Practice Questions

Successfully planning, managing, and controlling the execution of the project depends on managing the project scope. Successfully managing the project scope depends on having a detailed: A. Project Scope Statement B. Project Management Plan C. Project Schedule D. Scope Management Plan

A. All of these answers are important to managing the project, but the question specifically asked about managing scope, so you can eliminate Answers B and C. The Scope Management Plan tells you how to define the scope and how to process requested changes to the scope, but it is the Project Scope Statement which actually defines the scope, including the boundaries of what's in and what's out. Having this clearly defined in detail is mandatory for successful scope management, therefore, Answer A is the correct answer.

During a scheduled review, Phyllis is comparing the risks her team had anticipated to actual numbers her team has compiled. What should Phyllis do with this information? A. Update the risk register with this information. B. Create a risk portal for her organization based on this information and lessons learned. C. Communicate gaps between planned and actual risks to the stakeholders. D. Calculate the reserve that remains as a result of any differences between planned and actual risks.

A. Although choices 'B', 'C', and 'D' may be good ideas, the first action is to update the risk register with all of the actual results of anticipated risks.

Regarding the Plan Procurement Management process, which of the following statements is FALSE? A. The primary tools of the Plan Procurement Management process also serve as tools in the Control Procurements process. B. The Conduct Procurements process is guided by the evaluation criteria created in the process of Plan Procurement Management. C. Procurement documents, such as Requests For Proposal, are outputs of the Plan Procurement Management process. D. This process helps determine what services can be provided by the project team and what services need to be outsourced.

A. Answer 'A' is FALSE; The tools of Plan Procurement Management are nothing like the tools of the Control Procurements process.

Marie works for a company that has a contract to deliver a new automated fuel delivery system to a major retailer. Jose, an employee of the retailer, called two weeks ago to discuss adding a feature that had not been previously discussed. At his request, Marie researched what it would take to add this feature and the risks that would be introduced. When the research was completed, Marie called Jose back, and both agreed that the adding the feature would be a good idea and that the associated risks would be acceptable. What should Marie instruct the team to do? A. Keep working as planned without including the new feature. B. Stop working on the system. Go back and modify the requirements and design to include the new feature. C. Keep working, but incorporate the new feature into the final product. D. Add the change to the features to be included in the next release.

A. Because this project is being performed under contract, and the new feature has not yet been added as a formal change to the contract, the team should continue working without regard to the discussed change (Answer A). Once the change has been formally documented as an amendment to the contract, at that point 'B' would be the correct answer. 'C' would never be the right answer, as one should not deliver a feature that has not been properly documented in the requirements and design documents. 'D' sounds good, and could almost be the right answer, except that it is probably Marie who would document the feature for the next release and not the team. Also, from the description of the question, it sounds like this will be incorporated into this release rather than a future release. Until the contract is formally amended, however, the change is not officially approved.

What process is closest in nature to the manufacturing concept of JIT, Just In Time? A. Control resources B. Manage resources C. Acquire resources D. Manage quality

A. Control resources is concerned with ensuring that the right resources are available at the right time at the right place. This sounds a lot like JIT, right? JIT is about having near-zero inventory levels, but having the necessary resources (materials) available at the right time in the right place.

A project manager is having difficulty getting resources from a functional manager. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate to help resolve this problem? A. Senior management B. The customer C. Key stakeholders D. The sponsor

A. It is the role of senior management to resolve organizational conflicts and to prioritize projects, and either of those may be at the root of this problem. 'B' is incorrect since this is a matter internal to the organization, and the customer should be buffered from it. 'C' is incorrect since the stakeholders cannot always bring influence to bear inside the organization. 'D' is incorrect since the sponsor functions much like a customer internal to the organization. The sponsor does not prioritize projects and would not be the best person to go to in order to sort out an organizational conflict.

Which of the following would not be a result of estimating activity resources? A. Team members have been named. B. The number of people needed has been determined. C. Resources have been categorized in a hierarchical chart. D. The supporting documentation that backs up the estimates derived.

A. Outputs from the Estimate Activity Resources process include Resource Requirements (answer B), a Resource Breakdown Structure (answer C), and Basis of Estimates (answer D). Project resources are not just personnel—but also equipment, materials, facilities, etc. Answer-A is the correct answer because team members are named in the Acquire Team process, not the Estimate Activity Resources process.

There are eight strategies of risk responses resulting from planning. Assuming the risks occur, how many strategies would come to fruition in the executing process, Implement Risk Responses? A. Eight B. Seven C. Six D. Five

A. Share, Enhance, Exploit, Mitigate, Accept, Transfer, Avoid, and Escalate. Each of these strategies need to be implemented except Accept. However, when the risk occurs, even if it was accepted, then a workaround or contingency plan may need to be implemented. So - ALL EIGHT apply in this situation.

Francisco and his project team have completed the creation of the register of risks already identified for Project Beware. After qualifying the risks in the register as urgent or high probability and high impact, etc., his project team members have all suggested next steps to help quantify each risk. Which team member's suggestion would be the BEST next approach? A. Charles believes that a decision tree of each possibility be used to assign a dollar figure or value to each risk event. B. Betsy feels that each identified negative risk should be assigned a strategy to deal with the risk, that is, whether the risk should be mitigated, avoided, transferred, or accepted. C. Jonathan thinks that an earned value analysis should be performed to place a quantified value on each risk, whether positive or negative. D. Hobart found that a risk audit was beneficial in risk management of a previous project, and he recommended a risk audit be performed on each identified risk on the register.

A. The BEST next approach is to quantify each identified risk. Decision tree analysis is a tool to show probability and arrive at a dollar amount for each risk. 'B' is incorrect since it is a tool used in planning risk responses, a process which should follow quantification and qualification of risks. 'C' is incorrect because earned value analysis is not a risk management tool. 'D' is incorrect because risk audits are not performed on individual risks, but as a tool to monitor and control the risk management plan and the risk response plan.

The project manager is working to influence behavior on the team and ensure that the risk owners are tracking their assignments and implementing the plans if a risk does occur. What document would the project manager reference in this process to make sure the proper, agreed-upon response strategy is being followed? A. Risk Report B. Lessons Learned Register C. Risk Management Plan D. Implement Risk Responses

A. The Risk Report includes an assessment of overall project risk as well as the agreed-upon risk response strategy, making answer A the best choice. C - the Risk Management Plan - may have tripped you up. That would be the second-best choice. Third best is the Lessons Learned Register. And, answer D is the name of the process being carried out - not an input to this process, which is the focus of the question. Keep in mind the difference in the Risk Register and Risk Report. The Risk Register holds granular detail on each specific risk; whereas, the Risk Report holds summary data of overall project risk exposure along with the preferred response strategies to be carried out.

As a project manager, your BEST use of the project S curve would be to: A. Measure and monitor cost performance on the project B. Track approved changes C. Calculate team performance bonuses D. Measure and report on variable project costs

A. The S curve is the cost baseline. The cost baseline is used to track cost performance based on the original plan plus approved changes

What document is the first output of any project process as well as an input to the last process? A. Project Charter B. Project Management Plan C. Benefits management plan D. Issue log

A. The charter is produced as an output of the first process, Develop Project Charter. It is also an input to the last process to complete, Close Project or Phase. The only other document that also has this characterisitic is the Assumption log, but it was not one of the choices.

The project manager is meeting with functional managers to discuss which team members will be working on specific components of the scope and when they will be needed, based on the latest version of the project plan. This is an example of: A. The work authorization system because resources are being allocated to perform the work B. The project management information system, because the project manager is executing the project plan C. The configuration management system since team configuration decisions are being formally decided D. Formal verbal communication because the decisions will be formally reflected in the project plan

A. The definition of the work authorization system is the system used to ensure that resources are formally being released to perform work at the right time and in the right sequence. In this case, a meeting with the resources' functional manager would qualify as being a system.

Evaluation criteria are used to: A. Select a qualified seller B. Measure conformance to quality C. Determine if a project should be undertaken D. Evaluate performance on the project

A. The source selection criteria are created in the Plan Procurement Management process. In the Conduct Procurements process, the criteria are used to select a qualified seller after responses have been received.

Which information gathering technique is usually performed by a multi-disciplinary set of experts not on the project team under the leadership of a group face-to-face facilitator? A. Brainstorming B. Delphi technique C. Monte Carlo analysis D. Root cause identification

A. These are all good choices, but brainstorming is the only one that fits the description. Brainstorming is a data or information gathering technique. The Delphi technique is not done as a face-to-face group (one of the key characteristics of Delphi method is the anonymity of the participants), and although root cause identification has some similarities, it is not as good of a match as brainstorming. Monte Carlo analysis is not a good choice here since it typically does not involve a team.

Sharon is planning a fairly large project that will involve people from many offices around the country. Her sponsor is in San Diego, most of the technical team is located in Phoenix (except for the team members who work from home), and the primary customer is in Chicago. Her travel budget is limited by the fact that the company has a new focus on reducing travel expenses. What would you recommend? A. Sharon should plan a trip early in the project to meet with each of the groups in their locations. She should include enough money in the budget for a follow-up trip later, or perhaps even a gathering of the team members in a central location. B. Because project managers should always follow company policies, Sharon should find ways to work with the team without incurring any travel expense. C. Virtual teaming is a tool of Manage Stakeholder Engagement, so Sharon should make use of collaborative work tools and conference calls to enable the team to work together effectively. D. Sharon should plan a nice celebration at the end of the project; everyone would travel to a central location, ideally near the customer in Chicago. This will not only reward the team for a job well done, but will also reinforce the value of good teamwork for future projects.

A. This is a very realistic situation for most PMs. You should remember that face-to-face communication is always best and that team development should start early in the project - as soon as you have team members. This makes Answer-A the best answer. Answer-C includes incorrect information. Virtual teams are a tool of Acquire Resources, but not of Manage Stakeholder Engagement. Answer-B is not the right answer because the policy does not state that no travel is allowed. Travelling to meet team members, as well as other stakeholders, is a realistic expense and not an extravagance.

During an audit, the one ton pallet of stone for the entryway columns was found to be light by a half-ton. What process should be immediately entered? A. Control resources B. Control procurements C. Monitor and control project work D. Control scope

A. This pallet of stones represents a physical resource in the project. The first process to enter realted to supply and timing of materials is Control resources. Maybe there is another half-ton pallet in inventory? Control procurements may have been a tempting choice, but no contractual basis was set in stone in this question!

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the timing of sequencing activities and estimating resources? A. Once you have created an activity list, you can have part of your team decide on the order of activities, while another part of your team decides what resources are needed to complete each activity. B. You cannot determine resources needed until after the order of activities has been determined. C. You cannot determine the order of activities until after you have determined the resources needed. D. Because they must have access to the same tools, you cannot have the team simultaneously decide on the order of activities and resources needed to complete each activity.

A. This question is difficult. It asks about the order of the Sequence Activities and Estimate Activity Resources processes. These processes do not share the same tools, and the outputs of one are not inputs to the other. Therefore, answer A is correct. The processes can be performed simultaneously. One process does not rely on the other being performed prior to it.

What will likely happen to the number of risks in the Risk Register? A. It increases as the project progresses B. It decreases as response plans are developed C. It probably will neither increase nor decrease D. The number doesn't change but the amount of information for each risk will likely increase.

A. You will have the most risk at the beginning of the project, but will continue to identify new risks (Identify Risks) throughout the life of the project. Therefore, the number of risks will increase over the life of the project. As response plans are developed, those plans are added to the Risk Register, but the risks are not removed when a response plan has been developed.

Regarding the process of Control Scope, which of the following statements is FALSE? A. This process addresses scope creep directly and keeps scope change requests out of the Perform Integrated Change Control process. B. One of the goals of Control Scope is to understand the underlying causes of scope change requests. C. The scope change control system includes documentation, tracking systems, and approval levels necessary for authorizing changes. D. Control Scope is the final process of Scope Management, as many of the inputs to this process are outputs of prior Scope processes.

A. is the only FALSE statement. A starts out nicely, as the Control Scope process does address scope creep. However, Control Scope is closely linked to Perform Integrated Change Control - all change requests (even those related to scope) are sent through that process of Integration. B is TRUE - this is one of the goals of Scope Control. C accurately describes the scope change control system. And, D is a valid point - many of the inputs into Control Scope are outputs of prior Scope processes, such as the WBS, WBS Dictionary, and Scope Statement.

Regarding the Plan Procurement Management process, which of the following statements is FALSE? A. The source selection criteria generated by this process become inputs into the Control Procurements process. B. The integrated change control system handles any change requests that may be generated from Plan Procurement Management. C. Seller proposals will be generated as a result of two outputs of this process: a statement of work and an RFP. D. The Procurement Management Plan is generated as a result of this process.

Answer 'A' steps too far down the procurement processes. Contract administration focuses on the contract and the work performed, not proposals or evaluation of seller's responses. 'B', 'C', and 'D' are all true statements about the Plan Procurement Management process, and procurement management in general.

Which of the following activities is not a part of the process of Manage Stakeholder Engagement? A. Negotiate and communicate with stakeholders to manage expectations B. Address and plan for any risks associated with stakeholder management C. Groom the risk register D. Resolve or clarify identified issues

Answer C describes an activity that doesn't fit in this process; it sounds more like risk management than stakeholder management. The other 3 answers are accurate descriptions of tasks or activities performed by the team in this process of Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

Which is the correct order? A. Verified Deliverables, Final Transition, Closed Procurements B. Final Transition, Verified Deliverables, Closed Procurements C. Accepted Deliverables, Plan Quality Management, Final Transition D. Verified Deliverables, Accepted Deliverables, Final Transition

Answer D is correct. Verified Deliverables is an output from Control Quality, a controlling process that is executed during the life of the project. Accepted Deliverables is an output from Validate Scope, which must be completed before the project can be closed. Final Transition is an output of Close Project or Phase, which is the last process done in any project.

The CIO of XYZ Company has proposed a risk response strategy to handle a big threat on the project. Who pays for the implementation of the response plan and in which process? A. The project sponsor; Implement risk responses B. The CIO, due to his position; Control costs C. Management reserve; Implement risk responses D. The control account of all of the WBS risk packages; Implement risk controls

Answer-A is the best. The project sponsor's role is to pay for the project, which includes the cost of implementing risk response plans. Answer-D is incorrect; risk packages is a made-up term.

During stakeholder engagement management, the team applies the appropriate methods of communication and use feedback to determine their effectiveness. Where are those methods of communication documented for stakeholders? A. the stakeholder engagement plan B. the communications management plan C. the stakeholder management plan D. the stakeholder register

B is the correct answer. The communications management plan captures the team's analysis of communication needs and preferences of stakeholders. In that plan, the desirable communication method for each stakeholder is listed.

Which of the following would be an output of Sequence Activities? A. Mandatory dependencies B. An activity on node diagram C. Discretionary dependencies D. External dependencies

B. A project network diagram (like activity on node) is an output of sequence activities. The 3 types of dependencies fall under the tool of dependency determination in this same process

You have a team member who is habitually late to meetings with the customer. The customer has expressed dissatisfaction with the situation and has asked you to resolve it. Your BEST course of action is: A. Issue a formal written reprimand to the team member. B. Meet with the team member to discuss the problem and ask for solutions. C. Meet with the team member and the customer to promote further understanding. D. Email the team member to bring the situation to his attention.

B. Always ask yourself - what is the choice that solves the problem? In this case, 'B' is the best choice that solves the problem. Before you do anything else, you would want to meet with the person directly and discuss the problem. 'A' may be appropriate at some point but would not be considered best in this case. 'C' is not a good choice, since it is your job to resolve the problem and not the customer's job. 'D' is incorrect since it is too passive a choice and does not really deal with the problem.

You are about to attend a bi-weekly status meeting with your program manager when she calls and asks you to be certain to include earned value analysis in this and future meetings. Why is earned value analysis important to the communications process? A. It communicates the project's long term success B. It communicates how the project is doing against the plan C. It communicates the date the project deviated from the plan D. It communicates the value-to-cost ratio

B. Earned value analysis is a means of communication, and it's all about how the project is doing against the plan. Project reporting can take on many forms, and earned value is one type of report that might interest certain stakeholders.

The responsibility of decoding the message rests with: A. The sender B. The receiver C. The communications management plan D. The communications model

B. In the communications model , it is the sender that encodes, and the receiver decodes the message.

Fay is looking for people to fill the roles on her project, which will develop a new training system for pilots. She looks at the resource database and considers the following people to fill the role of technical writer. Which would be the best resource for her to use? A. Marcus - been with the company 9 months, immediately available, 2 years of experience in training development B. Lakeisha - been with the company 9 years, immediately available, developed similar training last year, has moved out of state C. JoAnn - been with the company 10 years, available shortly after the project begins, personal friend and golf buddy D. Chase - college intern, CIO's nephew

B. Lakeisha's qualifications make her the best choice. She has the most experience in this training and has the most experience with the company. The fact that she lives out of state is not an insurmountable issue. Marcus would be a good second choice, although his experience is not as strong as Lakeisha's. Neither JoAnn nor Chase would be a good choice, given the information presented.

You have just finished a thorough Monte Carlo analysis for your project. Which of the following would the analysis MOST likely identify? A. Divergent paths causing risk B. Points of schedule risk C. Points of schedule conflict that lead to risk D. Gaps in the project path that could create risk

B. One of the things Monte Carlo analysis would show you is where schedule risk exists on the project. 'A' is incorrect because it is typically convergent and not divergent tasks that create schedule risk. 'C' is incorrect because it is not looking for schedule conflicts - those would be corrected in Develop Schedule. 'D' is incorrect because gaps in the project path do not, by themselves, cause risk.

What resources are managed in what process? A. Human; Control team B. Physical; Control resources C. Human; Manage resources D. Physical; Manage resources

B. Physical resources like materials, equipment, and facilities are managed in the Control resources process. Human resources are managed in the Manage team process.

Frederick is leading a software conversion project for the financial institution that employs him. His organization has been burned by suppliers in the past, so Frederick's boss is very concerned that the supplier delivers the terms of the contract. In fact, Frederick's boss wants him to focus all his time this week solely on procurement administration. Which of the following activities should Frederick NOT PERFORM this week? A. Explore the contract for termination clauses and document what portions of contracted work might be eligible for early termination and what the consequences are in case of early termination. B. Based on lessons learned thus far in the project, reconstruct portions of the contract that describe how the work will be performed. C. Investigate the change control terms of the contract to understand how the contract might be amended in the future. D. Review the invoices and payments made thus far on this contract and determine how those align with the status of deliverables.

B. The correct choice for this question is 'B.' In reading the question, you should get the feeling that Frederick's boss is most concerned with this current contract and vendor. Answers 'A', 'C,' and 'D' all involve the current contract and vendor and can be seen as activities that would put the PM ahead of any bumps in the future. Frederick is understanding how the contract can be changed, what portions can be terminated, and making sure the invoices match up with the work performed. Answer 'B' might be useful for future contracts, but rewriting portions of the contract should be left to others, such as the procurement specialists or attorneys.

The sponsor just demanded that you bring the project in one week sooner than originally agreed. Crashing looks like the best approach, given the priorities. What three processes would be the front runners in coordinating the necessary changes? A. Control schedule; Control costs; Monitor and control project work B. Control resources; Control costs; Control schedule C. Monitor risks; Manage stakeholder engagement; Control costs D. Perform integrated change control; Monitor and control project work; Direct and manage project work

B. The crashing approach to reduce the critical path duration by one week involves changng the schedule, the spending plan, and the resource assignments. The monitoring and controlling process from these three knowledge areas shold use coordinated change requests to accomplish the intended effect. Of course, ALL of these change requests should be approved in Perform Integrated Change Control.

Estimate to complete indicates: A. The total projected amount that will be spent, based on past performance B. The projected remaining amount that will be spent, based on past performance C. The difference between what was budgeted and what is expected to be spent D. The original planned completion cost minus the costs incurred to date

B. The estimate to complete is what we expect to spend from this point forward, based on our performance thus far.

Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique used in the Develop Team process? A. Interpersonal and team skills B. Issue Log C. Recognition and Rewards D. Colocation

B. The team issue log is an input to the process Manage Team, but it is not an input or tool for this process of Develop Team. The other 3 are tools for this process.

Contracts or contract decisions can be inputs or outputs to all of the following processes except one. Which one? A. Develop Project Charter B. Acquire Resources C. Determine Budget D. Conduct Procurements

B. This question spans multiple processes. If a project is being performed under contract, then the contract is an input to Develop Project Charter ('A'). If contractors are used to perform a portion of the project work, then a contract or agreement is an input to the Determine Budget process ('C'). Conduct Procurements is the procurement process that results in a signed agreement or contract ('D'). 'B' is the correct answer because acquiring the project resources does not use contracts as an input or produce them as output. Acquire Resources is about getting people (and materials) assigned to your project who already work for your company (either as employees or under long-term contract), so no additional contract is needed. If you have to go outside of your company to acquire staff for the team, that would fall under the Conduct Procurements process.

Project management plan updates are NOT an output of: A. Perform Integrated Change Control. B. Develop Project Management Plan. C. Direct and Manage Project Work. D. Monitor and Control Project Work.

B. This question would be nearly a pure guess unless you are quite familiar with the PMI process framework. You should not go into the exam until you understand each of the 49 processes. Updates to the project plan are a common output of many processes. 'B' generates the original plan and incorporates updates from other processes.

Which project management subject discusses how many testers are needed to complete the project? A. Control Resources B. Resource Management C. Schedule Management D. Quality Management

B. This would be done in Estimate Activity Resources, which is a process in the Resource Management knowledge area. It is tempting to choose Schedule or Quality Management, but all resource estimating takes place in Resource Management. Answer-A is incorrect; this process deals with physical resources, not team members like testers.

Which process group includes Acquire Resources? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Monitoring and Controlling

C . Acquire Resources is an executing process. The reason that this is an executing process is because the PM is executing the Resource Management Plan, a component of the Project Management Plan.

Which one of the following would best be used to show project roles and responsibilities? A. A resource histogram B. An organization chart C. A RACI chart D. The resource management plan

C. A RACI chart is a type of responsibility assignment matrix created during Plan Resource Management. It is a chart that can show roles and responsibilities on the project. 'A' is incorrect because the histogram shows resource usage levels across the project. 'B' is incorrect because it shows reporting relationships but not specific responsibilities. 'D' is incorrect because this general document tells how you are going to approach staffing the project.

You've been named as the PM for a new project. You've analyzed the scope, resource requirements, and developed the resource management plan. Now you're ready to assemble your project team. There are a number of factors that will influence the steps taken to acquire the team. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding this process? A. The roles and responsibilities must be clearly defined before you recruit the team. B. As you recruit team members, you should document their availability to work on the project, noting things like vacation, scheduled training, work on other projects, etc. C. You should consider the use of virtual teams that might result in lower costs and almost always result in less communications planning for the PM. D. You should recognize that negotiation is a tool of this process. It is likely that you will have to negotiate with functional managers or other PMs for the use of certain resources.

C. A' is true - the PM must know what role the team member will fill before recruiting. 'B' alludes to the output called Resource Calendars, documenting when resources are able to work on the project. 'C' starts out sounding good but has a false statement in it. Virtual teams can save your project money, but they don't result in less communications planning. Virtual teams increase the amount of communications planning that the PM must do. 'D' is true - the PM may need to negotiate for resources.

Control resources process is concerned with all of the following except: A. Watching the spending on resources B. Handling excess inventory C. Approving supply of increased material needs D. Reporting issues with equipment

C. All approvals for change requests, inlcuding needs for additional materials, are decided in the Perform Integrated Change Control process.

Projects managed by the Forte Corporation seem to run into a lot of trouble. To address this, the company has asked Maya to look into this and suggest a resolution. Maya has reviewed the risk registers of 30 projects, and has noted that most of them identified many risks, complete with response plans. Next, she examined the effectiveness of the response plans in preventing the risk from occurring. She is starting to realize that the strategies chosen by the PMs don't always work. What tool did Maya use to help her with this analysis? A. Monitor Risks B. Earned Value Analysis C. Audits D. Variance Analysis

C. Audits are used to examine and document the effectiveness of risk response plans and of the risk management process. Monitor Risks (A) is a process, not a tool. Audits focus on the process to determine if the team is following it, and if the process is effective. Answer C is teh best choice here.

Which of the following types of conflict resolution provides only a temporary solution to the problem? A. Withdrawal B. Compromising C. Forcing D. Problem-solving

C. Forcing does do away with the conflict - but only temporarily. It is when the manager says that it is his project and you will do things his way. Period, end of discussion. The root of the problem is not addressed by this approach, thus the solution is only temporary. Withdrawal (A) provides no solution. Compromise (B) is not temporary, but it is also not desirable.

Evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to ensure that it meets expectations takes place in which process group of project management? A. Control Costs B. Executing C. Monitoring and controlling D. Closing

C. Generally, any time you are looking at past performance, you are in a monitoring and controlling process. It is important to note the perspective of PMI regarding this discipline of reviewing project performance. The project manager should be working with the team to review performance, capture lessons learned, and apply them throughout the project for corrections, preventative measures, and for continuous improvement efforts. Do not wait until the project finish—learn and apply as soon as possible!

Mary is using forecasting to determine her project's estimate at complete. What would be the most likely place to include this information? A. The communications management plan B. The project activity report C. The project communications and reports D. The stakeholder management report

C. Manage Communications takes the input of work performance reports from Monitor and Control Project Work, which receives work performance information from many other knowledge areas, including cost management. Manage Communications then produces the project communications with the tool of project reporting. Therefore, C is the best answer. These work performance reports often contain the estimate at complete and the estimate to complete, as well as the cost and schedule performance indexes. Answer-A was the only other answer that contained a valid PMI term, and it is not an appropriate response for this question.

If a project manager was performing Control Procurements, which of the following duties might she be performing? A. Controlling the advertisements that explain the desired procurement B. Negotiating the contract C. Closing the contract D. Weighing seller responses

C. One of the activities in Control Procurements is to close the contract or agreement. In fact, an output of the process is called Closed Procurements. Make sure to learn the primary process inputs, tools, techniques, and outputs for the processes.

During which process is the project team most likely to perform a risk urgency assessment? A. Risk Identification B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis D. Plan Risk Responses

C. Risk Urgency is the first of nine characteristics listed under the Data Analysis tool for Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis. This group of 9 traits is under the heading of other risk parameters and includes traits such as urgency, dormancy, and proximity. Check out Andy's book for a full explanation of the 9. All that to say: 'C' is the correct answer! This technique helps the team identify those risks that can really doom a project soon - urgent! Indicators of priority might include how soon this risk event may occur, how easily the team can detect the risk, the impact if it were to occur, or the presence of warning signs leading up to the risk event. All these might qualify a risk as more urgent than others and require immediate handling.

Sandra, having work performance information from her team members, has used earned value analysis to determine the progress of the project in terms of time and cost. She is now compiling that information for distribution to senior management. In which knowledge area is she working? A. Integration Management B. Monitor Communications C. Communications Management D. Manage Communications

C. She is executing the process of Manage Communications in the Communications Management knowledge area. Answer-B might be misleading—even though it is a process name—because Sandra is distributing reports of information from a Control process (Cost or Schedule), but the specific tools being used are tools of the Manage Communications process, not Monitor Communications. Answer-A is a knowledge area, but not the one that specifically deals with performance reporting and creating project communications. Answer-D is incorrect because it is the process - not the knowledge area.

Technical performance analysis is a data analysis tool used in only one of the processes in the framework to indicate impact of threats or opportunities. Which one? A. Perform qualitative risk analysis B. Perform quantitative risk analysis C. Monitor risks D. Plan risk responses

C. Technical performance analysis is comparing the technical accomplishments of the project against the scheduled technical accomplishments to determine any deviations - which are potential measures of the impact of risk events. This occurs in Monitor risks.

Your project team has completed identifying risks that might impact the new project. Some time and effort have gone into performing qualitative risk analysis, and the risk register has been updated with the results. The project team members have all suggested next steps to help quantify each risk. Which team member's suggestion would be the BEST next approach? A. Carry out SWOT analysis and document the total SWOT score for each risk in the risk register. B. Perform a risk urgency assessment for high-impact risks. C. Compute the dollar impact of each risk event using expected monetary value analysis. D. Use the technique of Monte Cristo analysis to categorize the risks relative to expected risk expenses.

C. The best next step is to quantify each identified risk using one of the tools or techniques described for Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis. 'C' describes computing the expected monetary value - that's a valid technique of this process. 'A' is incorrect as SWOT analysis relates to identifying risks. 'B' is a great idea but should be performed during qualitative risk analysis. According to the question, that process is complete, so 'B' is incorrect. 'D' is a bogus answer - Monte Cristo analysis is a made up name.

Which process group creates the contract change control system? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Executing D. Monitoring and Controlling

C. The contract change control system is defined in the agreement or contract, which is created as an output of the Conduct Procurements process, which is an executing process. This is tricky!

The most important thing to focus on in contract negotiations is: A. To negotiate the best price possible for your project B. To maintain the integrity of the scope C. To negotiate a deal that both parties are comfortable with D. To make sure legal counsel or the contract administrator has approved your negotiating points

C. The most important point is to create a deal that everyone feels good about. 'A' sounds like a good choice, but it is incorrect, since the best possible price might not be fair to your seller, and that could create a bad scenario for the project in the future. 'B' is important, but that is not the primary focus of negotiations. 'D' may or may not be necessary, depending on the situation.

The team unearthed an uncertainty regarding a measurement device's accuracy during the construction phase; it was procured from an equipment manufacturer for the project. To minimize errors in future measurements, the team is issuing a change request to procure a device from another vendor with more reliable results. What strategy was planned, and what process generates the change request? A. Avoidance; Plan risk responses B. Transference; Plan risk responses C. Mitigation; Implement risk responses D. Avoidance; Implement risk responses

C. The original procurement chose one vendor. To make this change to reduce the probability of a mis-measurement, a mitigation approach is used. The change request to modify the procurement comes from the Implement risk responses process. Avoidance is an incorrect strategy; the probability of errors in the measurement device would be difficult as well as very expensive to drive to 0%.

Release criteria for team members is defined as part of: A. The organizational management plan B. The project management Plan C. The resource management plan D. The work authorization system

C. The release criteria for team members is defined in the resource management plan. Answer-B is also correct since the resource management plan is a subset of the Project Management Plan. Answer-C is the BEST answer because it is more specific than Answer-B. On the exam, always select the BEST answer, even though multiple answers may be correct.

While monitoring the effectiveness of responses to risk events, what project document is most effective and what process adds the most relevant information to this document? A. Lessons learned register; Direct and manage project work B. Risk report; Monitor risks C. Risk register; Implement risk responses D. Risk management plan; Plan risk responses

C. The risk register should be updated as a result of implementing the risk responses regarding how well the response managed the risk event.

You had mapped out earlier the WBS work packages and correlated them with the OBS to assign which role team member is in charge of which work package. Now, you are assigning names to those roles. John, a fellow PM in your group, has looked over your shoulder and is impressed with your work. He asks where he can find out more about this technique. Your first response is to tell John that it is called: A. Project team assignments B. Delegation of authority C. A responsibility assignment matrix D. Being a benevolent dictator

C. The technique described is a RAM chart. Though "project team assignments" might be tempting, it is an output, not a tool or technique of Acquire Resources.

You have asked a team member to estimate the duration for a specific activity, and she has reported back to you with three estimates. The best case scenario is that the activity could be completed in 18 days; however, her most likely estimate for the task is 30 days. She has also indicated that there is the possibility the task could take as long as 60 days. What is the three-point estimate for this task? A. 4 days B. 7 days C. 33 days D. 49 days

C. The three-point estimate is calculated by adding the pessimistic estimate plus four times the realistic estimate plus the optimistic estimate and dividing by 6. In this case, it is (60 + (4 X 30) + 18) / 6. This reduces down to 198 / 6 = 33.

Your team quartermaster has reported that a new shipment of rivets has arrived and that now the sheet metal fabrication activity has what is needed. The QM is performing which two processes? A. Control schedule; Monitor communications B. Control schedule; Manage stakeholder engagement C. Control resources; Manage communications D. Control resources; Control schedule

C. Two key actions have occurred: The monitoring of material resources as well as the communication of updates to the resource situation: Control resources, and Manage communications. The Control schedule process was a distractor, but no schedule changes were implied by the receiving of the rivets

Which of the following is an example of an independent estimate? A. An estimate based on the work to be done, independent of any additional risk factors B. An estimate from a seller who doesn't know who else you have gotten estimates from, or what those estimates were C. An estimate from a seller who will do all of the work, with no additional effort required by your team members D. An estimate from a seller who is not able to provide the requested product or service

D is the best answer. An independent estimate is an estimate from a seller who is not in your list of potential sellers, making 'D' the correct answer. There could be many reasons that the seller cannot provide the product or service. Perhaps the seller has a full schedule and cannot deliver by the date you need it. Perhaps the seller does not work in your geographic location. You can still get an estimate from this seller to use as a reality-check estimate as you evaluate the estimates from your other sellers.

Consuela, managing a project with purchasing needs, has received several proposals from would-be suppliers for her company's project. Working with her company's procurement department, Consuela has made a vendor selection decision. Which of the following would NOT be a result of Consuela's supplier selection decision process? A. A purchase order B. A mutually binding legal agreement that obligates the seller to provide product and obligates the buyer to pay the seller C. Change requests to the project management plan D. A bidders conference to communicate fairly the decision results

D. Answers 'A,' 'B,' and 'C' are all valid possible results of the Conduct Procurements process. 'A' would be a purchase order to the selected seller. 'B' is the definition of a contract between Consuela's company and the selected seller. 'C' is valid because schedule changes or budget changes may be a result of the agreement between Consuela's company and the selected seller. 'D' is the correct choice for this question; a bidders conference is used to provide information fairly to each would-be vendor to enable their development of proposals. The bidders conference would not be necessary to communicate the actual seller selection decision.

You are putting together a team for a quick-hit, mission critical project. You have requested Dana, the strongest member of the database team, to be assigned for your database work. Dana's manager says that Dana is already allocated to the quarterly database maintenance activities, but has offered to assign someone else to your project. What should you do? A. Agree to the offer of an alternate resource B. Find out which assignment Dana prefers C. Ask if Dana can work on your project part time in addition to the full-time maintenance work D. Insist that Dana be assigned and get the sponsor involved if needed

D. As the large-and-in-charge project manager in a strong matrix organization, you should insist on having Dana assigned, and you may need to get the sponsor (who is often a member of senior management) involved to emphasize the priority of this project - quick-hit, mission critical. It doesn't matter which work Dana prefers, and, without any additional information, you can assume that the alternate resource would not be as strong as Dana. Finally, it is not a valid request to have Dana work time and a half. This situation may be reflecting a staffing issue in the database group, and the head of that group should resolve it - but your concern is with getting the best resource for your project.

A war room is an example of: A. Contract negotiation tactics B. Resource planning tools C. A functional organization D. Colocation

D. Colocation is the practice of locating all team members in a central location, or war room. Another variation of a war room is a conference room devoted exclusively to use by a particular project team. It is a tool of Develop Team used in Resource management.

When are the resource requirements estimated? A. As soon as the scope has been adequately defined. B. After the schedule has been defined, but before the budget has been created. C. After the work packages have been defined, but before the activities have been defined. D. After the activities have been defined and before the schedule has been developed.

D. Knowing the order in which these steps are performed is important and shows that you understand what is really taking place within the process. In this case, resources are estimated after you have defined the activities, but before you have created the schedule. This is the only answer that works, since the resources are based on activities, and you must have the resource requirements before you can create the schedule.

Kim is managing a multi-million dollar construction project that is scheduled to take nearly two years to complete. During one of the planning processes, she discovers a significant threat to her project's budget and schedule due to the fact that she is planning to build during the hurricane season in a high-risk area. After carefully evaluating her options, she decides to build earlier in the season when there is less of a risk of severe hurricane damage. This is an example of: A. Risk avoidance B. Risk transference C. Risk acceptance D. Risk mitigation

D. Risk mitigation is when you try to make the risk less severe or less likely. By accelerating the construction, Kim is mitigating the likelihood of a hurricane damaging her project.

Jill wants to assess the degree to which uncertainty could affect her project by examining how one variable could impact the project goals when other variables are held at a baseline. In order to accomplish this, which tool would be best? A. Expected monetary value analysis B. Decision tree analysis C. Baseline analysis D. Sensitivity analysis

D. Sensitivity analysis is the tool used when you want to evaluate how one change will affect the overall project. It works by keeping the other variables stable (that is, held at a baseline) and analyzing the impact of a change. Like sensitivity analysis, 'A' and 'B' are both techniques of Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis; however, they are not a good match for the scenario provided. 'C' is a made-up term.

Tacit knowledge is more easily described as: A. Codified knowledge B. Lessons learned C. Know-how D. Tactical knowledge, as in specific numbers or values

D. Tacit knowledge is typically more difficult to write down, such as beliefs, experiences, know-how, and insights.

Two objectives of the process Develop Team are: A. To improve team skills and to begin development early in the project life cycle B. To improve team cohesiveness and to improve the team spending efficiency C. To improve team feelings of trust and to increase team member career opportunities D. Improve team skills and increase productivity

D. The correct answer is 'D.' The process is (1) to improve team skills to increase the ability to complete project activities and (2) to improve team cohesiveness in order to increase productivity through greater teamwork. Answer A is not the best choice, because the word development is referring to product development.

Interpersonal skills, or soft skills, are important to team development. Which of the following is NOT an example of such skills? A. Acknowledging the concerns of team members B. Team members empathizing with each other C. Being creative at approaching team issue resolution D. Using JAD sessions to communicate team issues to stakeholders

D. The correct answer is D. JAD sessions are NOT used in developing the project team, but rather to understand project deliverable requirements based on stakeholder needs and desires. The other skills listed are examples useful in the Develop Team process.

It is important for the project manager to understand Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory, and McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y. Why? A. These three theories are preferred to the Contingency Theory, the Expectancy Theory, and the Achievement Theory. B. The PM needs to be able to select the appropriate method for developing his or her relationship with the project sponsor. C. These are various outputs from Plan Resource Management, and define how the PM will interact with the team. D. These provide the PM a valuable tool in resource planning and developing the project team

D. The correct answer is D. Organizational Theory is a tool of Plan Resource Management and Recognition and Rewards as a tool of Develop Team. 'C' is incorrect because these are tools, not outputs. 'A' and 'B' are just bogus.

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Tools & Techniques of the process of Control Procurements? A. The tool of Claims Administration defines the process for resolving contract disputes or disagreements. B. In Procurement Performance Reviews, the buyer measures the seller's progress on the project as compared to the contract. C. Procurement Audits is a tool of Control Procurements used to review the procurement process. D. The tool of Inspection is used by the buyer to carefully examine the contract to ensure that there is a clear understanding.

D. The first 3 answers are TRUE statements regarding the tools of Control Procurements. Answer D makes note of a valid tool (Inspection), but it makes a false statement about why inspection is used in this process. We're not inspecting the contract; the buyer is inspecting the work product or service provided by the seller to determine if the work performed matches expectations.

A cable company is installing new fiber optic cables in a community. You are the project manager and you will be using subcontractors to provide some of the installations. You have completed the procurement management plan and the statement of work, and you have gathered and prepared the documents that will be distributed to the sellers. What process should happen next? A. Define Scope B. Team-building C. Plan Procurement Management D. Conduct Procurements

D. This is not the easiest question on the exam! You must first determine what you have done and then determine what is next. Look carefully at what you have created, and you will see that you have just finished the Plan Procurement Management process. The next process to be performed should be Conduct Procurements.

Given your understanding of the executing process for the risk management area, what is the most likely interpersonal and team skill that the project manager would be using in this process? A. Active Listening B. Conflict Resolution C. Emotional Intelligence D. Influencing

D. This question presents difficult choices. All answers may be considered valid interpersonal and team skills, so we must focus on the actions taking place in this process. Implement Risk Responses is the process that ensures risks are being tracked actively and acted upon, when they occur. The project manager must influence the behavior of those risk owners to make sure they remain fully engaged, actively managing their assigned risks. In many cases, the risk owners do not report to the project manager. They may be outside the organization, or belong to other departments. Therefore, the skill of influencing is key to this process.

Bottom-up estimating is a tool of which processes? A. Estimate Activity Durations and Estimate Activity Resources B. Estimate Activity Resources and Determine Budget C. Create WBS and Define Activities D. Estimate Costs, Estimate Activity Durations and Estimate Activity Resources

D. This question requires that you know the tools and bottom-up estimating is listed as a tool of all 3 processes listed in answer D - from the knowledge areas for Schedule, Cost, and Resource Management.

What tool and process are involved when an accepted risk occurs and a workaround is needed? A. Change requests; Implement risk responses B. Contingent response strategies; Plan risk responses C. Change requests; Perform integrated change control D. Expert judgment; Implement risk responses

D. When an accepted risk occurs, if a workaround is need, someone must design that workaround. What better tool than expert judgment here?

You are project manager for an internal project. The project involves the implementation of certain technology that is new to your organization. Because this new technology introduces risk to the success of the effort, the project sponsor is encouraging you to enter into a contract with an outside firm that specializes in this technology. Incidentally, the sponsor has a close friend in the sales department of the potential contractor and is sure that will benefit your firm. The sponsor insists that you pursue this course of action because he is convinced that it would eliminate the risk. What is your BEST response to the sponsor? A. Schedule a meeting with your manager and the sponsor and confront the sponsor about this obvious conflict of interest. B. Explain to the sponsor that the strategy of transferring the risk to the contractor might lessen the likelihood or impact of the risk. But, it will not eliminate it. C. Gather the team and sponsor in one meeting and present the details necessary to prove competency to the sponsor. D. Perform EMV on this risk event. Share your findings with the sponsor and ask if he can negotiate a contract with the other firm for less than that amount.

The BEST answer here is 'B.' 'A' is a temptation because there is a potential conflict of interest here. However, the bigger issue is that the sponsor believes this action will eliminate the risk. Not true - it will only lessen the impact or likelihood of it occurring. The sponsor and project manager will both suffer if the contractor gets the business and fails - that hurts the project. So, the project manager needs to clearly communicate that to the sponsor to be sure he understands that fact. 'C' is off target - the team doesn't necessarily need to master the new technology and prove it to the sponsor. 'D' sounds nice, but again, this is not the best answer.

Immediately after taking the PMP exam, your friend Freeda approaches you and asks you details about questions you saw on the exam and specific terms and diagrams you encountered. She indicates that she wants to pass this information along to help others. You become aware that Freeda has already been warned by PMI to cease and desist. What is your best response? A. Provide Freeda with the information she requested since it could help others. B. Report Freeda's actions to PMI. C. Report Freeda to law enforcement. D. Inform Freeda that this harms the profession and insist that she stop.

The code of professional conduct is very clear on this point. You are not permitted to share specifics on the PMP Exam with anyone, and you are required to report ethical violations such as this. Also be aware that PMI is very interested in cases like this. 'A' is not correct since it would be damaging to PMI and the profession. 'C' is not a good choice since you are not the owner of the material. PMI might choose to pursue legal channels, but that is not your responsibility. 'D' is a very good choice, but the question asked for your best response, and 'B' represents that.

The inspection of deliverables occurs in what two processes? A. Validate Scope; Control Quality B. Inspect Deliverables; Validate Quality C. Control Scope; Control Quality D. Manage Quality; Control Scope

A. Inspection is used in Validate Scope to assure Completeness of the scope, where Inspection is used in Control Quality to assure Correctness of the deliverable against specifications.

Which of the following statements about cost estimates is correct? A. Output of Estimate Costs and an input to Determine Budget B. Output of Determine Budget and an input to Estimate Costs C. Output of Estimate Costs and an input to Control Costs D. Output of Determine Budget and an input to Control Costs

'A' is correct. It might seem to obvious to be true, but cost estimates are an output of Estimate Costs. Then, these estimated costs for each activity feed into the Determine Budget process.

Which term below describes the amount of time a schedule activity may be delayed before it affects the early start date of any subsequent schedule activity? A. Float B. Slack C. Free float D. Lead

C. Read this one carefully. It is the definition of free float. 'A' and 'B' were synonyms, which should have thrown up a red flag for you. Those terms tell you how long a task may be delayed before it changes the finish date of the project.

If you have a schedule variance of $500, this would indicate: A. Planned value is less than earned value B. Earned value is less than the estimate at complete C. Actual cost is less than earned value D. The ratio of earned value to planned value is 5:1

A. This is another tricky question because of the way it is worded. Schedule variance is calculated as earned value minus planned value. In this case, schedule variance could only be positive if earned value is greater than planned value (or stated otherwise, if planned value is less than earned value). 'A' is the only choice that has to be true.

All of the following are tools used in Control Quality EXCEPT: A. Benchmarking B. Pareto charts C. Histograms D. Statistical sampling

A. This one is tricky because all of these tools are used in quality management! 'B', 'C', and 'D' are all used in Control Quality, but 'A' is used only in Plan Quality Management. Benchmarking is used to establish quality standards based on the quality attributes of other projects. Keep in mind that a Pareto Diagram is a type of Histogram.

Variance analysis is a tool used to: A. Measure variance between actual work and the baseline. B. Measure variance between planned value and schedule variance. C. Measure variance between earned value and actual cost. D. Measure variance between earned value and cost variance.

A. Variance analysis looks at the difference between what was planned and what was executed. Choice 'A' is the one that correctly identifies this.

A project manager is taking the product of his project to his customer for verification that it meets the scope. The customer and the project manager are working together to carefully compare the product to the project's scope to ensure that the work was done completely. The tool that the customer and the project manager are using is: A. Inspection. B. Manage Quality. C. Control Quality. D. User acceptance testing.

A. Inspection is a tool of Validate Scope, which is the process being described in the question. With inspection, the product of the project is compared with the documented scope

What is the difference in project funding requirements and the cost baseline? A. Project funding requirements include the cost baseline plus management reserve. B. The cost baseline is the BAC for the project. Whereas, the project funding requirements represents the EAC. C. There is no difference; they represent the same thing - the total budget for the project. D. The cost baseline represents all external costs incurred; whereas, project funding requirements includes internal costs, such as salaries and other overhead.

A is correct. The cost baseline is the time-phased budget for the project. It represents when funds are expected to be paid out for resources and the completion of work throughout the project. The project funding requirements take this budget and add management reserve to it. In other words, management might set aside additional funds in case of certain risk events, or unknown-unknowns, impacting the project. The difference in the cost baseline and the project funding requirements are these management reserves. 'B' is not correct - it throws earned value into the mix as a distraction. 'C' is wrong as explained above. 'D' is incorrect.

Scatter diagrams, histograms, and cause-and-effect diagrams are all techniques of what quality processes? A. Manage Quality and Control Quality B. All three: Plan Quality Management, Manage Quality and Control Quality C. Plan Quality Management and Manage Quality D. Control Quality and Plan Quality Management

A, These Data Representation techniques are used in both Manage Quality AND Control Quality. But some of these tools listed are not used in Plan Quality Management.

Which of the following is not considered a Project Documents input to Monitor and Control Project Work? A. Development approach B. Issue Log C. Cost Forecasts D. Risk Report

A. All of the project documents listed are valid inputs to this process. Answer-A is a component of the Project Plan an not considered a project document.

In the Design for X approach (DfX), "X" may be replaced by other aspects to: A. Focus technical guidelines to optimize a higher priority aspect of the design B. Where "X" means "exceptions," the aspect of the design causing the greatest observations of issues would be addressed in the design C. Design "X"periments that show the aspects most affected by the factor being varied while all other factors are held constant D. Focus experiments to show the correlation of different factors in the design and optimize the variables for efficiency and process improvement

A. Design for X, where X could be cost, serviceability, useability, safety, quality, or whatever the highest priority aspect is in the product design. Design for Xcellence.

The value of all work that has been completed so far is: A. Earned value B. Estimate at complete C. Actual cost D. Planned value

A. Earned value is defined as the value of all work completed to this point.

Which of the following is NOT an input into Define Scope? A. Work breakdown structure. B. Organizational process assets. C. Project charter. D. Requirements documentation.

A. Hopefully your instincts kicked in here and told you that the WBS doesn't happen until after the Scope Statement is decomposed. During Define Scope, you are still trying to determine what the scope will include. Create WBS follows Define Scope.

The quality policy is important in quality management because: A. It defines the performing organization's formal position on quality B. It helps benchmark the project against other similar projects C. It provides specific quality standards that may be used to measure the output of the project D. It details the constraints and assumptions the project must take in to consideration

A. Some companies rest their reputation on the high quality of their product. Others do not. The quality policy defines how important quality is on this project from the performing organization's perspective. The quality policy is an organizational process asset useful as an input to the Plan Quality Management process.

The product you have delivered has been reviewed carefully against the scope and is now being brought to the customer for formal acceptance. Which process is the project in? A. Validate Scope. B. Audit Scope. C. Manage Quality. D. Control Scope.

A. The customer accepts the scope of the product in Validate Scope.

A project is scheduled to last 4 months and cost $300,000. At the end of the 1st month, the project is 20% complete. What is the working efficiency? A. 0.8 B. 1.02 C. 1.18 D. 2.15

A. The formula for the working efficiency or schedule performance index is earned value divided by planned value (EV / PV). To get EV, we need to know how much we have completed to date. The budgeted at complete is $300,000, and we are 20% complete. Therefore, EV = $300,000 X 20% = $60,000. Planned value is what we had planned to complete at this point. We are 1 month into a 4 month project, so we assume linearly that we are 1/4 of the way through. 1/4 = .25 (25%), and our budgeted at completion of $300,000 X 25% = $75,000. Now that we have EV ($60,000) and PV ($75,000), we can calculate the schedule performance index. It is EV / PV, or $60,000 / $75,000 = 0.80. The interpretation of this number is that the project is earning value 80% as fast as was planned, and any index that is less than 1 is a bad thing!

You might use all of the following when creating the project budget EXCEPT: A. Cost baseline B. Activity cost estimates C. The WBS D. The contract

A. The output of this process is the cost baseline - it's not an input. So, 'A' is correct. The other 3 are inputs to this process. We'll use the cost estimates produced in the prior process - they drive the budget. The WBS is part of the Scope Baseline, and it helps define the scope and deliverables of the project, so we might use it in budgeting. And, the contract (or agreements) could specify payments tied back to deliveries or milestones - again, impacting the budget.

Which of the following represents the project manager's responsibility in regard to change on a project: A. Influence the factors that cause project change. B. Ensure all changes are communicated to the change control board. C. Deny change wherever possible. D. Prioritize change below execution.

A. The project manager must be proactive and influence the factors that cause change. This is one of the key tenants of monitoring and controlling processes in general and Perform Integrated Change Control in particular. Answer B assumes your have a change control board, which is not mandatory. Also, in the case of a CCB, there will be changes that the project manager is authorized to vet without the need to escalate to the CCB.

What does the standard deviation tell about a data set? A. How diverse the population is B. The mean of the population as it relates to the median C. The specification limits of the population D. The range of data points within the population

A. The standard deviation measures how diverse the population is. It does this by averaging all of the data points to find the mean, then calculating the average of how far each individual point is from that mean. For a very diverse population, you will have a high standard deviation. For a highly similar population, your standard deviation will be low.

Which fairly common tools are used in the process Manage Project Knowledge? A. Interpersonal & team skills; Expert judgment B. Knowledge management; Information management C. Expert judgment; Data analysis; Meetings D. Knowledge management; Expert judgment

A. The two main tools of Manage Project Knowledge are: Knowledge Management and Information Management. However, these tools are unique to this process. The common tools used in this process are Expert judgment and Interpersonal & team skills.

If the schedule variance = $0.00, what must also be true? A. Earned value must be equal to planned value B. The cost performance index must be equal to 1 C. The schedule performance index must be greater than 1 D. The estimate at complete must be equal to budgeted at complete

A. The way to approach this question is to remember how to calculate the schedule variance. It is EV-PV. If the schedule variance = 0, then EV must be equal to PV.

The team is discussing terms like percent complete, 50-50, and level of effort. What are they deciding and in which process? A. These are earning methods, or earned value techniques, to be applied to the project; Plan Cost Management B. These are team bonus salary methods, based on the profitability and progress of the project; Plan Resource Management C. These are reporting approaches for control accounts and how finance accrues project costs to the budget; Control Costs D. These are resource utlization parameters used in creating the histogram of resource usage; Plan Resource Management

A. These are some of the various earning methods for determing the earned value of partially completed activities. This is planned in the Plan Cost Management process under rules of performance measurement.

You are managing a project that is part of a large construction program. During the execution of your project you are alerted that the construction of a foundation is expected to experience a serious cost overrun. What would be your FIRST course of action? A. Evaluate the cause and size of the overrun B. Stop execution until the problem is solved C. Contact the program manager to see if additional funds may be released D. Determine if you have sufficient budget reserves to cover the cost overrun

A. This illustrates one of PMI's biggest biases on these questions. Your job as a project manager is almost always to evaluate and understand first. Know what you are dealing with before you take action, and don't just accept anyone's word for it - verify the information yourself!

During testing, multiple defects were identified in a product. The project manager overseeing this product's development can best use which tool to help prioritize the problems? A. Pareto diagram B. Control chart C. Variance analysis D. Order of magnitude estimate

A. type of histogram, a Pareto chart is a column chart or bar chart that ranks defects based on the number of occurrences from highest to lowest. Because this tool is based on frequency, it prioritizes the most common causes. 'B' is used to determine whether or not a process is in control. 'C' is used to measure the difference between what was planned and what was done, and 'D' is a type of estimate used in cost management.

A subset of the project work was provided by a contractor through a signed, mutual agreement. In order to close this project, what must first take place? A. Control Scope because it produces accepted deliverables B. Control Procurements because it produces closed procurements C. Close Procurements because it produces closed procurements D. Control Quality because it produces accepted deliverables

B. Be prepared for these types of questions that have specific language in the answers. Look for references that don't belong together. For instance, Validate Scope results in accepted deliverables. That makes answer A and D wrong. (Control Quality produces verified deliverables.) Answer C references a process name that does not exist. Finally, answer B is correct - Control Procurements has Closed Procurements as a key output. The project manager must close all contracts and procurements before closing the project.

Two months into his six-month project, Anand recognizes that the team is not progressing as fast as planned, and will likely be a week or two late with the project. He has tried to compress the schedule, and has considered reducing scope. At this point, it seems there is no way to finish any earlier. Which of the following actions should Anand take? A. Call the team together and implement mandatory Saturdays at work until the schedule is back on track. B. Publish a revised forecasted completion date. C. Recommend a change request to adjust the schedule baseline, extending the target date by two weeks. D. Since he is only two months into the project, no action is needed at this time.

B. All of these sound a little appealing, don't they? 'A' is not the best choice for a couple of reasons - the schedule problem may not be directly related to the amount of time the team is working and it is very early in the project to ask for this extra commitment. It sets a bad precedent for the remainder of the project. 'C' is not the best choice because there is no scope or budget change request that prompts a subsequent change to the schedule baseline. Baselines are not changed to reflect reality, but rather to reflect the impact of approved change requests. 'D' is not a good choice as it implies that Anand will not disclose the date he is now forecasting, and this would not be truthful. This leaves us with 'B' as the best answer because it provides accurate information with as little disruption as possible.

PDCA and Six-Sigma are: A. Fraternities at PMI University B. Common quality improvement methods C. Plan-Do-Control-Act and Six Sigma — acceptable results that fall within 6 standard deviation from the mean D. Deming's tools of Total Quality Management

B. Answer-C may have been tempting, but PDCA stands for Plan-Do-Check-Act. Both tools listed are useful in the Manage Quality process as Quality improvement methods.

You are in the second week of a 12-month project. Your boss asks you to provide an estimate for the expected expenditures for the project, but you have very little data collected to analyze. What is your best course of action? A. Perform an analgesic estimate B. Use parametric estimating and roll up the detail to an overall total C. Provide a control estimate and document your assumptions D. Provide an order-of-magnitude estimate or range and list your assumptions

B. As the project manager, you are in a tough spot. You're asked to estimate the total budget, yet you've got very little data to work from. 'A' is nearly a valid answer, close to analogous, but maybe an aspirin would be a good plan right now! Analogous estimates or top-down estimates are very helpful for early, high-level estimates of the costs of individual activities or total projects when there is a similar project to the one you are analyzing. In the case of 'A', the term is made up. 'B' assumes you have clearly-defined metrics across the WBS that would allow for parametric estimating. The scenario does not match; therefore, 'B' is incorrect. 'C' lists a control estimate, and 'D' mentions an order-of-magnitude estimate. 'D' is correct here because the order-of-magnitude estimate provides a broader range which is more appropriate for the scenario described.

The activity list should include: A. The schedule activities on the project that are on the critical path. B. A subset of all schedule activities. C. All of the schedule activities defined on the project. D. A superset of the schedule activities for this and related projects.

C. The activity list should include every schedule activity defined on the project. These schedule activities are then used to create the project network diagram.

What output from Monitor and Control Project Work presents an actionable approach to bringing the deliverables and how they are produced in line with the plan? A. Work performance reports B. Change requests C. Deliverables D. Work performance information

B. Change requests present the only choice with a call to action in this question. Work performance reports are an output, but provide a basis for decisions about approving the change requests. Deliverables and WPI are not outputs from this process.

Which of the following sequences places the process of Determine Budget and related processes in the correct order? A. Define Activities, then Create WBS, then Determine Budget, then Estimate Costs B. Create WBS, then Define Activities, then Estimate Costs, then Determine Budget C. Determine Budget, then Estimate Costs, then Create WBS, then Control Costs D. Create WBS, then Define Activities, then Control Costs, then Determine Budget

B. First, let's look at the processes that have been listed in the answers. Given these processes, we would begin by defining the project deliverables, so Create WBS should be first. Next, we should Define Activities that must be carried out to create these deliverables in the WBS. Other activities follow that place the activities in order and estimate the resources and duration. But, these processes are not listed as possible answers. Next in the sequence come cost management processes. The correct order here is Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and (finally) Control Costs. Therefore, the only correct choice is answer 'B' from the list.

Float refers to: A. A method for decreasing risk on a project B. How long an activity can be delayed without affecting the critical path C. A time lapse between a project communication and the response that follows D. The difference between the budgeted cost and actual cost

B. Float is how long an activity may be delayed without delaying the project. Choice 'B' is the only one that fits this definition.

The earliest Task C can finish is January 21, and the earliest the next task can start is January 28. From this information we can be sure that: A. Task C has 6 days of float B. Task C has 6 days of free float C. Task C has 7 days of free float D. Task C has 7 days of float

B. Free float is the amount of time an activity can slip before delaying the next activity's early start date, so the answer would be 'B' or 'C.' The answer is 'B' 6 days because activity C must finish on or before the end of January 27 in order for the next task to start on the morning of January 28. Jan 27 minus Jan 21 is 6 days of free float. Float is the amount of time an activity can slip without affecting the project finish date, so both 'A' and 'D' are incorrect.

Which of the following processes is NOT in the planning group? A. Develop Schedule B. Develop Project Charter C. Determine Budget D. Collect Requirements

B. Identify Stakeholders and Develop Project Charter are the only two initiating processes.

If the results of activity A have no bearing on the results of activity B, the two activities would be considered: A. Statistically unique B. Statistically independent C. Correlated, but not causal D. Mutually exclusive

B. If two events have no bearing on each other, they are statistically independent. Choice 'D' is when two events cannot both happen at the same time.

Mark has taken over a project that is beginning the construction phase of the product; however, he discovers that no work breakdown structure has been created. What choice represents the BEST course of action? A. He should refuse to manage the project. B. He should stop construction until the work breakdown structure has been created. C. He should consult the WBS dictionary to determine whether sufficient detail exists to properly manage construction. D. He should document this to senior management and provide added oversight on the construction phase.

B. In this situation, you cannot simply skip the WBS, as you may be tempted to do. Mark should take time to create the WBS, which is usually not a lengthy process. 'A' may sound good, but in reality a PMP needs to be ready to work to solve most problems. You might refuse to manage a project if there is an ethical dilemma or a conflict of interests, but not in other circumstances. 'C' is incorrect since the WBS dictionary cannot be created properly unless the WBS was created first. If there is a WBS dictionary and no WBS, that would be a BIG red flag. 'D' is incorrect since merely documenting that there is a serious problem is not a solution. Additionally, providing more oversight would not solve the problem here. The real problem is that the WBS has not been created, and that will trickle down to more serious problems in the future of the project.

Life-cycle costing involves: A. Determining what physical resources will be needed to complete a project B. Considering the overall costs of a project during and after its completion C. Assigning a value to each activity on the project D. Calculating the internal rate of return

B. Life-cycle costing takes a broad look at the project, considering such things as operational costs, scrap value, etc. It doesn't just ask how much it costs to make a product, but it looks at the total cost of ownership.

You have assumed the position of project manager for a project that is nearly 50% complete. Because this project has reportedly had many quality problems, you want to review what trends and variances have occurred over time. Which tool would be most helpful to you? A. Cause and effect diagrams B. Run charts C. Inspection D. Statistical sampling

B. Run charts show trends and variances over time and are used in quality management.

A scatter diagram is most useful for: A. Identifying the high priority items to work on first B. Establishing a relationship between two different variables C. Graphically depicting the categorization of risks D. Recording the results of work package inspection

B. Scatter diagrams show the correlation (or relationship) between two different factors, which are plotted on the X and Y axes. 'A' describes a Pareto chart. 'C' describes a Risk Breakdown Structure. We haven't discussed a tool for 'D.' Inspection IS a tool of Control Quality, and you could use a scatter diagram to analyze the results of that inspection, but the scatter diagram wouldn't really be a place for documenting results

If earned value = $10,000, planned value = $8,000, and actual cost = $3,000, what is the schedule variance ? A. -2000 B. 2000 C. 5000 D. -5000

B. Schedule Variance is calculated as EV-PV. In this example, $10,000 - $8,000 = $2,000.

Schedule activities are a further decomposition of which of the following: A. The statement of scope B. The work packages C. The project network diagram D. The functional specification

B. Schedule activities are a further decomposition of the work breakdown structure, and work packages exist at the lowest levels of the work breakdown structure.

The cost management plan would not establish which of the following? A. Rounding levels for financial use B. How much each iteration would cost in an adaptive approach C. Earned value technique D. Reporting procedures

B. The estimation of costs is performed in another process name Estimate Costs. Summing the team labor costs of an iteration would occur in that process. The other factors shown would be determined in the Plan Cost Management process.

In a control chart, the mean is represented as a horizontal line. This represents: A. The average of the control limits B. The average of all data points C. The average of all data points that are within control limits D. A means of identifying assignable cause

B. The mean represents the average of all of the data points shown on the chart, calculated simply by adding the values together and dividing by the number of values. 'C' is not correct because the mean includes everything. If only the values that were within the control limits were used, it could make the mean look better than it should.

At what point in the life of a project does the process of Control Scope truly begin? A. When the statement of work or contract is signed, Control Scope begins. B. Once the scope baseline is created, Control Scope begins. C. After the major deliverables have been documented, Control Scope begins. D. When the customer requests a change in scope, Control Scope begins.

B. These answers all sound compelling, but B is the best answer. The problem with A is that Control Scope does not begin until the scope has been further defined - the statement of work (or contract) is not enough. Recall that the scope baseline is made up of the scope statement, WBS, and WBS Dictionary. So, once these elements have been created and agreed to, this scope baseline can be placed under control. Therefore, the best answer is B. Create the scope baseline, then place it under control.

Your project office has purchased a site license for a computerized tool that assists in the task of cost estimating on a very large construction project for a downtown skyscraper. This tool asks you for specific characteristics about the project and then provides estimating guidance based on materials, construction techniques, historical information , and industry practices. This tool is an example of: A. Bottom-up estimating B. Parametric estimating C. Analogous estimating D. Activity duration estimating

B. This is an example of parametric estimating Parametric modeling is common in some industries, where you can describe the project in detail, and the modeling tool will help provide estimates based on historical information, industry standards, etc.

Which of the following process sequences is correct? A. Create WBS, then Determine Budget, then Estimate Costs B. Create WBS, then Estimate Costs, then Determine Budget C. Determine Budget, then Estimate Costs, then Create WBS D. Estimate Costs, then Determine Budget, then Create WBS

B. This question may not look like it is about inputs and outputs, but it actually is. Create WBS is performed first out of the three processes, and the output is the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). The WBS is used as an input for the next process of the three, Estimate Costs, where the costs of the activities are estimated and aggregated back to the WBS. Finally, the output of that process, the Cost Estimates, is used as an input into Determine Budget, which occurs last out of the three processes listed. By understanding how the outputs of one process become the inputs into another, it becomes simpler to understand the logical order of many of these processes.

The process in which project deliverables are reviewed and accepted is called: A. Scope management. B. Validate Scope. C. Initiation. D. Control Scope.

B. Validate Scope is where the customer and sponsor verify that the deliverables match what was in the scope.

Leads and lags are evaluated and applied in which process? A. Monitor Communications B. Estimate Costs C. Control Schedule D. Develop Schedule

D. Leads and lags are applied as part of the Develop Schedule process.

The business case justifying a project explains why the project is being undertaken. What two descriptors of the project might appropriately be present in the business case? A. The market demand for a new product and a written benefits management plan B. The cost-benefit analysis of the project investment and the specific business need addressed by the project C. The project charter and the benefit cost ratio of the project investment and return D. The net present value of the project cash flows and the variance of the expected capital expenditures

B. does indeed describe the reason for the project and a benefit measure to help compare the project to other proposals in the Develop Project Charter effort. 'A' is incorrect because the benefits management plan is a separate business document and not included in the business case. 'C' is incorrect because developing the project charter is the reason for the business case. The second half of 'D' is nonsense.

Control Scope is an unusual process in that it has only 1 tool listed. What is the name of the tool, and what are some applicable techniques? A. Performance Reporting is the tool, and the techniques are earned value analysis and document analysis B. Data Analysis is the tool, and the techniques are trend analysis and variance analysis C. Data Gathering is the tool, and the techniques are focus groups and surveys D. Data Representation is the tool, and the techniques are mind mapping and affinity diagrams

B. is the only correct answer. Control Scope is rare in that it has only 1 tool listed with these 2 types of data analysis. Variance analysis is the most common approach to controlling scope, as the team compares plans to actual results and analyzes the variance or difference.

Within an iteration, Control Schedule might be used to do all of the following except: A. Update the burndown chart B. Detemining the team's velocity C. Commiting the next iteration backlog D. Perform retrospectives regarding processes and schedule reviews

C. All of these activities would occur except committing to the next iterations backlog, which would occur in an iteration planning process rather than a monitoring and controlling process

Which of the following is NOT a project quality management process? A. Manage Quality B. Plan Quality Management C. Improve Quality D. Control Quality

C. Improve Quality is something you may strive for, but it is not a PMI process.

In which of the following organizations is the project manager MOST likely to be part-time? A. Weak matrix B. Strong matrix C. Functional D. Projectized

C. In a functional organization, the project manager has little formal power and may even be part-time! It is the functional manager who is more powerful in this structure.

Which two processes use the tool of decomposition? A. Develop Project Management plan and Define Scope B. Define Scope and Define Activities C. Create WBS and Define Activities D. Identify Risks and Define Scope

C. In the Create WBS process, we use decomposition to break the scope down into work packages. Also, in the Define Activities process, we use decomposition to break the work packages down into activities. Decomposition is not used in the other processes listed.

Cost estimating should be performed: A. Before the work breakdown structure is created and before the budget is developed B. Before the work breakdown structure is created and after the budget is developed C. After the work breakdown structure is created and before the budget is developed D. After the work breakdown structure is created and after the budget is developed

C. Most of the planning processes have a logical order to them, and this question relies on an understanding of that. The work breakdown structure has to be created before costs are estimated, and the cost estimates have to be created before the budget. This should make sense when you stop to consider it.

Your best cost estimate for an activity is $200,000, but the estimate you document has a range of $150,000 to $350,000. This ranged estimate represents a(n): A. Cost estimate. B. Budgeted estimate. C. Order of magnitude estimate. D. Definitive estimate.

C. Order of magnitude estimates can be -25% to +75%. In this example, $150,000 and $350,000 are -25% to +75% of $200,000.

Your schedule projected that you would reach 50% completion today on a road construction project that is paving 32 miles of new highway. Every 4 miles is scheduled to cost $5,000,000. Today, in your status meeting, you announced that you had completed 20 miles of the highway at a cost of $18,000,000. What is your Planned Value? A. 12800000 B. 18000000 C. 20000000 D. 40000000

C. Planned value is calculated by multiplying the Budgeted At Completion by planned % complete. Our cost per mile is planned at $1,250,000 ($5,000,000 / 4 miles), and our Budgeted At Completion is 32 miles X 1,250,000 per mile = $40,000,000. We planned to be 50% complete. Therefore, $40,000,000 X 50% = $20,000,000.

PQR Corporation's project steering committee is vetting a list of proposed projects for the plan of record this fiscal year. The proposed XYZ Project is very similar in meeting the future vision to the proposed JKL Project. In financial terms, XYZ will realize a $2 million benefit in 3 years and JKL will provide a benefit in 2 years of $1.5 million. PQR has a hurdle rate of 7%. If PQR can only afford to fund one, not both, of these proposals, which should be selected and why? A. XYZ Project because the ROI of the JKL Project is less than 7% B. JKL Project because its present value is less than that of the XYZ Project C. XYZ Project because its present value is about $300 thousand more than the JKL Project D. JKL Project because the payback period is shorte

C. The formula for Present-Value is Future-Value divided by (1+i)**n, where i is the periodic interest rate and n is the number of periods. For project selection methods, bigger is better for present value. Thus, Answer-B is incorrect based on this premise alone. Answer-D is incorrect because not enough data is given to provide payback period. Answer-A is incorrect because not enough data is given to determine ROI. Answer-C is correct in premise as well as mathematically.

The MAIN use of a project network diagram is to: A. Create the project plan B. Show activity percentages complete C. Show activity sequences and dependencies D. Create paths through the network

C. The primary purpose of the project network diagram is to show the sequence of activities and their dependencies. 'A' is incorrect because the project plan is made up of all planning outputs. 'B' is incorrect because the percentage complete is not reflected on the network diagram. 'D' is incorrect because the project network shows the paths through the network, but it does not create them

Control charts are: A. Used in product review B. Used to chart a project's expected value C. Used to determine if a process is in control D. Used to define a statistical sample

C. The purpose of a control chart is to statistically determine if a process is in control.

On a control chart, the customer's acceptable quality limits are represented as: A. Control limits B. Mean C. Specification D. Normal distribution

C. The quality specification is the customer's quality requirements. 'A' represents the limits for what is in and out of statistical control, typically set at three standard deviations from the mean. 'B' is the average of all of the data points. 'D' is a statistical term relating to the way the data points are scattered.

Slack is also known as: A. Lag B. Lead C. Float D. Free float

C. The term slack is synonymous with float.

Monitor and Control Project Work could be considered as an umbrella for which other processes? A. Control Quality and Manage Quality B. Monitor communications and Manage communications C. Control Scope, Control Schedule, and Control Costs D. Earned Value Analysis and Forecasting

C. To answer this question correctly (Answer C), you needed to know the names of other processes in the Monitoring and Controlling process group. If you chose Answer D, you have mixed up tools (Earned Value Analysis) and outputs (Forecasts) with processes. PMI is very specific about the names of the 49 project management processes, so the answer must have process names in it. Answer A is incorrect because Manage Quality is in the Executing process group, not Monitoring and Controlling. Answer B likewise is incorrect because Manage Communications is also in the Executing process group. In the correct Answer C, not only are the three processes all in the Monitoring and Controlling process group, but they are commonly performed in conjunction with the Monitor and Control Project Work process.

From the list that follows, choose the process whose focus is on producing and capturing lessons learned. A. Close Project or Phase B. Integration Management C. Manage Project Knowledge D. Knowledge Management

C. is the best answer given. Integration Management (B) is the name of a knowledge area, so that choice is wrong. Answer D is the name of a tool, so that choice is wrong. That leaves 2 answers, and both processes produce Lessons Learned. However, the question ask for the process whose primary focus is on Lessons Learned. Clearly, that is the process Manage Project Knowledge.

What executing process(es) exist(s) in the Integration Management Knowledge Area? A. Direct and Manage Project Work, Manage Project Information B. Manage Project Work; Direct and Manage Project Information C. Direct and Manage Project Work; Manage Project Knowledge D. Manage Project Knowledge; Direct and Monitor Project Work

C. presents the correct names of the two processes.

Which of the following statements is false? A. Change requests can be recommended in Monitor and Control Project Work. B. Change requests are approved after they have been completed in Direct and Manage Project Work. C. Change requests may be rejected in Perform Integrated Change Control. D. Change requests are implemented in Direct and Manage Project Work.

Change requests should never be implemented prior to approval. Approved means that the change request has been evaluated and is approved to be done. This evaluation and approval takes place in Perform Integrated Change Control. All of the other statements are true.

Work performance information is used for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A. It provides information on resource utilization. B. It provides information on which activities have started. C. It shows what costs have been incurred. D. It is used to help identify defects.

D is the best choice here. The work performance information is all about how the work is being performed, but it is not used directly in identifying defects. 'A' is incorrect because it does provide detail on what resources have been used and when. 'B' is incorrect because it provides information on which activities have been started and their status. 'C' is incorrect because it provides information on what costs were authorized and what costs have been incurred.

Your team has created a project scope statement and a work breakdown structure. What is the NEXT step that needs to be taken in the knowledge area of Schedule Management? A. Create a network diagram B. Develop the schedule C. Determine the critical path D. Create the activity list

D. After the scope statement and the work breakdown structure, you should move into Define Activities. 'A' cannot be done before the activity list since the activity list is used to create the network diagram. 'B' and 'C' cannot be done until the network diagram is completed. The correct order of these choices listed would be: 'D', 'A', 'C', 'B'.

Manage Quality helps to do all of the following except: A. Confirm that processes are used and meet objectives B. Improve efficiency and effectiveness of processes C. Analyze failures for quality improvement D. Discover defects to help meet specifications

D. All of the tasks listed except Answer-D deal with the process of quality, while -D is handling defects in the product from Control Quality.

Analogous estimating is also called: A. Vendor bid analysis B. Bottom-up estimating C. Scalable model estimating D. Top-down estimating

D. Another name for analogous estimating is top-down estimating because it looks at projects as a lump sum and not broken down into pieces (which is known as bottom-up estimating).

A customer is concerned that the quality process is not being followed as laid out in the quality management plan. The best way to see if this claim is accurate is: A. Random sampling B. Kaizen C. Personally participate in the quality inspections D. Audits

D. Audits, part of the Manage Quality process, review the process and make sure that the process is being followed.

A quality checklist is: A. An input to Manage Quality B. An output of Control Quality C. A tool of Plan Quality Management D. A tool of Manage Quality

D. Checklists or quality checklists are a form of Data Gathering which is a tool of both Manage Quality and Control Quality processes. The checklist helps ensure that all project steps are performed or that all components or specifications are present or measured. Also note that checklists can be included in the ITTO named Test and Evaluation Documents, which is an output of Manage Quality and an input to Control Quality.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the Control Schedule process? A. It is the primary means of controlling change to the schedule. B. It detects changes after they occur. C. It uses schedule compression to get the schedule back on track. D. It may be initially performed before the activities have been defined.

D. Control Schedule is performed only after the schedule has been developed, and the activities have to be defined before either of those can take place. In other words, how can you control a schedule that has not yet been defined? 'A' and 'C' are both true, and the question is asking which is false. 'B' represents the trap answer for this question. Many project managers are in the habit of thinking that all processes are always proactive; however, monitoring and controlling processes also have to detect change after it has occurred.

Your project sponsor is nervous about the budget; she has asked for attention to spending controls once the cost variance measures 5% from the baseline. This control is documented in: A. The earned value guidelines B. The Control Budget definitions C. The management reserve funding limits D. The cost management plan

D. Financial control thresholds are planned and documented in the cost management plan.

Your manager has asked to review the quality management plan with you to ensure that it is being followed appropriately. In which process is your boss involved? A. Control Quality B. Perform Quality Management C. Plan Quality Management D. Manage Quality

D. In this case, your manager is auditing the process, and audits are used in Manage Quality. Audits are performed primarily to make sure that the process is being followed. 'A' is incorrect because quality control is inspecting specific examples and is not focused on the overall process. 'B' is incorrect because quality management is too broad a term to fit the definition of this process. 'C' is incorrect because Plan Quality Management is the process where the quality management plan is created.

A constraint is a limitation put on a project. An assumption is a factor that is considered to be real without proof or demonstration. Which of the following is TRUE about documenting constraints and assumptions on a project? A. Constraints and assumptions should be documented in only one place, preferably the Project Scope Statement before the Scope Baseline is defined. B. Constraints and assumptions are included in every relevant project management document. C. Constraints and assumptions are finalized when the 3 major baselines for scope, schedule, and cost are placed under control. D. Constraints and assumptions are first documented when creating the Project Charter. Those that impact project and product scope are updated in Define Scope.

D. Many, but not all, project management deliverables and documents include descriptions of constraints and assumptions. Right from the start, in Develop Project Charter, the Assumption Log is created. Subsequent processes update this log. Define Scope focuses on project and product scope, including exclusions. Those exclusions help the team focus on valid constraints and assumptions.

Which of the following techniques is not used in Collect Requirements? A. Prototypes B. Surveys C. Affinity diagrams D. Product analysis

D. Product analysis is a tool used in Define Scope. The Collect Requirements process features a large number of tools and techniques, including prototypes, surveys and questionnaires, voting, affinity diagrams, facilitation, and others. It's a long list. However, that list does not include product analysis, which is more appropriate for the work performed in Define Scope.

Regarding the collection of project requirements, which of the following statements is NOT true? A. The stakeholder register contains a list of people who can explain the underlying needs that generate the project requirements. B. The foundation for collecting requirements begins with the description of the project's product, service, or desired result contained in the project charter. C. Prototypes can be used to foster user interaction to help define requirements. D. Project charter updates may result once the requirements become more defined and progressively elaborated.

D. Project charter updates are not a defined output. 'D' is the correct answer. All of the other statements are true regarding Collect Requirements, about which more can be read in Andy's book around page 116.

Which of the earned value factors can be calculated early in project planning? A. EAC, ETC, and VAC B. SPI and CPI C. BAC only D. BAC and PV

D. The Budget at Completion (BAC) and Planned Value (PV) can both be calculated before work begins. All other factors require actual costs to have been recorded and/or work on the product to be underway. 'A' is not correct because EAC and ETC are simply BAC and have no other forecast significance until project work is underway.

If Voting and Inspection are employed as tools in Validate Scope, what output would result if the vote was not in favor of Completeness? A. Work performance data B. Accepted deliverables C. Variance list D. Change request

D. The change request would seek to bring the future inspection in line with the scope baseline.

If budgeted at complete = $500, estimate to complete = $400, earned value = $100, and actual cost = $100, what is the estimate at complete? A. 0 B. 150 C. 350 D. 500

D. The estimate at complete is what we expect to have spent at the end of the project. If you are already given a forecasted Estimate To Complete, then add the Actual Costs (AC) to ETC to obtain EAC. Otherwise, EAC is calculated by taking BAC and dividing it by CPI. In this case, we are given ETC. ETC + AC = EAC, so $400 + $100 = $500. Therefore, 'D' is the correct answer, indicating that we are progressing exactly as planned since BAC also is $500.

One of your team members makes a change to the budget with your approval. In what process is he engaged? A. Cost Performance Baseline B. Estimate Costs C. Project Cost Management D. Control Costs

D. The main clue here is the word 'change.' If the team is making approved changes, they are in a control process. 'A' is not a process. 'B' is incorrect since Estimate Costs is the process where the original estimates are developed and not where they are updated. 'C' is the knowledge area (careful not to get these confused with processes).

The efforts expended in Manage Quality are accounted as: A. Cost of appraisal B. Cost of non-conformance C. CoPQ D. Cost of conformance

D. The quality assurance costs expended in Manage Quality are accounted as the cost of conformance; the cost of planning for good quality, which in turn should greatly diminish the Cost of Poor Quality (CoPQ) - the cost of failure - or the Cost of non-conformance.

A project is scheduled to last 8 months and cost $800,000. At the end of the 2nd month, the project is 20% complete. What is the schedule performance index? A. 0.25 B. 1.25 C. 0.75 D. 0.8

D. To calculate the schedule performance index, we need to know the earned value and planned value (EV and PV). To get EV, we need to know how much we have completed to date. The budgeted at complete is $800,000, and we are 20% complete. Therefore, EV = $800,000 x 20% = $160,000. Planned value is what we had planned to complete at this point. We are 2 months into an 8 month project, or 1/4 of the way through. 1/4 = .25 (25%), and our budgeted at completion of $800,000 x 25% = $200,000. Now that we have EV ($160,000) and PV ($200,000), we can calculate the schedule performance index. It is EV divided by PV, or $160,000 / $200,000 = 0.80. The interpretation of this number is that the project is earning value 80% as fast as was planned, and any index that is less than 1 is a bad thing!

When in the project should control of the scope begin? A. At the very beginning of the project B. As soon as the Project Charter is written and signed C. As soon as the Project Scope Statement is written and officially accepted by the sponsor D. As soon as the scope baseline has been created

D. Until the scope has been defined and documented in the approved Scope Statement, WBS, and WBS Dictionary, which make up the scope baseline, it is not stable enough to be put under control.

If the optimistic estimate for an activity is 15 days and the pessimistic estimate is 25 days, what is the realistic estimate? A. 19 days B. 20 days C. 21 days D. Unknown

D. You cannot calculate the three-point estimate without knowing values for optimistic, pessimistic, and realistic. In this case, you are only provided with 2 of the 3 numbers, therefore the answer is unknown.

If, while planning schedule management for your project, your team decides on an adaptive, iterative approach, then what possible method may be considered? A. Rolling wave planning B. Predictive schedule design and management C. Participative scheduling and change control D. Iterative scheduling with a backlog

D. best reflects the approach possibly chosen. Answer-A is OK from a broad-based perspective, but D is more focused. -B and -C reflect traditional, not adaptive approaches.

You have just assumed responsibility for a project that is in progress. While researching the project archives, you discover that the WBS dictionary was never created. Which of the following problems would LEAST likely be attributable to this? A. Confusion about the meaning of specific work packages. B. Confusion about who is responsible for a specific work package. C. Confusion about which account to bill against for a specific work package. D. Confusion about how to change a specific work package.

D. is the best choice here. The WBS dictionary contains attributes about each work package such as an explanation of the work package (which invalidates choice 'A'), who is assigned responsibility for the work package (which invalidates choice 'B'), and a cost account code (which invalidates choice 'C'). If a work package were changed, that would most likely alter the scope baseline, and information on how to go about this would be found in the scope management plan and not the WBS dictionary.

What three common tools are used to plan schedule management, cost management, and scope management? A. Data analysis; Expert judgment; Data gathering B. Data analysis; Expert judgment; Meetings C. Data gathering; Expert judgment; Meetings D. Data gathering; Expert judgment; Data representation

For the three planning processes, planing Scope, Schedule, and Cost Management (the three sides of the iron triangle), the toolsets are identical: Expert judgment; Data Analysis; and Meetings. All three are very common tools in the entire framework.

The Six-P Consulting Group has contracted with their client, Smith-Traylor Co., to provide project management services and specific project deliverables to Smith-Traylor. To charter this project within Six-P, what is the most important input to the process? A. The contract with Smith-Traylor B. Six-P's project management methodology C. Smith-Traylor's business need D. Smith-Traylor's strategic plan

The correct answer is 'A.' The agreement is the key input. Since this sponsor is external to Six-P, the contract or agreement is extremely important to authorize Six-P to apply resources on this project for Smith-Traylor. 'B' is not correct; the project management methodology is not an input. 'C' is a valid choice, but not the best. 'D' is not correct because the strategic plan is not as important as that agreement. You may read more about developing the project charter in Andy's book around page 67.