QT 4

A child returns to the recovery room after a bronchoscopy. The nurse should position the client in which of the following positions? 1. Semi-Fowler's position. 2. Prone with the head turned to the side. 3. Head of the bed elevated 45° with the neck extended. 4. Supine with the head in the midline position.

1

A client at 32 weeks' gestation is seen in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following findings, if assessed by the nurse, indicates a possible complication? 1. The client's urine test is positive for glucose and acetone. 2. The client has 1+ pedal edema in both feet at the end of the day. 3. The client complains of an increase in vaginal discharge. 4. The client says that she feels pressure against her diaphragm when the baby moves.

1

A patient is returned to the room after a subtotal thyroidectomy for treatment of hyperthyroidism. Which of the following, if found by the nurse at the patient's bedside, is nonessential? 1. Potassium chloride for IV administration. 2. Calcium gluconate for IV administration. 3. Tracheostomy setup. 4. Suction equipment.

1

An extremely agitated client receives haloperidol (Haldol) IM every 30 minutes while in the psychiatric emergency room. It is MOST important for the nurse to take which of the following actions? 1. Monitor blood pressure every 30 minutes. 2. Remain at the client's side to provide reassurance. 3. Tell the client the name of the medication and its effects. 4. Assess for anticholinergic effects of the medication.

1

The newborn infant of an HIV-positive mother is admitted to the nursery. The nurse should include which of the following in the plan of care? 1. Standard precautions. 2. Testing for HIV. 3. Transfer to an acute care nursery facility. 4. Place the infant in isolation.

1

The nurse cares for a patient following an appendectomy. The patient takes a deep breath, coughs, and then winces in pain. Which of the following statements, if made by the nurse to the patient, is BEST? 1. "Take three deep breaths, hold your incision, and then cough." 2. "That was good. Do that again and soon it won't hurt as much." 3. "It won't hurt as much if you hold your incision when you cough." 4. "Take another deep breath, hold it, and then cough deeply."

1

The nurse cares for a postcholecystectomy client who had the T-tube removed this morning. Two hours after removal of the T-tube, the nurse notes that the 4 × 4 dressing covering the stab site is saturated with dark, greenish-yellow drainage. It is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take which of the following actions? 1. Remove the dressing, and replace it with a more absorbent dressing. 2. Collect a culture and sensitivity specimen of the drainage. 3. Observe the wound for dehiscence. 4. Reinforce the dressing with an 8 × 10 dressing.

1

The nurse cares for a young adult admitted to the hospital with a severe head injury. The nurse should position the patient in which of the following positions? 1. With the client's neck in a midline position and the head of the bed elevated 30°. 2. Side-lying with the client's head extended and the bed flat. 3. In high Fowler's position with the client's head maintained in a neutral position. 4. In semi-Fowler's position with the client's head turned to the side.

1

The nurse cares for patient placed in balanced suspension traction with a Thomas splint and Pearson attachment because of a fractured right femur. The nurse notes that the patient's left leg is externally rotated. The nurse should take which of the following actions? 1. Place a trochanter roll on the outer aspect of the thigh. 2. Perform resistive range of motion of the left leg. 3. Adduct and internally rotate the left leg. 4. Instruct the patient to maintain the left leg in a neutral position.

1

The nurse performs an assessment of an 8-year-old girl diagnosed with scoliosis. Which of the following observations is expected with scoliosis? 1. The girl's thoracic area is asymmetrical. 2. The girl walks with a waddling gait. 3. The girl's lower legs are edematous. 4. The girl has a protruding sternum.

1

The visiting nurse instructs a client how to use esophageal speech following a total laryngectomy. Which of the following actions, if performed by the client, indicates teaching is effective? 1. The client swallows air and then eructates it while forming words with his mouth. 2. The client places a battery-powered device against the side of his neck. 3. The client places a finger over the tracheostomy, forcing air up through the vocal cords. 4. The client covers the stoma in the tracheoesophageal fistula and moves his lips.

1

When administering antipsychotic medications parenterally, which action should the nurse take FIRST? 1. Monitor the client's blood pressure while the client is sitting and standing before and after each dose is given. 2. Caution the client not to drink or operate machinery that requires mental alertness for safety until effect of medication is known. 3. Have an emergency cart available in case of an adverse reaction. 4. Reassure the client that side effects are only temporary.

1

Which of the following assessment findings indicates to the nurse the need for more sedation for a client withdrawing from alcohol dependence? 1. Steadily increasing vital signs. 2. Mild tremors and irritability. 3. Decreased respirations and disorientation. 4. Stomach distress and inability to sleep.

1

Which of the following statements should the nurse make to a client who is going to self-administer continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) at home? 1. "Check your weight daily." 2. "Maintain clean technique at all times during the procedure." 3. "Milk the catheter to encourage extra fluid to be removed from the abdomen." 4. "Eat a well-balanced, low-protein diet."

1

Which of the following symptoms are MOST likely to be observed by the nurse when a client is withdrawing from cocaine 1. Severe cravings, depression, fatigue, hypersomnia. 2. Depression, disturbed sleep, restlessness, disorientation. 3. Nausea and vomiting, tachycardia, coarse tremors, seizures. 4. Runny nose, yawning, fever, muscle and joint pain, diarrhea

1

The nurse cares for a 26-year-old woman immediately after delivery of 8-lb, 4-oz baby girl. The patient's history indicates that she was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes at age 12. The nurse expects which of the following changes to occur in the patient? 1. The blood sugar will fall because of a sudden decrease in insulin requirements. 2. The blood sugar will rise because of a rapid decrease in circulating insulin. 3. The blood sugar will gradually rise because of a decreased level of metabolic stress. 4. The blood sugar will gradually fall because of a decrease in food intake.

1 1) correct—hormonal interference in glucose metabolism during pregnancy causes insulin requirements to increase then decrease after delivery (2) blood sugar will fall after delivery (3) blood sugar level will fall after delivery (4) fall in blood sugar not primarily caused by decrease in food intake

The nurse cares for a client with type 1 diabetes. The client receives nasal oxygen at 4 L/min. The student nurse reports that the client has pulled out the nasogastric tube and is picking at the bed covers. The client's BP is 150/90 and pulse is 90. Which of the following actions by the nurse is MOST appropriate? 1. Obtain a pulse oximetry reading. 2. Apply soft wrist restraints. 3. Reorient the client to person and place. 4. Determine the client's blood glucose level.

1 Low o2 sx/s

The nurse administers terbutaline (Brethine) to a client in labor. Prior to administration of the medication, the nurse assesses the client's pulse to be 144. Which of the following actions should the nurse take FIRST? 1. Withhold the medication. 2. Decrease the dose by half. 3. Administer the medication. 4. Wait 15 minutes, and then recheck the rate.

1 Steroid used as an inhaler BUT also given for preterm labor for up to 48 hours. Given to develop lungs of baby

A woman at 38 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency room with complaints of vaginal bleeding. Which of the following statements, if made by the client, suggests to the nurse placenta previa as the cause of the bleeding? 1. "I feel fine, but the bleeding scares me." 2. "I've been more nauseated during the past few weeks." 3. "The bleeding started after I carried four bags of groceries." 4. "I've been having severe abdominal cramps."

1 placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding

The nurse supervises the staff providing care for an 18-month-old hospitalized with hepatitis A. The nurse determines that the staff's care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? 1. The child is placed in a private room. 2. The staff removes a toy from the child's bed and takes it to the nurse's station. 3. The staff offers the child french fries and a vanilla milkshake for a midafternoon snack. 4. The staff uses standard precautions.

1 contact precautions for diapered or incontinent client

A client at the health clinic asks the nurse if a "flu shot" should be obtained. Which health history factors are reasons for the client to receive the influenza vaccine? Select all that apply. 1. The client is 69 years old. 2. The client plays poker with a group every week. 3. The client volunteers at a preschool. 4. The client lives with two large dogs. 5. The client and sibling share an apartment. 6. The client had bronchitis twice last year.

1.2.3.6

The client returns to the room following a myelogram. The nursing care plan includes which interventions? Select all that apply. 1. Encourage oral fluid intake. 2. Maintain the prone position for 12 hours. 3. Lie flat for several hours. 4. Monitor vital and neurological signs. 5. Encourage the client to ambulate after the procedure. 6. Evaluate the client's distal pulses on the affected side.

1.3.4

The client is admitted with a diagnosis of subdural hematoma and cerebral edema after a motorcycle accident. Which symptoms should the nurse expect to see initially? Select all that apply. 1. Decreasing level of consciousness. 2. Fine tremors of the extremities. 3. Decerebrate posturing. 4. Ipsilateral pupil dilation. 5. Headache. 6. Tonic/Clonic seizures.

1.4.5

A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) is at 39 weeks' gestation. The client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. The client's vital signs are BP 127/72; pulse 72 bpm; cervix is 4 cm dilated; FHT 124 bpm; moderate contractions are 4 minutes apart. The nurse should anticipate the need for which of the following? 1. Prepare to administer IV Pitocin to the client. 2. A reduction in the amount of pain medication administered. 3. Check the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes. 4. Prepare an isolette for the infant.

2

A 4-month-old infant is admitted to the pediatric intensive care unit with a temperature of 105°F (40.5°C). The infant is irritable, and the nurse observes nuchal rigidity. Which assessment finding indicates an increase in intracranial pressure? 1. Positive Babinski. 2. High-pitched cry. 3. Bulging posterior fontanelle. 4. Pinpoint pupils.

2

A client takes perphenazine by mouth for 2 days. The client now reports the head turned to the side, the neck arched at an angle, and stiffness and muscle spasms in the neck. The nurse expects to give which PRN medication? 1. Promazine. 2. Benztropine. 3. Thiothixene. 4. Haloperidol.

2

An older man is seen in the outpatient clinic for treatment of an acute attack of gout. Which of the following nursing interventions is MOST beneficial in decreasing the client's pain during ambulation? 1. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises before walking. 2. Encourage partial weight bearing while ambulating. 3. Immobilize the extremity between activities. 4. Restrict the amount of time and the distance the man walks.

2

During a first aid class, the nurse instructs clients on the emergency care of partial thickness burns. The nurse identifies which of the following interventions for partial thickness burns of the chest and arms BEST prevents infection? 1. Wash the burn with an antiseptic soap and water. 2. Remove clothing, and wrap the victim in a clean sheet. 3. Leave the blisters intact and apply an ointment. 4. Take no action until the victim arrives in a burn unit.

2

The client exhibits symptoms of myxedema. The nursing assessment should reveal which of the following? 1. Increased pulse rate. 2. Decreased temperature. 3. Fine tremors. 4. Increased radioactive iodine uptake level.

2

The home health care nurse provides care for a client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. The client is maintained on a regimen of intermediate-acting insulin and short-acting insulin and a 1,800-calorie diabetic diet with normal blood glucose levels. Morning self-monitored blood glucose (SMBG) readings the past 2 days were 205 and 233 mg/dL (11.4 and 12.9 mmol/L) . The nurse expects the health care provider to take which action? 1. Reduce the client's diet to 1,500 calorie ADA. 2. Order three additional units of intermediate-acting insulin at 2200. 3. Order an additional 10 units of short-acting insulin at 2000. 4. Eliminate the client's bedtime snack.

2

The nurse performs triage on a group of clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse see FIRST? 1. A 12-year-old oozing blood from a laceration of the left thumb due to cut on a rusty metal can. 2. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F (39.8°C) who is able to identify her sister but not the place and time. 3. A 49-year-old with a compound fracture of the right leg who is complaining of severe pain. 4. A 65-year-old with a flushed face, dry mucous membranes, and a blood sugar of 470 mg/dL.

2

The nurse prepares to administer an injection of haloperidol decanoate (Haldol D) to a client. Which of the following actions by the nurse is MOST appropriate? 1. Massage the injection site. 2. Give deep IM in a large muscle mass. 3. Use a 2 inch 25 gauge needle. 4. Administer the medication in divided doses.

2

The nurse provides care for a client in cardiogenic shock after a myocardial infarction (MI). Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for the client? 1. Activity intolerance. 2. Cardiac tissue death. 3. Altered cardiac output. 4. Fluid volume deficit .

2

The nurse provides care for a client who has a positive cytomegalovirus (CMV) titer. Which is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take while caring for the client? 1. Instruct the client to wear a mask when outside the room. 2. Wear eyewear when emptying a urinary drainage bag. 3. Place the client in a private room. 4. Keep the client's door shut at all times.

2

The nurse provides care for an adult client prescribed regular insulin before breakfast. The nurse notes the client is nauseated with a blood glucose level of 74 mg/dL (4.1 mmol/L). Which action does the nurse take? 1. Immediately gives the client orange juice to drink. 2. Administers the insulin on time. 3. Withholds the insulin, and notifies the health care provider. 4. Returns the breakfast tray to the kitchen.

2

Which of the following observations BEST indicates to the nurse that a client diagnosed with paraplegia can adequately carry out activities of daily living at home after discharge? 1. The client shaves and brushes his teeth. 2. The client transfers himself into and out of his wheelchair. 3. The client maneuvers the wheelchair without difficulty. 4. The client prepares well-balanced meals.

2

Which of the following symptoms are MOST likely to be observed by the nurse when a client is withdrawing from amphetamine? 1. Severe cravings, depression, fatigue, hypersomnia. 2. Depression, disturbed sleep, restlessness, disorientation. 3. Nausea and vomiting, tachycardia, coarse tremors, seizures. 4. Runny nose, yawning, fever, muscle and joint pain, diarrhea

2

the nurse instructs a client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis to perform intermittent self-catheterization at home. The nurse should include which of the following instructions? 1. Use a new, sterile catheter each time the client performs a catheterization. 2. Store the catheter in a plastic food-storage bag. 3. Perform the catheterization procedure every 10 hours. 4. Limit oral fluids to reduce the number of times a catheterization is needed.

2

The nurse provides care for a client with left-sided hemiparesis from a stroke. The nurse notes a decrease in muscle tone on the client's left side. The nurse determines which nursing diagnosis is the priority? 1. Altered mobility. 2. Skin integrity. 3. Depression. 4. Altered verbal communication

2 4 would be more relevant to right-sided hemiparesis

A middle-aged woman, mother of two, has a mastectomy for breast cancer. When she returns to the physician's office a month later for a routine checkup, the nurse asks the client how she has been. Which of the following responses, if made by the client to the nurse, indicates that the client is experiencing a normal reaction to the surgery? 1. "I have been helping my family deal with their feelings about the surgery." 2. "I have been having difficulty coping with the surgery and cry frequently." 3. "I have been unable to leave the house or talk to my friends about the surgery." 4. "I am doing just great since the surgery and have gone back to work at my job."

2 (1) will not be able to help others this soon after surgery (2) correct—normal reaction 1 month later (3) excessive, abnormal reaction (4) indicates integration, too early for this stage

The young adult is brought to the emergency department after a motorcycle accident. A closed head injury with suspected subdural hematoma is diagnosed. The client is alert and answers questions appropriately and reports a severe headache. The nurse questions which order? 1. "Promethazine (Phenergan) 25 mg IM 3 h." 2. "Morphine sulfate 10 mg IM q3 4h." 3. "Docusate sodium (Colace) 50 mg PO bid." 4. "Ranitidine (Zantac) 50 mg IVPB q12h."

2 (2) correct—narcotic analgesic, causes CNS and respiratory depression, contraindicated in head injury because it masks signs of increased intracranial pressure

The nurse assesses the development of a 3-month-old boy in the well-child clinic. Which of the following behaviors, if observed by the nurse, is UNEXPECTED? 1. The boy holds his head erect when sitting on the examination table. 2. The boy tries to grasp a toy just out of reach. 3. The boy turns his head to try to locate a sound. 4. The boy smiles spontaneously when he sees his mother.

2 6 month action

The nurse cares for a client who has just returned to his room after a scleral buckling procedure was completed to repair a detached retina. Which of the following is the MOST important nursing action? 1. Remove reading material to decrease eyestrain. 2. Ask the client if he is nauseated. 3. Assess color of drainage from the affected eye. 4. Maintain sterility during q3h saline eye irrigations.

2 prevent vommiting r/t ICP

After abdominal surgery, a client has a nasogastric tube attached to low suctioning. The client becomes nauseated, and the nurse observes a decrease in the flow of gastric secretions. Which of the following nursing interventions is MOST appropriate? 1. Irrigate the nasogastric tube with distilled water. 2. Aspirate the gastric contents with a syringe. 3. Administer an antiemetic medicine. 4. Insert a new nasogastric tube.

2 to confirm placment. PH shoulf be between 0-4. Dont irrigate before you know if the tube is in the right place.

The parents of a 1-month-old boy bring their son to the clinic for evaluation of a possible developmental dysplasia of the right hip. The nurse should observe for which of the following? 1. Limited adduction of the right leg. 2. Uneven gluteal fold and thigh creases. 3. Increase in length of the right limb. 4. Internal rotation of the right leg.

2 see limited Abduction and shorter

A woman has been recently diagnosed with systemic lupus (SLE) and shares with the nurse, "I am thinking about getting pregnant, but I don't know how I will be able to tolerate a pregnancy because I have lupus." Which of the following responses by the nurse is BEST? 1. "Most women find that they feel better when they are pregnant." 2. "How long have you been in remission?" 3. "Women with lupus frequently have slightly longer gestations." 4. "It is best to become pregnant within the first 6 months of diagnosis."

2. should be in remission for 5 months prior to conceiving morbiddity is higher and it is reccomended to wait 2 years after dx to concieve

client develops right-sided heart failure. The nurse expects to observe which symptoms? 1. Increased respiration with exertion. 2. Peripheral edema and anorexia. 3. Polycythemia 4. Cough producing large amount of thick, yellow mucus. 5. Twitching of extremities. 6. Distended neck veins.

2.3.6 1) Common assessment finding of the client with chronic lung disease. 2) CORRECT— Edema caused by decreased heart pumping action and accumulation of fluid; malaise causing anorexia. 3) CORRECT— Increased RBC as compensation for decreased oxygenation. 4) Describes a complication of pneumonia. 5) Not related to heart failure. 6) CORRECT— Related to heart failure.

The nurse's INITIAL priority when managing a physically assaultive client is which of the following? 1. Restrict the client to the room. 2. Place the client under one-to-one supervision. 3. Restore the client's self-control and prevent further loss of control. 4. Clear the immediate area of other clients to prevent harm.

3

A client who is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is to be discharged and will be taking zidovudine (AZT) at home. Which of the following actions by the nurse is BEST? 1. Review the importance of adhering to a 4-hour schedule. 2. Advise the client to buy a timed pill dispenser. 3. Write the schedule of when the medicine should be taken. 4. Encourage self-medication prior to discharge.

3

A mother brings her 2-year-old to the pediatrician's office. Which of the following symptoms suggests to the nurse that the child has strabismus? 1. The child places his head close to the table when drawing. 2. The child rubs his eyes frequently. 3. The child closes one eye to see a poster on the wall. 4. The child is unable to see objects in the periphery of his visual field.

3

A nonstress test is scheduled for a client at 34 weeks' gestation who developed hypertension, periorbital edema, and proteinuria. Which of the following nursing actions should be included in the care plan in order to BEST prepare the client for the diagnostic test? 1. Start an intravenous line for an oxytocin infusion. 2. Obtain a signed consent prior to the procedure. 3. Instruct client to push a button when she feels fetal movement. 4. Attach a spiral electrode to the fetal head.

3

A nurse cares for a client diagnosed with metastatic ovarian cancer admitted for nausea and vomiting. The health care provider orders parenteral nutrition (PN), a nutritional consult, and diet recall. Which is the BEST indication that the client's nutritional status has improved after 4 days? 1. The client eats most of the food served. 2. The client has gained 1 pound since admission. 3. The client's albumin level is 4.0 g/dL. 4. The client's hemoglobin is 8.5 g/dL.

3

A young adult asks the nurse in the AIDS clinic what to do for the multiple small, painless purplish-brown spots on the right leg and ankle. The nurse should instruct the client to take which of the following actions? 1. Clean the spots carefully with soap and warm water twice a week, and cover them with a sterile dressing. 2. Clean the lesions twice a day with a diluted solution of povidone-iodine (Betadine), and leave them open to the air. 3. Shower daily using a mild soap from a pump dispenser, and pat the skin dry. 4. Soak in a warm tub three times a day, and rub the spots with a washcloth.

3

The nurse cares for clients in the pediatric clinic. A mother reports that her infant's smile is "crooked". The nurse should assess which of the following cranial nerves? 1. III. 2. V. 3. VII. 4. XI.

3

The nurse in the well-baby clinic observes a group of children. The nurse notes that one child is able to sit unsupported, play "peek-a-boo" with the nurse and is starting to say "mama" and "dada". The nurse determines the infant's behaviors are consistent with which of the following ages? 1. 5 months of age. 2. 6 months of age. 3. 9 months of age. 4. 12 months of age.

3

The nurse learns a client has a history of heart failure (HF), is on a low sodium diet, and is taking chlorothiazide 500 mg. Diagnostic tests indicate sodium 127 mEq/L (127 mmol/L), potassium 3.8 mEq/L (3.8 mmol/L), glucose 110 mg/dL (6.1 mmol/L), and normal chest x-ray. It is most important for the nurse to assess for which signs? 1. Sticky mucous membranes; decreased urinary output; and firm, rubbery tissues. 2. Cool, moist skin; fine hand tremors; and mental confusion. 3. Headache, apprehension, and lethargy. 4. Shortness of breath, chest pain, and anxiety.

3

The nurse provides care for a client prescribed gemfibrozil. Which laboratory value does the nurse review based on this prescribed medication? 1. Serum creatinine. 2. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). 3. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST). 4. Arterial blood gases (ABG).

3

The physician orders sucralfate (Carafate) 1 g PO bid for a client taking digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. The client asks the nurse if both pills can be taken together at breakfast so that the client doesn't forget to take them. The nurse should advise the client to take which of the following actions? 1. Take the Carafate and Lanoxin before breakfast. 2. Take the Lanoxin 1 hour before breakfast and the Carafate 1 hour after breakfast. 3. Take the Carafate 1 hour before breakfast and the Lanoxin 1 hour after breakfast. 4. Take the Carafate and the Lanoxin after breakfast.

3

Which of the following symptoms are MOST likely to be observed by the nurse when a client is withdrawing from barbiturate? 1. Severe cravings, depression, fatigue, hypersomnia. 2. Depression, disturbed sleep, restlessness, disorientation. 3. Nausea and vomiting, tachycardia, coarse tremors, seizures. 4. Runny nose, yawning, fever, muscle and joint pain, diarrhea

3

The nurse cares for clients on the medical/surgical unit. The nurse identifies which of the following clients is MOST at risk for developing herpes zoster? 1. A 19-year-old with a broken tibia in Buck's traction. 2. A 50-year-old with a diabetic foot ulcer. 3. A 62-year-old heart transplant with suspected rejection. 4. An 84-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

3 (1) has an acute trauma, is not immunocompromised (2) has a bacterial infection, is not immunocompromised (3) correct—immunocompromised due to immune suppression therapy; clients with compromised immune system at risk for reactivation of the varicella zoster virus (4) has chronic disease, is not immunocompromised

A client received six units of regular insulin 3 hours ago. The nurse is MOST concerned if which of the following is observed? 1. Kussmaul respirations and diaphoresis. 2. Anorexia and lethargy. 3. Diaphoresis and trembling. 4. Headache and polyuria.

3 Kussmal is sx of hyperglycimia

The nurse observes care given to a client experiencing severe to panic levels of anxiety. The nurse should intervene in which of the following situations? 1. The staff maintains a calm manner when interacting with the client. 2. The staff attends to client's physical needs as necessary. 3. The staff helps the client identify thoughts or feelings that occurred prior to the onset of the anxiety. 4. The staff assesses the client's need for medication or seclusion if other interventions have failed to reduce anxiety

3 Strategy: "Nurse would intervene" indicates that you are looking for an inappropriate response. (1) appropriate nursing action for this level of anxiety (2) appropriate nursing action for this level of anxiety (3) correct—at this level of anxiety, client is unable to process thoughts and feelings for problem solving (4) appropriate nursing action for this level of anxiety

An older client undergoes the second exchange of intermittent peritoneal dialysis (IPD). Which of the following requires an intervention by the nurse? 1. The client complains of pain during the inflow of the dialysate. 2. The client complains of constipation. 3. The dialysate outflow is cloudy. 4. There is blood-tinged fluid around the intra-abdominal catheter.

3 indicates peritonitis, also will see nausea and vomiting, anorexia, abdominal pain, tenderness, rigidity

The nurse observes an LPN/LVN perform a wet-to-dry dressing change on a 2-inch abdominal incision. Which of the following behaviors, if performed by the LPN/LVN, indicates an understanding of proper technique? 1. A clean cotton ball is used to cleanse from the top of the incision to the bottom of the incision using long strokes. 2. The incision is packed with sterile gauze, and then sterile saline is poured over the dressing. 3. The nurse packs wet gauze into the incision without overlapping it onto the skin. 4. The old dressing is saturated with sterile saline before it is removed.

3 wet dressing in wound when applied.... and then it should be dry when removed to take out any debris or necrotic tissue

The nurse prepares a patient for a cesarean section. The patient says that she had major surgery several years ago and asks if she will receive a similar "shot" before surgery. The nurse's response should be based on an understanding that the preoperative medication given before a cesarean section 1. contains a lower overall dosage of medication than is given before general surgery. 2. contains lower amounts of sedatives and hypnotics than are given before general surgery. 3. contains lower amounts of narcotics than are given before general surgery. 4. contains medications similar in type and dosages to those given before general surgery

3. Strategy: Think about the action of the medications. (1) decreased dosage of narcotics are used (2) dosages of sedatives and hypnotics will be similar (3) correct—decreased so that less narcotic crosses the placental barrier, causing respiratory depression in the infant (4) dosages of narcotics are reduced

A client diagnosed with AIDS is seen in the emergency room with complaints of mouth pain, difficulty swallowing, and a white discharge in the back of the throat. The nurse expects the physician to order which of the following? 1. Metronidazole (Flagyl) 7.5 mg/kg q6h. 2. Ketoconazole (Nizoral) 200 mg daily. 3. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) 800 mg PO q12h. 4. Rifampin (Rifadin) PO 10 mg/kg daily.

4

A client diagnosed with a peptic ulcer has a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the nurse should caution the client about which of the following? 1. Sit up for at least 30 minutes after eating. 2. Avoid fluids between meals. 3. Increase the intake of high-carbohydrate foods. 4. Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.

4

The nurse cares for a child several hours after the application of a hip spica cast. The patient turns on the call light and complains of pain in the left foot. Which of the following actions should the nurse take FIRST? 1. Elevate the left leg on two pillows. 2. Palpate the cast for warmth and wetness. 3. Administer pain medication as ordered. 4. Check the blanching sign on both feet.

4

The nurse prepares a 5-year-old child for surgery. The nurse notes that the child's parents are divorced and have joint legal custody. The informed consent for surgery has been signed by the mother. Which of the following actions by the nurse is BEST? 1. Notify the physician. 2. Inform surgery. 3. Contact the father to obtain consent. 4. Continue the child's preoperative preparation.

4

The physician orders ranitidine hydrochloride (Zantac) 150 mg PO daily for the client. The nurse should advise the client the BEST time to take the medication is which of the following? 1. Prior to breakfast. 2. With dinner. 3. With food. 4. At hour of sleep.

4

When caring for a client with a nursing diagnosis of rape trauma syndrome, acute phase, the nurse should consider which of the following the MOST important initial goal for the client? 1. Within 3 to 5 months, the client will state that the memory of the event is less vivid and distressing. 2. The client will indicate a willingness to keep a follow-up appointment with a rape crisis counselor. 3. The client will be able to describe the results of the physical examination that was completed in the emergency room. 4. The client will begin to express her reactions and feelings about the assault before leaving the emergency room

4

Which of the following symptoms are MOST likely to be observed by the nurse when a client is withdrawing from heroin? 1. Severe cravings, depression, fatigue, hypersomnia. 2. Depression, disturbed sleep, restlessness, disorientation. 3. Nausea and vomiting, tachycardia, coarse tremors, seizures. 4. Runny nose, yawning, fever, muscle and joint pain, diarrhea.

4

The nurse cares for a client just returning to the postsurgical unit following abdominal surgery for cancer of the colon. It is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take which of the following actions? 1. Determine the stage of loss and grief. 2. Analyze the quality and quantity of pain. 3. Instruct the client to cough and deep breathe. 4. Ask the client to lift his head off the pillow.

4 (1) physical needs take priority (2) not most important (3) implementation; should first assess (4) correct—should assess whether there are any remaining effects of neuromuscular blocking agents; may block ability to breathe deeply

The nurse monitors a client's EKG strip and notes coupled premature ventricular contractions greater than 10 per minute. The nurse should expect to administer which of the following? 1. Atropine sulfate (Atropine) IV. 2. Isoproterenol (Isuprel) IV. 3. Verapamil (Calan) IV. 4. Lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine) IV.

4 (1) antidysrhythmic, used for bradycardia (2) antidysrhythmic, used for heart block, ventricular dysrhythmias (3) antihypertensive, calcium-channel blocker (4) correct—lidocaine is the drug of choice for frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVC) occurring in excess of 6 to 10 per minute; for coupled PVCs or for a consecutive series of PVCs that may result in ventricular tachycardia

The nurse cares for clients in the student health center. A client confides to the nurse that the client's boyfriend informed her that he tested positive for hepatitis B. Which of the following responses by the nurse is BEST? 1. "That must have been a real shock to you." 2. "You should be tested for hepatitis B." 3. "You'll receive the hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG)." 4. "Have you had unprotected sex with your boyfriend?"

4 determine exposure before testing

The nurse provides care for a client diagnosed with an abruptio placenta. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client? 1. Infection. 2. Fetal demise. 3. Altered tissue perfusion. 4. Fluid volume deficit.

4 leads to hemmorage

Which of the following nursing actions is important for safe administration of oxytocin? 1. Assess respirations and urine output. 2. Administer oxytocin parenterally as the primary IV. 3. Have calcium gluconate available as an antidote. 4. Palpate the uterus frequently.

4 (1) assessment; pertinent to the care of a client receiving magnesium sulfate for pre-eclampsia (2) implementation; oxytocin is always given via an infusion pump and is never allowed to be the primary IV (3) implementation; pertinent to the care of a client receiving magnesium sulfate for pre-eclampsia (4) correct—assessment; oxytocin stimulates the uterus to contract, which necessitates frequent assessment of the uterus; prolonged tetanic contraction can lead to a ruptured uterus

The nurse leads an in-service education class on legal issues. The nurse identifies which of the following acts constitutes battery? 1. The nurse restrains an agitated, confused patient in the emergency room with a physician's order. 2. The nurse chases a patient who tries to run away while outside for a walk. 3. The nurse holds the arms of a manic patient who struck her while the nurse calls for assistance. 4. The nurse administers an injection to a schizophrenic patient who refuses to take the medication by mouth because he believes it is poison.

4 correct—battery is harmful or offensive touching of another's person; unless court ordered, clients have the right to refuse medication, even if client is psychotic

Who do you see first - UAP is 30 min late to shift -an angry adult child is threatening to sue the hospital d/t confudes parent falling out of bed -clients spouse reports clients nose id bleeding -health care provider aks the nurse to obtain clients latest serum electrolyte

bleeding, angry, healthcare, UAP Strategy: Identify the least stable clients to see first and the most stable to see last. 1) Important to assess client to determine amount and cause of bleeding. 2) Important issue that needs to be addressed after tending to the client who is bleeding. 3) Last client issue to address or can be delegated to another staff member. 4) Clients take priority over personnel issues.

measures to prevent dumping syndrome

lying down 30 min after meals drinking fluids between meals, reducing intake of carbs

Kussmaul breathing vs. Cheyne Stokes

oth Kussmaul breathing and Cheyne Stokes breathing are characterized by fast breathing and too much carbon dioxide in the body Kussmaul breathing doesn't alternate between fast and slow breathing or cause breathing to stop like Cheyne Stokes does.

Who do you see first at tranfusion clinic -itching -vomiting -neck vein distention -headache

vomiting distension itching headache 1) First: Acute hemolytic reaction; most dangerous type of transfusion reaction, symptoms include nausea, vomiting, pain in lower back, hematuria; treatment is to stop blood, obtain urine specimen, and maintain blood volume and kidney perfusion. 2) Second: Circulatory overload; treatment is to adjust rate of infusion, position in an upright position, and administer oxygen and possibly diuretics. 3) Third: Allergic reaction; symptoms include urticaria, pruritus, fever; treatment is to stop blood, give antihistamine, and restart transfusion slowly. 4) Fourth: Febrile reaction; symptoms include fever, chills, nausea, headache; treatment is to stop blood and administer antipyretics