Practice Exam(Dummies)

An employment arrangement in which an employee may quit at any time and the employer may terminate at any time is defined by which common law doctrine? (A) Employment at-will (B) Respondeat superior (C) Implied contract (D) Employment relationship

A. Employment at-will allows either party to terminate the employment relationship at any time and for any reason. Choice (B) is another common law doctrine, dealing with the employer being responsible for the actions of its employees. Choice (C) is an exception to the at-will doctrine, and the employment relationship, Choice (D), exists when both parties agree to work with each other.

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act protects individuals over the age of what? (A) 40 (B) 50 (C) 63 (D) All of the above

D. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act applies to all individuals older than the age of 40.

If the passive method of teaching focuses on the instructor, the __________ method focuses on the learner. (A) active (B) engaged (C) participative (D) managed

A. Choice (A) is the best answer because active teaching addresses the needs of the training participant. The active method of teaching results in engaged (Choice [B]) and participative (Choice [C]) attendees. Choice (D) is an answer distractor and doesn't apply.

Using dimensions to identify the requirements of the job that are supported by anchor statements of behavior will best be transferred to which type of performance evaluation? (A) BARS (B) Narrative (C) Comparison (D) Ranking

A. The Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) uses anchor statements to support job requirements, so Choice (A) is the correct answer. Choice (B) is descriptive, and both Choices (C) and (D) use other employees to measure performance.

If an employment test is found to not predict what the employer thought it was going to predict, it may be low in what type of validity? (A) Content validity (B) Criterion-related validity (C) Face validity (D) Discriminant validity

B. A test is said to be low in criterion-related validity if it doesn't predict the behaviors that an employer thought it was going to predict. Choice (A) refers to the test being reflective of all relevant job responsibilities. Choice (C) refers to the appearance of the successful prediction of outcomes. In Choice (D), uncorrelated items stay uncorrelated.

Which of the following statements is true regarding unfair labor practice strikers? (A) They may be permanently replaced while on strike. (B) They are entitled to their jobs back after the strike has ended. (C) The striking workers are engaged in a ULP. (D) They cannot have their jobs back if it discharges another worker.

B. Absent serious misconduct on the part of the worker, unfair labor practice strikers are entitled to their jobs back, even if it means discharging a replacement worker.

How are incentives a type of variable pay? (A) They are part of a total compensation package. (B) They are based on individual or organizational performance. (C) Incentives aren't calculated as part of base pay. (D) They are not guaranteed.

B. Because the focus of variable pay is performance, Choice (B) is the best answer. The other answers, although true, aren't the best options for this question because they aren't critical to the existence of a variable pay system.

How are ideas shared in a Socratic seminar? (A) Through adherence to an agenda (B) By the use of questions and answers (C) Through classroom lecture (D) As a fishbowl

B. In a Socratic seminar, conclusions are drawn and ideas shared through questions and answers, so Choice (B) is correct. An agenda (Choice [A]), classroom lecture (Choice [C]), or room setup such as a fishbowl (Choice [D]) aren't key factors to this instructional method.

Which of the following types of graphs best identifies the status of employees when succession planning? (A) Pareto chart (B) Forced distribution (C) Ranking (D) Fishbone diagram

B. Similar to a bell curve, forced distribution identifies the top 25 percent of employees within a department, 50 percent of workers who can stay in their current position, and the bottom 25 percent of employees in need of intervention. A Pareto chart, Choice (A), and a fishbone diagram, Choice (D), are tools used in problem-solving. Choice (C) is a simpler version of forced distribution and isn't a chart.

Jannah is a supervisor at ABC Speech Pathology with 14 direct reports. These employees are known as part of her what? (A) Management responsibility (B) Span of control (C) Management scope (D) Organizational structure

B. Span of control refers to the number of employees a manager directly supervises. Choices (A) and (C) refer to much more than just direct reports, and Choice (D) is a visual representation of the organizational hierarchy.

Generally, a retirement plan may require that an employee be at least _____ years of age and have at least ______ year(s) of service before participating in a plan. (A) 18, one (B) 21, one (C) 18, two (D) 21, two

B. The Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) established that a plan may require an employee to be at least 21 years of age with at least one year of service before being eligible to participate.

Employers are required to provide reasonable break time to nursing mothers for up to how many years after the child's birth? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

B. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act amended the Fair Labor Standards Act in 2010, requiring employers to accommodate nursing mothers' need to express breast milk for a year following the birth of a child.

Which of the following is the most important step in the implementation of an injury and illness prevention program? (A) Hazard abatement procedures (B) Management leadership and commitment (C) Worker participation (D) Program evaluation

B. Without leadership and management commitment, a company's IIPP will struggle to allocate resources to abate hazards (Choice [A]), engage workers (Choice [C]), or evaluate program outcomes (Choice [D]).

Which of the following is an alternative staffing method? (A) Direct hires (B) Online recruiting (C) Job sharing (D) Temporary workers

C. Job sharing highlights an alternative to traditional staffing sources, such as direct hires (Choice [A]) and temporary workers (Choice [D]) and the use of the internet to find talent (Choice [B]).

An employee refused to go out on a date with her supervisor and was fired by him as a result. This is known as what type of harassment? (A) Unlawful (B) Discriminatory (C) Quid pro quo (D) Hostile

C. Quid pro quo harassment occurs when a supervisor requires a romantic or sexual behavior in exchange for something else, such as not being fired. Choices (A) and (B) aren't the correct terms, although the harassment certainly may be found to be unlawful and discriminatory. Choice (D) is another type of harassment in which an employee's working conditions are altered due to abuse based on a protected class characteristic.

HazMat United has a policy that requires employees to clock out at the end of their shift prior to changing out of their hazardous material suits back into civilian clothing. Which of the following labor laws is the company violating? (A) Occupational Safety and Health Act (B) Service Contract Act (C) The Portal-to-Portal Act (D) None. This employer practice is legal.

C. The correct answer is Choice (C) because compensable time was first established as a concept under the Fair Labor Standards Act, and later clarified through the Portal-to-Portal Act. It requires that "preparatory and concluding activities" that are integral to the job function be paid. The OSH Act, Choice (A), communicates safety standards, whereas the Service Contract Act, Choice (B), requires affected employers to pay prevailing wage and fringe benefits under certain conditions.

The marketing department has been asked to create visual representations of SOPs to be used during the onboarding process of new hires. This is an example of which stage of the ADDIE model of instructional design? (A) Analyze (B) Design (C) Develop (D) Implement

C. The correct answer is Choice (C) because the development stage of ADDIE is when training material is created or developed. The design stage, Choice (B), is concerned with designing training around tasks and participants. The analysis stage, Choice (A), occurs when the needs to be addressed through training are identified. After documents have been developed, they can be implemented, Choice (D).

James, an employee at your company, was recently told that he must continue to work the Saturday/Sunday shift even though his co-worker Sally will be working a preferred shift as an accommodation of her disability. James sues for reverse discrimination. What is the most likely outcome of his claim? (A) James wins his suit because he is the victim of reverse discrimination under the ADA. (B) James loses his lawsuit because he isn't a qualified individual with a disability. (C) James's lawsuit is thrown out because charges of reverse discrimination are prohibited. (D) The employer changes James's shift to settle the dispute without having to go to court.

C. The correct answer is Choice (C), because the amended version of the ADA prohibits reverse discrimination claims under the ADA. This answer makes the other answer choices irrelevant.

What do union organizers do? (A) They assist union members in negotiating the CBA. (B) They serve as employer ambassadors to the union. (C) They're employees sponsored by a union who helps workers organize. (D) They serve as employee ambassadors to the union.

C. Union organizers are sponsored and trained by unions to travel and help workers organize. With the AFL-CIO, they select their union-organizing training participants from union members or elected union representatives; others are from college campuses or community groups. A bargaining agent assists members with the collective bargaining agreement (CBA) (Choice [A]), and union stewards serve as employee ambassadors to the union (Choice [D]). Any person with decision- making authority may act on behalf of the employer when bargaining (Choice [B]).

Place the following in order of importance as they relate to managing risk for an employer: A. Safety hazards B. Disaster preparedness planning C. Customer confidentiality procedures D. Workplace violence policy (A) C, A, D, B (B) D, A, C, B (C) B, C, D, A (D) A, C, B, D

D. In the absence of an emergency, existing safety hazards should be the first item addressed. Customer confidentiality procedures describe action steps designed to protect confidentiality, and disaster preparedness planning includes communicated plans to use in the event of a disaster. Workplace violence policy is last in this scenario because a policy won't directly protect a stakeholder.

Conducting a pre-employment drug screen is most useful to prevent what? (A) Negligent hiring (B) Workplace violence (C) Injuries (D) All of the above

D. Many benefits to pre-employment drug screening include a defense against a negligent hiring claim (Choice [A]), the prevention of potential violence on the job (Choice [B]), and workplace injuries (Choice [C]), making Choice (D) the correct answer.

Match the staffing activity in Column A to its proper timing in Column B. Column A Column B (A) Completing Form I-9 (1) Pre-offer (B) Candidate interview (2) Post-offer, pre-hire (C) Completing Form W-4 (3) Post-hire

A → 2; B → 1; C → 3. Post-hire activities are those that are done after an offer has been made and accepted and often have legal implications. Employers cannot require an applicant to complete Form I-9 (A) until a formal offer of employment has been accepted, and Form I-9 must be completed no later than 72 hours after an employee's first day of work; if the candidate cannot provide the required documents, he cannot be formally hired. The candidate interview (B) is a form of pre-employment test that predicts an applicant's fit for the job; candidates who are selected will receive an offer of employment. Form W-4 (C) is a required payroll document that is only necessary if the candidate begins work for wages.

Match the activity in Column A with its corresponding stage of the ADDIE model in Column B. Column A Column B (A) Create standard operating procedures (1) Evaluate (B) Conduct a training needs assessment (2) Analyze (C) Design a training reaction survey (3) Develop

A → 3; B → 2; C → 1. The development stage of training (3) is where the collateral materials to be used in the training are created (A), and the analysis stage (2) of the instructional design model of ADDIE is a function of data collection to assess the need (B). The evaluation phase (1) occurs after the sessions have been completed (C).

A group composed of members of the same race or the same heritage would be attributed as being what? (A) Homogeneous (B) Heterogeneous (C) Patriot (D) Fellows

A. A homogeneous group, Choice (A), includes people who share the same background or heritage. Choice (B) is the opposite. Choice (C) is a devoted citizen, and Choice (D) is the recognition of academic merit.

An employee has been called back to military status but has an unresolved employment dispute with his employer. His attorney may request the arbitrator to____ the statute until he returns from duty. (A) Toll (B) Dismiss (C) Dispute (D) Interrupt

A. A toll temporarily suspends the counting of time in a legal action for various reasons, making Choice (A) the correct answer in this example. Dismissing the statute, Choice (B), would close out the case permanently from a legal perspective. The case is already in dispute, so Choice (C) wouldn't make sense, and Choice (D) is a distractor, a term that doesn't apply to the described situation.

The process of becoming part of an organizational team is called what? (A) Acculturation (B) Cultural integration (C) Onboarding (D) Affiliation

A. Acculturation, also called socialization, is part of the onboarding process that includes becoming part of a team and learning the group dynamics. Cultural integration (Choice [B]) may occur as the result of a merger or acquisition, whereas onboarding (Choice [C]) is a step to getting the new hire acquainted with the job. Affiliation (Choice [D]) is a term associated with the need theory of motivation.

Which of the following visas may be extended to religious workers? (A) R-1 (B) O-1 (C) L-1A (D) P-1

A. An R-1 is a nonimmigrant visa that may be extended to religious workers to be in the United States for up to five years. Choice (B) is for workers with extraordinary abilities, Choice (C) is a visa for executives, and Choice (D) may be extended to athletes or entertainers.

Andragogy is best represented by which of the following statements? (A) The way adults learn (B) The way children learn (C) The way our brains unlearn information (D) A condition that exists in a learning organization

A. Andragogy refers to the way adults learn, whereas pedagogy, Choice (B), is the science of how children learn. The process of unlearning information is related to the neuroscience of change, Choice (C), and andragogy is not a condition of a learning organization, Choice (D).

Which element of a Human Capital Management Plan involves developing the necessary workforce and practices to achieve an organization's mission, vision, and values? (A) Strategic direction (B) Goal-setting (C) Project implementation (D) Sustainability

A. Because HCMPs are used as a strategic planning tool to guide a company's responses to emerging workforce and organizational needs, the correct answer is Choice (A). Goal-setting, Choice (B), may be a tool used for plan implementation, and project implementation, Choice (C), is an activity described within the plan. Sustainability, Choice (D), is a corporate responsibility concept that helps organizations avoid resource depletion.

Job expansion and divestitures are examples of what type of organizational activity? (A) Restructuring (B) Downsizing (C) Mergers (D) Acquisition

A. Choice (A) is correct because it may include both expansion and reduction to address a strategic initiative. Choice (B) is an example of reduction, whereas Choices (C) and (D) are more about the joining of assets than simple restructures.

Erica's Corner Café employs servers who are considered tipped employees under the FLSA. She pays them a base salary of $2.13 an hour and allows them to keep all of their tips. Some employees make below the federal minimum wage. Which of the following statements is true? (A) Erica may be violating their rights under the FLSA if their base pay plus tips doesn't meet the minimum wage standard. (B) Erica may be violating the FLSA because the base pay is too low, regardless of tip earnings. (C) Erica should be paying a base pay of the federal minimum wage of $7.25 per hour, plus overtime. (D) There is nothing wrong with the café claiming a tip credit against its minimum wage obligation.

A. Companies are allowed to claim a tip credit against the minimum wage earnings, provided they pay the difference when base pay plus tips does not meet the minimum wage standards.

Maintaining the confidentiality of customer information is a function of what holistic risk management system? (A) Enterprise risk management (B) A response to a technological fail (C) The establishment of a firewall (D) The protection of human assets

A. Enterprise risk management (ERM) is a system to address all aspects of organizational risk, including protecting the confidentiality of customer information, which makes Choice (A) correct. Responding to a technological fail (Choice [B]) and establishing firewalls (Choice [C]) are aspects of the system. The protection of human assets (Choice [D]) doesn't address information, but rather the physical well-being of employees.

The presence of more than 50 percent of women in the workforce population may be an indication of what? (A) The need for flexible work arrangements (B) The need for employment practice liability insurance (EPLI) (C) The likelihood of a sexual harassment lawsuit (D) The need for a dating policy

A. Flexible work arrangements can help retain key workers of both sexes, allowing for better work-life balance. EPLI insurance (Choice [B]) and a dating policy (Choice [D]) aren't the direct result of women in the workplace. The question doesn't adequately predict a sexual harassment lawsuit (Choice [C]).

The company you work for would like you to recommend a gainsharing plan that rewards the manufacturing workers when they exceed productivity requirements. Which program should you recommend? (A) Improshare (B) Profit sharing (C) An ESOP (D) An ESPP

A. Improshare is a gainsharing plan that rewards efforts that exceed past production standards. Improshare is more narrowly focused than a profit- sharing plan (Choice [B]). It also doesn't offer employee stock as do Employee Stock Ownership Plans (Choice [C]) and Employee Stock Purchase Plans (Choice [D]).

A marketing function that reflects the concept of putting the right product, in the right place, for the right promotion at the right ___________. (A) price (B) power (C) practice (D) percentage

A. Often referred to as the 4 Ps of marketing — product, place, promotion, and price — are decisions that must be made regarding a company product or service. The other answers aren't part of the 4 Ps of marketing.

Lori is a recruiter for a large marketing firm based out of New York City with multiple branches across the United States. Working out of the corporate offices is considered a career advantage, and she is determined to find a quality candidate. Which of the following recruiting activities should she do first? (A) Create an internal job posting. (B) Call a staffing agency with locations in multiple U.S. locations. (C) Research online recruiting resources. (D) Get the job posted on the company's website.

A. Promoting from within capitalizes on the resources already expended in an earlier recruiting effort, and the question stem states that working at corporate is an attractive option. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are all good efforts, but not the best answer to this scenario.

Shift premiums are a type of what? (A) Pay differential (B) Hazard pay (C) Benefit (D) Entitlement

A. Shift premiums are considered a pay differential because they're different from the regular hourly rate. Hazard pay, Choice (B), is also a type of pay differential, paying a higher premium for difficult or dangerous work. A benefit, Choice (C), is generally a part of an overall compensation plan, and entitlement, Choice (D), is a compensation philosophy.

Consistent branding and the use of videos are combined for successful what? (A) Social media recruiting (B) Employee retention (C) Job satisfaction (D) Communicating benefits

A. Successful social media use in recruiting has a consistent message communicated via the brand, and videos are one way to do that. The employer brand isn't used for retention (Choice [B]) or satisfaction efforts (Choice [C]), nor does it help communicate the benefits (Choice [D]).

Which of the following is one of the five disciplines of Peter Senge's learning organization? (A) Systems thinking (B) Drive for results (C) Strategic planning (D) Employee training

A. Systems thinking refers to a holistic view of the inter-relatedness of an organization. Choices (B) and (C) aren't one of the five disciplines. Choice (D) is a distractor because a learning organization is not just about employee training; it's the science of how a company works.

Which statement regarding the FMLA is false? (A) FMLA leave focuses on wage replacement and job protection. (B) FMLA provides 12 work weeks of leave for eligible workers. (C) The certification requirements for leave are the same for all requests, including military. (D) An eligible employee is one who has worked 1,250 hours in the preceding 12-month period.

A. The Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA) provides unpaid, job-protected leave to eligible employees.

When President Ronald Reagan ordered striking air traffic controllers back to work, he was acting with authority granted by which of the following acts? (A) Labor-Management Relations Act (Taft-Hartley Act) (B) National Labor Relations Act (Wagner Act) (C) Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act (Landrum-Griffith Act) (D) Railway Labor Act

A. The Labor Management Relations Act sought to balance the power between unions and employers. The National Labor Relations Act, Choice (B), first granted union power in 1935. The Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act, Choice (C), which established controls for unions in response to corrupt union practices against their members, also curbed union power. The Railway Labor Act, Choice (D), was a collaboration between unions and railway employers to minimize the likelihood of strikes and thus avoid the disruptions to transportation they cause.

In which type of sexual harassment may the employer not establish an affirmative defense? (A) Quid pro quo with a tangible injury (B) Hostile environment (C) Vicarious liability (D) Workplace violence

A. The Supreme Court established that in cases where an adverse employment action was made by a supervisor via quid pro quo harassment, an employer may not build an affirmative defense. An example of a tangible injury includes denial of a promotion or wage, or a demotion. In the other three answer choices, an employer may have the opportunity to provide an affirmative defense demonstrating that they took all possible preventive efforts.

Which landmark case found that a seemingly neutral pre-employment test could result in unlawful discrimination if it has an adverse impact against a protected class group? (A) Griggs vs. Duke Power (B) The UGESPs (C) McDonnell Douglas vs. Green (D) Albermarle Paper vs. Moody

A. The correct answer is (A), which found that a high school diploma requirement was excluding African Americans. (B) requires that all employment tests be valid predictors of behavior. (C) places the burden on an employer to show why it failed to hire someone who was otherwise qualified. In (D), an employee who had been the subject of unlawful discrimination may be eligible for back pay.

What pay practice is most nearly the opposite of base pay? (A) Piecework (B) Holiday pay (C) Benefits (D) Perquisites

A. The opposite of base pay is pay based on merit. Choices (B), (C), and (D) aren't performance driven.

If an applicant intentionally applies for a job at a non-union shop specifically to begin an organizing drive, he is said to be engaged in what practice? (A) Salting (B) Featherbedding (C) Double breasting (D) Alter ego

A. The term salting refers to the process of padding the applicant pool with those in sympathy with union aims, making Choice (A) the correct answer. Featherbedding, Choice (B), is the hiring of more workers than are necessary to perform a job. Double breasting, Choice (C), refers to a common owner of two businesses, one of which is union. The alter ego doctrine, Choice (D), is a term used to describe an employer who is trying to dodge its collective bargaining responsibilities by setting up another company with substantially the same operations.

Mary Jones is a full-time employee who has worked for a nationwide car manufacturer for more than 15 years. She needs time off of work to care for her child, who has recently been diagnosed with asthma. Match the activities in Column A with the order in which they should be taken in Column B. Column A Column B (A) Notify Mary's supervisor that she will be off work. Step 1 (B) Verify her eligibility for FMLA. Step 2 (C) Request medical certification. Step 3

B → Step 1; C → Step 2; A → Step 3. Step 1 is (B). By verifying that Mary is eligible for Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA), you're ensuring that her rights are protected and that you comply with the standard if required. After you have verified her eligibility, you may request medical certification from her physician (C) and work with the supervisor to determine replacement needs and sources (A).

A retail distributor was suffering from a process that took the company too long to hire, particularly during the seasonal peaks associated with holidays. Which of the following should you recommend? (A) Continuous recruitment of salespeople (B) A human capital management plan (C) Promotions from within (D) The use of staffing agencies

B. A human capital management plan is part of the strategic planning process in which talent needs are forecasted and addressed. Continuous recruitment (Choice [A]) won't solve seasonal peaks, and making promotions from within (Choice [C]) still leaves gaps. The use of staffing agencies (Choice [D]) may be a solution, but only after the needs are predicted.

The school of medicine for which you work has partnered with a national university to create a leadership development program. Which of these outcomes might this program serve? (A) Initiating a companywide patient care program (B) Building a motivated and engaged workforce (C) Identifying the technical skills required for physicians (D) All of the above

B. A leadership development program first serves the broader needs and desired outcomes of an organization. Focused development programs typically are designed to serve narrower needs such as quality or job competencies for a specific role. Choice (A) isn't the best answer simply because the focus of leadership development is not on one single outcome, but rather many. Identifying technical skills for physicians, Choice (C), is too narrow of a focus to be served by a leadership development program.

Which of the following would be an unfair labor practice? (A) Moving the work to a different plant with no union (B) Asking employees if they will vote for or against the union (C) Lecturing to employees how historical corruption caused problems with unions (D) Threatening to fire supervisors if they show support for the union

B. Choice (B) is the correct answer because it violates Section 8 of the National Labor Relations Act (Wagner Act). Choice (A) is incorrect because companies can do it for economic reasons. Choice (C) is incorrect because it's called a captive audience meeting and is protected if done on company time. Choice (D) is incorrect because supervisors can be fired if they show support for a union. They must take a company position as a supervisor or risk being fired.

Which of these tools would best capture the reasons that employees leave an organization? (A) Employee satisfaction surveys (B) Exit interviews (C) Turnover reports (D) Labor market analysis

B. Employee reasons for leaving are captured prior to their last day of work in exit interviews. Employee satisfaction surveys, Choice (A), are designed to measure employee opinions before they make a decision to leave. Turnover reports, Choice (C), are designed to identify what positions are unfilled, and a labor market analysis, Choice (D), is too broad in scope to capture specific information about why people choose to leave a specific employer.

Electromation, Inc. was a small, non-union company with 200 employees experiencing financial difficulties. It decided to form committees in response to a change to employee bonuses and other employee concerns regarding policies, favoritism, and communication. Although these committees consisted of both employees and management, management had the final say on who was seated. Which of the following is one of the reasons the National Labor Relations Board ruled that this was an unlawful, company-dominated union? (A) Managers were on the committee. (B) The committees included discussions about conditions of employment. (C) Compensation committees without union representation are unlawful. (D) It wasn't recognized as a formal union.

B. The National Labor Relations Act (NLRA) guarantees workers the right to organize independent of their employer. Having managers appoint employees who were then allowed to discuss conditions of employment makes Choice (B) the correct answer. Also, the committee could make recommendations that had job security and economic implications for current workers. These decisions, outside the normal collective bargaining domain, would violate NLRB rules. The presence of management on the committees and the committees themselves, Choices (A) and (C), aren't unlawful; Choice (D) is irrelevant because all company committees don't have to be declared part of an official union.

If an employer's social media policy violates the right of an employee to engage in coordinated discussion about wages or working conditions, what kind of a charge may be filed? (A) Discrimination (B) Unfair Labor Practice (C) Harassment (D) Whistleblower

B. The National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) may file an Unfair Labor Practice (ULP) charge against the employer if its social media policy is too broad. The question doesn't discuss any discriminatory elements such as protected class conditions (Choice [A]), nor does it describe a situation of sexual or hostile workplace harassment (Choice [C]). A whistleblower (Choice [D]) is someone who reports a company for corrupt or unsafe business practices.

What should occur prior to writing an organization's mission, vision, and values (MVV) statements? (A) Establish the company's budget. (B) Gain management buy-in to the process. (C) Conduct an environmental scan. (D) Evaluate the corporate strategy.

B. The best answer to this question is Choice (B). Having management committed to the process will help shape and influence a meaningful MVV. Establishing a budget, Choice (A), is a transactional activity that shouldn't influence the MVV. Scanning the environment, Choice (C), is helpful to collect data, but not in advance of management engagement. Choice (D) is an evaluation step, usually occurring after the MVV is in place.

An employee self-assessment is useful when__________. (A) there are problems with teamwork (B) the employee is new (C) the job criteria aren't well established (D) an employer wants to compare employees to each other

B. The best answer to this question is Choice (B). New employees should be asked to conduct a self- assessment after the first 90 days of employment in order to help facilitate the constructive feedback that is often necessary to get them up to speed. An employee assessment isn't the best way to address teamwork issues, Choice (A), because most employees won't point the finger at themselves. Choice (C) won't be served by an assessment of the employee's behavior, and Choice (D) is incorrect for similar reasons.

Which of the following has had the most growth in online media recruiting? (A) Video branding (B) Mobile apps (C) Employee testimonials (D) Personal networks

B. The explosion of mobile job apps within the last testing window makes Choice (B) the correct answer. Also increasing, but at a slower pace, are the use of videos for the employer brand, Choice (A), and employee testimonials, Choice (C) (similar to a product or service review). Choice (D) has been growing at a more steady pace since its birth several years ago.

Which act first defined a list of unfair labor practices by employers? (A) Labor-Management Relations Act (Taft-Hartley Act) (B) National Labor Relations Act (Wagner Act) (C) Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act (Landrum-Griffith Act) (D) Railway Labor Act

B. The trifecta of labor law governs unions, and the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA) was the act that first defined unfair labor practices. The Labor-Management Relations Act (LMRA), Choice (A), followed, which protected employers from union abuses. The third act was the Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act (LMRDA), Choice (C), which established controls for unions in response to corrupt union practices against their members. The Railway Labor Act of 1926, Choice (D), was a cooperative effort between labor unions and railway employers to minimize the impact that striking workers had on U.S. transportation.

A customer service representative isn't keeping up with the required call volume. For which of the following causes would training NOT be a solution? (A) He is unfamiliar with the products. (B) His headset is faulty. (C) He has only been on the job for 30 days. (D) The company installed a new ERP system.

B. Training won't solve a problem with tools or equipment, so Choice (B) is correct. Training may have impact on being unfamiliar with the products (Choice[A]), being a new hire (Choice [C]), or becoming proficient with software programs (Choice [D]).

Conducting employee exit interviews by a third party is most useful for which of the following? (A) Controlling the high emotions associated with separations (B) Obtaining honest feedback (C) Protecting the employer from a wrongful termination claim (D) Utilizing external resources to keep HR focused on operations

B. Using a third party to conduct the exit interview allows the exiting employee to provide more honest, meaningful feedback as to why he or she is leaving. It may not have an impact on how an employee feels about the separation (Choice [A]), and it won't protect an employer from a charge of wrongful termination (Choice [C]). Choice (D) may be necessary for the busy HR professional, but it's not the best answer.

Why should a private-sector employer hire interns? (A) It's a great way to get free work done. (B) It's useful to prequalify potential candidates. (C) It invests in the communities in which the employer does business. (D) It's the right thing to do.

B. Using student interns is an excellent source of hiring for companies that allows both the candidate and the employer to qualify each other for the position. Choice (A) could get the employer in trouble if not properly managed, and both Chioces (C) and (D), although correct, aren't the focus of student internships.

In which of the following examples does a positive correlation exist? (A) The longer employees are with a company, the fewer attendance problems they have. (B) Workplace harassment increases the likelihood of employee depression. (C) In the absence of random drug screening, employee drug use increases. (D) Positive coaching efforts result in decreased turnover.

B. When two sets of data are strongly linked together, a high correlation is said to exist, referred to as a co- relationship. A positive correlation demonstrates that when one variable increases, the second variable also increases, or if one variable decreases, the second likewise decreases, so Choice (B) is correct. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are examples of negative correlations because when one variable increases, the other decreases.

Brown bag lunches, word of mouth, and company intranet are all forms of what? (A) Training (B) Communicating with employees (C) Providing informal feedback (D) Reporting company information

B. You can communicate with employees several different ways, and they include informal brown bag lunches in which employees voluntarily bring their lunches to a meeting, a company intranet where business issues and announcements are posted, and word of mouth, where supervisors and other employees are used to pass information among employees. Word of mouth isn't a type of training, making Choice (A) incorrect. Both Choices (C) and (D) are types of information an employer would need a mode of communication for.

A pension plan that guarantees a set amount of benefits at the time of retirement is what kind of plan? (A) Cash balance (B) Contributory plan (C) Defined benefit (D) Defined contribution

C. A defined benefit plan guarantees an employee a set amount of money at the time of retirement, usually as a monthly payment. A cash balance plan, Choice (A), is a retirement program where employers deposit a percentage of the employee's pay into a retirement account, and the employee isn't required to contribute. A contributory plan, Choice (B), is one in which a percentage of earnings are deposited into a retirement account. A defined contribution, Choice (D), doesn't define the benefit; rather, it defines the amount an employer/employee may contribute to the plan, such as a 401k.

Which of the following decisions by an HR professional is the most ethical? (A) Allowing an employee to work a second job based on need, even though policy prohibits moonlighting (B) Staying with an occupational clinic because it sends her tickets to sporting events (C) Attending professional development meetings with subordinates (D) Giving preferred treatment to employees who are nice to her

C. Attending professional development activities with subordinates isn't unethical. Choices (B) and (D) are clearly inappropriate, and Choice (A), although compassionate, isn't appropriate when considering ethical behavior.

__________ is/are the amount of money an employee will make on an hourly or salaried basis. (A) Minimum wage (B) Total compensation (C) Base pay (D) Incentives

C. Base pay is the amount of money an employee receives as the result of performing work. Minimum wage (A) is set by law, total compensation (B) includes variable pay and benefits, and incentives (D) are a type of variable pay based on performance.

If an employee is motivated by a high-level desire to achieve, which pay strategy is most likely to work? (A) Annual increases (B) Robust benefits (C) Variable pay (D) Group incentives

C. Because variable pay is based on individual and/or organizational performance, Choice (C) is the best answer. Annual increases (Choice [A]) and benefits (Choice [B]) don't directly reward achievement, and group incentives (Choice [D]) reward team rather than personal effort.

In selecting a payroll vendor, which of the following activities should you complete first? (A) Gain executive approval. (B) Gather an RFP. (C) Conduct a needs assessment. (D) Request a trial.

C. Conducting a needs assessment helps identify what the company's need is in managing payroll. After that has been completed, you can then write a Request for Proposal (RFP) (Choice [B]) that addresses the needs, request a trial run (Choice [D]) of the selected software, and then present executives with options to approve it (Choice [A]).

Videoing an employee telling about his employment experience and then posting the video on the company recruitment website is an example of which of the following? (A) Recruiting (B) Documentation (C) Communicating the employer brand (D) Communicating the company culture

C. Employer branding serves to tell the public about why people should come and work for the organization. Establishing the employer brand is the broader scope of two of the other answers — Choices (A) and (D). Videoing and then posting the video doesn't serve as a compliance document, Choice (B).

Decentralized decision-making is more likely to occur in which of the following organizational structures? (A) Functional (B) Organizational (C) Product-based (D) Hierarchical

C. In a product-based structure, Choice (C), divisions are formed based on lines of products, customers, or geography. While lending itself to either centralized or decentralized, it's more likely to be decentralized than the traditional functional (Choice [A]) or hierarchical (Choice [D]) corporate structure. In Choice (B), the term organizational is a distractor.

The executive management team at Harbor Marina needs to know how long it will take for the value of a training activity to be equal to the cost. Which of the following approaches should the HR professional use? (A) Cost-benefit analysis (B) Return on investment (C) Break-even analysis (D) Training investment factors

C. In this question, the key word is equal. Although all answers may provide the executive team members with some degree of the information they seek, Choice (C) is the most specific; a break-even analysis will determine at what point total revenue equals total return. Choices (A), (B), and (D) speak to an overall return on the investment dollars but are broader than the initial request.

An emergency response plan is a required element of what safety compliance effort? (A) A fire prevention plan (B) The protection of information assets (C) The establishment of IIPPs (D) The identification of financial risks

C. Injury and illness prevention plans (IIPPs) are designed to communicate information to employees about workplace hazards. Many of these plans share elements, whereas others, such as fire prevention plans (Choice [A]), are specific to the hazard. The need isn't an element of protecting information or financial assets as in Choices (B) and (D).

Merit pay increases are what type of compensation? (A) Base (B) Total (C) Performance (D) Entitlement

C. Performance-based pay is earned based on effort. Base pay, Choice (A), is paid as part of the work agreement, and total compensation, Choice (B), includes all facets of remuneration. Entitlement pay, Choice (D), is based on years of service or cost of living increases; an employee is entitled to the increase because she works there.

The CCPA __________ the amount of wages that can be garnished against an employee. (A) prohibits (B) doesn't address (C) limits (D) defines

C. The Consumer Credit Protection Act limits the amount of pay that can be garnished on a weekly basis; thus, Choice (C) is correct.

If an employer is issuing evidence of past health insurance to an exiting employee, it is most likely complying with which law? (A) COBRA (B) Title VII (C) HIPAA (D) PPACA

C. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) prohibits the exclusion of pre-existing conditions when an employee had previous coverage of said condition. The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA), Choice (A), is the right of employees to continue to purchase the employer plan when there is a qualifying event. Title VII, Choice (B), is part of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 that prohibits discrimination in employment and doesn't govern health insurance. Future coverage of pre-existing health conditions isn't the focus of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA), Choice (D).

If a union fails to properly hold a local leadership election every three years, which act is the union violating? (A) Labor-Management Relations Act (Taft-Hartley Act) (B) National Labor Relations Act (Wagner Act) (C) Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act (Landrum Griffin Act) (D) Railway Labor Act

C. The Labor-Management Reporting Act (Landrum- Griffith Act) established rules for unions in an effort to protect members from corrupt practices. The National Labor Relations Act (Wagner Act), Choice (B), gave employees the right to unionize, and the Labor- Management Relations Act (Taft-Hartley), Choice (A), protected employers from union abuses. The Railway Labor Act, Choice (D), was one of the first efforts between unions and employers to find alternative dispute methods to strikes.

Which agency is responsible for enforcing the standards related to unfair labor practices? (A) EEOC (B) NLRA (C) NLRB (D) DOL

C. The National Labor Relations Board (NLRB) is responsible for enforcing the standards set forth in the National Labor Relations Act (Choice [B]). The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC), Choice (A), enforces Title VII, and the Department of Labor, Choice (D) is responsible for many other labor laws including safety and wage and hour.

Which of the following acts amended the FLSA to further define compensable time? (A) Davis-Bacon (B) McNamara-O'Hara (C) Portal-to-Portal (D) Equal Pay

C. The Portal-to-Portal Act amended the FLSA in 1947 to clarify what was compensable time. One of the primary outcomes was that regular commute time — from one portal or doorway to another — wasn't compensable under the FLSA. Davis-Bacon, Choice (A), required prevailing wages for public works projects. McNamara-O'Hara, Choice (B), addressed minimums for service workers. The Equal Pay Act, Choice (D), addressed disparity in pay between men and women doing the same jobs.

Which court case decided that same-sex harassment is actionable under (anti-harassment) laws? (A) Medina Rene vs. MGM Grand Hotel (B) Burlington Industries vs. Ellerth (C) Oncale vs. Sundowner Offshore Services (D) Faragher vs. City of Boca Raton

C. The Supreme Court found in Oncale vs. Sundowner Offshore Services that Title VII is violated anytime the work environment is permeated with hostile or discriminatory behavior that alters the work environment, regardless of sex.

When a job is designed to allow employees to apply multiple skill sets on the job, this job is likely high in what? (A) Task identity (B) Functional loading (C) Skill variety (D) Task significance

C. The correct answer is skill variety, one of the criteria of the job characteristics model that allows employees to use more than one skill in their work. Choice (A) is the ability to identify how the employee's task contributes to the final product. Horizontal loading, Choice (B), refers to assigning tasks that share similar skill sets. Task significance is an intrinsic motivator when the job has a larger purpose or meaning, Choice (D).

A tangible employment action may be demonstrated by which of the following? (A) Documented in employment records (B) Evidence of retaliation (C) An official act of the company, such as firing or transfer (D) All of the above

D. A tangible employment action, such as hiring, firing, and demoting, can only be caused by someone — such as a supervisor — acting on behalf of the employer. The EEOC states that this action can be demonstrated by documentation, higher-level review, and execution of the action, making Choice (D) correct.

If an employee is found to be the victim of unlawful discrimination, he or she may be entitled to back pay under which landmark court decision? (A) Griggs vs. Duke Power (B) The UGESPs (C) McDonnell Douglas vs. Green (D) Albemarle Paper vs. Moody

D. Albemarle Paper vs. Moody found that an employee who had been the subject of unlawful discrimination may be eligible for back pay. In Choice (A), a high-school diploma requirement excludes African Americans, making it discriminatory. Choice (B) requires that all employment tests be valid predictors of behavior. Choice (C) places the burden on an employer to show why it failed to hire someone who was otherwise qualified.

Which of the following most accurately describes at- will employment? (A) The employer may terminate an employee at any time, for any reason. (B) The employee may quit without giving notice. (C) The employee serves at the will of the employer. (D) Both the employer and the employee can separate at any time without cause.

D. At-will employment is a common law doctrine that allows either party to employment to separate at any time and for any reason, making Choice (D) the best answer.

An employee may quit at any time and for any reason is another way to describe which of the following? (A) Doctrine of free will (B) Doctrine of Lord Acton (C) Statutory exceptions (D) At-will employment

D. At-will employment is the right for an employer to terminate or an employee to quit at any time for any reason, making Choice (D) correct. There is no such thing as the doctrine of free will, Choice (A). The doctrine of Lord Acton, Choice (B), refers to an author of freedom essays unrelated to employment issues. Statutory exceptions, Choice (C), are conditions under which a labor law or employment doctrine may not apply.

Banquet-style seating is most effective for which of the following training formats? (A) Films (B) Lectures (C) Manuals (D) Group discussions

D. Banquet-style seating helps facilitate training that requires discussion because it has already organized people into groups. Films (Choice [A]) and lectures (Choice [B]) are best facilitated using theater-style seating, and the use of manuals (Choice [C]) or other hands-on activities is best served by a traditional classroom setup.

Striking workers who seek higher wages or shorter working hours are engaged in what type of lawful strike? (A) Protest (B) Picketing (C) Unfair labor practices (D) Economic

D. Economic strikers are those workers who are protesting conditions of employment such as wages or hours. Picketing, Choice (B), may be an activity used by strikers to communicate their dissatisfaction. Unfair labor practices strikers, Choice (C), are protesting unlawful acts by the employer. There is no such thing as a protest strike, Choice (A).

Engagement is to the employee life cycle what the employee's __________ is to the company. (A) job (B) responsibility (C) impact (D) performance

D. Employee performance, Choice (D), is the correct answer because the engagement stage in the employee life cycle is related to the worker's performance management. Choice (A) is communicated at the onboarding stage of the life cycle, as are responsibilities, Choice (B). Choice (C) isn't relevant.

Which of the following is the best reason an employer may choose to pay below-market rates for a certain position? (A) The competitors are paying below-market rates. (B) The job is only worth a below-market rate. (C) The rates are in line with the company budget. (D) There is an abundance of talent for the position.

D. Employers have many reasons for paying below- market rates, but when evaluating compensation rates, they should first consider the abundance of talent. Regardless of what competitors are doing (Choice [A]), job worth (Choice [B]), or the budget requirements (Choice [C]), the absence or abundance of talent drives results.

It was discovered that an employee was able to siphon off cash from sales because she was responsible for both collecting the money and creating deposits. This failure is due to a lack of what? (A) Training (B) Documentation (C) Standard operating procedures (D) Internal controls

D. Establishing internal controls such as those defined by the generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) helps avoid potential conflicts such as the one described in the question, making Choice (D) the correct answer. In this case, separating the functions so that the responsibilities are shared would not prevent something like this from happening, whereas Choices (A), (B), and (C) serve only to prohibit it.

In which of the following examples is there an experience rating to determine cost? (A) Unemployment claims (B) Workers' compensation (C) Company car insurance (D) All of the above

D. In all of the answers, an experience factor is generated based on claims experience, making Choice (D) the correct answer.

Statements that describe the measurable outcomes of training are known as what? (A) Goals (B) Interventions (C) Targets (D) Objectives

D. In instructional design, the objectives of learning should be clearly defined prior to the development of training. In training design, objectives state the outcomes that will shape the learning content and final effectiveness evaluations. Goals, Choice (A), tend to be stated on the operational level, trickling down from the strategic plan. Interventions are also linked to business strategy and are used to fill the gap between actual and desired states, Choice (B). Choice (C) is a generic term used both at a strategic and operational level.

Jim accepts a contingent offer of employment from a new company and consequently gives notice. The employer eventually rescinds the offer after his drug screen came back positive for marijuana. Which of the common law doctrines did this employer violate? (A) Promissory estoppel (B) Duty of good faith and fair dealing (C) Fraudulent misrepresentation (D) None

D. In this case, the employer was well within its right to rescind the conditional job offer of employment based upon an employee's pre-employment drug screen results, making Choice (D) the correct answer. The other answers are all examples of common law doctrines. Promissory estoppel (Choice [A]) would have occurred if the employer promised something and the individual acted on that promise. The duty of good faith and fair dealing (Choice [B]) would have been compromised if the employer had acted in an unfair manner, and fraudulent misrepresentation (Choice [C]) would have occurred, for example, if the employer had given false information to entice the employee to leave his current position.

Employees at Natural Bee Organics have to work on Saturdays because they are behind in production. The supervisor promises that if they catch up, they can go back to their regular schedules. This is an example of what type of operant conditioning? (A) Punishment (B) Extinction (C) Positive reinforcement (D) Negative reinforcement

D. Negative reinforcement occurs when something unpleasant is removed in response to employee behavior. Positive reinforcement, Choice (C), provides a reward when behavior occurs, for example, incentives for speeding up production. Punishment, Choice (A), would exist if the supervisor told the workers they would be fired if production weren't caught up. Extinction, Choice (B), is similar to negative reinforcement; however, it refers to extinguishing the behavior, not removing the consequence.

Which of the following activities are often outsourced to an external agency? (A) Payroll (B) Hiring (C) COBRA administration (D) All of the above

D. Outsourcing is a very useful way to accomplish many of the functions of HR in the absence of a robust HR department. Activities include processing payroll (Choice [A]), hiring (Choice [B]), and complying with COBRA (Choice [C]).

An employee called OSHA to report a safety hazard that the employer had failed to address, resulting in a worksite inspection and fines. The employer found out and quietly demoted the worker. This is an example of which unlawful employment action? (A) Discrimination (B) Harassment (C) Wrongful discipline (D) Retaliation

D. Retaliation occurs when an employer punishes a worker for exercising a right under the law — in this case, the right to blow the whistle — making Choice (D) the correct answer. Discrimination, Choice (A), occurs when an employee is unlawfully treated based on a protected class characteristic. Harassment, Choice (B), may be present if the employee is forced to endure taunting or abusive conduct from co-workers or supervisors. In Choice (C), a claim of wrongful discipline may have merit; however, it's secondary to the correct answer.

A mass layoff of more than 500 employees would trigger which of the following acts protecting the affected individuals? (A) The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (B) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (C) The Workforce Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (D) All of the above

D. Separation of employment is a trigger for multiple worker protection acts, including all listed here, which makes Choice (D) correct. COBRA, Choice A, allows separated workers to continue to purchase healthcare. HIPAA, Choice B, allows them to get future coverage despite pre-existing conditions. WARN, Choice (C), requires notice because the layoff affects more than 99 workers.

Which of the following statements is true regarding state-run OSH programs? (A) State programs aren't allowed under OSH. (B) State programs are able to operate independently of the federal standards. (C) State programs must exceed federal program standards. (D) State programs must meet federal program standards.

D. State-run programs must meet the federal safety standards established by the Occupational Safety and Health Act and Administration, making Choice (D) the correct answer.

Which of the following is NOT an affirmative defense for a company being sued for quid pro quo sexual harassment? (A) Demonstrating that the employer exercised reasonable care to prevent unlawful behavior (B) Demonstrating that the employer promptly corrected unlawful behavior (C) Demonstrating that the employee failed to take advantage of any preventive or corrective opportunities provided by the employer (D) Demonstrating that the accused employee wasn't a supervisor

D. Supervisory status will rarely be used (although recent Supreme Court rulings may change this). Choices (A), (B), and (C) are all acceptable affirmative defenses established by case precedent.

Data recall, confidential customer information, and the protection of digital assets must be reviewed according to which element of a PEST analysis? (A) Political (B) Economic (C) Social (D) Technological

D. Technological factors, such as the ability to recall data and protection of assets, must be reviewed as part of a thorough PEST analysis. The political (Choice [A]), economic (Choice [B]), and social (Choice [C]) landscapes don't address the items in the question.

Which of the following is an example of on-the-job training? (A) Vestibule (B) Lecture (C) Simulation (D) Job rotation

D. The correct answer is Choice (D) because on-the- job training occurs in real time at the workstations. Meanwhile, off-the-job training pulls employees out of the environment in which they will eventually apply their knowledge. In vestibule training, Choice (A), work is simulated at a different location from where the work would normally be done. A lecture, Choice (B), is a method used in a classroom setting, and simulation training, Choice (C), is training that mimics actual conditions of the job but is not done where the work is regularly completed.

The decline in union membership has been attributed to what? (A) Rights granted by varying national and state standards (B) Improved working conditions (C) Modernization of tools and equipment (D) All of the above

D. Union issues such as safety and fair pay have been granted as rights by statute (Choice [A]), while working conditions (Choice [B]) and updated tools and equipment (Choice [C]) have improved, making unions less necessary than in earlier times.

Visual learners are best served through which style of training? (A) Lecture (B) Hands-on work (C) On the job (D) Handouts

D. Visual learners learn by seeing the material in print or graphic form, making Choice (D) the correct answer. Lectures (Choice [A]) work well for auditory learners, whereas tactile learners are best served through hands-on (Choice [B]) or on-the-job (Choice [C]) training.