Practice PTCE #1
Which act distinguished between legend and nonlegend drugs? a) The 1951 Durham Humphrey amendment b) The 1962 Kefauver-Harris amendment c) The 1983 Orphan drug act d) The 1914 Harrison narcotic act
a) The 1951 Durham Humphrey amendment
A pharmacy technician's scope of practice includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) Refilling medications b) Answering patients' questions regarding their medications c) Answering insurance related questions d) Reviewing prescription order for accuracy of information
b) Answering patients' questions regarding their medications
2What is CCXLIX equivalent to? a) 254 b) 269 c) 240 d) 249
d) 249
3If a manufacturer markets sugar pills as a cure for headache, which law would the manufacture violate? a) Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 b) Durham Humphrey Act c) Kefauver-Harris amendment d) Food, drug, and cosmetic Act of 1938
d) Food, drug, and cosmetic Act of 1938
What is the maximum number of refills allowed on Accutane prescriptions? A. 0 B. 1 C. 6 D. 12
A. 0 Prescriptions for Accutane (isotretinoin) may not have refills. The patient must return to see the physician on a monthly basis and be provided with a new written prescription.
A pharmacy technician is preparing heparin 25,000 units in 500 mL of D5W. What is the appropriate concentration on the label? A. 50 units/mL B. 75 units/mL C. 100 units/mL D. 125 units/mL
A. 50 units/mL This is a proportion problem. 25,000 units/500 mL = X units/1 mL, where X = 50 mL.
Which drug classification should not be taken with potassium-sparing diuretics? A. ACE inhibitors B. Beta-blockers C. Calcium channel blockers D. Nitrates
A. ACE inhibitors ACE inhibitors have a potassium-sparing effect, which, if taken with potassium-sparing diuretics, may result in hyperkalemia.
Which drug classification ends in -pril? A. ACE inhibitors B. Benzodiazepines C. Corticosteroids D. H2 antagonists
A. ACE inhibitors The suffix -pril designates the medication is an ACE inhibitor used in the treatment of cardiovascular disease.
Which of the following is not an advantage of health information technology? A. Alert fatigue occurs when excessive drug safety alerts occur B. Improved communication and health care delivery C. Improvement in reimbursement processes D. Ability to track the effectiveness of treatment options and quality of care
A. Alert fatigue occurs when excessive drug safety alerts occur Answers b, c, and d are all advantages of health information technology. Alert fatigue occurs when the user is continually receiving alerts regarding medication interactions, which results in the user ignoring the alerts.
Which of the following would not be a correct auxiliary label for a patient taking doxycycline? A. Avoid dairy products B. Avoid sunlight C. Not to be taken by pregnant women or children younger than age 9 D. Take on an empty stomach
A. Avoid dairy products Doxycycline is the only tetracycline that can be taken with dairy products.
What is the purpose of a group purchasing organization (GPO)? A. Negotiates prices for hospital pharmacies B. Purchases medications for hospital pharmacies C. Purchases medications for community pharmacies D. Purchases medications for managed care pharmacies
A. Negotiates prices for hospital pharmacies Group purchasing organizations (GPOs) negotiate prices for hospitals. They do not make the actual purchase of medications for hospitals.
Which of the following is true regarding the storage of CII medications in a pharmacy? A.CII medications must always be stored in a locked safe or cabinet. B.CII medications must be stored separately from CIII, CIV, and CV medications. C.CII medications may be dispersed on the shelves with CIII, CIV, and CV medications D.All of the above
A.CII medications must always be stored in a locked safe or cabinet CII medications must be stored either in a locked safe or cabinet to reduce theft.
How many tablets need to be dispensed to a patient if the directions are "i tab po tid for one month"? A. 3 B. 30 C. 90 D. 100
C. 90 "tid" means three times a day, and a month is equal to 30 days. 3 tablets/day × 30 days/month = 90 tablets.
Which of the following is required for a pharmacy to participate in a third-party reimbursement program? A. DEA number B. NABP number C. NPI number D. All of the above
C. NPI number HIPAA mandates that all health care providers possess a National Provider Identifier (NPI) number.
Which of the following is not a required text in a pharmacy? A. A copy of the Controlled Substances Act B. Orange Book C. PDR D. USP-NF
C. PDR The PDR is not a required reference in a pharmacy. All pharmacies must maintain a library for reference.
What type of inventory identifies the actual quantity of a specific medication on hand at a particular time? A. Biennial inventory B. Initial inventory C. Perpetual inventory D. Physical inventory
C. Perpetual inventory A perpetual inventory is an ongoing inventory that identifies the quantity of a specific medication at a particular point in time.
Which of the following is not required on a prescription label? A. Expiration date of prescription B. Patient's name C. Physician's DEA number D. Physician's name
C. Physician's DEA number A physician's DEA number is required only on the hard copy of a prescription or controlled substance; the DEA number is not required on the prescription label of control substances.
How long is a DEA Form 222 valid after it has been written? A. 72 hours B. 30 days C. 60 days D.180 days
C.60 days A DEA Form 222 is valid for 60 days after being written by the pharmacist in charge at a pharmacy.
What is the meaning of DX on a patient's chart? A.Date of birth B.Diabetes C.Diagnosis D.Dispense
C.Diagnosis DX means diagnosis.
Who determines the eligibility requirements for the federally funded Medicaid program? A.Federal government B.Health and Human Services C.State government D.The Joint Commission
C.State government Medicaid is a federally funded program that is administered by the states. Each state determines the eligibility requirements for participation.
Which of the following workplace issues has been identified as a cause of medication errors by MEDMARX? A. Multitasking B. Similar medication labels C. Stress D. All of the above
D. All of the above Common workplace issues include noise, stress, multitasking, similar medication labels (font size and color of font), and medication labels that are difficult to read
Which of the following sources of information is useful to verify that the correct medication has been selected from the shelf to fill the prescription? A. Check the name of the medication on the prescription with the name on the medication bottle. B. Check the NDC number on the prescription label and the medication bottle. C. Check the original prescription for the strength of the medication and make sure it is the same as the strength on the bottle. D. All of the above
D. All of the above Medication errors can occur because of look-alike medication names and similar labeling. Checking all of the information mentioned may reduce prescription errors.
Which of the following must appear on a unit-dose product label? A. Dose strength of the medication B. Expiration date of the medication C. Medication name D. All of the above
D. All of the above Unit-dose labels require the name and strength of the medication, expiration date of the medication, manufacturer's name, and lot number.
Which of the following can be used to treat asthma? A. β2 agonists B. Cromolyn C. Corticosteroids D. All of the above
D. All of the above β2 agonists, cromolyn, and corticosteroids are all treatments for asthma.
Which of the following items should be reviewed when receiving a new prescription from a patient? A. The date of the prescription is valid. B. The name, strength, and medication dosage are appropriate for the patient. C. The prescriber's information is valid. D. All of the above
D. All of the above Reviewing the prescription upon receipt is the first step in eliminating prescription errors.
Which of the following is a goal of technology used in pharmacies? A. Improve the quality of prescription filling processes. B. Process prescriptions faster. C. Reduce errors in cost-effective ways. D. All of the above
D. All of the above Work that was previously performed in a pharmacy by pharmacists and pharmacy technicians is being performed through technology and automation, allowing both pharmacists and pharmacy technicians to focus on other patient-related areas.
Which of the following is considered a "high-alert" medication? A. Amoxicillin B. Atorvastatin C. Fluoxetine D. Levothyroxine
D. Levothyroxine The Institute of Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) has identified levothyroxine as being involved in a very large number of prescription errors.
Which of the following forms of Medicare provides for prescription medications, biologicals, insulin, vaccines, and select medical supplies? A. Medicare Part A B. Medicare Part B C. Medicare Part C D. Medicare Part D
D. Medicare Part D Medicare Part D provides for prescription medications, biologicals, insulin, vaccines, and select medical supplies. All medications are not covered under Medicare Part D. Medicare Part A covers inpatient hospital care, skilled nursing facilities, hospice, and home health care. Medicare Part B provides for physician services, outpatient care, and some physical and occupational therapy. Medicare Advantage (Part C) allows participants in Medicare Part A and B to obtain coverage through an HMO or PPO that provides additional services at a higher cost.
What does a red C indicate on a prescription? A. Prescription has been canceled by the physician B. Prescription has been copied and transferred to another pharmacy C. Prescription has been processed by the pharmacy and has been picked up by the patient D. Prescription is a controlled substance
D. Prescription is a controlled substance A red C stamped on a prescription indicates that the medication is a controlled substance. All filled controlled substance prescriptions must be stamped with a 1-inch red C.
What is the brand name for sertraline? A. Celexa B. Paxil C. Prozac D. Zoloft
D. Zoloft Sertraline is the generic name for Zoloft. The generic names for the other branded medications are as follows: Celexa—citalopram, Paxil—paroxetine, and Prozac—fluoxetine.
Which of the following percents is considered a wrong dose error? A.1% B.3% C.5% D.8%
D.8% A wrong dose error occurs when a dose is above or below the intended dose by more than 5%.
Which of the following terms refers to an insurance company's use of three different copays? A. Donut hole B. Dual copay C. Online adjudication D.Tiered copay
D.Tiered copay A tiered copay system develops a copay for generic drugs, brand name drugs, and medications that may not be part of the formulary or considered a lifestyle drug.
How many inches inside a laminar airflow hood should one prepare a sterile product? A. 4 B. 6 C. 10 D. 12
B. 6 One must be at least 6 inches inside of the laminar airflow hood to use proper aseptic technique.
If a patient is experiencing a dry, nonproductive cough, what classification of drug should the patient take? A. Antihistamine B. Antitussive C. Decongestant D. Expectorant
B. Antitussive Whereas antitussives are used in the treatment of a dry, nonproductive cough, expectorants are used if a patient has mucus or phlegm.
Which of the following would be a correct DEA number for Dr. A. Shedlock? A. AB135426 B. BS2456879 C. FS1578926 D. MS2254235
B. BS2456879 The first letter may be either an A or B. The second letter is the first letter of the prescriber's last name. Next, add the numbers in the first, third, and fifth position. Then add the numbers in the second, fourth, and sixth positions; multiply this sum by two. Add both sums together, and the correct number should be the last number.
What is the meaning of CSAR? A. Controlled Studies Are Reviewed B. Controlled Substance Administration Record C. Controlled Substance Audit and Review D. Cost, sales, allocation, and resources
B. Controlled Substance Administration Record CSAR means Controlled Substance Administration Record. CSARs are used in hospitals and other institutional facilities to acknowledge the administration of a controlled substance to a patient. The administrator must sign his or her name and the time of administration.
Which of the following terms refers to the part of the computer that you can actually touch? A. Data B. Hardware C. Software D. User
B. Hardware Hardware refers to the physical components of the computer system. Data are the facts the computer uses, software provides the instructions to the computer to perform an application, and a user is an individual using a computer.
What is the meaning of HSA? A. Health Safety Administration B. Health savings account C. Health Savings Administration D. Health spending account such reimbursements indefinitely without penalties.
B. Health savings account A health savings account (HSA) combines the benefits of both traditional and Roth 401(k)s and IRAs for medical expenses. Taxpayers receive a 100% income tax deduction on annual contributions. They may withdraw HSA funds tax free to reimburse themselves for qualified medical expenses, and they may defer taking
What is the generic name for Prevacid? A. Esomeprazole B. Lansoprazole C. Omeprazole D. Pantoprazole
B. Lansoprazole Brand names and their generics are as follows: Prevacid—lansoprazole, Nexium—esomeprazole, Prilosec—omeprazole, and Protonix—pantoprazole.
What is the meaning of PDA? A. Personal digital aid B. Personal digital assistant C. Physician digital assistant D. Pharmaceutical data assistant
B. PDA is an acronym for personal digital assistant.
Which of the following is not required on a prescription label? A. The name and address of the pharmacy B. The physician's DEA number for controlled substances C. The patient's name D. The expiration date of the medication
B. The physician's DEA number for controlled substances A physician's DEA number is required on all prescriptions for a controlled substance, not all prescriptions.
A drug is available in the following strengths and dosage forms: 125-mg tablets, 250-mg capsules, and 125-mg/5 mL liquid. A child weighs 55 lb, and the recommended dose is 10 mg/kg/24 hr, which is to be given in either 6- or 12-hr intervals. Which of the following would not be an appropriate regimen? A.One 125 mg tablet every 12 hr B.One 250 mg capsule every 12 hr C. One teaspoon of 125 mg/5 mL liquid every 12 hr D. ½ of a 125 mg tablet every 6 hr
B.One 250 mg capsule every 12 hr
