Practice Exam

Based on the neuro-metabolic system continuum, which training activities would be performed last when cross training? a. Power b. Strength c. Aerobic endurance d. Static flexibility

c. Aerobic endurance

A lack of oxygen to tissue causing pain and discomfort is termed: a. Anemia b. Dyspnea c. Ischemia d. Apnea

c. Ischemia

Which of the following statements regarding pyramid training is accurate? a. The system uses high repetitions and short rest intervals b. The system is used for power development when integrated with plyometrics c. The system is used for strength development as it provides progressive overload and neural enhancements d. The system is optimal for beginners seeking hypertrophy through motor rehearsal

c. The system is used for strength development as it provides progressive overload and neural enhancements

What becomes the most limited trunk movement for older adults due to the aging process? a. flexion b. lateral flexion c. rotation d. extension

d. extension

What positive change can be expected from an aerobic exercise intervention for a hypertensive client lasting several months? a. a reduction of blood pressure by 10 points b. a reduction of blood pressure by 15 points c. a reduction of blood pressure by 20 points d. a reduction of blood pressure by 25 points

a reduction of blood pressure by 10 points

When constructing appropriate exercise prescription for strength training, based on the principle of progression, how much should the total load be increased per week when expressed as a percentage? a. 2-5% b. 7-9% c. 10-12% d. 15-20%

a. 2-5% Increases in total load should be between 2-5% per week. This gradual increase in stress is associated with the principle of progression, and helps strike a balance between excess and inadequate stress. Novice exercisers tend to make rapid gains early on as the nervous system quickly adapts to the activities performed. As they migrate towards proficiency, their adaptation rate will become more consistent with experienced exercisers.

You are working with a female client who does not want to "bulk up" from weight training. Which of the following set-rep schematics performed in three, 60-minute sessions per week would have the greatest desired adaptation effect? a. 4 sets per exercise at 65% 1RM, 15 reps, 30-45 second rest intervals, total body emphasis b. 3 sets per exercise at 80-90% 1RM, 4-8 reps, 75-90 second rest intervals, muscle group-specific exercise c. 5 sets per exercise using 70-80% 1RM, 10-12 reps, 60-75 second rest intervals, upper or lower body d. 5 sets per exercise using 70-80% 1RM, 10-12 reps, 60-75 second rest intervals, upper or lower body

a. 4 sets per exercise at 65% 1RM, 15 reps, 30-45 second rest intervals, total body emphasis Higher and very low repetition ranges reduce muscle architectural changes. Low reps at 1-3 works the nervous system while high reps over 15 work the metabolic system. 15 reps equal about 45 seconds of time-under-tension, with a 1:1 to 1:0.75 ratio. This type of training is specifically geared towards caloric expenditure with a side benefit of maintaining lean mass. However, due the elevated time-under-tension (>20 minutes), it may not be feasible for a novice client unaccustomed to resistance training.

Which back exercise employs the biceps to the greatest degree? a. Chin-ups b. Pull-ups c. Seated row d. One-arm row

a. Chin-ups Switching from a pronated grip to a supinated grip will allow for greater biceps activation when performing back exercises. The chin-up uses a supinated grip which still targets the back musculature, but also increases demands placed upon the elbow flexors.

What is the correct course of action for an individual who cannot reach the initial measure on the sit-and-reach test to identify an actual score? a. Document the individual as inflexible and ensure the program addresses the issue b. Stretch the client's hamstrings and low back before a second attempt c. Recommend the client see a chiropractor to evaluate their back d. Recommend the client see a physical therapist to address any soft tissue issues

a. Document the individual as inflexible and ensure the program addresses the issue It is not uncommon for people to have poor scores in the fitness-related component of fitness. Flexibility of the hamstrings and low back are often at very low levels among the general population. Failing the sit-and-reach means the client is inflexible in the posterior kinetic chain. They need to stretch, not see a physician. Document starting points and begin a client-specific approach to address the issue.

What affect does routine, moderate-intensity aerobic training have on one's blood lipid profile? a. HDL will increase b. VLDL will increase c. LDL will increase d. Aerobic exercise does not affect circulating cholesterol

a. HDL will increase

_________ is an amino acid which is purported to stimulate the growth hormone production. a. L-arginine b. Leucine c. Glutamine d. Valine

a. L-arginine L-arginine is an amino acid that functions in the process of growth hormone management. Supplementation has not provided scientifically-significant ergogenic benefits to date. Glutamine is an anticorticoid agent protecting muscle protein while leucine and valine serve as two of the three branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs).

When reducing dietary fat intake, _________ should make up the majority of dietary lipids consumed? a. Monounsaturated fat b. Polyunsaturated fat c. Saturated fat d. Trans fatty acids

a. Monounsaturated fat Monounsaturated fatty acids are cardiovascularly-benign. Common to the Mediterranean diet these fatty acids should represent between 15-20% of the fats in the diet. Saturated fat should be less than 10%, and polyunsaturated fats generally reach up to 15%. Trans fatty acids should be avoided.

What is the best exercise to strengthen the lats in the frontal plane? a. Pull-up b. Chin-up c. Lat pull-down behind the head d. Pullover

a. Pull-up The pull-up exercise is the best selection for training the lats in the frontal plane. The lat pull-down is performed in the frontal plane but when pulled behind the head reduces lat activation and is contraindicated due to risk for injury.

Spinal extension declines with age making _________________ an important exercise for prevention. a. Reverse flyes b. Bench press c. Back squats d. Military press

a. Reverse flyes Rows and reverse flies are recommended as primary exercises for healthy aging. The aging curve promotes forward flexion and scapular outward rotation which causes dysfunction. Rowing and reverse flies promote extension and scapular rhythm, meaning alignment is properly maintained.

Which of the following exercises would best alleviate restricted range of motion in the upper back musculature? a. Single-arm cable row b. Lat pull-down c. Barbell bent-over row d. Dumbbell upright row

a. Single-arm cable row Single-arm cable rows would allow for the greatest range of motion in the back and front musculature because it is performed unilateral. Bilateral exercises tend to reduce range of motion in exchange for higher attainable loads.

Ankle dorsi flexion is caused by _________________. a. a concentric contraction of the anterior tibialis b. an isometric contraction of the soleus c. an eccentric contraction of the biceps femoris d. a concentric contraction of the gastrocnemius

a. a concentric contraction of the anterior tibialis

The risk of blood pooling after a high-intensity training session is minimized by ___________. a. a cool down segment b. a hot shower c. a sauna d. an ice bath

a. a cool down segment

Which is a vital component of maintaining a professional certification credential? a. continuing education b. complying with the profession's code of ethics c. maintaining a current CPR d. all of the above are correct

a. continuing education

Proper execution of the single-leg Romanian deadlift will dynamically stretch the: a. gastrocnemius b. hip adductors c. rectus abdominus d. quadriceps

a. gastrocnemius The Romanian deadlift will dynamically stretch the gastrocnemius during the eccentric portion of the movement when performed in a split stance and even more so on a single leg. It is well known that the hamstrings are stretched as well as strengthened during the movement, but the greater range attainable when performing a single-leg variation will allow for additional lengthening of the gastrocnemius.

What muscle is the prime mover for the lateral lunge performed in the picture? a. hip abductors b. hip extensors c. hip rotators d. hip flexors

a. hip abductors

What muscles are used to globally stabilize the humerus during the bench press? a. latissimus dorsi and deltoid b. pectoralis major and minor c. rectus abdominis and erector spinae d. obliques and transverse abdominis

a. latissimus dorsi and deltoid

Aerobic metabolism in the muscle cell occurs within which organelle? a. mitochondria b. golgi tendon organs c. sarcomeres d. muscle spindles

a. mitochondria

Which system of the body has the greatest adaptation rate when exposed to a new training stimulus? a. nervous system b. cardiovascular system c. endocrine system d. digestive system

a. nervous system

Increased vasodilation occurs with use of which supplement? a. nitric oxide b. valine c. isoleucine d. glutamine

a. nitric oxide Nitric oxide has been shown to increase vasodilation and is purported to assist metabolic regulation of glucose, fatty acids and amino acids. Nitric oxide has become popular with exercise enthusiasts; however, there is no conclusive evidence indicating improvements in performance following supplementation beyond placebo effect.

When performing biceps and triceps exercises, what joint action should occur at the shoulder? a. no joint movement b. flexion c. abduction d. extension

a. no joint movement

What type of performance training is most associated with independence for older adults? a. power b. agility c. coordination d. balance

a. power

Which of the following refers to the cumulative input to the nervous system that relays body and positional movement? a. proprioception b. the motor axis c. the kinetic chain d. ballistic movements

a. proprioception

During extended periods of endurance exercise, such as training for a marathon, which energy-yielding nutrient contributes up to 15% of the body's energy needs? a. protein b. fat c. carbohydrate d. vitamins

a. protein Protein contributes up to 15% of the body's energy needs during extended aerobic training, and in very limited amounts during any other time. Protein contributes to energy demands when carbohydrates are insufficient; triggering protein catabolism. Most of the energy needs during aerobic exercise are met by carbohydrate and lipid stores in the body.

What negative affect does trans fat have on blood lipid profiles? a. reduced HDL b. reduced LDL c. reduced VLDL d. reduced triglycerides

a. reduced HDL

Which of the following recommendations would directly reduce the risk for heart disease? a. reducing chronic psychological stress b. cutting carbohydrate intake c. adding flexibility training d. increasing water intake

a. reducing chronic psychological stress

Your new client is a 66 year-old female who is concerned about her bone health. What should be included in her program to address her concerns? a. resistance and power training using all major muscle groups b. aerobic activities to minimize the risk of fractures and related injuries c. flexibility training to balance out connective tissues d. circuits of non-impact aerobic exercises mixed with passive stretching

a. resistance and power training using all major muscle groups

Advancing age and disease reduce vessel responsiveness called ______________ which increases risk for cardiovascular disease and stroke. a. vascular compliance b. tissue dysmorphic condition c. tissue restriction d. vascular occlusion

a. vascular compliance Vascular compliance is defined as the ability of blood vessels to expand and contract, often measured as elasticity. Less compliant blood vessels no longer retain their ability to expand during hypertensive situations; causing further increases in blood pressure and vascular wall damage. Adaptations to aerobic exercise include increases in the diameter of blood vessels as well as improved compliance. These adaptations reduce the workload of the heart by decreasing peripheral resistance.

Which assessment of aerobic fitness is most commonly used for a 14 year-old boy? a. 6 minute jump rope test b. 1 mile run test c. 200 m sprint test d. 300 yd shuttle test

b. 1 mile run test

What is the predicted maximal heart rate of a 50 year-old male client? a. 140 beats/min b. 170 beats/min c. 185 beats/min d. 220 beats/min

b. 170 beats/min

The label on a nutrition bar states that it contains 40 grams of carbohydrates and 10 grams of sugar. What percentage of the carbohydrates represent sugars? a. 10% b. 25% c. 40% d. 70%

b. 25% Dividing 10 grams (sugar) by 40 grams (total carbs) would equal 0.25, or 25%. Sugar is always listed on the food label as part of the total carbohydrates included as well as an independent nutritional factor.

Approximately how many calories does the body use per liter of consumed oxygen? a. 1 calorie b. 5 calories c. 50 calories d. 100 calories

b. 5 calories

What training system is used to improve both strength and power simultaneously? a. Combination sets b. Contrast sets c. Circuit d. Compound sets

b. Contrast sets

Diverse training speeds and terrains used for aerobic conditioning performed outside is a type of interval training termed _______. a. High-intensity interval training b. Fartlek training c. Intermittent training d. Par course training

b. Fartlek training The idea of combining jogging with sprinting over hills, plateaus, and declines describes Fartlek training. It provides diversity to the intensity across a broad range of stressors. This is common to keep distance exercise both engaging and relatively challenging.

____________ content lowers the insulin response to a meal. a. Water b. Fiber c. Vitamin d. All of the above

b. Fiber Fiber decreases gastric emptying rate and slows the blood glucose absorption process, thereby reducing insulin effects. This positively manages glucose levels and lowers the negative impact of insulin on lipid metabolism.

What action is necessary to stretch the glute maximus? a. Hip and knee extension b. Hip and knee flexion c. Hip rotation and knee extension d. Hip abduction and knee flexion

b. Hip and knee flexion When the hip is flexed and leg is straight the hamstrings are stretched. When both the hip and knee are flexed the glutes are stretched to a greater degree. Hip rotation with an extended leg stretches the lateral, low back musculature while hip abduction and knee flexion stretch the short adductors.

Which document is a useful tool in reducing liability due to the understanding of risk? a. Statute of limitation b. Informed consent c. Health risk appraisal d. Member agreement

b. Informed consent

What most affects the rate of detraining when switching from 4 days to two days of training per week? a. Duration of the workout b. Intensity of the exercise c. Total weekly time-under-tension d. Variety of modalities employed

b. Intensity of the exercise

A neutral lumbar spine is desirable during overhead exercises, requiring it to maintain a ________. a. Kyphotic curve b. Lordotic curve c. Linear curve d. Lateral curve

b. Lordotic curve

What exercise most effectively trains the obliques? a. Back extension b. Medicine ball rotation pass c. Lateral step-ups d. Hanging knee raises

b. Medicine ball rotation pass

If a client has shoulder impingement they will likely be unable to perform: a. Back squats b. Military Press c. Lat pull-down d. Side raises

b. Military Press Shoulder impingement occurs when the supraspinatus tendon and shoulder bursa get pinched at the acromion. This occurs when the arm is elevated, particularly with internal rotation. Avoiding overhead lifts such as the military press and internal rotation with shoulder flexion can alleviate pain. Pressing exercises and upright rows are common agitators.

Your client hurts her knee while performing a step-up. She is in noticeable pain but does not want to stop the session. What is the correct course of action? a. Provide her with an anti-inflammatory if available and switch to upper-body exercises b. Recommend she have a medical professional analyze the injury and document the incident c. Evaluate the injury and attempt to diagnose the problem before making a decision d. Stretch the muscles surrounding the knee and lighten the weight before continuing

b. Recommend she have a medical professional analyze the injury and document the incident

What is the greatest determinant of the intensity of a strength exercise? a. Goals b. Safety c. Experience d. Age

b. Safety

When a trainer accurately identifies the best exercise to address a desired affect they are using the principle of ___________. a. Targeting b. Specificity c. Effectiveness d. Efficiency

b. Specificity

Which of the following exercises requires the greatest contribution from trunk stabilizers when using 80% 1RM? a. seated leg extension b. barbell bent-over row c. bench press d. leg press

b. barbell bent-over row

The principle of overload is associated with: a. employing high-intensity interval training with short rest intervals b. challenging a physiological system with a stress above what it is accustomed to c. varying the training intensity over multiple training sessions to avoid injury d. performing endurance training over long distances

b. challenging a physiological system with a stress above what it is accustomed to

Turbulent blood flow associated with hypertension often leads to _________________ from vascular damage. a. diabetes b. coronary artery disease c. dyslipidemia d. leukemia

b. coronary artery disease

A dramatic increase in what cardiovascular measurement is a risk factor during aerobic training? a. stroke volume b. diastolic blood pressure c. heart rate d. systolic blood pressure

b. diastolic blood pressure

The device used to measure specific joint angles during a flexibility assessment is referred to as a ____________. a. caliper b. goniometer c. spirometer d. tape measure

b. goniometer

What instruction should be made to correct the performance of the lat pull-down exercise in the picture? (lat pull-down behind head) a. instruct the client to flex the trunk at the terminal point to maximize the ROM b. have the client pull the bar in front of their head instead of behind c. lean forward during the pulling phase d. reduce the width of the hand position

b. have the client pull the bar in front of their head instead of behind

Stroke volume levels off at about 40% VO2max, forcing the body to rely strictly on increased ________________ to manage cardiac output as the intensity rises. a. pulmonary extraction b. heart rate c. lactate production d. respiration rate

b. heart rate Stroke volume (SV) increases with physical activity, but levels off at relatively low intensities, requiring the heart rate (HR) to solely contribute to cardiac output. Therefore, to match any further increase in aerobic exercise intensity, the heart rate must increase to reflect adequate cardiac output (CO) and oxygen delivery. SV x HR = CO; being one half of the VO2 equation.

Identify the correct order of events when initiating activity for a new client. a. exercise testing, informed consent, screening, health status questionnaire b. informed consent, health status questionnaire, screening, exercise testing c. health status questionnaire, exercise testing, screening, informed consent d. screening, health status questionnaire, informed consent, exercise testing

b. informed consent, health status questionnaire, screening, exercise testing

What type of contraction is performed by the abdominals and erector spinae muscle group during the performance of a push-up? a. isokinetic b. isometric c. concentric d. eccentric

b. isometric

If a client is taking a prescription beta-blocker it will cause: a. increased fatigue during aerobic training b. reduced heart rate responses during exercise c. an increase in blood flow to working tissues d. an increase in VO2max

b. reduced heart rate responses during exercise

What physiological response occurs when lactate builds up in the blood? a. pH increases due to buffering b. respiration rates increase c. heart rate decreases d. veins dilate

b. respiration rates increase When lactate accumulates in the blood, pH decreases. This triggers a buffering response by the body to prevent acidosis. Respiration rate increases sharply to aid in oxygen delivery, to neutralize blood pH.

Which of the following measurements would require your male client to obtain a medical clearance before participating in an exercise program due to cardiovascular disease risk? a. blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg b. resting heart rate of 105 bpm c. body fat of 25% d. total cholesterol of 195 mg/dl

b. resting heart rate of 105 bpm A client would require medical referral due to a resting heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute, as this indciates tachycardia. High resting heart rates increase the risk of arrhythmias. The resting heart rate should be assessed upon waking before any adrenal hormones impact the value; however, it is common for the personal trainer to measure it during a screening assessment. Therefore, clients should be instructed to sit or lie motionless for 2-5 minutes before the trainer assesses their radial pulse to attain a more accurate value. Follow-up assessments are warranted when measures above 90 beats per minute are obtained - as it could be test anxiety.

Clients should be instructed to retract the scapula during the seated row exercise in order to effectively train the: a. pectoralis major b. rhomboids c. latissimus dorsi d. erector spinae

b. rhomboids

What back muscle is the prime mover for the seated row exercise as it is responsible for retraction of the scapula? a. latissimus dorsi b. rhomboids c. trapezius d. infraspinatus

b. rhomboids

Which pair of movements employ reciprocal inhibition in a training set aimed at improving strength and flexibility? a. squat and rotator cuff stretch b. seated leg extension and hamstring stretch c. Romanian deadlift and pectoralis stretch d. triceps push-down and triceps stretch

b. seated leg extension and hamstring stretch

What is the most unhealthy behavior as measured by risk for heart disease? a. consuming alcohol b. smoking cigarettes c. consuming caffeine d. drinking diet soda

b. smoking cigarettes

Based on the principles of stability what exercise would be the most difficult to stabilize? a. kettlebell squats b. standing single-arm dumbbell press c. barbell upright row d. modified pull-ups

b. standing single-arm dumbbell press

To correct the movement error seen in the image, the client should be instructed to ____________. (lunge with knee over toe) a. lean backward and push the hips forward b. take a broader step and push the back leg downward c. lean forward and push the hips backward d. pre-stretch the quadriceps and the glutes

b. take a broader step and push the back leg downward

All of the following are associated with a calorically-restrictive or starvation diets, except: a. initial weight loss is mostly water b. the body experiences an increase in metabolism c. fat storage can be promoted as the body becomes catabolic d. The body shifts from protein-sparing to glycogen-sparing

b. the body experiences an increase in metabolism

Exercising at high altitudes is difficult for individuals who are not accustomed to it because: a. the air is very dry b. there is less oxygen in the air c. body tissues swell d. there is more hydrogen in the air

b. there is less oxygen in the air

What indicates the amount of oxygen used by working tissue? a. Heart Rate b. Stroke Volume c. (a-v) O2 difference d. Mitochondrial density

c. (a-v) O2 difference

When designing an exercise program for a healthy novice client, resistance training exercises should be performed using which of the following set-repetition schematics? a. 2-4 sets of 3-5 repetitions b. 3-4 sets of 8-10 repetitions c. 2-3 sets of 10-15 repetitions d. 1 set of 20-25 repetitions

c. 2-3 sets of 10-15 repetitions The most appropriate sets and reps for a novice client, when they are being introduced to resistance training, would 2-3 sets of 10-15 repetitions. Higher-repetition schemes improve neuromuscular efficiency and allow the client to perfect the movement pattern through rehearsal. Lower intensities reduce the risk of acute musculoskeletal injuries as well as discomfort from excessive soreness associated with heavy eccentric contractions. Once acclimated, the client can be further challenged with loading or movement variations.

Delayed-onset muscle soreness generally appears: a. 30-60 minutes after a training session starts b. 1-3 hours after a training session ends c. 24-48 hours after a training session ends d. 3-days after a training session ends

c. 24-48 hours after a training session ends

What training intensity range is most effective for natural bodybuilding? a. 35-55% 1RM b. 55-70% 1RM c. 70-85% 1RM d. 85-100% 1RM

c. 70-85% 1RM 70-85% is the ideal training intensity for lifts used to promote protein synthesis. The goal of adding lean mass requires significant muscle recruitment and anabolic hormone release, which is best achieved with sets of 8-12 repetitions. Clients looking to add lean mass and gain significant strength may benefit from 6-10 repetitions.

When constructing a program for your client, what intensity should you select for the leg press if you want them to complete eight (8) repetitions to volitional fatigue? a. 60% 1RM b. 70% 1RM c. 80% 1RM d. 90% 1RM

c. 80% 1RM Performing eight repetitions to volitional fatigue will correlate with 80% of the 1RM. Choosing the proper intensity is essential when trying to optimize the effectiveness and efficiency of a training program towards desired adaptations. The relative intensity along with rest interval and number of repetitions determine the outcome; whether it is endurance, muscle hypertrophy, strength, power or function.

During pull-ups the correct position at the bottom requires the: a. Knees to be flexed b. Hips to be flexed c. Arms remain straight d. Shoulders to be extended

c. Arms remain straight

Which of the following exercises should not be performed due to the potential to cause serious injury? a. Dumbbell shoulder press on a physioball b. Leg curls using a stability ball c. Barbell box squats using a stability ball instead of a box d. Push-ups using a stability ball instead of a bench

c. Barbell box squats using a stability ball instead of a box

Consuming ___________ prior to aerobic exercise reduces catabolism of proteins. a. Water b. Caffeine c. Carbohydrates d. Creatine

c. Carbohydrates

Which of the following is a primary risk for children compared to adults during exercise? a. Resistance exercise b. Bone injury c. Heat injury d. All of the above

c. Heat injury Heat injuries are a primary risk for adolescent clients due to variations in their thermoregulatory system. Adolescents are not able to produce as much sweat as adults; potentially due to smaller sweat gland sizes, lower sensitivity to heat and a lower metabolic capacity. Therefore, monitoring children for overheating during exercise, especially in hot and humid environments, is recommended.

What causes blood pressure to rise the most with exercise and is considered unsafe for hypertensive clients? a. High-intensity cardio b. Circuit training without rest c. Heavy resistance training (>85%) d. Static Stretching

c. Heavy resistance training (>85%)

Resistance machines are optimally suited for ______________ training due to the ability to isolate a muscle and aid in stability. a. Strength b. Power c. Hypertrophy d. Flexibility

c. Hypertrophy Machine-based resistance training promotes greater hypertrophic responses due to the reduced requirement of stabilizer muscle contribution; allowing more weight to be placed upon the prime mover. Removing stabilizers from the equation allows the targeted muscle to be further isolated, increasing total time-under-tension.

Which abdominal measures in inches are considered a disease risk factor for men and women? a. Male 36, female 28 b. Male 38, female 30 c. Male 40, female 35 d. All of the above

c. Male 40, female 35

Which of the following identifies the correct body fat classification for morbid obesity? a. Males - 20%; Females - 30% b. Males - 25%; Females - 35% c. Males - 30%; Females - 40% d. Males - 35%; Females - 45%

c. Males - 30%; Females - 40% Body fat levels above 30% for males and 40% for females are classified as morbid obesity and require a medical referral. Stage 1 Obesity can be classified using a BMI score of 30 or by a body fat percentage of 25% for males and 32% for females - which do not warrant medical referral. Female threshold values are higher due to the sex characteristics that promote and require higher fat storage.

What activity is used as a functional exercise for improving shoulder horizontal abduction? a. Pull-up b. Push-up c. Modified pull-up (feet on ground supine pull-up) d. Modified push-up (hands on a bench decline push-up)

c. Modified pull-up (feet on ground supine pull-up) The modified pull-up requires shoulder horizontal abduction. Rowing exercises where the humerus is abducted occur in the transverse plane and are useful for muscle balance and aid in performing body-weighted functional tasks.

What pelvic position is desired during leg curls? a. Anterior tilt b. Posterior tilt c. Neutral d. Rotated

c. Neutral

_______ is a subjective measure of a client's feelings related to their physical effort. a. RPP b. HRR c. RPE d. RM

c. RPE

When seeking to increase dynamic range of motion of the hip flexors during resistance-based exercise, select a: a. Broad-width stance b. Neutral stance c. Split stance d. Narrow stance

c. Split stance Split stances anchor the pelvis in place. This allows the hips to extend to a greater degree, increasing the lengthening potential of the hip flexors. Bulgarian squats and lunges are useful exercises to promote dynamic flexibility in the hip flexors. Neutral, broad, or narrow stances reduce hip extension potential.

It is recommended that client files be maintained for at least 3 years upon their completion date due to: a. The likelihood they return to training b. Reference for training others of similar need c. Statutes of liability limitations can carry out that long d. In the case the documents are needed by law

c. Statutes of liability limitations can carry out that long

Performing cardiovascular exercise for a duration of time with a consistent same heart rate is termed: a. Long slow training b. Fatmax training c. Steady state training d. Cardio-isolation training

c. Steady state training

Why do machines allow for more weight to be lifted than during free weight exercises? a. Mechanical advantage via lever systems b. The actual weight is not lifted by the body c. The body experiences significantly reduced stabilization d. All of the above contribute

c. The body experiences significantly reduced stabilization Machine-based resistance training reduces the requirement of the stabilizer muscles; allowing more weight to be placed upon the prime mover. Removing the stabilizers from the equation allows the targeted muscle to be further isolated, increasing total time-under-tension explaining why machines are used for hypertrophy training.

Your new, 54 year-old male client is 250 lbs. and has 25% body fat. What should you recommend to him regarding his initial participation in aerobic activity to lose weight? a. He should primarily use high-intensity interval training for 60 minutes b. He needs to see a physician for clearance and recommendations c. To reduce the risk for injury, start with low-impact activities using a steady-state heart rate to acclimate him to exercise d. Incorporate repeat anaerobic threshold circuits to maximize caloric expenditure

c. To reduce the risk for injury, start with low-impact activities using a steady-state heart rate to acclimate him to exercise

What fat-soluble vitamin may create toxicity if supplemented in high doses? a. Vitamin C b. Folic acid c. Vitamin A d. Thiamine

c. Vitamin A

Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC) can result in: a. an increase in post-activity fatigue b. a decrease in carbohydrate utilization c. an increase in the metabolic rate d. an elevation in resting blood pressure

c. an increase in the metabolic rate

Increased midsection girth with age is a concern because: a. it indicates a low resting metabolism b. gynoid obesity is linked with certain cancers c. android obesity is linked with heart disease d. the obesity gene is triggered during middle age

c. android obesity is linked with heart disease

What is the ideal hand position when spotting the lat pull-down exercise? a. at the client's wrists b. at the client's distal humerus c. at the bar d. at weight stack being used

c. at the bar

What is the proper hand location to spot the seated dumbbell overhead press? a. at the dumbbells b. at the forearms c. at the wrists d. at the elbows

c. at the wrists The proper location for the trainer's hands when spotting the seated dumbbell press or military press would be at the wrists. The trainer can assist both the eccentric and concentric portions of the lift as needed to ensure it follows the proper plane of motion.

What exercise is used to cause elevation of the shoulder complex (scapulae and humerus)? a. pull-up b. military press c. barbell shrug d. seated row

c. barbell shrug The trapezius musculature is comprised of three portions that serve distinct functions. The upper trapezius is responsible for shoulder elevation as seen during a shrug exercise, the middle trapezius aids in scapular rotation and the lower trapezius is primarily reserved for functions above 90 degrees of shoulder abduction.

Which of the following exercises represents a functional task for the knee joint? a. prone leg curl b. straight-leg deadlifts c. box step-up d. leg press

c. box step-up

To optimize aerobic capacity the body increases oxygen delivery and extraction by adding: a. slow-twitch muscle fibers b. muscle fasciculus c. capillaries d. valves in the heart

c. capillaries

What would cause a disproportionately-low abdominal skinfold measurement on a middle-age male client with a visibly large abdominal area? a. excessive subcutaneous fat storage b. above average sized internal organs c. excessive amounts of visceral fat storage d. central hypertrophy of the rectus abdominis

c. excessive amounts of visceral fat storage

The performance of dumbbell side raises occurs in what movement plane? a. anterior b. sagittal c. frontal d. transverse

c. frontal

What position of the knee is necessary to fully stretch the gastrocnemius when the ankle is in full dorsi flexion? a. partially flexed b. fully flexed c. fully extended d. it is not affected by the knee in dorsi flexion

c. fully extended

Which of the following is the only energy substrate that can be metabolized aerobically or anaerobically to produce ATP? a. triglycerides b. amino acids c. glycogen d. complete proteins

c. glycogen

Your client is a 17 year-old male trying to add muscle mass. Which of the following would be a healthy dietary recommendation to support his resistance training program that includes four days of exercise each week? a. he should consume an additional 750-1,000 kcal a day above his calculated daily requirements b. he should aim for a neutral caloric balance to convert his fat into muscle c. he should strive for a positive caloric balance of roughly 150-450 calories per day to ensure he meets his protein requirements d. he should consume 40-50% of his total daily calories from protein to ensure adequate muscle gains

c. he should strive for a positive caloric balance of roughly 150-450 calories per day to ensure he meets his protein requirements When a client is trying to add muscle mass, the healthy recommendation would be to consume a positive caloric balance of roughly 150-450 kcal per day. Combining resistance training with the additional caloric intake (and a focus on quality proteins) would help him achieve his goal. In some circumstances among those who are resistant to gaining weight, consuming 500-750 kcal above daily requirements may be needed.

Which selection would be the best choice for improving upper body power? a. squat jumps superset with push-ups b. lunge to press with a dumbbell c. incline medicine ball passes d. alternating dumbbell press superset with dips

c. incline medicine ball passes If upper body power is the training goal, the most applicable exercise would be the incline medicine ball chest pass due to the velocity of the movement. Power is calculated by force x distance divided by time. Using 30-60% 1RM allows for peak power production as the lower weight allows for higher speeds of movement. For older clients, use relatively light resistance and focus on concentric-only throws to reduce the risk for injury.

What affect does vascular peripheral resistance have on physical health? a. Increased muscle tension causing stress b. Decreased nutrient transport across capillaries c. increased blood pressure d. Decreased contractile speeds during movement

c. increased blood pressure

What affect does chronic high blood insulin (hyperinsulinemia) have on body composition? a. lowered body fat b. lowered muscle mass c. increased body fat d. increased muscle mass

c. increased body fat

What adaptation to aerobic exercise reduces heart rates at rest and during sub-maximal exercise? a. increased capillary density b. decreased blood viscosity c. increased stroke volume d. decreased baroreception

c. increased stroke volume

What has the greatest impact on relative hormonal response during exercise? a. participant Level of fitness b. duration of exercise c. intensity of exercise d. age of participant

c. intensity of exercise

What term represents the transfer of energy across joints to support voluntary movement? a. neuromuscular facilitation b. systematic transfer c. kinetic chain d. isotonic acceleration

c. kinetic chain

What is the natural curvature of the thoracic spine? a. lordotic curve b. lateral curve c. kyphotic curve d. medial curve

c. kyphotic curve

Your client has heard about the potential for quick weight loss associated with low-carbohydrate diets. Which response is accurate regarding these types of diets? a. the low carbohydrate intake will help burn more fat during anaerobic training b. metabolic rate is significantly increased in individuals who consume a low-carbohydrate diet c. lean mass and central nervous system efficiency will be negatively impacted by a low-carbohydrate diet d. low carbohydrate intake will improve the body's ability to burn calories during aerobic training

c. lean mass and central nervous system efficiency will be negatively impacted by a low-carbohydrate diet

Adequate intake of __________ is vital for individuals with hypertension due to its relationship with sodium. a. calcium sulfate b. magensium c. potassium d. L-arginine

c. potassium

Prior to performing a submaximal VO2max test on a 54 year-old male client, the trainer should assess the client's: a. diet b. muscular endurance c. risk factors d. flexibility

c. risk factors

Which of the following is a key recommendation when creating an exercise prescription for an obese client? a. maintain a caloric intake of 800-1,200 kcals per day b. minimize weight lifting initially and perform more aerobic exercise c. select low-impact activities during aerobic exercise to minimize the risk of injury d. program to ensure that at least 250 kcals are burned per training session

c. select low-impact activities during aerobic exercise to minimize the risk of injury

How is sarcopenia prevented with advancing age? a. aerobic/balance training b. flexibility/mobility training c. strength/power training d. proper diet with calcium and vitamin D

c. strength/power training

What anabolic hormone is released in higher concentrations in response to heavy resistance training? a. insulin b. glucagon c. testosterone d. estradiol

c. testosterone

What factor determines the adaptations that enhance muscular strength the most? a. the number of days performed per week b. the number of muscles involved c. the intensity used in the exercise d. the gender of the client

c. the intensity used in the exercise

You are training a healthy 35 year-old male who states his main goal is to add 20 lbs. of muscle. He is hoping to attain these gains by working with you twice a week for 60 minutes over the next 3 months. How should you advise this client? a. the goal can be met with proper muscle group emphasis, but there is no time for cardiovascular training b. one-hour is not long enough for effective hypertrophy training c. the total training duration and volume per week is too low for the desired outcome d. two sessions per week for a hypertrophy training goal would require the use of circuits for adequate volume

c. the total training duration and volume per week is too low for the desired outcome Hypertrophy-specific training requires a volume unattainable with only two resistance training sessions per week. Likewise adding 20 lbs. of muscle in 3 months is unlikely unless the individual is severely malnourished or on anabolic steroids. In this example, the total training duration and volume per week is too low for the desired outcome, and this should be clarified with the client.

Which of the following is true concerning circumference (girth) measurements when used as a body composition assessment? a. they are ideal for individuals who are very thin b. they do not account for subcutaneous fat storage c. they have limited accuracy for individuals with large amounts of muscle mass d. they are not designed to be used for obese individuals

c. they have limited accuracy for individuals with large amounts of muscle mass

Why do some assessments of anaerobic fitness, such as the abdominal curl-up and 5-min step test, require the use of a metronome? a. to count the repetitions completed b. to control the client's breathing c. to maintain a constant pace of movement d. to ensure the client has rest intervals between repetitions

c. to maintain a constant pace of movement

Dietary saturated fats should be limited to ________. a. 15 grams/day b. <50% of total fat consumed c. 1 g/kg of body weight d. 10% of total calories consumed

d. 10% of total calories consumed

What is the minimum grams of fiber recommended in the daily diet? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

d. 20

Females with a body fat % of _______ and males with a body fat % of _______ are classified as obese. a. 25%; 18% b. 28%; 20% c. 30%; 22% d. 32%; 25%

d. 32%; 25%

Your physically-active client wants to add muscle mass as his primary goal. You explain that when focusing on hypertrophy training, he should anticipate seeing increases in lean mass after ______. a. 1 week b. 2-3 weeks c. 4-5 weeks d. 8-10 weeks

d. 8-10 weeks The typical training period required for lean mass gains is between one and two months. In detrained or previously-sedentary individuals, hypertrophic responses may be seen around 4 weeks. Many people experience a small weight gain when they begin resistance training due to increased storage of glycogen in muscle tissue. Continuing to add lean mass is a difficult task, with most research suggesting 5 lbs. a year as an attainable goal. Calories and protein must support the recovery requirements. For a physically-active client, 8-10 weeks is the most realistic goal.

What is the appropriate rest interval between 2 sets of power cleans using 85% 1RM? a. 5-15 seconds b. 30-60 seconds c. 75-90 seconds d. >120 seconds

d. >120 seconds The clean exercise by definition is a power-based exercise. Power training in general tends to warrant longer recovery. When performed using heavy weight the recovery demands of the phosphagen system extend to about 2-3 minutes or rest between repeatable sets.

What common disease can benefit from programming resistance and aerobic exercise? a. Osteoporosis b. Diabetes c. Inflammatory obesity d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following can be conducted as a pre-activity assessment of risk for participation? a. Body composition b. Central girth c. BMI d. All of the above

d. All of the above

What cardiovascular exercise is recommended for individuals with knee osteoarthritis? a. Swimming b. Biking c. Rowing d. All of the above

d. All of the above All the selections do not require any impact. Non-impact activities are recommended for joint injuries and diseased joints. Osteoarthritis can be debilitating, and when affecting joints used for locomotion it can be particularly problematic. Avoiding ballistic acts help reduce pain and increase compliance to exercise participation.

Closed kinetic chain exercises occur around a distally-fixed point as seen during the: a. Hanging leg raise b. Pull-up c. Push-up d. All of the above

d. All of the above The push-up occurs against an immovable surface so the body moves away from the fixed ground. The pull-up and leg raise are performed from a static bar so the body moves around the distally-fixed position. All of the exercises are closed chain. This explains why a person may be able to perform lat pull-down but not a pull-up.

Why does using only the heart rate max formula by itself create potential problems for training specificity when programming aerobic training zones (220-age)? a. It assumes all people of equal age are the same b. It has at least a 10-12 beat standard estimation error c. It does not account for variations in fitness level among individuals d. All of the above are correct

d. All of the above are correct

Groups of exercises performed in sequence with limited rest is called _________________. a. Compound set training b. Contrast set training c. Fartlek training d. Circuit training

d. Circuit training

Your client complains of anterior shoulder pain which is aggravated when performing overhead lifts; what is the correct course of action? a. Cancel the training session and have them rest for 2 weeks b. Switch from a pronated grip to a neutral grip when performing overhead lifts c. Perform rotator exercises d. Document the actions that causes pain and avoid related activities

d. Document the actions that causes pain and avoid related activities

Your client just had knee surgery but wants to train while doing his rehabilitation. What is the correct course of action? a. Get the activities from their physical therapist to incorporate into the training b. Just perform cardiovascular exercise with the lower limbs and resistance train the upper body c. Perform the exercise in a pool to prevent weight bearing d. Get medical clearance and recommendations from his physician

d. Get medical clearance and recommendations from his physician

All of the following will increase testing accuracy for a skinfold assessment, except: a. Ensuring the calipers are calibrated b. Identifying and marking the skinfold sites c. Assessing the fold in 2 secs and waiting at least 15 seconds before re-assessing d. Pinching at least 7 sites

d. Pinching at least 7 sites Adding more sites to a skinfold assessment does not increase accuracy when proper density equations are use. In fact, 7- and 12-site measures are associated with increased tester error due to the amount of technician involvement. Repeat 3- and 4-fold sites have an estimation error of about 4% (3.5%).

Which type of exercise is most associated with measures of health and life expectancy? a. weight lifting b. yoga c. plyometric d. aerobic

d. aerobic

Atherosclerosis can lead to which of the following? a. stroke b. hypertension c. myocardial infarction d. all of the above

d. all of the above

How should you explain the need for regular aerobic activity within a weight loss program to your client who thinks they can simply alter their diet and perform resistance training twice a week to achieve the desired results? a. aerobic exercise will help create a negative caloric balance b. fat cells are metabolized aerobically c. increasing VO2max improves anaerobic training by reducing necessary rest interval time d. all of the above

d. all of the above All answers listed are adaptations to aerobic training that will aid in weight loss. While dietary modifications and resistance training twice a week will aid in weight reduction, the addition of aerobic training will greatly expedite results due to (1) additional caloric expenditure, (2) the additional use of fat as a fuel, and (3) the ability to increase the client's work capacity during their resistance training sessions (due to improved recovery between sets) - which can eventually be progressed into more aggressive aerobic and anaerobic interval training.

Why is it recommended to perform static stretches following exercise, and not before? a. it is optimal as the body is warm b. pre-exercise static stretching can reduce power output c. it can help with the cool down and return to a homeostasic state d. all of the above

d. all of the above Static stretching before exercise can reduce force and power output, promoting a relaxed state. This makes it optimal to employ post exercise as part of a cool down when the tissue is already warm, which enhances recovery and a return to a relaxed, or homeostasic state. Dynamic applications should be used to warm tissues and excite the nerves before exercise.

Your client indicates a previous surgery on her left knee when completing the Health Status Questionnaire. What is the appropriate course of action for the trainer? a. start the client using corrective exercise and eccentric activities b. send the client to their doctor for a medical referral prior to performing any measurements c. perform only upper-body resistance training and non-impact aerobic exercise d. ask follow-up questions concerning the injury and any rehabilitation she completed

d. ask follow-up questions concerning the injury and any rehabilitation she completed

Your client is performing a seated leg extension on a machine and requires a spot to complete the final repetition. Where should you provide assistance? a. under the client's ankles b. to the weight stack c. at the cable of the machine d. at the pad or lever arm being moved

d. at the pad or lever arm being moved

When working with elderly clients, what type of exercise is important to incorporate into the program? a. plyometrics b. high-intensity interval training c. machine-based resistance training d. closed-chain balance training

d. closed-chain balance training Closed-chain balance training should be incorporated into a comprehensive program for elderly clients due to their elevated risk for falling and related accidents. Closed-chain training, when appropriately applied, will greatly improve the nervous system's ability to manage various forces, both in a static and dynamic nature. Programming dynamic balance will also help improve confidence, the client's overall quality of life and performance during day-to-day activities.

When performed correctly, what is the prime mover responsible for hip extension during the back squat? a. adductor magnus b. vastus lateralis c. sartorius d. gluteus maximus

d. gluteus maximus

What causes the protein-sparing mechanism to shut off during exercise? a. high amino acid concentration in the blood b. inadequate iron in the diet c. creatine phosphate build-up in the cell d. inadequate carbohydrates

d. inadequate carbohydrates

Dehydration contributes to a reduction in blood plasma volume. How will this impact training performance? a. it will increase muscle blood flow during resistance training b. it will improve VO2max c. it will reduce RPE values d. it will increase heart rate values during training

d. it will increase heart rate values during training

After calculating your client's resting metabolic rate to be ~2,200 calories/day, she performs a 24-hour food recall which indicates approximately 2,500 calories were consumed. What can you determine from this information? a. your client is in a negative caloric balance b. your client's oxygen consumption is relatively high c. your client is in a positive caloric balance d. nothing until you calculate voluntary caloric expenditure

d. nothing until you calculate voluntary caloric expenditure

Your female client wants to tone up. While she has enough fat stored throughout her body to justify becoming leaner, she is at a visibly healthy body weight. What is the best field assessment to measure body fat given her appearance? a. girth measurements b. near-infrared scan c. hydrostatic weighing d. skinfold measures

d. skinfold measures

Besides differences in muscle mass and strength capabilities, why do females have lower cardiac outputs compared to males? a. higher relative body fat b. increased water retention c. loss of blood from menstruation d. smaller relative heart size

d. smaller relative heart size

Which of the following is a postural muscle characterized by a relatively greater slow-twitch fiber density? a. trapezius b. gluteus medius c. obliques d. soleus

d. soleus The soleus is a local postural stabilizer of the ankle. Due to its role in tibial position management it does not cross the knee as a mover. The high slow-twitch fiber density helps it maintain the tibia angle for potentially long periods of time during upright posture. To isolate the soleus one should perform a seated calf raise. The trapezius, gluteus medius, and obliques function as global movers and global stabilizers during activity.

What is the proper spotting technique during the performance of the deadlift? a. stand in front of the client with the hands on their shoulders, and provide upward assistance when the lifter begins b. stand behind the client with the hands placed under their arms on the lateral aspects of their rib cage, and provide upward assistance when needed c. stand behind the client with the hands on their hips to help stabilize their pelvis during the upward phase of the movement d. the deadlift exercise does not require use a spotter

d. the deadlift exercise does not require use a spotter

Range of motion limitations during overhead pressing movements are most likely caused by which of the following? a. weakness in the rhomboids b. tightness in the rectus abdominis c. weakness in the supraspinatus d. tightness in the latissimus dorsi

d. tightness in the latissimus dorsi

The posterior pelvic tilt seen in this picture, is commonly seen in bilateral leg exercises a result of tight ___________________. (rounded back, knees out) a. quadriceps b. glutes c. quadratus lumborum d. hip flexors

glutes