Prep U Ch 67
A nurse is instructing the spouse of a client who suffered a stroke about the use of eating devices the client will be using. During the teaching, the spouse starts to cry and states, "One minute he is laughing, and the next he's crying; I just don't understand what's wrong with him." Which statement is the best response by the nurse?
Correct response: "Emotional lability is common after a stroke, and it usually improves with time." Explanation: This is the most therapeutic and informative response. Often, most relatives of clients with stroke handle the physical changes better than the emotional aspects of care. The family should be prepared to expect occasional episodes of emotional lability. The client may laugh or cry easily and may be irritable and demanding or depressed and confused. The nurse can explain to the family that the client's laughter does not necessarily connote happiness, nor does crying reflect sadness, and that emotional lability usually improves with time. The remaining responses are nontherapeutic and do not address the spouse's concerns.
A patient is admitted via ambulance to the emergency room of a stroke center at 1:30 p.m. with symptoms that the patient said began at 1:00 p.m. Within 1 hour, an ischemic stroke had been confirmed and the doctor ordered tPA. The nurse knows to give this drug no later than what time?
Correct response: 4:00 p.m. Explanation: Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) must be given within 3 hours after symptom onset. Therefore, since symptom onset was 1:00 pm, the window of opportunity ends at 4:00 pm.
Which term refers to the failure to recognize familiar objects perceived by the senses?
Correct response: Agnosia Explanation: Auditory agnosia is failure to recognize significance of sounds. Agraphia refers to disturbances in writing intelligible words. Apraxia refers to an inability to perform previously learned purposeful motor acts on a voluntary basis. Perseveration is the continued and automatic repetition of an activity, word, or phrase that is no longer appropriate.Pg2011
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation has experienced a TIA. In an effort to reduce the risk of cerebrovascular accident (CVA), the nurse anticipates the priority medical treatment to include which of the following?
Correct response: Anticoagulant therapy Explanation: Anticoagulant or antiplatelet therapy can prevent clot formation associated with cardiac dysrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation. Cholesterol-lowering drugs can be ordered if indicated to manage atherosclerosis. Prothrombin and international normalized ratio (INR) levels may be ordered to monitor therapeutic effects of anticoagulant therapy. Carotid endarterectomy would be anticipated only when the carotids have narrowing from plaque. Page 2013
The nurse is taking care of a client with a headache. In addition to administering medications, the nurse takes which measure to assist the client in reducing the pain associated with the headache?
Correct response: Apply warm or cool cloths to the forehead or back of the neck. Explanation: Warmth promotes vasodilation; cool stimuli reduce blood flow. Page 2007
The provider diagnoses the patient as having had an ischemic stroke. The etiology of an ischemic stroke would include which of the following?
Correct response: Cardiogenic emboli Explanation: Aneurysms, hemorrhages, and malformations are all examples of a hemorrhagic stroke. An embolism can block blood flow, leading to ischemia.
Which term will the nurse use when referring to blindness in the right or left half of the visual field in both eyes?
Correct response: Homonymous hemianopsia Explanation: Homonymous hemianopsia occurs with occipital lobe tumors. Scotoma refers to a defect in vision in a specific area in one or both eyes. Diplopia refers to double vision or the awareness of two images of the same object occurring in one or both eyes. Nystagmus refers to rhythmic, involuntary movements or oscillations of the eyes. Page 2011
A client has experienced an ischemic stroke that has damaged the lower motor neurons of the brain. Which of the following deficits would the nurse expect during assessment?
Correct response: Lack of deep tendon reflexes Explanation: Damage to the occipital lobe can result in visual agnosia, whereas damage to the temporal lobe can cause auditory agnosia. If damage has occurred to the frontal lobe, learning capacity, memory, or other higher cortical intellectual functions may be impaired. Such dysfunction may be reflected in a limited attention span, difficulties in comprehension, forgetfulness, and lack of motivation. Damage to the lower motor neurons may cause decreased muscle tone, flaccid muscle paralysis, and a decrease in or loss of reflexes.Pg2011
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a hemorrhagic stroke. The nurse recognizes that which intervention is most important?
Correct response: Maintaining a patent airway Explanation: Maintaining the airway is the most important nursing intervention. Immediate complications of a hemorrhagic stroke include cerebral hypoxia, decreased cerebral blood flow, and extension of the area of injury. Providing adequate oxygenation of blood to the brain minimizes cerebral hypoxia. Brain function depends on delivery of oxygen to the tissues. Administering supplemental oxygen and maintaining hemoglobin and hematocrit at acceptable levels will assist in maintaining tissue oxygenation. All other interventions are appropriate, but the airway takes priority. The head of the bed should be elevated to 30 degrees, monitoring the client because of the risk for seizures, and stool softeners are recommended to prevent constipation and straining, but these are not the most important interventions. Page 2029
The nurse is providing diet-related advice to a male patient following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The patient wants to minimize the volume of food and yet meet all nutritional elements. Which of the following suggestions should the nurse give to the patient about controlling the volume of food intake?
Correct response: Provide thickened commercial beverages and fortified cooked cereals. Explanation: Patients with CVA or other cerebrovascular disorders should lose weight and therefore should minimize their volume of food consumption. To ensure this, the nurse may provide thickened commercial beverages, fortified cooked cereals, or scrambled eggs. Patients should avoid eating high-fat foods, and serving foods hot or tepid will not minimize the volume consumed by the patient. Foods such as peanut butter, bread, tart foods, dry or crisp foods, and chewy meats should also be avoided because they cause choking.Pg2022
The nurse is participating in a health fair for stroke prevention. Which will the nurse say is a modifiable risk factor for ischemic stroke?
Correct response: Smoking Explanation: Modifiable risk factors for transient ischemic attack (TIA) and ischemic stroke include hypertension, type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, smoking, and chronic alcoholism. Advanced age, gender, and race are nonmodifiable risk factors for stroke.
A client who first experienced symptoms related to a confirmed thrombotic stroke 2 hours ago is brought to the intensive care unit. Which prescribed medication does the nurse prepare to administer?
Correct response: Tissue plasminogen activator
The nurse plays a critical role in the initial work-up of a patient with acute stroke symptoms. An immediate decision is to determine if the stroke is ischemic or hemorrhagic. Although there is overlap in some motor, sensory, and cognitive changes, hemorrhagic strokes can be identified by some specific signs. Which of the following signs are consistent with a hemorrhagic stroke? Select all that apply.
Correct response: Vomiting Sudden, severe headache Seizures Explanation: These three signs are usually diagnostic of a hemorrhagic stroke. The other signs can occur with both hemorrhagic and ischemic stroke.
A client's spouse relates how the client reported a severe headache and then was unable to talk or move their right arm and leg. After diagnostics are completed and the client is admitted to the hospital, when would basic rehabilitation begin?
Correct response: immediately Explanation: Beginning basic rehabilitation during the acute phase is an important nursing function. Measures such as position changes and prevention of skin breakdown and contractures are essential aspects of care during the early phase of rehabilitation. The nursing goal is to prevent complications that may interfere with the client's potential to recover function.
A client recently experienced a stroke with accompanying left-sided paralysis. His family voices concerns about how to best interact with him. They report the client doesn't seem aware of their presence when they approach him on his left side. What advice should the nurse give the family?
Correct response: "The client is unaware of his left side. You should approach him on the right side." Explanation: The client is experiencing unilateral neglect and is unaware of his left side. The nurse should advise the family to approach him on his unaffected (right) side. Approaching the client on the affected side would be counterproductive. It's too premature to make the determination whether this condition will be permanent. Page 2019
Which is a contraindication for the administration of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)?
Correct response: Intracranial hemorrhage Explanation: Intracranial hemorrhage, neoplasm, and aneurysm are contraindications for t-PA. Clinical diagnosis of ischemic stroke, age 18 years or older, and a systolic blood pressure less than or equal to 185 mm Hg are eligibility criteria. Page 2015
From which direction should a nurse approach a client who is blind in the right eye?
*Correct response: From the left side of the client -Explanation: The nurse should approach the client from the left side so that the client can be aware of the nurse's approach. Likewise, personal items should be placed on the client's left side so that he can see them easily. Page 2012
A nurse knows that, for a patient with an ischemic stroke, tPA is contraindicated if the blood pressure reading is:
Correct response: 190 mm Hg/120 mm Hg Explanation: Elevated blood pressure (systolic >185; diastolic >110 mm Hg) is a contraindication to tPA.
What clinical manifestations does the nurse recognize when a patient has had a right hemispheric stroke?
Correct response: Left visual field deficit Explanation: A left visual field deficit is a common clinical manifestation of a right hemispheric stroke. Aphasia, slow, cautious behavior, and altered intellectual ability are all clinical manifestations of a left hemispheric stroke. Page 2013
The nurse is caring for a patient having a hemorrhagic stroke. What position in the bed will the nurse maintain this patient?
Correct response: Semi-Fowler's Explanation: The head of the bed is elevated 15 to 30 degrees (semi-Fowler's position) to promote venous drainage and decrease intracranial pressure. Page 2027
Which is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes?
Correct response: Smoking Explanation: Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, smoking, and chronic alcoholism. Advanced age, gender, and race are nonmodifiable risk factors for stroke.
Thrombolytic therapy should be initiated within what time frame of an ischemic stroke to achieve the best functional outcome?
Correct response: 3 hours Explanation: Rapid diagnosis of stroke and initiation of thrombolytic therapy (within 3 hours) in clients with ischemic stroke lead to a decrease in the size of the stroke and an overall improvement in functional outcome after 3 months.
Aneurysm rebleeding occurs most frequently during which time frame after the initial hemorrhage?
Correct response: First 2 to 12 hours Explanation: Aneurysm rebleeding occurs most frequently during the first 2 to 12 hours after the initial hemorrhage and is considered a major complication. Page 2029
If warfarin is contraindicated as a treatment for stroke, which medication is the best option?
Correct response: Aspirin Explanation: If warfarin is contraindicated, aspirin is the best option, although other medications may be used if both are contraindicated.
When should the nurse plan the rehabilitation of a patient who is having an ischemic stroke?
Correct response: The day the patient has the stroke Explanation: Although rehabilitation begins on the day the patient has the stroke, the process is intensified during convalescence and requires a coordinated team effort.
Which disturbance results in loss of half of the visual field?
Correct response: Homonymous hemianopsia Explanation: Homonymous hemianopsia (loss of half of the visual field) may occur from stroke and may be temporary or permanent. Double vision is documented as diplopia. Nystagmus is ocular bobbing and may be seen in multiple sclerosis. Anisocoria is unequal pupils. Page 2011
A physician orders several drugs for a client with hemorrhagic stroke. Which drug order should the nurse question?
*Correct response: Heparin sodium -Explanation: Administering heparin, an anticoagulant, could increase the bleeding associated with hemorrhagic stroke. Therefore, the nurse should question this order to prevent additional hemorrhage in the brain. In a client with hemorrhagic stroke, the physician may use dexamethasone to decrease cerebral edema and pressure; methyldopa, to reduce blood pressure; and phenytoin, to prevent seizures. Page 2028
The nurse is completing an assessment on a client with a history of migraines. The nurse would identify which of the following factors as a possible trigger for a migraine headache? Select all that apply.
Correct response: Red wine Menstruation Explanation: Research on the cause of migraines is ongoing; however, changes in reproductive hormones (menstruation), exposure to flashing light, and particular food/beverages can be a trigger for some clients. Nausea is a symptom of a migraine. Exposure to changes in environmental temperature does not trigger a migraine headache. Prolonged positioning can cause muscle fatigue and strain that trigger tension headaches.
A 76-year-old client is brought to the clinic by his daughter. The daughter states that her father has had two transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) in the past week. The physician orders carotid angiography, and the report reveals that the carotid artery has been narrowed by atherosclerotic plaques. What treatment option does the nurse expect the physician to offer this client to increase blood flow to the brain?
Correct response: Carotid endarterectomy Explanation: If narrowing of the carotid artery by atherosclerotic plaques is the cause of the TIAs, a carotid endarterectomy (surgical removal of atherosclerotic plaque) is a treatment option. A balloon angioplasty, a procedure similar to a percutaneous transluminal coronary artery angioplasty, is performed to dilate the carotid artery and increase blood flow to the brain. Options A, B, and C are not surgical options to increase blood flow through the carotid artery to the brain.
A client with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is having difficulty with eating food on the plate. Which is the best priority nursing action to be taken?
Correct response: Perform a vision field assessment. Explanation: The nurse should perform a vision field assessment to evaluate the client forhemianopia. This finding could indicate damage to the visual area of the brain as a result of evolving CVA. Repositioning the tray and assisting with feeding would not be the best nursing action until new finding has been evaluated. Hemianopia can be associated with a CVA but, when presenting as a new finding, should be evaluated and reported immediately.
A nurse in a rehabilitation facility is coordinating the discharge of a client who is tetraplegic. The client, who is married and has two children in high school, is being discharged to home and will require much assistance. Who would the discharge planner recognize as being the most important member of this client's care team?
Correct response: spouse Explanation: The client's spouse and family would need to be involved in the everyday care of the client; without their support, it is unlikely that the client would be able to manage at home.
A client is admitted for evaluation of cerebral aneurysm. Which assessment finding is of greatest importance in prioritizing nursing care to this client?
*Correct response: Nausea -Explanation: Nausea needs to be controlled to prevent vomiting, which can greatly increase the intracranial pressure and subsequently rupture the aneurysm. Complaint of headache for past month is significant and probably attributes to the evaluation at hand. Having no bowel movement since yesterday is not significant ; although, every effort should be made to prevent constipation. Frequent voiding is expected especially with the use of osmotic diuretics. Page 2026
Which of the following is the chief cause of intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH)?
*Correct response: Uncontrolled hypertension -Explanation: Primary intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) from a spontaneous rupture of small arteries or arterioles accounts for approximately 80% of hemorrhagic strokes and is caused chiefly by uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, and migraine headaches are not a chief cause of ICH. Page 2025
Which term refers to the inability to perform previously learned purposeful motor acts on a voluntary basis?
Correct response: Apraxia Explanation: Verbal apraxia refers to difficulty forming and organizing intelligible words although the musculature is intact. Agnosia is a failure to recognize familiar objects perceived by the senses. Agraphia refers to disturbances in writing intelligible words. Perseveration is the continued and automatic repetition of an activity or word or phrase that is no longer appropriate.
Which interventions would be recommended for a client with dysphagia? Select all that apply.
Correct response: Assist the client with meals. Test the gag reflex before offering food or fluids. Allow ample time to eat. Explanation: Interventions for dysphagia include placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth, allowing ample time to eat, assisting the client with meals, and testing the client's gag reflex before offering food or fluids.
Which insult or abnormality can cause an ischemic stroke?
Correct response: Cocaine use Explanation: Cocaine is a potent vasoconstrictor and may result in a life-threatening reaction, even with the individual's first use of the drug. Arteriovenous malformations, trauma, and intracerebral aneurysm rupture are associated with hemorrhagic stroke. Page 2010
A patient suffering a stroke is having a difficult time swallowing. What would the nurse document this finding as?
Correct response: Dysphagia Explanation: Stroke can result in dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) due to impaired function of the mouth, tongue, palate, larynx, pharynx, or upper esophagus. Patients must be observed for paroxysms of coughing, food dribbling out of or pooling in one side of the mouth, food retained for long periods in the mouth, or nasal regurgitation when swallowing liquids. Swallowing difficulties place the patient at risk for aspiration, pneumonia, dehydration, and malnutrition. Page 2012
A client diagnosed with migraine headaches asks the nurse what he can do to help control the headaches and minimize the number of attacks he is having. What instructions should the nurse give this client?
Correct response: Identify and avoid factors that precipitate or intensify an attack. Explanation: The nurse includes the following instructions: Follow the indications and dosage regimen for medication and notify the physician of any adverse drug effects. Identify and avoid factors that precipitate or intensify an attack. Keeping a food diary may help identify foods that trigger attacks. Keep a record of the attacks, including activities before the attack and environmental or emotional circumstances that appear to bring on the attack. Lie down in a darkened room and avoid noise and movement when an attack occurs, if that is possible.
Which of the following is the initial diagnostic in suspected stroke?
Correct response: Noncontrast computed tomography (CT) Explanation: An initial head CT scan will determine whether or not the patient is experiencing a hemorrhagic stroke. An ischemic infarction will not be readily visible on initial CT scan if it is performed within the first few hours after symptoms onset; however, evidence of bleeding will almost always be visible.Pg2011
A nurse is teaching a community group about modifiable and non modifiable risk factors for ischemic strokes. Which of the following is a risk factor that cannot be modified?
*Correct response: Advanced age -Explanation: Modifiable risk factors for ischemic stroke include hypertension, atrial fibrillation, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, smoking, asymptomatic carotid stenosis, obesity, and excessive alcohol consumption. Non modifiable risk factors include advanced age, gender, and race. Page 2013
A patient had a carotid endarterectomy yesterday and when the nurse arrived in the room to perform an assessment, the patient states, "All of a sudden, I am having trouble moving my right side." What concern should the nurse have about this complaint?
Correct response: A thrombus formation at the site of the endarterectomy Explanation: Formation of a thrombus at the site of the endarterectomy is suspected if there is a sudden new onset of neurologic deficits, such as weakness on one side of the body. Page 2018
How often should neurologic assessments and vital signs be taken initially for the patient receiving tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)?
Correct response: Every 15 minutes Explanation: Neurological assessment and vital signs (except temperature) should be taken every 15 minutes initially while the patient is receiving tPA infusion. Page 2015
The nurse is caring for a client with dysphagia. Which intervention would be contraindicated while caring for this client?
Correct response: Placing food on the affected side of the mouth Explanation: Interventions for dysphagia include placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth, allowing ample time to eat, assisting the client with meals, and testing the client's gag reflex before offering food or fluids. Page 2012
Which set of symptoms characterize Korsakoff syndrome?
Correct response: Psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations Explanation: Korsakoff syndrome is a personality disorder characterized by psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease results in severe dementia and myoclonus. The three cardinal signs of Parkinson disease are tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Huntington disease results in progressive involuntary choreiform (dancelike) movements and dementia.
The nurse is caring for a client following an aneurysm coiling procedure. The nurse documents that the client is experiencing Korsakoff syndrome. Which set of symptoms characterizes Korsakoff syndrome?
Correct response: Psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, and hallucinations Explanation: Advances in technology have led to the introduction of interventional neuroradiology for the treatment of aneurysms. Endovascular techniques may be used in selected clients to occlude the blood flow from the artery that feeds the aneurysm with coils or other techniques to occlude the aneurysm itself. Postoperative complications are rare but can occur. Potential complications include psychological symptoms such as disorientation, amnesia, and Korsakoff syndrome (disorder characterized by psychosis, disorientation, delirium, insomnia, hallucinations, and personality changes). Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease results in severe dementia and myoclonus. The three cardinal signs of Parkinson disease are tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Huntington disease results in progressive involuntary choreiform (dancelike) movements and dementia.
Which of the following is the most common side effect of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)?
Correct response: Bleeding Explanation: Bleeding is the most common side effect of tPA. The patient is closely monitored for bleeding (at IV insertion sites, gums, urine/stools, and intracranially by assessing changes in level of consciousness). Headache, increased ICP, and hypertension are not side effects of tPA.
A client admitted to the emergency department is being evaluated for the possibility of a stroke. Which assessment finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing a hemorrhagic stroke?
Correct response: severe exploding headache Explanation: A hemorrhagic stroke is often characterized by a severe headache (commonly described as the "worst headache ever") or as "exploding." Weakness and speech issues are more commonly associated with an ischemic stroke.
A client has been diagnosed as having global aphasia. The nurse recognizes that the client will be unable to do perform which action?
*Correct response: Form understandable words and comprehend spoken words -Explanation: Global aphasia is a combination of expressive and receptive aphasia and presents a tremendous challenge to the nurse to communicate effectively with the client. In receptive and expressive aphasia, the client is unable to form words that are understandable. The client who is unable to speak at all is referred to as mute. Page 2012
During assessment of cognitive impairment, post-stroke, the nurse documents that the patient was experiencing memory loss and impaired learning capacity. The nurse knows that brain damage has most likely occurred in which lobe?
*Correct response: Frontal -Explanation: Frontal lobe damage results in impaired learning capacity, memory, and other higher cortical intellectual functions.
A patient is exhibiting classic signs of a hemorrhagic stroke. What complaint from the patient would be an indicator of this type of stroke?
*Correct response: Severe headache -Explanation: The patient with a hemorrhagic stroke can present with a wide variety of neurologic deficits, similar to the patient with ischemic stroke. The conscious patient most commonly reports a severe headache. Page 2026
An emergency department nurse is awaiting the arrival of a client with signs of an ischemic stroke that began 1 hour ago, as reported by emergency medical personnel. The treatment window for thrombolytic therapy is which of the following?
*Correct response: Three hours -Explanation: Rapid diagnosis of stroke and initiation of thrombolytic therapy (within 3 hours) in clients with ischemic stroke leads to a decrease in the size of the stroke and an overall improvement in functional outcome after 3 months. Page 2009
The geriatric advanced practice nurse (APN) is doing client teaching with a client who has had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) and the client's family. One concern the APN addresses is a potential for falls related to the CVA and resulting muscle weakness. What would be most important for the APN to include in teaching related to this concern?
Correct response: Remove throw rugs and electrical cords from home environment. Explanation: Client and family teaching is essential and focuses on the following points: Remove throw rugs, clutter, and electrical cords from the client's home environment to reduce the potential for falls. Although the other interventions may be appropriate, they are not as directly related to reducing fall risk. Page 2030
The nurse is caring for a client with aphasia. Which strategy will the nurse use to facilitate communication with the client?
*Correct response: Establishing eye contact -Explanation: The following strategies should be used by the nurse to encourage communication with a client with aphasia: face the client and establish eye contact, speak in your usual manner and tone, use short phrases, and pause between phrases to allow the client time to understand what is being said; limit conversation to practical and concrete matters; use gestures, pictures, objects, and writing; and as the client uses and handles an object, say what the object is. It helps to match the words with the object or action. Be consistent in using the same words and gestures each time you give instructions or ask a question, and keep extraneous noises and sounds to a minimum. Too much background noise can distract the client or make it difficult to sort out the message being spoken. Page 2023
A patient is brought to the emergency department with a possible stroke. What initial diagnostic test for a stroke, usually performed in the emergency department, would the nurse prepare the patient for?
*Correct response: Noncontrast computed tomogram -Explanation: The initial diagnostic test for a stroke is usually a noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan. This should be performed within 25 minutes or less from the time the patient presents to the emergency department (ED) to determine if the event is ischemic or hemorrhagic (the category of stroke determines treatment). Page 2011
A client is admitted with weakness, expressive aphasia, and right hemianopia. The brain MRI reveals an infarct. The nurse understands these symptoms to be suggestive of which of the following findings?
Correct response: Left-sided cerebrovascular accident (CVA) Explanation: When the infarct is on the left side of the brain, the symptoms are likely to be on the right, and the speech is more likely to be involved. If the MRI reveals an infarct, TIA is no longer the diagnosis. There is not enough information to determine if the stroke is still evolving or is complete.
An emergency department nurse is interviewing a client with signs of an ischemic stroke that began 2 hours ago. The client reports that she had a cholecystectomy 6 weeks ago and is taking digoxin, coumadin, and labetelol. This client is not eligible for thrombolytic therapy for which of the following reasons?
Correct response: She is taking coumadin. Explanation: To be eligible for thrombolytic therapy, the client cannot be taking coumadin. Initiation of thrombolytic therapy must be within 3 hours in clients with ischemic stroke. The client is not eligible for thrombolytic therapy if she has had surgery within 14 days. Digoxin and labetelol do not prohibit thrombolytic therapy.Pg2015
When communicating with a client who has sensory (receptive) aphasia, the nurse should:
Correct response: use short, simple sentences. Explanation: Although sensory aphasia allows the client to hear words, it impairs the ability to comprehend their meaning. The nurse should use short, simple sentences to promote comprehension. Allowing time for the client to respond might be helpful but is less important than simplifying the communication. Because the client's hearing isn't affected, speaking loudly isn't necessary. A writing pad is helpful for clients with expressive, not receptive, aphasia.
A nurse is teaching a community class that those experiencing symptoms of ischemic stroke need to enter the medical system early. The primary reason for this is which of the following?
Correct response: Thrombolytic therapy has a time window of only 3 hours. Explanation: Currently approved thrombolytic therapy for ischemic strokes has a treatment window of only 3 hours after the onset of symptoms. Urgency is needed on the part of the public for rapid entry into the medical system. The other three choices are related to hemorrhagic strokes. Page 2014
A client is hospitalized when presenting to the emergency department with right-sided weakness. Within 6 hours of being admitted, the neurologic deficits had resolved and the client was back to his presymptomatic state. The nurse caring for the client knows that the probable cause of the neurologic deficit was what?
Correct response: Transient ischemic attack Explanation: A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a sudden, brief attack of neurologic impairment caused by a temporary interruption in cerebral blood flow. Symptoms may disappear within 1 hour; some continue for as long as 1 day. When the symptoms terminate, the client resumes his or her presymptomatic state. The symptoms do not describe a left- or right-sided stroke or a cerebral aneurysm. Page 2011
A client reports light-headedness, speech disturbance, and left-sided weakness that have lasted for several hours. In the examination, an abnormal sound is auscultated in an artery leading to the brain. What is the term for the auscultated discovery?
Correct response: bruit Explanation: A neurologic examination during an attack reveals neurologic deficits. Auscultation of the artery may reveal a bruit (abnormal sound caused by blood flowing over a rough surface within one or both carotid arteries). The term for the auscultated discovery is "bruit."
A stroke victim is experiencing memory loss and impaired learning capacity. The nurse knows that brain damage has most likely occurred in which lobe?
*Correct response: Frontal -Explanation: If damage has occurred to the frontal lobe, learning capacity, memory, or other higher cortical intellectual functions may be impaired. Such dysfunction may be reflected in a limited attention span, difficulties in comprehension, forgetfulness, and a lack of motivation. Page 2011
A client is receiving an IV infusion of mannitol (Osmitrol) after undergoing intracranial surgery to remove a brain tumor. To determine whether this drug is producing its therapeutic effect, the nurse should consider which finding most significant?
Correct response: Increased urine output Explanation: The therapeutic effect of mannitol is diuresis, which is confirmed by an increased urine output. A decreased LOC and elevated blood pressure may indicate lack of therapeutic effectiveness. A decreased heart rate doesn't indicate that mannitol is effective. Page 2027
A client diagnosed with a stroke is ordered to receive warfarin. Later, the nurse learns that the warfarin is contraindicated and the order is canceled. The nurse knows that the best alternative medication to give is
Correct response: aspirin. Explanation: If warfarin is contraindicated, aspirin is the best option, although other medications may be used if both are contraindicated.
