Psychology

Q12

Qstem asks abt normal vision so a person should have no difficulty detecting a moving light in periphery in dim light bc that's where the rods are Educational objective: Central (foveal) vision is highly acute (sharp, clear) because it is produced by cone photoreceptors, which are responsible for detecting color and detail under bright light conditions. Peripheral vision is highly sensitive because it is produced by rod photoreceptors, which are responsible for detecting light and motion under dim conditions.

Q13

used POE to get to answer bc did not know what counterbalancing measures is. In research, counterbalancing is used to control for the potential effects that the order of intervention administration may have on the results. For example, if participants were given two different interventions, A and B, a counterbalancing measure would involve separating participants into two groups, one receiving intervention A first, and the other receiving intervention B first. In both Study 1 and Study 2, only one type of intervention was used; therefore, counterbalancing measures would not be required.

basal ganglia vs cerebellum vs somatosensory cortex

(Choice B) The basal ganglia contain a high concentration of dopamine-producing neurons, the function of which is to produce smooth, purposeful movements and inhibit excessive movement. Loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia results in the characteristic resting tremor seen in Parkinson disease. The basal ganglia are not part of the limbic system. (Choice C) The cerebellum, which lies below the cerebral cortex at the back of the brain, is responsible for motor coordination and balance. The cerebellum is not part of the limbic system. (Choice D) The somatosensory cortex is located just posterior to the lateral fissure in the parietal lobe. This region of the brain processes sensory information from touch and maps it to a specific area of the body. The somatosensory cortex is not part of the limbic system.

Q20

- Core body temperature, which fluctuates between 38°C (in the daytime) and 36°C (just before waking) - Plasma melatonin level, which peaks during sleep but remains relatively low during waking hours - Cortisol, which under normal conditions peaks immediately after waking and is lowest just before sleep Oxytocin, a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and released by the pituitary gland, is involved in pair bonding, reproductive behavior, labor, and lactation. Oxytocin release is not strongly associated with the sleep/wake cycle, so researchers would be least likely to have used this biomarker as a measure of circadian rhythms. Educational objective: Melatonin, a hormone released from the pineal gland when light levels are low, synchronizes the internal circadian clock according to daylight. The circadian clock regulates circadian rhythms (physiological processes fluctuating around a 24-hour cycle), including core body temperature and plasma cortisol levels.

Q19

A notch that represents the 95% CI of the median is used on the box-and-whisker plot to estimate visually whether the medians of two groups are significantly different. If the notches across two groups do not overlap, the medians of the two groups are probably significantly different. In Figure 1, the notches of both the "waking practice" and "lucid practice" groups are higher than and do not overlap with the notch of the "no practice" group, so the two practice groups are assumed to have improved significantly more on the task than the "no practice" group. However, one cannot conclude from the figure that a significant difference exists between groups when notches do overlap. Educational objective: Box-and-whisker plots visually represent the median value and interquartile range. Notched box plots show the 95% confidence interval around the median. If notches do not overlap, medians can generally be inferred to be statistically significantly different.

Q25

According to the third paragraph, fMRI was only conducted while the children were listening to pre-recorded stories. Wernicke area, located near the primary auditory cortex (which processes auditory information) in the temporal lobe, is the brain region responsible primarily for language comprehension and would be activated while the children listened to the story. Educational objective: Wernicke area is the brain region primarily responsible for language comprehension (understanding both written and auditory language input), while Broca area is the brain region primarily responsible for speech production (language output).

Q10

Age, gender, and IQ are all factors that significantly impact cognition, but they can be controlled in an experiment. Subjects' individual experiences with the environment vary widely and are much more difficult, if not impossible, to control. In most human studies, it is difficult to control for environmental factors, such as stress, drug and alcohol use, chemical exposure, social factors, and medical care, because such factors vary widely across individuals. Educational objective: Matching ensures that only the independent variable has an effect on the dependent variable. Subjects may be matched for biological factors (eg, age, gender, IQ), but it is harder to control for environmental factors, such as stress, chemicals, and social factors.

Q23

All you had to do was look at figure 1 in passage and see where REM sleep was the highest and its highest during the infancy stage, before 2 years old and that is associated with piaget's sensorimotor stage where they develop object permanence and stranger anxiety. Educational objective: The total amount of time spent sleeping and the amount of time spent in REM and NREM sleep varies with age. Newborns spend the most time sleeping and have the greatest proportion of REM to NREM sleep.

Q23

Children with the best comprehension scores in this study were those in the age 10-12 group, who (according to Piaget's theory) should be at either the end of the concrete operations stage or the beginning of the formal operations stage and should already know how to manipulate concrete concepts mentally. Educational objective: According to Piaget, children progress through four stages of cognitive development based on their approximate age: the sensorimotor stage from birth to age 2 (milestone: object permanence), the preoperational stage from age 2-7 (milestone: language), the concrete operational stage from age 7-12 (milestone: conservation), and the formal operations stage from age 12 to adulthood (milestone: abstract logic/reasoning).

Q24

Chronic sleep deprivation, which acts as a physiological stressor according to the second paragraph, would activate the sympathetic nervous system, resulting in fatigue, anxiety, cardiovascular disease, and a decrease in reproductive function. Chronic exposure to stress hormones (eg, cortisol) can also inhibit immune function and wound healing. Educational objective: The autonomic nervous system comprises the sympathetic nervous system, which coordinates the "fight-or-flight" response in the presence of stress, and the parasympathetic nervous system, which helps the body return to homeostasis. Chronic sympathetic activation can compromise reproductive and immune functioning.

Q5

Dementia due to Korsakoff syndrome (KS) is caused by a deficiency in thiamin (vitamin B1), typically resulting from chronic alcohol consumption (alcohol use disorder). People with alcohol use disorder generally have poor diets, and alcohol interferes with the absorption of thiamin in the digestive tract. Thiamin, an essential nutrient obtained from one's diet, is necessary for proper neural functioning. Deficiency leads to cell death, particularly in the thalamus, the primary relay station for sensory information en route to the cerebral cortex, and the mammillary bodies, which have extensive connections with the hippocampus (memory formation). Thiamin supplementation and behavior modification in the early stages of KS can potentially reverse most brain damage, but AD is irreversible, ultimately progressing to global cell death and severe brain atrophy. Educational objective: Dementia is an umbrella term that reflects a decline in one or more aspects of cognitive functioning. Dementia due to Korsakoff syndrome (KS) is caused by thiamin deficiency and is most commonly the result of chronic alcohol consumption. Thiamin supplementation during the early stages of KS can reverse most symptoms of KS.

Q7

Did not rmr humanistic therapy where you attempt to empower an individual to move towards self-actualization. The choice i picked is psychoanalytic or psychodynamic approach. Where you attempt to uncover how unconscious conflicts rooted in childhood shape behaviors. concept: Humanistic psychology takes an optimistic approach, emphasizing the positive and creative aspects of human nature. It asserts that individuals strive toward self-actualization (fullest potential) and personal growth.

Q8

Dopamine is a neurotransmitter released during pleasurable or rewarding experiences, making it a key player in the brain's reward pathway. The reward pathway includes a region of dopaminergic cell bodies located in the midbrain called the ventral tegmental area (VTA). The VTA sends projections to the prefrontal cortex, nucleus accumbens, amygdala, hippocampus, and other areas. These areas are responsible for perceiving and remembering the pleasurable or rewarding experience. Rewarding stimuli (including commonly abused drugs) increase dopaminergic activity in the brain by increasing the production of dopamine, interfering with its clearance from receptors, or directly stimulating dopamine receptors in the brain. In turn, the reward system is activated and the brain learns to associate the drug with reward. Self-administration in animal models is used as a measure of how addictive a substance is. The more addictive the drug, the more an animal will engage in self-administering behavior. Antagonists can be used to bind to receptors and block the activity of specific neurotransmitters. Studies show that blocking the activity of dopamine can disrupt the reward pathway and decrease addictive behavior. It makes it HAPN (hippo, amygdala, prefrontal cortex, nucelus accumbens) Educational objective: Dopamine is a neurotransmitter associated with the experience of pleasure. Dopaminergic activity in the reward pathway contributes to the development and maintenance of addictive behaviors. Blocking the action of dopamine in the reward pathway is expected to decrease addictive behavior.

Q5

Drug addiction (continued drug use despite negative physical, emotional, financial, or social consequences) is often accompanied by physical dependence, psychological dependence (eg, cravings, inability to experience pleasure without the drug), or both. Physical dependence is most likely to occur after repeated and consistent drug use, usually for an extended period. Neurochemical changes, withdrawal symptoms, and tolerance may all occur with physical dependence. Neurochemical changes (Number I): Repeated exposure to a drug can change the availability of neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft, modify the strength or number of connections between neurons, alter neurotransmitter production, and/or change the number of neurotransmitter receptors. Withdrawal symptoms (Number II): Depending on the drug, cessation may cause withdrawal symptoms (eg, nausea, insomnia, headaches) that can range from mild to severely debilitating. Tolerance (Number III): After repeated drug use, many users need greater doses to experience the same effect (eg, feeling "high") as when initially using the drug. Tolerance is largely mediated by neurochemical changes such as an increase in the number of receptors that respond to the drug or a decrease in the endogenous substances that are mimicked by the drug. Educational objective: Physical dependence on a drug may involve neurochemical changes, withdrawal symptoms on removal of the drug, and tolerance to the drug used (ie, needing greater amounts to feel the same effects).

Q12

Educational objective: Escape learning occurs when an organism learns how to terminate an ongoing unpleasant stimulus. Avoidance learning occurs when an organism learns how to prevent coming into contact with an unpleasant stimulus before it occurs.

Q1

For someone with a pattern of conflict-ridden interpersonal relationships in all settings since late adolescence (ie, stable over time), resulting in a history of sporadic employment and tumultuous romantic relationships (ie, significant impairment), the most likely diagnosis is a personality disorder. (Choice A) Mood disorders (eg, depression) are characterized by persistent disruptions in emotional state. Although individuals with mood disorders may experience social dysfunction (eg, lack of interest in socializing), this is a result of their mood symptomology, not an inflexible and enduring pattern of relating to others (ie, personality disorder). (Choice B) Anxiety disorders (eg, generalized anxiety disorder) are characterized by excessive worry. Although individuals with anxiety disorders may experience social dysfunction (eg, declining social invitations due to anxiety), this is a result of their excessive worry, not an inflexible and enduring pattern of relating to others (ie, personality disorder). (Choice C) Dissociative disorders (eg, dissociative identity disorder) are characterized by disruptions in memory and identity. Although individuals with dissociative disorders may experience social dysfunction (eg, through inconsistent interactions with loved ones), this is a result of their disruptions in memory and identity, not an inflexible and enduring pattern of relating to others (ie, personality disorder). concept: Personality disorders are characterized by inflexible and enduring patterns of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors differing markedly from social norms. Personality disorders are stable over time and across environments and cause significant distress or impairment of functioning.

Q11

Got correct Trait theorists attempt to explain personality in terms of observable personality characteristics, or traits, using objective criteria. Traits can be defined as characteristic ways one often perceives situations, feels, or acts. There are several different trait theories, based on a greater or lesser number of traits. The studies in the passage use the "big five" personality factors, also known as the five-factor model (FFM). Trait theories are successful in objectively organizing behaviors into clearly defined groups, such as "introverted," "agreeable," or "conscientious." These theories are also relatively accurate at predicting an individual's average behavior over time. For example, someone who reliably falls into the "introvert" category will also demonstrate predictable behaviors, such as generally avoiding parties (average behavior). However, trait theories are not very successful at predicting specific behaviors because they do not account for the impact of situational factors on behavior. For example, an introvert who generally avoids parties would be more likely to attend his wife's retirement party (specific behavior). Furthermore, trait theories fail to explain why and how traits develop. Trait theorists would argue that personality traits are unlikely to change in a relatively short time frame. Therefore, they would most likely question whether the findings reflected transient alterations in personality during intervention or permanent changes in innate personality traits. concept: Trait theory suggests that personality is the result of a combination of traits that are relatively stable over time. Trait theory does not account for external influences on personality or for the reasons underlying personality traits.

Q6

Had to look for significance and which graph was significant Educational objective: The p-value is calculated to determine the probability of finding the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis (that there is no difference between groups) is true. Although experimental groups may have outcomes that appear to differ from one another, that difference may not be statistically significant, with statistical significance indicated by the p-value.

Q16

Had to notice that the Qstem said "classical and operant conditioning" meaning observational learning choice D would be the answer bc it says LEAST likely. Asking the participant to observe others who freely engage in social settings, while at times used in CBT, is based more on the principles of observational learning than on those of classical or operant conditioning. concept: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a major therapeutic approach that replaces negative thoughts and behaviors with healthier thoughts and behaviors. CBT may employ various techniques, including desensitization, rewarding healthy behaviors, observing others, and challenging and replacing maladaptive self-talk.

Q21

I got this wrong bc the answer choice I chose is based off of the nativist theory of language acquisition. Which states that language is innate and biologically predetermined and occurs during a critical (time-sensitive) period early in life. The learning theory of language acquisition states that children developed their language skills through exposure to the environment, operant conditioning and through language imitation and practice. Educational objective: The learning theory of language development is based on the idea that language is a learned behavior and humans are born as "blank slates." It posits that language develops through environmental exposure, operant conditioning (eg, positive reinforcement for certain vocalizations), imitation, and repeated language production.

Q10

I knew my ans choice was wrong bc it didn't show significance yet did not thoroughly read the correct ans choice and didn't understand it. Study 2 investigated the level of distress resulting from different coping strategies, depending on whether participants viewed a threatening event (ie, primary appraisal) as "changeable" or "unchangeable" in the future (ie, an aspect of secondary appraisal). Results (Figure 2) showed that for "unchangeable" events, average levels of distress were not significantly different between participants who used either emotion-focused or problem-focused coping. For "changeable" events, participants who used problem-focused coping experienced significantly less distress than those who used emotion-focused coping. Therefore, the most accurate conclusion is that whether one coping strategy results in lower distress than the other depends on the future expectancy appraisal of the event. concept: Appraisal theory states that one's evaluation of a stimulus determines one's emotional response. In a primary appraisal, an individual determines whether a stimulus is a threat, positive, or irrelevant. If it is deemed a threat, the individual evaluates whether their resources are sufficient to cope with the stressor in the secondary appraisal.

Q25

If a researcher wants to investigate whether the number of hours slept per night predicts the number of health care provider visits in those with and without the DEC2 gene mutation, the researcher would need to collect data over a period of time (ie, longitudinally). More specifically, the researcher would perform an observational longitudinal study. Observational studies are conducted when it is unethical or unfeasible to manipulate a variable of interest. A cross-sectional study is an observational study that measures a variable in a population or subpopulation at one time point. Because this example requires measuring hours slept per night and health care provider visits over time, this would not be an appropriate study design. A randomized controlled trial randomly sorts subjects into treatment and control groups. In this example, researchers cannot manipulate a DEC2 gene mutation in humans, so it is not possible to assign people randomly to one of the two study groups. Educational objective: A longitudinal study is used to investigate a variable of interest within a sample population over a period of time. An observational longitudinal study is performed when it is unethical or unfeasible to manipulate the variable of interest.

Q17

If a third group of mice with hippocampal ablations were added to the experiment and tested using the Morris Water Maze, they would be expected to perform worse than either the experimental group or the control group as the Morris Water Maze requires the ability to consolidate memory. Educational objective: Ablation of the hippocampus produces anterograde amnesia, the inability to form new memories. However, bilateral hippocampal ablation would also result in some degree of retrograde amnesia, the inability to recall memories that were previously encoded. The hippocampus controls memory consolidation.

Q16

In Study 2, the environment in which the mice were housed ("standard" for the control group vs. "enhanced" for the experimental group) was the independent variable, and there were two dependent variables: Performance in the Morris Water Maze and proliferation of cells in the hippocampus. Educational objective: Causal conclusions can be drawn from well-designed experiments that carefully control for all variables. Manipulation of the independent variable allows the researcher to conclude that changes to the dependent variable(s) are caused by the independent variable.

Q31

In Western cultures (eg, North America, Europe), women are more likely than men to express all emotions, except anger, which men are more likely to express. Studies suggest that women are also better than men at detecting and correctly interpreting emotional cues (eg, facial expressions, body language) in others. Data indicate that gender differences in the expression and detection of emotion are caused by a combination of biological and sociocultural factors, including: Biological differences: Studies suggest a correlation between anger/aggression and testosterone levels. Social differences: In Western cultures, girls are socialized to be more emotionally expressive than boys and are encouraged to seek emotional support during stressful situations. Conversely, boys are not encouraged to express emotions that will make them appear "weak" and are encouraged to deal with stress with goal-directed problem-solving. Cultural differences: In Western cultures, which tend to value individualism, emotional expression is more acceptable than in non-Western cultures, which value collectivism. Differences in the expression of emotion between women and men tend to be more pronounced in Western cultures, which stereotype women as "emotional" and men as "rational." This passage does not discuss how social learning overrides genetic predisposition starting around age 2-4, since the passage suggests that gender differences in emotion are the result of both biological and sociocultural factors. (Choice B) The fourth paragraph describes a study concluding that gender differences appear to emerge around age 2-4 and become more pronounced with age. In other words, gender differences in emotion may result from the lifelong process of socialization, which involves learning society's norms, values, and expected behaviors. (Choice C) The fourth paragraph describes how children learn gendered behavior through social learning, which is an example of social norms (cultural rules governing behavior) influencing the expression of emotion. (Choice D) The third paragraph describes differences in brain activity between males and females while experiencing different emotions. Therefore, this passage considers how gender differences in emotion may result from physiological differences between the brains of males and females. Concept: Gender differences in the expression and detection of emotion are thought to result from both biological and social factors. Biological factors such as genetics may result in men and women processing emotion differently. Social factors such as norms may result in women and men learning to express and interpret emotion differently.

Q18

In general, as a study becomes more tightly controlled and confounding variables are limited, internal validity tends to increase but external validity tends to decrease. Internal validity is mostly concerned with causality, or the extent to which changes in the dependent variable can be attributed to changes in the independent variable. The presence of confounding variables, which are additional variables that might influence results or outcomes, decreases internal validity by introducing the possibility that results are attributable to a confounding variable and not to the independent variable of interest. External validity is mostly concerned with generalizability, or the extent to which results can be applied to other situations (eg, outside the laboratory) or beyond the sample to the larger population. Allowing participants a single night's sleep at home introduces many variables not controlled by the study, such as time of sleep onset, quality of sleep, and duration of sleep. Standardizing the timing and duration of sleep by having participants sleep in a sleep lab creates an unnatural sleeping environment for the subjects. Therefore, the proposed follow-up study should demonstrate greater internal validity, because there should be fewer confounding variables, but less external validity, because the findings will be less applicable to a population with a more natural sleep experience. Educational objective: Internal validity measures the extent to which a causal relationship can be concluded from the study, and external validity measures the extent to which the study results can be generalized beyond the study. Typically, increases in internal validity result in decreases in external validity, and vice versa.

Q17

In order for the researchers to examine the role of sleep in memory consolidation, the best group to add to the current study design would be a group of non-lucid dreamers who practiced the task but did not sleep between the pretest and posttest ("waking practice/no sleep"). By comparing the results of the "waking practice/no sleep" group with those of the "waking practice" group, the researchers could examine if sleep was helpful for consolidating memory generated through task practice because the two groups differ by only one variable, the presence or absence of sleep. Educational objective: The hippocampus plays a critical role in the formation of new memories through the process of memory consolidation, which stabilizes a memory trace after its initial acquisition during waking consciousness. Sleep appears to play an important role in memory consolidation.

Major Theoretical approaches to sociology

In sociology, feminist theory attempts to explain differences in power between men and women in society, known as gender inequality. Feminist theory includes both macro- and micro-level approaches. At the macro level, feminist theory considers how social structures maintain gender inequality (eg, institutionalized gender discrimination results in the under-representation of women in surgery and engineering). At the micro level, feminist theory considers how one-on-one interactions also maintain gender inequality by objectifying or devaluing women (eg, when patients see a female surgeon in scrubs they assume she's a nurse rather than a doctor). Structural functionalism is a macro-level perspective positing that social structures (such as emotional norms) serve the function in society of maintaining balance or equilibrium. Structural functionalism (not feminist theory) would suggest that differences in the emotional expression of men and women maintain equilibrium in society. Concept: Feminist theory is a macro- and micro-level sociological perspective that attempts to explain the differences in power between men and women (gender inequality) that occur as a result of discriminatory and oppressive small-scale (one-on-one) interactions and large-scale social processes.

Q1

Instinctive drift is where you lose the learned behavior (even with reinforcement) over time in favor of innate behaviors For example, researchers used food rewards to train pigs to pick up wooden coins and deposit them in a piggy bank. Over time, even though the pigs could be successfully trained to complete the behavior, the pigs began dropping the coins before reaching the piggy bank and pushing them along the ground with their snouts, a species-specific behavior known as rooting. Educational objective: Instincts are innate, fixed behaviors. Instinctive drift describes an animal's reverting from a learned behavior to an innate behavior despite reinforcement. Instinctive drift often involves behaviors related to food or exploration.

learned helplessness

Learned helplessness describes feelings of powerlessness and loss of control, often occurring after a series of failures or trauma. Learned helplessness is tied to low self-efficacy (personal beliefs about one's abilities) and an external locus of control (personal beliefs about whether one can influence the outcome of a situation).

Q14

Long-term potentiation (LTP) describes an enduring increase in synaptic transmission of neurons, which is the neural foundation for learning and memory consolidation. When neurons are repeatedly stimulated, they demonstrate an increased firing rate, known as LTP. The increase in magnitude of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) in the postsynaptic neurons in the experimental condition (Figure 1) reflects LTP. LTP can also occur when two (or more) neurons repeatedly fire simultaneously. For example, if a neuron repeatedly receives simultaneous input from two sources, neuron A (visual input of flower) and neuron B (smell of flower), the combined inputs may become associated. If this occurs, either input A or input B will activate the postsynaptic neuron, but others, like input C (smell of an onion), will not. This is the neural foundation for how we learn associations. Educational objective: Long-term potentiation (LTP) describes the neural changes responsible for learning, memory, and associations. LTP occurs when a neuron's firing rate increases after repeated stimulation or simultaneous stimulation by multiple inputs (association). LTP results from an increase in neurotransmitter release and postsynaptic receptors.

Q15

Neuroplasticity refers to both increases in neuronal connections, known as potentiation, and decreases in neuronal responses, known as depression. Neuroplasticity is highest during early development but continues throughout our lifetime. Neuroplasticity can occur on the synaptic or structural level. Synaptic plasticity results from changes in the firing rate of the presynaptic neuron, which alters the amount of neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft and the number of receptors on the postsynaptic target. Synaptic changes are associated with both immediate and more delayed potentiation or depression. At the structural level, sprouting (increased connections between neurons), rerouting (new connections between neurons), and pruning (decreased connections between neurons) contribute to structural plasticity. Structural plasticity does not happen quickly, so it is not responsible for immediate changes Study 1 demonstrated long-term potentiation (LTP) within a relatively immediate time frame (90 minutes). Therefore, the neuroplasticity demonstrated by the postsynaptic neurons was due to synaptic plasticity. Educational objective: Neuroplasticity refers to physical changes that occur in the brain throughout a lifetime, including both increases (potentiation) and decreases (depression) in neuronal responses/connections. Neuroplasticity occurs through physical modifications at the synapses (immediate and delayed plasticity) and the structural level (delayed plasticity only).

Q7

Observational learning (also called modeling) describes when an individual learns how to perform a behavior by watching someone else perform that behavior. Watching and replicating movements, such as during the Corsi block-tapping task, is a form of observational learning, which is thought to utilize the mirror neuron system. Educational objective: Located in various areas of the brain, mirror neurons are specialized neurons that fire both while observing and performing a behavior. Mirror neurons are hypothesized to play a central role in observational learning.

Q15

One sleep cycle includes various proportions of REM and NREM sleep, each lasting about 90 minutes. There are approximately 4-6 sleep cycles in a typical night's sleep. The amount of time spent in each sleep stage differs over the course of a single night's sleep; a typical adult spends about 75% of sleep time in NREM sleep and 25% in REM sleep. The time spent in REM varies, increasing in duration for each subsequent sleep cycle, with the last cycle containing the most REM sleep.Studies suggest lucid dreaming occurs only during REM sleep. An individual sleeping from 10:00 PM to 6:00 AM would have the greatest chance of lucid dreaming during the last sleep cycle, from 4:00 AM to 6:00 AM, because the greatest proportion of REM sleep occurs just before waking. Educational objective: Dreaming, which occurs during both REM and NREM sleep, is more common, vivid, and easily recalled when it occurs during REM sleep. The duration of REM sleep is shortest earlier in the night and longest during the last sleep cycle, which occurs in the early morning hours.

Q13

Positive reinforcement increases/maintains behavior through the application of a desirable stimulus (ie, reinforcer). Primary reinforcers are naturally rewarding (eg, candy), whereas secondary reinforcers are conditioned to be desirable (eg, money). A token economy positively reinforces certain behaviors through the use of tokens, which are secondary reinforcers that can be exchanged for a desirable reward. For example, a teacher gives each child a gold star (ie, token) for completing homework, and 5 gold stars can be exchanged for candy. Educational objective: Primary reinforcers are naturally rewarding (eg, food), whereas secondary reinforcers are conditioned to be desirable (eg, money). A token economy uses tokens (eg, gold stars) as secondary reinforcers to encourage certain desired behaviors. Tokens can be exchanged for something the individual wants (eg, candy).

Q4

Q choices say positively reinforced which means you are adding something desirable to increase the behavior of smoking (so mild feelings of euphoria) and punished means to decrease the behavior (which isn't paired correctly with positive or negative so it would be negatively reinforced which means you are taking away something undesirable to reinforce behavior (removal of withdrawal symptoms) Educational objective: Reinforcement increases the likelihood of a behavior such as smoking. Positive reinforcement (eg, feelings of euphoria) occurs when a desirable stimulus increases the likelihood of a behavior, and negative reinforcement (eg, removal of withdrawal symptoms) occurs when the avoidance of a negative stimulus increases the likelihood of a behavior. Punishment decreases the likelihood that a behavior (eg, quitting) will occur again.

Q3

Q is asking which of the following would disprove the hypothesis that REM sleep is critical for memory consolidation (so which one proves its not critical for memory consolidation) (BATS Drink Blood) Beta waves (awake) Alpha waves (drowsy) Theta waves (stage 1) Spindles and K complexes (stage 2) Delta waves (stage 3 and 4) then back to Beta waves (rem and awake) Educational objective: REM sleep is characterized by rapid closed-eye movements, body paralysis, and brain activity resembling a waking state. Dreaming is most common during REM sleep but can occur in other stages as well. REM sleep deprivation for one night results in REM rebound (more REM sleep than usual the next night).

Q16

REM sleep aka (paradoxical sleep) Although the body is functionally paralyzed during REM sleep, the eye muscles are very active and cause the characteristic closed-eye movements (ie, rapid eye movements) from which this state derives its name. Therefore, researchers can track closed-eye movements to monitor a dream state. Physiological changes are also characteristic of REM sleep. Cardiovascular and respiratory activities become very regular and gradually decrease, along with temperature, during NREM sleep. During REM sleep, body temperature drops to its lowest point, while cardiovascular and respiratory activities become irregular and increase. Educational objective: During NREM sleep, cardiopulmonary activity becomes regular and decreases, along with body temperature. During REM sleep, cardiopulmonary activity becomes irregular and increases, while body temperature drops to its lowest point. REM sleep is also characterized by rapid closed-eye movements, muscle paralysis, and brain activity resembling a waking state.

Q18

Research suggests that humans have two major, long-term memory systems, referred to as explicit and implicit. Implicit memory does not require conscious thought. A type of implicit memory, procedural memory involves learning motor skills, such as riding a bicycle, playing an instrument, or tying shoes. In Study 2, the water maze is a spatial and motor task requiring information that is most analogous to what might be stored in implicit memory. Educational objective: Procedural memory, a type of implicit memory, is long-term memory for learned motor skills and is not consciously accessible. Explicit memory, or declarative memory, is long-term memory for facts (semantic) or personal events (episodic) and is consciously accessible.

Q19

Thalamus - the relay of sensory info to the cerebral cortex Frontal lobe - reasoning and problem solving, initiating voluntary motor movements Cerebellum - motor coordination by balancing excitatory and inhibitory neural impulses so movement is smooth and precise rather than jerky Parietal - processes spatial information (proprioception) and is responsible for cognitive mapping Educational objective: The cerebellum is central to motor learning, maintaining balance and posture, coordinating complex movements, and controlling precision of fine motor movements. The cerebellum does not initiate voluntary movement, which occurs in the primary motor cortex of the frontal lobe; however, the cerebellum is critical for most other aspects of motor planning and execution.

Q29

The James-Lange theory of emotion (second paragraph) suggests that specific physiological reactions produce specific emotions. For example, if experiencing increased heart rate and sweating, one will experience fear. Therefore, the hypothalamus is most critical to the experience of emotion according to the James-Lange theory. The hypothalamus regulates the pituitary gland and the autonomic nervous system. It controls the release of hormones that maintain homeostatic functions (parasympathetic "rest-and-digest" response) or prepare the body to respond to a stressor (sympathetic "fight-or-flight" response). The hypothalamus is responsible primarily for the physiological component of emotion, such as changes in heart or respiration rate. Concept: The limbic system comprises the amygdala, hippocampus, hypothalamus, and cingulate gyrus and is responsible for emotion, learning, and memory. The hypothalamus influences the physiological component of emotion by regulating the pituitary gland and the autonomic nervous system.

Theories of Emotion

The James-Lange theory proposes that physiological reactions produce emotion. The Schachter-Singer theory proposes that both a physiological response and cognitive interpretation are required for emotion. The Cannon-Bard theory proposes that physiological and emotional reactions occur independently and simultaneously.

Q17

The James-Lange theory says that physiological arousal occurs before the emotion. The physiological rxns occur and are transmitted as sensory information to the brain via the spinal cord. Spinal cord white matter is composed of afferent (ascending) axonal tracts that carry sensory information from the body to the brain and efferent (descending) axonal tracts that carry motor commands from the brain to the body. Individuals with cervical spinal cord injury (SCI) do not receive sensory information from the body. According to the James-Lange theory, such individuals are unable to experience emotion bc sensory information (eg, increased heart rate) from the body cannot reach the brain; as such, this would predict that only control participants in the present scenario would be able to experience emotion. Therefore, a finding that there is no significant difference between the emotional responses of controls and those with complete SCI contradicts the James-Lange theory by showing that controls and affected individuals display similar emotion. My ans is wrong bc this study did not assess teh emotional rxn of participants from diverse cultural backgrounds so doesnt work. concept: The James-Lange theory suggests that specific emotions result from stimuli eliciting specific physiological reactions, which are transmitted to the brain via the spinal cord white matter (afferent axonal tracts, which carry sensory information from the body to the brain).

Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

The Maslow hierarchy of needs proposes that basic needs (physiological and safety) must be met before psychological needs (love and belonging, esteem) can be attained. All lower needs must be addressed before one can reach the pinnacle of the hierarchy: self-actualization.

Yerkes-Dodson Law

The Yerkes-Dodson law suggests that there is an optimal level of physiological or mental arousal at which performance is maximized; performance will decline with too little or too much arousal. For example, athletes tend to perform best when nervous but not too nervous.

Q24

The concept of the critical period does not help explain the differences between the age groups in this study because the children were age 12 or younger, so they were all likely still within the critical period of language development. Educational objective: The nativist theory of language development asserts that humans are biologically programmed to acquire language if exposed to it during a critical (time-sensitive) period in early life.

Q35

The expectancy theory of motivation proposes that individuals are motivated to act based on the expected outcomes of their behavior. According to this theory, motivation involves expectancy, instrumentality, and valence: Expectancy is the belief that one will be able to achieve the desired outcome. Asking participants to rate how successful they think they will be at losing weight is a measure of expectancy. Instrumentality is the belief that one has control over the desired outcome. Asking participants to rate how much control they believe they have over their success is a measure of instrumentality. Valence involves the value placed on the desired outcome. If the researchers also asked participants to rate how much they wanted to lose weight, this would be a measure of valence. Concept: The expectancy theory of motivation proposes that motivation results from expectancy (believing one is capable of achieving an outcome), instrumentality (believing one has control over the outcome), and valence (believing the outcome is desirable).

General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)

The general adaptation syndrome (GAS), proposed by Hans Selye, is a model describing how the body reacts to stress. 1) The alarm stage occurs during the first few minutes of the stress response, in which the sympathetic nervous system prepares the body to act (ie, fight-or-flight response). 2) The resistance stage can last for hours (eg, exercise), days (eg, final exams), or months (eg, preparing for the MCAT). During this stage, the body attempts to resist the stressor and establish a new equilibrium. 3) The exhaustion stage occurs when prolonged stress produces arousal with depleted energy, making the body more vulnerable to negative health effects (eg, depression, hypertension). concept: According to the general adaptation syndrome, the body's response to stress involves an alarm stage (initial fight-or-flight response), resistance stage (increased resistance to stress), and exhaustion stage (eventual decreased resistance to stress) that may lead to the development of mental and physical health issues. Although most stressors elicit similar physiologic stress response course over time, not all individuals experience negative mental outcomes.

Q22

The hippocampus, amygdala, and prefrontal cortex (anterior portion of the frontal lobe) are sensitive to stress hormones and demonstrate structural changes in response to chronic stress, such as what might be experienced with PTSD. (Number I) Prefrontal cortex: Chronic stress has been shown to decrease dendritic branching in areas associated with cognitive flexibility, resulting in reduced coping mechanisms. It also increases dendritic branching in areas associated with hypervigilance. (Number II) Hippocampus: Chronic stress has been shown to increase inflammation while decreasing dendritic branching and volume in the hippocampus. These physiological changes may inhibit learning and memory and produce emotional changes, such as anhedonia (decreased ability to experience pleasure). (Number III) Amygdala: Chronic stress changes the growth of dendritic spines and alters the excitability of neurons in the amygdala, leading to more anger, fear, and anxiety. concept: The hippocampus, amygdala, and prefrontal cortex demonstrate structural changes in response to chronic stress. Atrophy of the hippocampus inhibits learning and changes emotional responses. Changes in the dendrites of the amygdala are associated with increased anger, fear, and anxiety. Hypervigilance and poor coping skills are linked to changes in the dendritic branching of the prefrontal cortex.

Q22

The hypothalamus has several nuclei (collections of neuronal cell bodies) that have specialized functions; one of these nuclei is the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), which regulates the circadian pacemaker that controls circadian rhythms. Photoreceptors in the retina project information about light levels to the SCN. When light levels are high, the SCN downregulates melatonin production by the pineal gland. When light levels are low, the SCN upregulates melatonin production by the pineal gland. Light levels regulate SCN activity, which regulates melatonin release and establishes an internal circadian clock. This clock mechanism helps maintain sleep patterns and other 24-hour circadian cycles, such as those involving blood pressure and core body temperature changes. Educational objective: Light levels impact neurons in the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus, which regulates melatonin release that establishes the body's 24-hour cycle (circadian clock).

Q11

The reason I got this Q wrong is bc I thought that if a word was flashed in the patient's RVF and he could vocalize what he saw, then the patients corpus callosum wasn't damaged cuz it crossed hemispheres. But that's not the way to think about this, cuz if something is flashed in LVF he can draw it but can't say what he saw bc VF immediately is processed in the contralateral hemisphere so that's why he can draw it with rt hand cuz contralateral but he can't vocalize cuz thats in the left hemisphere which means its going from LVF-->RH--xLH so thats why corpus callosum is damaged Educational objective: The corpus callosum allows communication between the right and left hemispheres of the brain, which are specialized for certain functions (cortical lateralization). Each hemisphere contralaterally controls the opposite side of the body. Language centers are located in the left hemisphere.

Q6

The right hemisphere is crucial for processing visuospatial patterns, such as those required for the Corsi block-tapping task; deficits in visuospatial processing are often indicative of damage to the right hemisphere. In addition to visuospatial processing, the right hemisphere is important for artistic and musical abilities, visualization, and emotion. Educational objective: Hemispheric lateralization is the specialization of each brain hemisphere for certain cognitive functions. The right hemisphere is specialized for visuospatial, emotional, and artistic/musical processing. The left hemisphere is specialized for linguistic and analytical processing.

Q9

The stress ("fight-or-flight") response is the body's physiological reaction to perceived threats. Once something is perceived as a threat, the amygdala alerts the hypothalamus and pituitary gland to stimulate the sympathetic nervous system via the adrenal glands. The adrenal glands release a cascade of stress hormones that includes cortisol, epinephrine (adrenaline), and norepinephrine (noradrenaline). These hormones prepare the body for action by increasing cardiac and respiratory activity, mobilizing energy stores, and modifying immune, inflammatory, and metabolic responses. Cortisol is a steroid hormone released by the cortex (outer layer) of the adrenal gland. This hormone helps regulate metabolism, blood pressure, and immune responses. Extended periods of high cortisol exposure can have negative health consequences including weight gain (especially abdominal fat), prolonged wound healing, increased susceptibility to infectious disease, and sleep and memory problems. During meditation, a decrease in cortisol indicates a decrease in stress, suggesting that meditation may eliminate this driver of smoking behavior and therefore help with abstinence. Educational objective: Cortisol is a steroid hormone released by the adrenal glands that plays a role in the stress response. Chronic exposure to high levels of cortisol can negatively affect body weight and immune functioning.

Q34

The term attitude refers to a person's evaluation or disposition toward something (eg, a person, an object, an event). Attitudes can be positive, negative, or neutral and can change over time. Psychologists have identified three components of attitudes: The affective component relates to how a person feels about something, including positive or negative evaluations or emotions (eg, anger, excitement). For example, a person might have strong negative feelings about a political candidate, causing her to favor that candidate's opponent. The cognitive component relates to a person's beliefs and opinions about something. For example, a person might believe that a particular candidate has characteristics or experiences that make that candidate well suited to hold office. The behavioral component relates to how a person acts toward something. In the above examples, voting for or against a candidate reflects the behavioral component of attitude. The study procedure requiring the fantasy/reality contrast condition and the positive fantasy condition to fantasize about the positive aspects of losing weight is most likely attempting to evoke the affective component of attitude because positive fantasies will likely generate positive emotions in the participants. Concept: Psychologists outline three components of attitude: affective (feelings), cognitive (thoughts, beliefs, opinions), and behavioral (actions). Attitudes can be positive, negative, or neutral and can change over time.

Q43

The three components of emotion are cognitive, behavioral, and physiological. The cognitive component includes all the mental processes that accompany the emotion, such as corresponding thoughts, motivations, beliefs, expectations, and an evaluation of the context/situation. The behavioral component of emotion is described as the immediate outward reaction that occurs in response to an emotion. These responses are typically involuntary and automatic (eg, smiling, gasping). The physiological component of emotion includes all the bodily processes that accompany the emotion (eg, changes in heart rate, respiration rate, sweating) In Task 1 of the study, participants watched videos of individuals describing personal events (both negative and positive) and then rated their reactions on a scale of 1 (no emotional reaction) to 10 (extreme emotional reaction). The videos were designed to evoke the cognitive component of emotion because they required the viewers to think about the events being described and likely also involved their expectations and beliefs. (Choice A) Rating an emotional reaction on a Likert scale is a voluntary and purposeful action. Therefore, this study procedure was not designed to evoke the behavioral component of emotion, which involves largely involuntary and automatic responses, such as gasping in surprise. (Choice C) Performing tasks while in an fMRI machine is a study procedure used to measure brain activity during the tasks, not a method employed to evoke any particular component of emotion. Furthermore, because the fMRI is used as a measurement tool, any emotion it may evoke in participants would be undesirable, as this could compromise or confound the results. (Choice D) Task 2 required participants to press a button with each heartbeat. This task was not designed to involve any emotion whatsoever but to evoke interoception (physiological awareness). concept: The three components of emotion are cognitive, behavioral, and physiological. The cognitive component includes all the mental processes that accompany emotion (eg, motivations, beliefs, expectations). The behavioral component includes immediate outward reactions (eg, gasping), and the physiological component includes bodily reactions (eg, increased heart rate).

Q2

There are several language development theories; some stress the importance of reinforcement and imitation (eg, learning perspective), whereas others suggest that language acquisition is innate (eg, nativist perspective). The interactionist theory proposes that language acquisition is the result of both biological (eg, normal brain development) and environmental/social factors, particularly the interaction that occurs between children and their caregivers. Educational objective: The interactionist theory of language development suggests that language is acquired through a process that is both social and biological. Children require interaction with caregivers early in life to learn language (social), but they are also predisposed to learn language in a way that is different from how they learn all other skills (biological).

Q9

This study produced two statistically significant findings: (1) the AD and the KS groups were significantly impaired on the delayed memory task compared to controls (between-groups finding), and (2) all subjects showed a significantly greater mean number of errors as the delay interval increased (within-groups finding). Graphically, CIs may help determine statistical significance: Whenever CIs do not overlap, group means are statistically significantly different. However, the opposite is not always true; whenever CIs overlap, group means may or may not be statistically different. (Choice D) is not correct bc every CI for the control group at each delayed condition included the initial time point (ie, 0 seconds) mean score, suggesting that performance for controls remained unchanged. This representation contradicts the finding that all subjects showed a statistically significant greater mean number of errors as the delay interval increased. Educational objective: Between-groups factors compare two or more groups to determine whether there is a difference between group outcome means. Within-groups factors (repeated measures) compare the outcomes for the same group at different times to determine whether there is a change in the outcome. Confidence intervals (CIs) graphically convey the uncertainty of statistics (eg, mean); if CIs do not overlap, the two means are statistically significantly different; however, the opposite is not always true.

Q4

Way to reinforce the behavior is not through fixed interval schedule. Rewarding the mouse after some amount of time has passed is a fixed (ie, consistent) interval (ie, time-based) reinforcement schedule. A fixed interval reinforcement schedule is not an optimal way to train an animal to perform a new behavior because it is more difficult for the animal to associate the desired behavior with the reward. Educational objective: A continuous reinforcement schedule, which provides a reward after every desired behavior, is most effective for training an animal to perform a new behavior. Shaping (ie, rewarding successive approximations of the desired behavior) is often needed initially. Depriving the animal of the reward (eg, food) prior to training heightens its motivation, making training easier.

Q3

flashbulb memory is vivid, detailed bc its emotional or important or personal to an individual but they have questionable accuracy. Once thought to be extremely accurate snapshots (hence the term "flashbulb") of emotionally arousing events, studies suggest that flashbulb memories may be less accurate/consistent than individuals believe. People tend to be extremely confident of their recollections, even though their flashbulb memories are not 100% accurate or consistent over time. Educational objective: Flashbulb memories are vivid, detailed autobiographical memories of an event that was extremely emotional or distinct or personally significant. Flashbulb memories may be best defined by the degree to which individuals feel confident about their recollections, even when the recollections are not completely accurate or consistent over time.

Q3

got it correct but wanted a refresher on the major defense mechanisms concept: In psychoanalytic theory, defense mechanisms are the largely unconscious means by which reality is altered (eg, distorted, ignored) to relieve anxiety or stress.

Q2

grouping ppl based on the color of their outfits is best attributed to gestalts principle of similarity Similarity is the Gestalt principle that refers to our tendency to group together objects that share similar features (eg, shape, color). In this study, participants group physicians in a photograph by shared visual characteristics (clothing color), which is best attributed to the Gestalt principle of similarity. Common fate is the Gestalt principle that describes our perception that things moving together are grouped together (eg, a flock of birds flying in V-formation is perceived as a unit). The finding does not describe grouping the physicians by the direction they appear to be moving. Proximity is the Gestalt principle that describes our tendency to perceive things that are physically closer to one another as a group (eg, letters that are closer together are grouped as a word). The finding does not describe grouping the physicians based on their physical closeness. Continuity is the Gestalt principle that describes our tendency to perceive elements as continuing on a smooth path (eg, "X" is perceived as two crossing lines, rather than two "V" shapes touching). The finding does not describe perceiving the physicians as being on a continuous path (eg, standing in a curving line). Educational objective: The Gestalt principles of perceptual organization describe how humans holistically perceive sensory stimuli. One example is the similarity principle, in which things that share similar characteristics (eg, shape, color) tend to be grouped together.

Q13

schizophrenia has positive and negative symptoms: positive means additional symptom - something that wouldn't usually be there in a healthy person negative means lacking symptom - something that isn't there in a healthy person Schizophrenia is often treated with neuroleptic (conventional, typical, or first-generation) or atypical (second-generation) antipsychotic medication; both are generally effective in reducing positive symptoms. However, neuroleptics may exacerbate (worsen) negative symptoms through sedation or cognitive dulling, and they carry the risk of movement (eg, tremors) and other side effects. Atypical antipsychotics pose less risk of many of these side effects and in some cases may improve negative symptoms. A neuroleptic medication would be most likely to effectively treat (improve) disorganized speech, which is a positive symptom of schizophrenia. Educational objective: Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder characterized by positive symptoms (ie, hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech) and negative symptoms (eg, apathy, emotional flattening). Schizophrenia is often treated with either neuroleptic or atypical antipsychotics; both are generally effective in reducing positive symptoms, but neuroleptics have a greater risk of side effects (eg, sedation, psychomotor disturbances).

Q11

source monitoring error is when you mistake the initial source that gave you the piece of information. Thinking a doctor gave you the info on a pill when it was actually a TV commercial Educational objective: Memories are reconstructed each time they are recalled, leading to common memory errors. Source monitoring errors occur when a memory is attributed to the wrong source (eg, information from a television commercial is attributed to one's physician).

Personality disorders

A = weird personality traits - Paranoid (distrust, suspicion) - schizoid (detached) - schizotypical (magic/ghosts) B = wild personality traits - Antisocial (inconsiderate... makes sense if you think of an attention grabber with a big ego) - Borderline (neurotic/unstable) - Histrionic (attention grabber) - Narcissistic (big ego) C = worried traits - Anxious - Dependent (anxiety --> safety behaviours (maladaptive coping strategy, but latch on to a person) - OCPD (if your in control, avoid anxiety... like sensitization/rehearsal)

drive-reduction theory

According to drive-reduction theory, motivation is the result of a disruption in homeostasis, which produces a physiological need (eg, hunger), which leads to a drive (eg, desire to eat). Homeostasis is reestablished once the drive is reduced.

Q15

According to psychoanalytic theory (most associated with Sigmund Freud), personality results from the interaction between the id, ego, and superego. The id is selfish, compelling us to seek pleasure and avoid pain. The ego is realistic, compelling us to behave in ways that are socially acceptable, and acts as a mediator between the id and superego. The superego is moralistic and idealistic, compelling us toward perfection. According to psychoanalytic theory, personality change is possible when a person has a strong ego that can successfully mediate between one's impulsive, pleasure-seeking id and the goals of the idealistic superego. (Choice A) Defense mechanisms are unconscious strategies used by the ego when it is overwhelmed or otherwise weaker than the id. Defense mechanisms help alleviate anxiety or other suffering. The superego does not engage in defense mechanisms. (Choice B) During personality change, the ego (not the id) addresses the reality principle. (Choice D) The id is always chaotic and irrational. The ego's responsibility is to negotiate the impulses of the id with rational and goal-directed behavior. concept: Psychoanalytic theory proposes that personality is composed of the id (pleasure principle), the ego (reality principle), and the superego (morality/perfection principle). The rational ego functions to mediate between external reality and the unconscious self, negotiating the desires of the primitive, impulsive id and the moralistic superego.

Q20

As age increases, average comprehension test scores increase (Figure 1A) and average brain volume activity also increases (Figure 1B); therefore, the correlation coefficients for both graphs would be positive. Although both brain volume activation and language comprehension are positively correlated with age, their association with each other was not actually reported, so inferences about the relationship between brain volume activity and comprehension cannot be made. Educational objective: The correlation coefficient (r) describes a linear relationship between two variables. The r-value ranges from −1 to 1 and reflects the strength and direction (positive or negative) of the linear association between these two variables. Correlation does not imply causation.

Q7

At baseline, a strong positive correlation exists between craving and smoking (r = 0.72), and the relationship is statistically significant (p = 0.0013). After the MT intervention, the correlation is very weak (r = 0.13) and not statistically significant (p = 0.4611). Therefore, there is a weaker relationship between craving and smoking at the end of treatment. Educational objective: The correlation coefficient r measures the strength of a linear relationship between two variables. Correlations can be positive or negative, and the strength of a correlation increases as the absolute value of r approaches 1. Correlation does not imply causation.

Q4

Correct but had to realize that fabricating memory loss in order to gain sympathy from others is called factitious disorder and its a somatic symptom and related disorder (SSD). It involves falsifying physical or psychological symptoms without obvious external gain (eg, disability benefits). concept: Dissociative disorders are characterized by disruptions to memory and identity. Dissociative amnesia involves the inability to recall important autobiographical information (eg, personal history, traumatic event). Dissociative identity disorder is characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personalities and amnesia.

Q2

Did not know that SSD is due to concern over ACTUAL physical symptoms. GAD is not correct bc its characterized by excessive and uncontrollable worry about a range of topics like health, career, relationships, finances. They can have health-concerns too but it is not their primary focus of worry as it is for SSD. concept: Somatic symptom disorder (SSD) is characterized by extreme distress and concern regarding one or more actual bodily/physical symptoms (eg, fatigue, pain).

Q27

Did not know the difference bw panic disorder and GAD. GAD is anxiety over a range of events. Panic disorder is an anxiety disorder characterized by repeated, uncontrollable, and unpredictable panic attacks, which are overwhelming surges of anxiety that peak within minutes. Repeated surges of overwhelming anxiety with racing heart, difficulty breathing, sweating, and a fear of losing one's mind are most consistent with a diagnosis of panic disorder, not GAD. concept: Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is an anxiety disorder characterized by excessive and uncontrollable worry about a range of events. People with GAD may experience muscle tension; difficulty concentrating or sleeping; and restlessness, fatigue, or irritability.

Q25

Did not read or forgot about the word EXCEPT in the Qstem Concept: Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that contradictory or incompatible beliefs, attitudes, or behaviors cause a state of mental discomfort (cognitive dissonance) that results in motivation to reduce the conflict by aligning thoughts and/or behaviors.

Q8

During the Corsi block-tapping task, the experimenter touches a sequence of blocks. The subject must then recall the exact sequence performed by the experimenter, after either no delay or a short (5-25 second) delay, during which the subject performs a distractor task. In other words, the subject must hold the information in short-term memory, which has a duration of 15-30 seconds. Therefore, the Corsi block-tapping task is a measure of visuospatial short-term memory. Exposure to a distraction can interfere with the ability to accurately retrieve a memory or learn new information. Retroactive interference occurs when more recently learned information interferes with the learning of older information. In this study, the distractor task retroactively interfered with subjects' ability to remember the Corsi block sequence. Educational objective: Proactive interference occurs when previously learned information interferes with the learning of new information. Retroactive interference occurs when more recent information interferes with the recall of previously learned information.

Q10

Graph shows that as drug dose increases parkinson like symptom severity also increases. Parkinson's is caused by a loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra (structure in the basal ganglia that inhibits excess movement). A dopamine deficit in the basal ganglia causes motor symptoms such as resting tremors (eg. shaky hands), muscle rigidity, and shuffling gait. so we need something that will be cause a decrease in dopamine so a dopamine antagonist is the answer. Educational objective: Dopamine is a neurotransmitter involved in movement, reward, pleasure, motivation, and emotion regulation. The loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra associated with Parkinson disease causes motor symptoms such as resting tremors (eg, shaky hands), muscle rigidity, and shuffling gait.

Q21

Individuals with the "short sleeper" phenotype require less than 6 hours of sleep daily on average and appear to be able to regularly sleep less than 7 hours without negative consequences. Because "short sleepers" do not experience distress or impaired functioning, they should not be diagnosed with a sleep-wake disorder. Educational objective: Sleep-wake disorders cause disturbed sleep, distress, and impaired functioning. Parasomnias are characterized by abnormal nervous system function during sleep and are more prevalent during childhood. Dyssomnias interfere with the quality or timing of sleep and are more prevalent in adulthood.

kohlberg's stages

Kohlberg's theory focuses on progression of basic moral reasoning (childhood) to more abstract moral reasoning (adulthood); during the instrumental relativist orientation stage, behavior is guided by self-interest. Although age ranges were not specified in this theory, this stage is typical of preschool age through adolescence.

Neuroticism

Neuroticism, or emotional instability, is one of the "big five" personality traits. Neuroticism is characterized by a tendency to experience or express negative emotions (anxiety, anger, fear, sadness). Individuals who score high on this personality factor tend to find common challenges (eg, getting a flat tire) hopelessly difficult and are more easily agitated by stressors

Neuroimaging methods

Structure+Function: fMRI PET Structure: MRI CT Function: EEG MEG concept: Functional magnetic resonance imaging is a neuroimaging tool that measures the difference in blood oxygenation between a resting condition and an active condition. It provides an indirect measure of brain activity associated with the experimental conditions.

Hawthorne effect

The Hawthorne effect describes experimental subjects modifying their behavior or responses because they know they are being observed.

Null Hypothesis (H0) vs Alternative Hypothesis (HA)

The null hypothesis (H0) states that there is no difference between 2 groups. In contrast, the alternative hypothesis (HA) rivals the null by claiming that a difference does exist. Rejecting a true null hypothesis (type I error) leads to the incorrect conclusion that there is a difference between groups (false positive).

Q14

The prefrontal cortex is associated with executive functions, such as critical thinking, problem-solving, planning, impulse control, and executive decision-making. Because lucid dreaming involves critical analysis and executive decision making, a neuroimaging study would be expected to demonstrate greater activation of the prefrontal cortex during lucid dreaming as compared with normal dreaming. The prefrontal cortex is the anterior portion of the frontal lobe, which also contains the primary motor cortex (responsible for the initiation of voluntary movement) and Broca area (involved in speech production). Educational objective: The prefrontal cortex is involved in executive decision making and critical analysis. It is located in the frontal lobe, which also contains the primary motor cortex.

Q22

Universalism, the belief that cognition controls language, posits that certain cognitive processes are universal, so all human languages also possess certain universals (eg, nouns). Therefore, a universalist would interpret Figure 1B as support for the belief that cognition is required for language development. Educational objective: There are several theories regarding the relationship between cognition and language. Some assert that cognition either controls language (universalism) or merely influences it (Piagetism). Others (based on the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis) assert that language either controls cognition (linguistic determinism) or merely influences it (linguistic relativity). Still others suggest that cognition and language initially develop separately but merge later (Vygotsky).

Q1

alcohol is a depressant and benzodiazepenes are also depressants. Hallucinogens - own class of drugs but triggers mild-altering effects cocaine and amphetamines - stimulants, elevates mood Educational objective: Stimulants (eg, cocaine, amphetamines) increase feelings of well-being, energy, and alertness; depressants (eg, alcohol, benzodiazepines, barbiturates) slow down or inhibit the central nervous system and reduce anxiety; narcotics (generally opiates) are analgesics ("painkillers"); and hallucinogens have powerful mind-altering effects.

Types of stressors

concept: Stressors are threatening, demanding stimuli that disturb equilibrium. Daily hassles are minor irritations affecting few people. Personal life events are major milestones affecting few people. Environmental (ambient) stressors are minor irritations affecting large numbers of people, and catastrophes are major events affecting many people.

Q21

concept: Trauma-related disorders (eg, PTSD) are caused by exposure to traumatic events and are characterized by intrusive symptoms, avoidance behaviors, negative thoughts/mood, and physiological arousal. Anxiety disorders (eg, GAD, phobias) are characterized by excessive, uncontrollable fear (perceived imminent threat) or worry (perceived future threat).

Thomas Theorem

the Thomas theorem predicts that an individual's response or reaction to a situation is the result of her interpretation of the situation. In other words, our actions are based on our perception of reality.