48 mL) from the final volume (120 mL), which will yield the amount of diluent (72 mL).
Which of the following medications is not indicated to prevent a stroke? Aspirin Coumadin Plavix --Zetia
Zetia is a bile acid sequestrant that is used in the treatment of high cholesterol.
How would a prescriber write a prescription for "Zolpidem 5 mg at bedtime as needed"?
Zolpidem 5 mg q hs prn At bedtime is abbreviated "hs," and as needed is abbreviated "prn."
You have a 10% solution of dextrose. How many grams of dextrose are in 500 mL of this solution? 50 mg 500 mg 5000 mg --50 g
w/v% is defined as the number of grams/100 mL. Calculate using the following formula: Final volume × Percent (expressed as a decimal) = Amount of active ingredient: 500 mL × 0.1 = 50 g.