Quiz 3 Nurse Practice Act, ***Professionalism Tidwell Lecture, ***HESI RN Disaster Planning, ****Leadership and Management Test #3, Professionalism

What is a reasonable person's ability to anticipate harm?

Foreseeable Harm

Professional Negligence?

Malpractice

RN scope recognizes the existence of overlapping functions between who?

Physicians and registered nurses.

Main regulatory role of the BRN?

To protect the public.

3. Which is an individual health consequence during an extremely high-temperature condition? a. Adequate hydration. b. Heat exhaustion. c. Hyperactivity. d. Uncontrollable chills.

b. Heat exhaustion.

Which of the following instruments is used by the LSBN to implement the Nurse Practice Act? a. declaratory statements b. administrative rules and regulation c. advisory opinions d. constitutional amendments

b. administrative rules and regulations

9. Which is characteristic of a mass casualty incident (MCI)? a. Decreased demand on neighboring healthcare facilities. b. Demand for resources is equal to supply. c. Healthcare system is disrupted. d. Precise inter-agency communication.

c. Healthcare system is disrupted.

Must a CRNA have a collaborative practice agreement?

yes

Which of the following is said to the the oldest profession? a. medicine b. Law c. theology d. education

c. theology

NLN

-National League for Nursing -Promotes excellence in nursing education to prepare nurses to meet the needs of a diverse population in a changing health care environment. -First nursing organization was founded in 1893. -Membership in the NLN nursing education program includes practical nursing, RN, BSN, Masters, and doctoral programs. -They offer the following: student exam services, educator certification, networking, professional development, and research.

NSNA

-National Student Nursing Association -Mentors nursing students preparing for their initial license. -Fosters professional development of nursing students. -Provides opportunities for workshop participation, networking, scholarships, and career planning. -Accepts associate, bachelors, diploma, and pre-licensure graduate programs.

OSHA

-Occupational Safety and Health Administration -A federal health agency that is tasked with ensuring the health and safety of Americans in the workplace. -Covers most private sector employers and their workers. -Also covers some employers and their workers in the public sector. -They provide assistance to employers who are responsible for providing a safe work environment. -They help employers to reduce or eliminate workplace hazards.

APRN (Advanced Practice Registered Nurse)

certified by a nationally recognized certifying body as having an advanced nursing specialty meets the criteria for an advanced practice registered nurse as established by the board Minimum of a master's degree with a concentration in the respective advanced practice nursing specialty which includes both didactic and clinical components, advanced knowledge in nursing theory, physical and psychosocial assessment, nursing interventions, and management of health care.

An RN is certified by a nursing specialty organization (er nurses, ICU nurses, OR nurses, etc) Certification means the RN... a. is an advanced practice RN b. has completed a continuing education activit c. has obtained a secondary license d. is recognized by a specialty organization to have obtained certain competencies or standards

d. Is recognized by a specialty organization to have obtained certain competencies or standards

The RN and a CNA are caring for all of the following patients. The RN can delegate the task of "vital signs" for which patients? Select all that apply a. who was admitted 24 hours ago with chest pain b. who is receiving dopamine via continuous IV infusion c. who says she is going to sue the hospital d. who is scheduled for surgery in the AM

c. who says she is going to sue the hospital d. who is scheduled for surgery in the AM

Some roles of the BRN?

1) Set RN educational standards 2) Approve CA nursing program 3) Issue and review licenses and certifications 4) Investigate complaints and take disciplinary action against nursing license. 5) Manage diversion program 6) Maintain online license verification

Who is ineligible for Diversion Program?

1) Someone who had previously been disciplined by Board for chemical dependency or mental illness. 2) Someone terminated previously from this program or another diversion program for non-compliance 3) Someone who sold drugs 4) Someone who caused patient harm or death.

If a nurse is found to be in violation of the Nursing Practice Act, the final decision can be to:

1) To Revoke or suspend the license 2) To accept (voluntary) surrender of license 3) To place the nurse's license on probation 4) To cite and fine

If a nurse is found to be in violation of the Nursing Practice Act, the final decision can be to:

1) To Revoke or suspend the license 2) To accept (voluntary) surrender of license 3) To place the nurse's license on probation 4) To cite and fine

Which is the function of the medical command physician according to the Emergency Preparedness and Response Plan? 1 Deciding the number, acuity, and resource needs of clients 2 Serving as a liaison between the healthcare facility and the media 3 Assuming overall leadership for implementing the emergency plan 4 Evaluating each client rapidly to determine priorities for treatment

1. Deciding the number, acuity, and resource needs of clients The function of the medical command physician, according to the Emergency Preparedness and Preparedness Plan, is deciding the number, acuity, and resource needs of clients. The function of the community relations or public information officer is serving as a liaison between the healthcare facility and the media. The function of the hospital incident commander is assuming overall leadership for implementing the emergency plan. The function of the triage officer is evaluating each client rapidly to determine priorities for treatment.

What areas should the nurse keep in mind when participating in the planning of an organization's emergency preparedness plan? Select all that apply. 1 Needs for security 2 Activate telephone trees 3 Staffing for surge situations 4 Methods of communication 5 Definition of specific nursing roles

1. Needs for security 3. Staffing for surge situations 4. Methods of communication 5. Definition of specific nursing roles Before an event, nurses contribute to the development of emergency response plans to include security needs, staffing for surge situations, methods of communication, and defining specific nursing roles. Activation of telephone trees would occur during an actual disaster.

How a law is passed

-Federal: a bill becomes a law when it is passed by votes in both houses of Congress and are signed into a law by the president. -States: a bill is introduced by the house or the senate and is signed by the governor. Once a law is passed, and executive branch agency of the federal (such as the CDC) or state government (state health departments, Boards of nursing) is responsible for administering it.

How to protect patients in the hospital with severe weather

-Have a plan and know possible hazards. -Be decisive -Know where to get up to the minute information from a single reliable source and assess it frequently. -Know who is in charge during an emergency and they should be able to provide staff with accurate and timely information. -Have a backup electrical plan and know whom to call to get power. -Know how long your facility can run without power. -Identify resources necessary to maintain and restore critical functions. -Learn from the experience (what worked and what didn't) and update your plan for the next time.

Health department services

-Injury, disease prevention and education -Poisoning prevention -Programs to provide infant car seats & bike helmets at not cost. -Free clinics (dental and TB) -Sexual health education, HIV/AIDS testing -Child care center sanitation -Retail food establishment safety (food safety) -Responsible for administration of Medicaid, CHIP and WIC programs.

NLN accreditation

-NLN commission for Nursing Education Accreditation. -Was established in 2013 -Accredits programs across the academic spectrum. -LPN, LVN, Associate RN, BSN, masters and clinical doctorate degree programs.

NIH

-National Institutes of Health -One of the 11 operating divisions of the DHHS. -The nation's medical research agency. -They seek to enhance health, lengthen life, and reduce illness and disability.

Five rights for delegation?

1) Right Task 2) Right Circumstance 3) Right Person - know who you're delegating to. 4) Right Communication - make it clear what you want form that person 5) Right Supervision - I'm responsible for their actions

Vulnerable populations during an emergency

-Elderly: chronic disease, necessary medications, need for oxygen, limited mobility, diminished sensory awareness, inadequate thermoregulation, social and economic limitations. -Children: parents need to do all they can to keep children safe from any unsafe areas following a disaster (floodwaters, electrical lines, portable generators). News/media might be scary for kids so monitor the amount they are exposed to. -Homeless: live in the exposure, no medical care, insufficient food, mental health, drug use (withdrawal).

Clients with which tag are referred to as "walking wounded" clients while managing a disaster? 1 Red 2 Black 3 Green 4 Yellow

3. Green Clients who sustained minor injuries during a disaster and can evacuate themselves are referred to as walking wounded clients and they are green-tagged. Red tags are given to clients who have immediate threats to the life and should be treated immediately. Black tags are given the clients who are not expected to live or are dead. Yellow tags are given to clients who sustained major injuries and need treatment within 30 minutes to 2 hours.

Which color tag should be given to "walking wounded" clients according to the disaster triage tag system? 1 Red 2 Black 3 Green 4 Yellow

3. Green Green tagged clients are referred to as "walking wounded" because they may evacuate themselves from the mass casualty scene and go to the hospital in a private vehicle. Clients with life-threatening conditions that need immediate treatment are given red tags. Black-tagged clients are expected to die or may be dead. Clients with major injuries are tagged with yellow. They may require urgent treatment but can wait a short time for care as injuries are not life threatening.

What patients should be discharged first

1. Ambulatory and self care patients. 2. If more patients still need to be discharged, you then move onto the stable patients (who still need care) but only if higher acuity patients need to be admitted.

The CDC has assigned the highest priority to biological agents that can what?

1. Be easily transmitted from person to person. 2. Cause a high mortality rate. 3. Have a significant impact on public health. 4. Can cause a public panic. 5. Disrupt society and government.

This agency protects the community by implementing and enforcing the nursing practice act?

Board of Registered Nursing.

Not meeting the standard of care?

Breach of Duty

What program is designed to provide two-way communication between clinicians and the CDC about emerging health threats such as pandemics, natural disasters, and terrorism? a. FEMA b. COCA c. American Red Cross d. CERT

Clinician Outreach Communication Activity (COCA)

Which of the following stmts correctly describe the current code of ethics compared to previous renditions? a. The pt now can mean an individual, families, groups and communities when in previous renditions the term "patient" meant only and individual b. the "nurse" now owes herself the same duties as that provided to the patient when in previous renditions the term "nurse" referred to one who solely served

both

Standardized procedures are used when?

When nurses are expected to perform duties that are not commonly within the standards of practice for nursing.

How many RNs currently sit on the LSBN? a. six b. eight c. nine d. eleven

c. nine

How many board members are on the BRN?

Four public Members. Five Nurses. Two Direct Care One advanced practice registered nurse One administrator One educator.

Collaborative Practice

Functioning under someone else's license

How to maintain your license?

Renewed after 2 birth years - Last do of the month following your birth day. - 30 hours of continuing education

Main regulatory role of the BRN?

To protect the public

Board of Registered Nursing

protects the community by implementing & enforcing the nursing practice act

COCA

-Clinician Outreach Communication activity program. -A two way communication between clinicians and the CDC about emerging health threats such as pandemics, natural disasters, and terrorism. -Ensures that clinicians have up to date information.

DHHS or HHS

-Department of Human and Health Services -The principal Federal Health agency with 11 operating divisions (CDC, NIH, CMS, FDA). -Administers more grant dollars than all other federal agencies combined. -HHS programs: improve maternal & infant health, protect mental health, promote better nutrition and physical activity, prevent and manage the impact of infectious and chronic disease and conditions.

What to report to the BRN?

1) Convictions and discipline 2) Changes in name or address within 30 days

Which of the following types of advanced practice RNs are recognized in la. Mark all that apply a. clinical nurse specialist b. certified registered nurse anesthetist c. certified nursing midwife d. nurse practitioner

All of them

What primary agents does the CDC see as potential bioterrorist threats?

Anthrax Botulism Plague Smallpox Tularemia Viral hemorrhagic fevers (Ebola, Marburg) Arenaviruses (Lassa, Machupo)

The BRN may discipline RN's working in a supervisory capacity for authoring what?

Authorizing untrained person's or LVN's to perform tasks, which they, the RN, knew or should have known lacked the competency to safely perform.

A nurse is field-triaging clients after an industrial accident. Which client condition should the nurse triage with a red tag? a. Dislocated right hip and an open fracture of the right lower leg b. Large contusion to the forehead and a bloody nose c. Closed fracture of the right clavicle and arm numbness d. Multiple fractured ribs and shortness of breath

D ~ Clients who have an immediate threat to life are given the highest priority, are placed in the emergent or class I category, and are given a red triage tag. The client with multiple rib fractures and shortness of breath most likely has developed a pneumothorax, which may be fatal if not treated immediately. The client with the hip and leg problem and the client with the clavicle fracture would be classified as class II; these major but stable injuries can wait 30 minutes to 2 hours for definitive care. The client with facial wounds would be considered the walking wounded and classified as nonurgent.

The BRN (Board of Registered Nursing) defines what?

Defines: Nursing Practice and Advanced Practice and Public Health Nurse Roles

Which would the nurse state is an example of a natural disaster? 1 Floods 2 Terrorism 3 Fire explosion 4 Building collapse

1. Floods External disasters can be natural, such as floods, earthquakes, or tornadoes. Acts of terrorism are external disasters that use technology such as explosive devices or a malfunction of a nuclear reactor. A fire explosion is an internal disaster. A building collapse is a consequence of internal or external disaster.

Which intervention is a part of the response phase of disaster planning? 1 Stabilizing the community 2 Limiting the impact of disaster 3 Implementing the disaster plan 4 Evaluating the events of disaster management

3. Implementing the disaster plan The response phase of disaster management deals with the implementation of the disaster plan. The recovery phase of disaster management involves stabilizing the community. Mitigation focuses on limiting the impact of a disaster. The last phase of disaster management focuses on evaluation of the plan.

Which action would the nurse think should be excluded to prevent staff from having posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) during a mass casualty assessment? 1 To work less than 12 hours 2 Encourage and motivate team members 3 To work continuously without any breaks 4 To discuss feelings with the team members

3. To work continuously without any breaks Working continuously without any breaks will result in increased stress. Working less than 12 hours may reduce stress. By motivating team members, posttraumatic stress disorder can be prevented. By discussing feelings with team members or nurse managers, stress can be reduced.

A triage nurse assigns a green tag to a client during triage after a mass casualty event. Which statement is true about the client's injuries? 1 The client is expected and allowed to die. 2 The client has an immediate threat to life. 3 The client has major injuries that require treatment. 4 The client has minor injuries that do not require immediate treatment.

4. The client has minor injuries that do not require immediate treatment. The green tag is assigned to the client who has minor injuries that do not require immediate treatment. The client who is expected and allowed to die will be given a black tag. The client who has an immediate threat to life will be given a red tag. The client who has major injuries that require treatment is given a yellow tag.

How many board members are on the BRN?

8 RNs 2 Direct Care 1 advanced practice registered nurse 1 administrator 1 educator

How do nurses get to serve on the board?

8 are appointed by the government and two by legislature. They serve four year terms - not more than two terms.

An emergency department (ED) charge nurse prepares to receive clients from a mass casualty within the community. What is the role of this nurse during the event? a. Ask ED staff to discharge clients from the medical-surgical units in order to make room for critically injured victims. b. Call additional medical-surgical and critical care nursing staff to come to the hospital to assist when victims are brought in. c. Inform the incident commander at the mass casualty scene about how many victims may be handled by the ED. d. Direct medical-surgical and critical care nurses to assist with clients currently in the ED while emergency staff prepare to receive the mass casualty victims.

D ~ The ED charge nurse should direct additional nursing staff to help care for current ED clients while the ED staff prepares to receive mass casualty victims; however, they should not be assigned to the most critically ill or injured clients. The house supervisor and unit directors would collaborate to discharge stable clients. The hospital incident commander is responsible for mobilizing resources and would have the responsibility for calling in staff. The medical command physician would be the person best able to communicate with on-scene personnel regarding the ability to take more clients.

This allows for treatment of RN that is alternative to traditional disciplinary process:

Diversion

Good Samaritan Law?

Not liable if rendering aide to someone outside the hospital if I stay in the scope of BLS.

Each state has it's own what?

Nurse Practice Act method for initial & continuing licensure.

Each state has it's own what?

Nurse Practice Act and method for initial and continuing licensure.

The BRN (Board of Registered Nursing) defines what?

Nursing Practice and Advanced Practice and Public Health Nurse Roles

RN scope and licensure is defined by what?

State Law.

Board of Registered Nursing Mission Statement?

The Board of Registered Nursing protects the health and safety of consumers by promoting quality registered nursing care in the State of California.

22. Which section of the Incident Command System (ICS) is responsible for the appropriate documentation of time, expenses, and claims? a. Finance/Administration. b. Logistics. c. Operations. d. Planning.

a. Finance/Administration.

The 1995 social policy stmt claims which of the following? a. People seek the services on nurses b. nurses actively seek clients

a. People seek the services of nurses

Which of the following are components of the medical caduceus? a. a staff b. a snake c. a tree d. a lion

a. a staff b. a snake

Who can become an APRN in Louisiana? a. An RN who has a master's degree b. An RN who has a master's degree who is certified by a nationally recognized certifying body c. a person completing a master's dgree and who is certified by a nationally recognized certifying body d. a physician who is certified by a nationally recognized certifying body

b. An RN who has a master's degree and who is certified by a nationally recognized certifying body

19. During a disaster, the person responsible for leading the response effort is the Incident: a. Chief. b. Commander. c. Director. d. Officer.

b. Commander.

5. Which is an example of a health-hazard notification tool? a. Centers for Disease Control (CDC) monitors disease patterns throughout the nation. b. Emergency Alert System (EAS) addresses the public on short notice. c. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) provides guidance for healthcare professionals. d. National Oceanic Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) provides routine weather information.

b. Emergency Alert System (EAS) addresses the public on short notice.

15. Which is the guiding document used to coordinate response and recovery actions? a. Community Comprehensive Plan. b. Emergency Operations Plan. c. Risk Management Plan. d. Standard Operating Procedures.

b. Emergency Operations Plan.

Describe the role of "nursing process" in relation to the NPA. a. Only the assessment and evaluation are listed in the la NPA b. La RNs must utilize the nursing process b/c its the law c. nursing process is one form of critical-thinking the la RN can choose to utilize

b. La RNs must utilize the nursing process because its the law

A La RN without a compact license wishes to practice in Arkansas. Which of the following describes the correct process for licensure? a. The La RN can immediately practice in Arkansas because Arkansas recognizes La RN's b. The La RN must apply for licensure in Arkansas c. The La RN can immediately practice anywhere in the US b/c the RN credential is nationally recognized d. the La RN must take the NCLEX licensure exam in Arkansas. Once, the exam is passed, the nurse is licensed in Arkansas.

b. The La RN must apply for licensure in Arkansas

The RN and LPN are working on the same unit. The RN is engaging in "xyz" patient interventions. the LPN offers to complete "xyz" intervention. The RN refuses saying. "the la state board of nursing has said rns cannon delegate xyz to LPNs. The LPN responds, but the LPN board says I can do it. Assuming both nurses' comments are correct, the RN should do which of the following? a. delegate "xyz" intervention to LPN b. complete "xyz" intervention herself

b. complete "xyz" intervention herself

An RN may be disciplined by the LSBN for which of the following? Mark all that apply The RN.... a. practices in an ICU without additional documented training b. practices when mentally incompetent c. engages in shameful, vile, amoral behavior d. charges friends and neighbors for nursing care delivered e. practices with an expired license

b. practices when mentally incompetent c. engages in shameful, vile, amoral behavior e. practices with an expired license

13. Disaster recovery efforts include: a. conducting a hazard vulnerability analysis. b. reconnecting displaced populations with essential health and social services. c. strategies for reducing the impact of disasters. d. training responders to strengthen capabilities.

b. reconnecting displaced populations with essential health and social services.

The 2015 social policy stmt describes a true contract btw nursing and society. What problems are noted on the slides regarding this claim? mark all that apply a. Society could decide they no longer want the nursing profession b. Society could refuse to enforce what nursing expects c. Either society or nursing could nullify the contract

b. society could refuse to enforce what nursing expects c. either society or nursing could nullify the contract

The position of the 1980 social policy stmt is best summed up as which of the following? a. nursing trumps society b. society trumps nursing

b. society trumps nursing

In 1980, the ANA determined the profession required a formal statement describing nursing's social responsibility. What rationale did the ANA use? a. The profession was old enough b. the profession was mature enough c. the practice of individual professionals was complex enough d. the political climate was favorable enough

b. the profession was mature enough

The RN charge nurse assigns a staff RN to carry out nursing care for five patients. Then the staff RN instucts a nursing assistant to obtain vital signs and deliver meal trays. which person has primary accountability for the nursing care delivered? a. the charge nurse b. the staff nurse c. the nursing assistant

b. the staff nurse

The RN charge nurse assigns a staff RN to carry out nursing care for five pts. which person has primary accountability for the nursing care delivered? a. the charge nurse b. the staff nurse

b. the staff nurse

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a code of ethics? a. to determine the most efficient use of resources b. to distinguish right versus wrong, good versus bad c. to provide a framework for safe nursing care

b. to distinguish right versus wrong, good versus bad

According to the la nurse practice act (NPA), which of the following groups of nurses may make medical diagnoses? a. RN b. LPN c. advanced practiced RN's d. all of the above

c. Advanced practice registered nurses

The Aiken article, Educational Levels of Hospital Nurses and Surgical Patient Mortality" concluded which of the following? a. that education level of nurses had no effect on hospital mortality rates b. that hospitals with higher levels of advanced practice nurses had lower surgical morbidity c. that hospitals with higher levels of baccalaureate education or higher had lower mortality rates d. that hospitals with high mortality rates tended to be staffed by associate and diploma educated nurses

c. That hospitals with higher levels of bacculaureate education or higher had lower mortality rates

17. Which is an accurate definition of individual resilience? a. Maintaining safety of infrastructure. b. Sustained action taken to eliminate the long-term risk. c. The ability to adapt to changing conditions. d. The capability to equitably meet the vital human needs.

c. The ability to adapt to changing conditions.

20. To be in compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), what is a permissible question that a healthcare professional can ask about a service animal? a. "Do you have the animal certification papers? b. "Does your animal have a vest or tag identifying him as a therapy animal?" c. "Is the animal certified as a therapy pet?" d. "What task has the animal been trained to perform?"

d. "What task has the animal been trained to perform?"

10. Which disaster planning target group includes the homeless and individuals with limited English-language proficiency? a. Immediate treatment area patients. b. Low-socioeconomic populations. c. Under-represented populations. d. Vulnerable populations.

d. Vulnerable populations.

Does an RN provide nursing care under authority of a collaborative practice agreement?

no

AACN

-American Association of Colleges of Nursing. -The Nursing national voice for higher nursing education (bachelors and graduate). -Accredits bachelor's and graduate educational programs. -Sets the standards for the educational curriculum of its member nursing programs. -Promotes instructional development, research, organizational leadership, faculty practice, and other services. -Works to advance public policy related to nursing education, research, and practice.

ANA

-American Nursing Association -Mission: Nurses advancing our profession to improve health for all. -Created the nursing code of ethics. -Created the standards of nursing practice. -Promotes rights of nurses in the workplace. -Projects a positive, realistic view of nursing. -Helps to lobby congress, and federal regulatory agencies on healthcare issues that affect nurses and the health of Americans.

Five elements of liability malpractice?

1) Duty 2) Failure to meet standard of care 3) Foreseeable Harm 4) Breach of Duty 5) Harm

BRN accomplishes they're mission by doing what?

1) Licensing registered nurses. 2) Approving nursing education programs. 3) Establishing and upholding competency standards. 4) Intervening with discipline and rehabilitation. 5) Serving as the final authority in the interpretation and enforcement of the Nursing Practice Act.

Who can be in diversion?

1) Mentally ill California RN 2) Drug or alcohol abusing California RN

Standardized procedures must:

1) Must be developed by organized health system 2) Must be in writing, signed, dated 3) Must clearly state specific functions to be performed 4) Must clearly state requirements to be followed 5) Must specify experience, education or training required

The nurse is a member of the critical incident stress management unit that looks to meet the psychosocial needs of first responders after a mass casualty incident. Which action by the nurse is appropriate when conducting a session? 1 Arranging group discussion 2 Administering antianxiety medication 3 Scheduling individual therapy appointments 4 Documenting individual responses to the session

1. Arranging group discussion Many hospitals and DMATs have a critical incident stress management unit, which arranges group discussions to allow participants to share and validate their feelings and emotions about the experience. This is important for emotional recovery. The nurse does not administer antianxiety medications to the participants, schedule individual therapy appointments, or document individual responses to the group session.

The nurse is assessing four clients who were injured in a mass casualty event. Which client does the nurse plan to treat first according to the disaster triage tag system? 1 Client belonging to class I 2 Client belonging to class II 3 Client belonging to class III 4 Client belonging to class IV

1. Client belonging to class I Class I clients are emergent clients who are marked with red tag. These clients have an immediate threat to life and need attention first. Class II clients have major injuries and need treatment within 30 minutes to 2 hours. Class III clients have minor injuries and can be treated in a delayed manner. Class IV clients are those who are expected to die or are dead.

The nurse is caring for the victims of a terrorist attack involving explosive devices. Which type of damage is most likely caused by a crush injury? 1 Middle ear injury 2 Blunt trauma to the head 3 Shrapnel injury in the abdomen 4 Damaged lungs due to shock wave

2. Blunt trauma to the head Crush injuries often result from explosions in confined spaces causing structural collapse, such as falling debris. Blunt trauma to the head is an example of a crush injury. Middle ear injury is a common type of blast injury that results from the supersonic over pressurization shock wave caused by the explosion. Some explosive devices contain materials that are projected during the explosion, leading to penetrating injuries. Shrapnel injury in the abdomen is a type of penetrating injury. Lung damage due to a shock wave is a type of blast injury.

Clients in which class are given a yellow tag according to the disaster triage tag system? 1 Class I 2 Class II 3 Class III 4 Class IV

2. Class II Class II clients may have major injuries. Though they have major injuries, they can wait a short time for treatment. They are issued a yellow tag according to the disaster triage tag system. Class III clients are nonurgent clients with minor injuries that do not require immediate treatment. Thus they are given green tags. Class I clients are emergent clients. They require immediate treatment and are identified with red tags. Class IV clients are expected to die and they are issued black tags.

The nurse is reassessing level of consciousness and mental status in a client who survived a fire. Which type of emergency assessment of the trauma client is the nurse performing? 1 Airway 2 Disability 3 Breathing 4 Full set of vital signs

2. Disability Reassessing the level of consciousness and mental status in a client would provide baseline assessment of neurologic status, which is an aspect of emergency assessment of disability performed in a primary survey as a life-saving intervention. Emergency assessment of the airway is performed to assess respiratory distress, bleeding, and edema. Emergency assessment of breathing is performed to assess normal airway passage, tension pneumothorax, or the need for mechanical ventilation. Assessing the full set of vital signs involves monitoring temperature, heart rate and, respiratory rate.

What services can be provided by level II trauma care centers during mass causality events? 1 Stabilize clients with major injuries. 2 Provide care to most injured clients. 3 Provide a full continuum of trauma services for all clients. 4 Provide basic trauma client stabilization and advanced life support.

2. Provide care to most injured clients. Level II trauma centers are community-based trauma centers that can provide most trauma care to clients. Level III trauma centers can provide care up to the stabilization of clients. A full continuum of trauma services for all clients is provided in Level I trauma centers. Basic trauma client stabilization and advanced life support are provided in Level IV trauma centers.

Which statement by the nurse is true regarding mass casualty events related to disasters? 1 "They can be managed by a hospital using local resources." 2 "They are incidents inside a healthcare facility that could endanger the safety of clients." 3 "They may require the association of multiple agencies and healthcare facilities to handle the crisis." 4 "They are events outside the healthcare facility requiring the activation of the facility's emergency management plan."

3. "They may require the association of multiple agencies and healthcare facilities to handle the crisis." A mass casualty event overwhelms local medical capabilities and may require the collaboration of multiple agencies and healthcare facilities to handle the disaster. Multi-casualty events can be managed by the hospital using local resources. An internal disaster is an event that occurs inside a healthcare facility or campus that could endanger the safety of clients or staff. An external disaster is an event outside the healthcare facility or campus, somewhere in the community, that may require the activation of the facility's emergency management plan.

Which health care team member is a first responder when an emergency or mass casualty incident (MCI) occurs? 1 Medical unit nurse 2 Police officer 3 Critical care nurse 4 Unlicensed assistive personnel

3. Critical care nurse Critical care nurses are often considered emergency medical personnel that respond to emergency or MCIs. Firemen and police officers are first responders but are not members of the health care team. Unlicensed assistive personnel are not first responders.

Which phase in the disaster management continuum does the nurse understand as including the attempt to limit a disaster's impact on human health and community function? 1 Recovery 2 Response 3 Mitigation 4 Preparedness

3. Mitigation There are five phases in the disaster management continuum, which include preparedness, mitigation, response, recovery, and evaluation. In mitigation, there will be plans for attempting to limit a disaster's impact on human health and community function. Recovery includes focusing on stabilizing the community and returning it to the previous status. Response includes implementation of the disaster plan. Preparedness is the preparation of a protective plan that is designed before the event has occurred.

Which disaster event involves an internal disaster compounded with an external disaster? 1 Fertilizer plant explosion in Texas 2 9/11 World Trade Center terrorist attack 3 Cocoanut Grove nightclub fire in Boston 4 St. John's Regional Medical Center in Joplin, MO

4. St. John's Regional Medical Center in Joplin, MO An internal disaster is an event inside a healthcare facility that could endanger the safety of clients or staff. St. John's Regional Medical Center in Joplin experienced an internal disaster compounding an external disaster when it was directly hit by an EF-5 tornado. A large part of the town was destroyed (external disaster) and 6 people inside the hospital died (internal disaster). The fertilizer plant explosion in Texas, the 9/11 World Trade Center terrorist attack, and the Cocoanut Grove nightclub fire in Boston are external disasters. An external disaster is an event outside a healthcare facility

7) A student nurse will be attending clinical at the local health department. The student nurse is aware that which potential programs are offered by local health departments? Select all that apply. A) Injury prevention campaigns B) Lead poisoning prevention efforts C) Nutritional programs D) Disease prevention efforts E) Workplace safety inspections

A, B, C, D) Local health departments oversee a variety of health policies and the respective regulations. Typical programs include injury prevention campaigns; lead poisoning prevention efforts; and making safety equipment such as smoke detectors, children's bicycle helmets, and infant car seats available to families at no cost. Local departments of health usually administer the Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) supplemental nutrition program, which provides food assistance to pregnant women and children under age 5 who are at risk for malnutrition. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a federal agency that works to ensure the health and safety of Americans in the workplace. It provides training, outreach, and education to employers and employees, and encourages improvement of workplace safety and health.

Continuing Education must...

Must 1) Be relevant to nursing practice 2) Enhance knowledge above basic license requirements 3) Cannot repeat course with similar content in same renewal cycle.

How should nurses prepare for bioterrorism?

They must be aware of the early signs and symptoms of the primary agents as well as how they are transmitted. -Anthrax can be treated well with ciprofloxacin 400mg IV every 12 hours. -There are no affective therapies for most other primary agents. -The strategic national stockpile is designed to ensure that there is immediate availability of medical materials are available if there is a large-scale chemical or biological attack.

2. In which circumstance is a change in patient confidentiality permitted? a. Family reunification. b. High census at a hospital. c. Media requests. d. Non-emergent nursing home evacuation.

a. Family reunification.

The medical profession and the nursing profession have similar and dissimilar attributes. Which of the following is a true comparison of the two professions? a. medical doctors and RN begin their careers a a relatively equal pay level b. medical doctors and RNs receive direct reimbursement for the professional services rendered c. medicine and RN are both female dominated professions d. the public influence of medicine and nursing is relatively equal

a. Medical doctors and RNs begin their careers at a relatively equal pay level

The primary purpose of the LSBN is shich of the following? a. protect the public b. protect all nurses (RN's and LPN's) c. protect the RN d. protect all nursing healthcare providers (RN's, LPNs and assistants)

a. Protect the public

What is abandonment?

Once I've accepted an assignment, I am responsible for those patients.

Five rights for delegation?

1) Right Task 2) Right Circumstance 3) Right Person - know who you're delegating to. 4) Right Communication - make it clear what you want form that person 5) Right Supervision - I'm responsible for their actions

CMS

-Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. -The federal agency and public funding system that is responsible for administering Medicare, Medicaid, and CHIP. -One of the 11 operating divisions of the DHHS. -Administers the nation's major healthcare programs. -Works to eliminate fraud and abuse within the American healthcare system.

What is the ANAs position on nurses' emergency and disaster responsibilities?

-Do the greatest good for the greatest number of casualties. -They will be working under intense time restraints, care for each patient quickly, and move on. -Don't use their time to provide care that will be of minimal or questionable benefit. -Be constantly aware of their defined scope of practice and not exceed it even if circumstances seem to dictate it.

Stakeholders job in policy making

-Public policy is subject to be influenced by many different stakeholders. - -INSIDE government stakeholders: legislators, bureaucrats, president or governor's staff, and the courts. -OUTSIDE government stakeholders: interested citizens, institutions, professional associations, and other special interest groups.

Nurses role in an emergency

-Triage, perform first aid, stabilize patients in preparation for advanced care or transport. -They also have to decide whether to assist during a disaster or not. -They are never expected to jeopardize their own safety or that of their families. -Allocate scarce resources and supplies. -Make unbelievably difficult patient care decisions while they triage victims. -Must understand the ethics associated with these decisions. -must be aware of their employer's response plan and have a sense of how their state and local community will operate. -must be aware of scope of practice and stick to it. -Know s/sx of bioterrorism agents and how they are transmitted. -Know vulnerable populations.

What is reverse triage?

-When the most severely injured or ill victims who require the greatest resources are treated last to allow the greatest number of victims to receive medical attention. -START color classification system. -Red (Immediate) see first. Victim can be helped with immediate intervention and transport. Includes compromises to ABCs. -Yellow (delayed) see second. Victims transport may be delayed. Includes serious and potentially life-threatening injuries but can wait to be helped (30 min-2hr). -Green (minor) Victims have relatively minor injuries and seem likely to deteriorate over several days. -Black (emergent) treated last because the victim is not likely to survive given the severity of their symptoms. Provide palliative care and pain relief.

After an earthquake, there were a large number of deaths and casualties who required acute care for several days in the field. Which teams activated by state and federal government authorities would the nurse consider to be the most suitable in managing the event? Select all that apply. 1 Medical Reserve Corps (MRC) 2 Disaster Medical Assistance Team (DMAT) 3 National Veterinary Response Teams (NVRTs) 4 International Medical Surgical Response Teams (IMSuRTs) 5 Disaster Mortuary Operational Response Teams (DMORTs)

. Medical Reserve Corps (MRC) 5. Disaster Mortuary Operational Response Teams (DMORTs) State and federal government authorities can activate teams such as MRC and the National Disaster Management System (NDMS) that include DMAT, NVRT, DMORT, and IMSRT. MRC may set up an acute care center (ACC) in the community for clients who need acute care for days to weeks. DMORTs are effective in managing mass fatalities. DMAT is deployed with enough medical equipment and supplies to sustain operations only for 72 hours, so it may not provide acute care to clients for several days. NVRT mainly focuses on providing emergency animal care. IMSuRT establishes fully functional field surgical facilities during disaster events that may not be suitable in this scenario.

An RN must know the limit of the scope for health care partners and may not delegate what tasks? The RN can only delegate nursing tasks to other nursing personnel.

1) Administration of medication 2) Venipuncture or intravenous therapy 3) Parenteral or tube feedings 4) Invasive procedures including inserting nasogastric tubes, inserting catheters, or tracheal suctioning 5) Assessment of patient condition 6) Educating patients and their families concerning the patient's health care problems, including post-discharge care

RN scope includes, but is not limited to:

1) Assessment and interpretation of clinical findings 2) Disease prevention and restorative measures 3) Administration of medications (with valid order) 4) Skin tests, immunizations 5) Withdrawal of blood 6) Use of nursing process 7) Implementation of standardized procedures

RN scope includes, but is not limited to:

1) Assessment and interpretation of clinical findings 2) Disease prevention and restorative measures 3) Administration of medications (with valid order) 4) Skin tests, immunizations 5) Withdrawal of blood 6) Use of nursing process 7) Implementation of standardized procedures

California registered nurses have multiple reporting requirements for known or suspected abuse and/or neglect including:

1) Certain injuries - violence, physical abuse 2) Child abuse and neglect 3) Elder or dependent adult abuse/neglect

BRN accomplishes they're mission by doing what?

1) Licensing registered nurses. 2) Approving nursing education programs. 3) Establishing and upholding competency standards. 4) Intervening with discipline and rehabilitation. 5) Serving as the final authority in the interpretation and enforcement of the Nursing Practice Act.

Federally funded health care programs

1) Medicare - for clients 65 years or older, patients with permanent disabilities, end-stage renal disease, or ALS -4 parts: Part A) Hospital insurance. Part B) Medical insurance, preventative care. Part C) Advantage plans (combined with private plans). Part D) Prescription -Does not cover long-term care, dental, vision, hearing aids, or cosmetic surgery. 2) Medicaid - for clients with low incomes; State determines eligibility requirements -Jointly funded and administered by states and the federal government. -Each state sets its own eligibility standards. 3) Supplemental Security Income (SSI) -Federal and State public assistance program funded by general taxes. -Used to help disabled, blind, and aged people who have little or no income. -Provides cash for basic needs such as food, clothing, and housing. 4) Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP) -Jointly funded by the federal and state. -Provides health insurance to children under the age of 19 whose families earn more than the Medicaid limits but cannot afford to purchase private insurance. -Each state determines the design of its program (eligibility, benefits, payment levels for coverage, and administration).

A client rescued from a fire was found unconscious and having difficulty breathing. Which team should the nurse consider to be responsible for the treatment of this client? 1 Paramedics 2 Prehospital care providers 3 Emergency medicine physicians 4 Emergency medical technicians (EMTs)

1. Paramedics An unconscious client who is unable to breathe may require intubation. Paramedics are the advanced life support (ALS) providers who can perform advanced techniques that include cardiac monitoring, advanced airway management, and intubation. Prehospital care providers are the first caregivers who provide preliminary care in an ambulance or a helicopter before the client is admitted to the emergency department. Emergency medicine physicians have special education and training in emergency client management. EMTs are responsible for providing the basic life support interventions such as oxygen, basic wound care, monitoring of vital signs, etc.

Which emergency medical service (EMS) healthcare professional provides advanced life support to the clients who survived a large-scale disaster? 1 Paramedics 2 Triage officer 3 Prehospital care providers 4 Emergency medical technicians

1. Paramedics Paramedics provide advanced life support such as cardiac monitoring and establishing intravenous access to the clients who survived a large-scale disaster. A triage officer rapidly evaluates each client to determine priorities for treatment. Prehospital care providers are the first caregivers that clients see before transport to the ED by an ambulance or helicopter. Emergency medical technicians provide basic life support interventions such as oxygen and basic wound care to the clients who survived large-scale disaster.

The terrorist attack event on the World Trade Center on September 11, 2001, resulted in mass casualties that led to changes in hospital and community disaster planning efforts. What would the nurse say was the impact of this technological external disaster on the emergency medical services (EMS) for improving the safety of the public? Select all that apply. 1 Providing routine training to facility staff about hazardous materials 2 Upgrading decontamination facilities and equipment to protect staff 3 Making structural changes that would offer protection from utility failures 4 Preparedness of healthcare facilities for pandemic infections, including influenza 5 Developing approaches for preparedness to nuclear, biologic, chemical (NBC) threats

1. Providing routine training to facility staff about hazardous materials 2. Upgrading decontamination facilities and equipment to protect staff 5. Developing approaches for preparedness to nuclear, biologic, chemical (NBC) threats The technological external disaster event of September 11, 2001 and the resulting focus on terror threats had a great impact on the disaster planning efforts for improving the safety of the public. Emergency medical services (EMS) agencies and hospitals improved safety by providing routine training to staff about hazardous materials handling. Upgrades were made to decontamination facilities and equipment to protect staff. Approaches were designed to make the staff prepared for nuclear, biologic, and chemical (NBC) threats. Preparedness of healthcare facilities for pandemic infections resulted more from natural external disasters, such as Hurricane Katrina. Unfortunately, there still have not been sufficient structural changes that would offer protection from utility failures.

Which colors are often included in an organizational disaster plan for use during triage? Select all that apply. 1 Red 2 Black 3 Green 4 White 5 Yellow

1. Red 2. Black 3. Green 5. Yellow Colors that are often used for triage purposes in an organizational disaster plan include red, black, green, yellow, and blue. White is not a color that is used during the triage process.

In a health care system, the nurse is planning management of a disaster that involves second order change. Which type of change would characterize this disaster? Select all that apply. 1 Revolutionary and episodic change 2 Change in harmony with people or systems 3 Evolutionary change with continuous improvement 4 Change involving small ongoing steps to make things better 5 Change requiring radical adjustments in a person or in the structure of the system

1. Revolutionary and episodic change 5. Change requiring radical adjustments in a person or in the structure of the system A second order change is an unanticipated or unexpected change that may occur as a result of disaster in a health care system. Second order change is revolutionary and episodic and requires radical adjustments in a person or in the structure of the system. First order change involves harmony with people or systems. This type of change is evolutionary with continuous improvement and includes small ongoing steps to make things better to sustain the change.

Community members have received mailed notices asking them to come to different healthcare agencies within the community at the same time on the upcoming Saturday afternoon. What is the purpose of asking community members to perform this task? 1 Test the emergency preparedness plan 2 Determine if community members can read 3 Measure the effectiveness of mailed communication 4 Identify community members who do not work weekends

1. Test the emergency preparedness plan The Joint Commission mandates that hospitals have an emergency preparedness plan that is tested through drills. One of the drills or events must involve communitywide resources and an influx of actual or simulated clients to assess the ability of collaborative efforts and command structures. Asking community members to come to healthcare agencies in the community at the same time is testing the emergency preparedness plan through simulating a disastrous event. The mailed notice was not sent to determine if community members can read, measure the effectiveness of mailed communication, or to identify community members who do not work weekends.

Rank in order the documents with the strongest legal authority. Number 1 being highest. -ANA Scope and Standards practice -The LNPA (la nurse practice Act) -Opinions rendered by the LSBN -declaratory stmts published by the LSBN

1. The LNPA (la nurse practice act) 2. Declaratory stmts published by the LSBN 3. Opinions rendered by the LSBN 4. ANA scope and standards document

What does the nurse understand to be the role of emergency medical technicians (EMTs) in emergency nursing after a disaster? 1 To monitor vital signs 2 To provide intubation 3 To establish intravenous (IV) access 4 To perform advanced airway management

1. To monitor vital signs EMTs offer basic life support interventions that include monitoring vital signs. Paramedics are advanced life support care providers that perform advanced techniques such as providing intubation, establishing IV access, and performing advanced airway management.

After a hurricane, the nurse is assessing the response of a client to stimuli on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) as a part of the primary survey. The nurse observes that the client opens his eyes when his name is stated, uses disorganized words, and is unable to follow commands, but attempts to remove the offending stimulus. What is the Glasgow coma score for this client? Record your answer using a whole number.____________

11 Glasgow scale (GCS) is used by the nurse to conduct neurologic assessment as a part of primary survey. It is performed to determine the client's response to verbal and/or painful stimuli in order to assess the level of consciousness and degree of disability. A score of 3 is given when the client opens the eyes when the name is stated. If disorganized use of words is present, a score of 3 is given. A score of 5 is given when there is a lack of obedience but attempts to remove the offending stimulus. Therefore the client's GCS score would be 3+3+5= 11.

Which disaster can be categorized as an internal disaster? 1 Hurricane in a state 2 Explosion in a hospital 3 Earthquake in a country 4 Flooding in a town

2. Explosion in a hospital An internal disaster is any event inside a health care facility or campus that could endanger the safety of clients or staff. An explosion inside a hospital is an example of internal disaster. A hurricane, earthquake, or flooding in a town, all occurring out of the hospital setting but requiring an emergency management plan from the hospital, can be categorized as external disasters.

In a mass casualty situation, which is the facility-level organizational model for disaster management used by the hospital or long-term care facility? 1 Emergency operations center (EOC) 2 Hospital Incident Command System (HICS) 3 National Incident Management System (NIMS) 4 Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

2. Hospital Incident Command System (HICS) The facility-level organizational model for disaster management is the Hospital Incident Command System (HICS). It attempts to standardize disaster operations by formally structuring roles under the hospital or long-term care facility incident commander with clear lines of authority and accountability for specific resources. The EOC, NIMS, and FEMA are not facility-level organizational models for disaster management. The EOC is established by the HICS personnel in a designated location with accessible communication technology to manage the overall incident. The NIMS is the overall system for incident management of which the HICS is a part; it is implemented by the Department of Homeland Security and FEMA. The FEMA provides numerous online resources so that people are better prepared for disasters and are able to respond more self-sufficiently to incidents and hazard situations in their own communities.

The victims of a terrorist attack involving sarin are brought to the emergency department. Which statement does the nurse know to be true regarding the characteristics of sarin? 1 Sarin causes skin burns and blisters. 2 Sarin can cause death within minutes of exposure. 3 A garlic-like odor and brown color are characteristics of sarin. 4 A single dose of pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM chloride) reverses the effects of long-term sarin exposure.

2. Sarin can cause death within minutes of exposure. Sarin is a highly toxic nerve gas that can cause death within minutes of exposure. Mustard gas causes skin burns and blisters. A garlic-like odor and brown color are characteristics of mustard gas. While pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM chloride) is used as an antidote for nerve agent poisoning, multiple doses may be needed to reverse the effects of nerve agents; also, sarin acts by paralyzing the respiratory muscles.

A client who survived an explosion was found with moist blebs and blisters on the skin with cherry red color. The client is having severe pain. After assessing, the nurse finds the skin is hypersensitive to touch or air. Which condition can be suspected in the client? 1 First-degree burn 2 Second-degree burn 3 Third-degree burn 4 Fourth-degree burn

2. Second-degree burn Characteristic findings of a second-degree burn are moist blebs and blisters in the skin. The skin appears as a mottled white, pink to cherry-red colour. The skin is also hypersensitive to touch or air and there may be moderate to severe pain. The assessments of first-degree burn are redness, pain, moderate to severe tenderness, and minimal edema. In third and fourth-degree burns there is a dry, leathery eschar on the skin. The skin appears as waxy white, dark brown, or charred. The skin becomes insensitive to touch.

How often should a healthcare facility that is Joint Commission accredited plan to test the emergency preparedness plan? 1 Annually 2 Twice a year 3 Every 2 years 4 Every 3 months

2. Twice a year The Joint Commission mandates that hospitals have an emergency preparedness plan that is tested through drills or actual participation in a real event at least twice yearly. Annually or every 2 years is not frequent enough to test the emergency preparedness plan. It is not necessary to test the plan as frequently as every three months.

A nurse on the disaster management team is caring for survivors of an earthquake. The nurse understands that some survivors may have chest trauma and may need a needle decompression to relieve the air or fluid trapped in the chest. Following the initial assessment, which client would the nurse treat first? 1 Client A with muffled, distant heart sounds, neck vein distention 2 Client B with paradoxic movement of chest wall, respiratory distress 3 Client C with cyanosis, air hunger, violent agitation, tracheal deviation away from affected side 4 Client D with hyperresonance to percussion, diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side

3. Client C with cyanosis, air hunger, violent agitation, tracheal deviation away from affected side The assessment findings of cyanosis, air hunger, violent agitation, and tracheal deviation away from affected side indicates tension pneumothorax. This is a medical emergency and intervening by needle decompression is appropriate. Muffled, distant heart sounds and neck vein distention indicates cardiac tamponade; pericardiocentesis with surgical repair may be appropriate. Paradoxic movement of chest wall and respiratory distress indicates flail chest. Stabilizing flail segment with positive pressure ventilation is appropriate. Hyperresonance to percussion and diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side indicates pneumothorax. The treatment for this includes chest tube insertion with a flutter valve or chest drainage system.

Which internal disaster may create a need for evacuation or relocation of clients? 1 Hurricane 2 Earthquake 3 Gas explosion 4 Terrorism with explosive devices

3. Gas explosion A gas explosion is an internal disaster that creates a need for evacuation or relocation. A hurricane or earthquake are natural disasters and are external. The use of explosive devices for a terrorist attack is also an external disaster.

Several nurses from Pennsylvania who are members of a disaster medical assistance team (DMAT) are being sent to South Carolina to provide healthcare to hurricane victims. What action is required prior to these nurses providing care? 1 Applying for licensure in South Carolina 2 Showing Pennsylvania state nursing license 3 None since the nurses are acting as federal employees 4 Calling the National Council for the State Boards of Nursing and request licensure

3. None since the nurses are acting as federal employees Because licensed healthcare providers such as nurses act as federal employees when they are deployed, their professional licenses are recognized and valid in all states. There is no need for the nurses to apply for licensure in South Carolina, show Pennsylvania license, or call the National Council for the State Board of Nursing to request licensure.

A group of bomb blast victims needs to be transported to the hospital immediately. Which staff members of an emergency unit are most appropriate to handle this situation? 1 Triage officer 2 Medical command physician 3 Prehospital care providers 4 Emergency medicine physician

3. Prehospital care providers Prehospital care providers are the first caregivers who provide transport to the emergency department by ambulance or helicopter for clients in an emergency situation. Triage officers are responsible for evaluating each client to determine priorities for treatment. The medical command physician decides the number, acuity, and resource needs of clients. Emergency medicine physicians have specialized education and training in emergency client management.

The first responders rescue and bring submersion victims of a natural disaster to the emergency department. Which is an appropriate intervention for treating clients with submersion injuries? 1 Refrain from inserting urinary catheter 2 Immediately provide intubation and mechanical ventilation 3 Stabilize or immobilize cervical spine in all near-drowning victims 4 Immediately apply heating devices to keep the client's body temperature elevated

3. Stabilize or immobilize cervical spine in all near-drowning victims The nurse should assume cervical spine injury in all near-drowning victims and stabilize or immobilize the victim's cervical spine. The nurse should insert a gastric tube and urinary catheter as an initial intervention for a submersion victim. The nurse should anticipate the need for intubation and mechanical ventilation if the airway is compromised, such as if the gag reflex is absent; intubation and mechanical ventilation need not be provided immediately to all clients if not required. While the client should be warmed if needed, the nurse needs to monitor the client's temperature and maintain normothermia.

The nurse is helping a triage officer evaluate the victims of a large scale disaster. Which client does the nurse anticipate will be given a black tag? 1 A client with a contusion 2 A client with airway obstruction 3 A client with open fractures and a distal pulse 4 A client with extensive full-thickness body burns

4. A client with extensive full-thickness body burns A black-tagged client in a mass casualty triage situation is a critically ill client who is expected and allowed to die or is not treated until others have received care. This is done so that limited resources can be dedicated to saving the most lives, and not expended to save one life at the possible expense of many others. The client with extensive full-thickness body burns falls in this category. A client with a contusion would be green-tagged because a contusion is a minor injury that can be managed in a delayed fashion. A client with airway obstruction would be red-tagged. This client has an immediate threat to life and requires immediate attention. A client with open fractures with a distal pulse would be yellow-tagged. This is major injury that requires treatment within 30 minutes to two hours.

A hospital is implementing a Hospital Incident Command System (HICS) for a disaster preparedness plan for the entire health system. Which resource can the staff educators use to assist with the education of health care providers who work within the system? 1 National Incident Management System (NIMS) 2 Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) 3 Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) 4 Federal Emergency Management Administration (FEMA)

4. Federal Emergency Management Administration (FEMA) FEMA offers free courses on the NIMS model and HICS structure through their website (www.training.fema.gov/IS/). CMS requires a certain number of drills per year to be in compliance with their disaster preparedness mandates. OSHA does not provide education for the implementation of a disaster preparedness plan on the hospital level.

Which statement by the registered nurse is true regarding the mitigation phase of disaster management? 1 It is a phase of identifying the potential risks due to the disaster. 2 It is a process of assisting clients to regain a normal level of functioning. 3 It is a process of combating a disaster event and providing assistance to victims. 4 It is a process of minimizing of the disaster's influence on human health and community.

4. It is a process of minimizing of the disaster's influence on human health and community. The process of minimizing the disaster's influence on human health and community is the mitigation phase. Identifying potential risks due to the disaster is the preparedness phase of disaster management. The process of assisting clients to regain a normal level of functioning is the response phase. The process of combating a disaster event and providing assistance to victims is the recovery phase.

The hospital administration arranges for critical incident stress debriefing for the staff after a mass casualty incident. Which statement by the debriefing team leader is most appropriate for this situation? a. You are free to express your feelings; whatever is said here stays here. b. Lets evaluate what went wrong and develop policies for future incidents. c. This session is only for nursing and medical staff, not for ancillary personnel. d. Lets pass around the written policy compliance form for everyone.

A ~ Strict confidentiality during stress debriefing is essential so that staff members can feel comfortable sharing their feelings, which should be accepted unconditionally. Brainstorming improvements and discussing policies would occur during an administrative review. Any employee present during a mass casualty situation is eligible for critical incident stress management services.

A nurse wants to become involved in community disaster preparedness and is interested in helping set up and staff first aid stations or community acute care centers in the event of a disaster. Which organization is the best fit for this nurses interests? a. The Medical Reserve Corps b. The National Guard c. The health department d. A Disaster Medical Assistance Team

A ~ The Medical Reserve Corps (MRC) consists of volunteer medical and public health care professionals who support the community during times of need. They may help staff hospitals, establish first aid stations or special needs shelters, or set up acute care centers in the community. The National Guard often performs search and rescue operations and law enforcement. The health department focuses on communicable disease tracking, treatment, and prevention. A Disaster Medical Assistance Team is deployed to a disaster area for up to 72 hours, providing many types of relief services.

A hospital responds to a local mass casualty event. Which action should the nurse supervisor take to prevent staff post-traumatic stress disorder during a mass casualty event? a. Provide water and healthy snacks for energy throughout the event. b. Schedule 16-hour shifts to allow for greater rest between shifts. c. Encourage counseling upon deactivation of the emergency response plan. d. Assign staff to different roles and units within the medical facility.

A ~ To prevent staff post-traumatic stress disorder during a mass casualty event, the nurses should use available counseling, encourage and support co-workers, monitor each others stress level and performance, take breaks when needed, talk about feelings with staff and managers, and drink plenty of water and eat healthy snacks for energy. Nurses should also keep in touch with family, friends, and significant others, and not work for more than 12 hours per day. Encouraging counseling upon deactivation of the plan, or after the emergency response is over, does not prevent stress during the casualty event. Assigning staff to unfamiliar roles or units may increase situational stress and is not an approach to prevent post-traumatic stress disorder.

A nurse wants to become part of a Disaster Medical Assistance Team (DMAT) but is concerned about maintaining licensure in several different states. Which statement best addresses these concerns? a. Deployed DMAT providers are federal employees, so their licenses are good in all 50 states. b. The government has a program for quick licensure activation wherever you are deployed. c. During a time of crisis, licensure issues would not be the governments priority concern. d. If you are deployed, you will be issued a temporary license in the state in which you are working.

A ~ When deployed, DMAT health care providers are acting as agents of the federal government, and so are considered federal employees. Thus their licenses are valid in all 50 states. Licensure is an issue that the government would be concerned with, but no programs for temporary licensure or rapid activation are available.

7) The nurse understands that some factors affect health care delivery by creating new opportunities for the healthcare sector. Which of the following would affect healthcare delivery? A) Advances in technology requiring specialized personnel B) Healthcare literacy programs C) Changing demographics that increase the need for new jobs D) Managed care frameworks that coordinate clients and insurance plans

A) Constant change is the new norm in medicine. Scientific knowledge related to health care is rapidly increasing and leading to more sophisticated technology. Information management systems have been created and are continually being refined. Such systems support bedside charting, monitoring, laboratory testing, and use of online evidence-based guidelines to provide appropriate care. New discoveries often modify how and where care may be provided. Many advances in technology require specialized personnel, creating new opportunities for individuals seeking employment in the healthcare sector.

6) The nurse knows that communication among healthcare team members is essential during mass casualty events. Which factors are the most important for nurses in order to foster better communication? A) Concise, accurate, timely information B) Preparing for ethical challenges C) Documenting to prevent legal issues D) Coordinating care between management and clinicians

A) Nurses face ethical and legal issues associated with the provision of care in mass casualty events (MCE). They are also challenged as they decide what care to provide to the patients they are caring for during a disaster. Communication among the various emergency team members must be concise, accurate, and timely during an MCE. Nurses must use their knowledge to foster better communication.

9) A nursing student is preparing to compose a paper. She has chosen to research an organization that promotes excellence in all levels of nursing education. The nursing student would research which organization? A) National League for Nursing (NLN) B) National Student Nurses Association (NSNA) C) American Nurses Association (ANA) D) American Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN)

A) The NLN was the first nursing organization in the United States and was founded in 1893. Part of the mission of the NLN is to promote excellence in nursing education to build a strong and diverse nursing workforce. The NSNA is a nonprofit organization that mentors nursing students who are preparing for initial licensing as a registered nurse. The ANA fosters high standards of nursing practice, promotes the rights of nurses in the workplace, projects a positive and realistic view of nursing, and lobbies Congress and regulatory agencies on healthcare issues affecting nurses and the public. The AACN is the national voice for America's baccalaureate and graduate nursing education programs.

4) A nurse educator is discussing the different entities that offer accreditation to healthcare professional programs. Which types of programs can receive accreditation from the National League of Nursing (NLN)? Select all that apply. A) Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN) programs B) Licensed Vocational Nursing (LVN) programs C) Medical Assisting programs D) Licensed Practical Nursing (LPN) programs E) Dental Assisting programs

A, B, D) The NLN accredits nursing programs at all levels, including BSN, LPN, and LVN programs. Medical Assisting and Dental Assisting programs would not be eligible for NLN accreditation.

After a hospital's emergency department (ED) has efficiently triaged, treated, and transferred clients from a community disaster to appropriate units, the hospital incident command officer wants to stand down from the emergency plan. Which question should the nursing supervisor ask at this time? a. Are you sure no more victims are coming into the ED? b. Do all areas of the hospital have the supplies and personnel they need? c. Have all ED staff had the chance to eat and rest recently? d. Does the Chief Medical Officer agree this disaster is under control?

B ~ Before standing down, the incident command officer ensures that the needs of the other hospital departments have been taken care of because they may still be stressed and may need continued support to keep functioning. Many more walking wounded victims may present to the ED; that number may not be predictable. Giving staff the chance to eat and rest is important, but all areas of the facility need that too. Although the Chief Medical Officer (CMO) may be involved in the incident, the CMO does not determine when the hospital can stand down.

2) A local health system has implemented a number of health promotion policies and plans to prioritize health problems. The system must now evaluate the effectiveness of the interventions. Which groups are stakeholders in this initiative and would be involved in this process? A) Only consumers who were directly affected by the services provided B) Consumers, community leaders, and politicians C) Only hospital and clinic personnel who administered healthcare needs D) Healthcare providers employed by other health systems

B) Community leaders, politicians, and consumers all would be stakeholders and would be included in the evaluation process. Healthcare providers employed by other health systems would not be stakeholders in this initiative and would not need to be included in the evaluation process. Because policy changes are made by the health system, the hospital and clinic personnel employed there would not evaluate the effectiveness of policy without participation by the community. Consumers are part of the process, but would not be the only evaluation group.

5) A nursing student is talking to the instructor about developing professional behavior. In order to access information that may be useful in developing professional demeanor, the instructor recommends that the student do which of the following? A) Join the America Nurses Association (ANA). B) Join the National Student Nurses Association (NSNA). C) Read the Nurse Practice Act. D) Use the Internet to obtain information.

B) The NSNA is an organization specifically for student nurses with a goal of assisting the student to foster their professionalism. Nurse practice acts do need to be read by students, but they denote laws, not professionalism. The ANA is for members practicing nursing, not students, although students may join. The NSNA focuses on students and is a better resource. The Internet is good for obtaining information and for networking but is not necessarily a help to the student who wishes to increase professionalism.

3) A student nurse is completing a community assessment with a group of fellow students. The student must research the location of the main healthcare facilities and the number of health professionals in the community. Which would be the best source for this information? A) Police department B) Local health department C) State census data D) City health planning board

B) The local health department would be able to supply information about location of health facilities, occupational health programs, numbers of health professionals, numbers of welfare recipients, and so on. The police department has statistics regarding incidence of crime, vandalism, and drug addiction. The city health planning board has information about health needs and practices. The state census data describe population composition and characteristics.

Triage officers are tagging clients with disaster triage tags at the site of an earthquake. Which client's tag requires replacement? A closed femur fracture green tag B airway obstruction red tag C closed tibial fracture black tag D minor open fracture with distal pulse yellow tag

C closed tibial fracture black tag Clients with closed fractures may be given green disaster triage tags. Therefore the black tag on client with a closed tibial fracture should be replaced with a green tag. The client with a closed femur fracture has correctly been given a green tag. Clients with life-threatening conditions such as airway obstruction or shock are applied with red disaster triage tags. Therefore the client B is correctly given a red tag. Clients with open fractures with a distal pulse are given yellow tags. Therefore, the client D is correctly tagged.

A nurse cares for clients during a community-wide disaster drill. Once of the clients asks, "Why are the individuals with black tags not receiving any care?" How should the nurse respond? a. To do the greatest good for the greatest number of people, it is necessary to sacrifice some. b. Not everyone will survive a disaster, so it is best to identify those people early and move on. c. In a disaster, extensive resources are not used for one person at the expense of many others. d. With black tags, volunteers can identify those who are dying and can give them comfort care.

C ~ In a disaster, military-style triage is used; this approach identifies the dead or expectant dead with black tags. This practice helps to maintain the goal of triage, which is doing the most good for the most people. Precious resources are not used for those with overwhelming critical injury or illness, so that they can be allocated to others who have a reasonable expectation of survival. Clients are not sacrificed. Telling students to move on after identifying the expectant dead belittles their feelings and does not provide an adequate explanation. Clients are not black-tagged to allow volunteers to give comfort care.

A nurse is caring for a client whose wife died in a recent mass casualty accident. The client says, "I cant believe that my wife is gone and I am left to raise my children all by myself." How should the nurse respond? a. Please accept my sympathies for your loss. b. I can call the hospital chaplain if you wish. c. You sound anxious about being a single parent. d. At least your children still have you in their lives.

C ~ Therapeutic communication includes active listening and honesty. This statement demonstrates that the nurse recognizes the clients distress and has provided an opening for discussion. Extending sympathy and offering to call the chaplain do not give the client the opportunity to discuss feelings. Stating that the children still have one parent discounts the clients feelings and situation.

8) A newly licensed nurse has been hired at a local hospital and completed the hospital orientation program. The newly licensed nurse would be aware that which regulatory agency works to ensure the health and safety of Americans in the workplace? A) Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) B) National Institutes of Health (NIH) C) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) D) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)

C) OSHA works to ensure the health and safety of Americans in the workplace. The DHHS is the federal government's principal agency for the protection of the health of all Americans and the provision of essential human services for those least able to care for themselves. The NIH is a branch of the DHHS that is responsible for health research and the provision of health-related information. The CMS is responsible for healthcare financing.

6) A 67-year-old client has experienced an extended hospitalization due to a chronic illness. The client asks the nurse how he will afford to pay for the hospitalization plus all the extremely expensive drugs he now has to take. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? A) "I'll have someone from the business office come and talk to you about your bill." B) "You need to focus on recovering and stop worrying about money." C) "Much of your care will be covered by Medicare." D) "Don't worry. I'm sure everything will work out okay."

C) The Medicare amendment to the Social Security Act provided a national and state health insurance program for older adults. By the mid-1970s, virtually everyone over 65 years of age was protected by hospital insurance under Part A. In 1988, Congress expanded Medicare to include extremely expensive hospital care, "catastrophic care," and expensive drugs. Ignoring the client's concerns by telling him not to worry is not therapeutic communication and does little, if anything, to confront the client's concerns. Giving the concern to the business office is merely "passing the buck." Nurses should have some knowledge about the payment sources of their clients, especially those who have automatic coverage with Medicare because of their age.

A client who is hospitalized with burns after losing the family home in a fire becomes angry and screams at a nurse when dinner is served late. How should the nurse respond? a. Do you need something for pain right now? b. Please stop yelling. I brought dinner as soon as I could. c. I suggest that you get control of yourself. d. You seem upset. I have time to talk if you'd like.

D ~ Clients should be allowed to ventilate their feelings of anger and despair after a catastrophic event. The nurse establishes rapport through active listening and honest communication and by recognizing cues that the client wishes to talk. Asking whether the client is in pain as the first response closes the door to open communication and limits the clients options. Simply telling the client to stop yelling and to gain control does nothing to promote therapeutic communication.

Nursing students are eligible for this after graduation.

Interim Permit. Effective until results of exam are processed or it expires. - Practice under direct supervision of an RN

The omission to do something that a reasonable and prudent person would do?

Negligence

Is it with in the RN's scope of practice in La to "hang out a shingle" and open a "Professional Nursing Service?"

Yes

Florence Nightingale's description of nursing matched the Hippocratic view in what way? a. both believed nature was critical in the healing process b. both believed that illness was caused by micro organizsms c. both believed that health was maintained by gods

a. Both believed nature was critical in the healing process

Which of the following organization claims to be the leader in nursing education? a. National league of nursing b. american nurses association c. baton rouge district nurses association

a. National league for Nursing

The on-coming night RN has received report from the day RN. which patient should the night RN assess first? a. the male pt who has just been brought to the floor from the ER b. the female pt who received pain meds 30 mins ago for pain level 8/10 c. the male pt who had a cardiac cath this morning and has been up the BRx1 d. The female pt who has been turning on the call-light frequently and complains her care has been neglected

a. The male patient who has just been brought to the floor from the ER

11. Exposure to toxins and mold is an example of: a. an environmental health consequence. b. collateral damage. c. poor planning. d. risk mitigation.

a. an environmental health consequence.

How does an RN obtain a seat on the La State of Board of Nursing? The RN.... a. is appointed by the governor b. applies to the la dpt of health and hospitals c. petitions the la. house health and welfare committee d. petitions the joint la house/senate health and welfare committee

a. is appointed by the Governor

Which of the following terms and phrases describe the 2001 code of ethics? mark all that apply a. non-negotiable b. succinct c. stmt of understanding d. contextual

a. non-negotiable b. succinct c. a stmt of understanding

Which of the following describes the change in emphasis in the nursing Code of Ethics from 1950 to present? a. now, nursing action is judged based on context, previously it was not b. now, the code of ethics is "non=negotiable" previously it was not c. now responsibility for nursing action is often thought to be dependent upon a system previously it was not d. now Judeo-christian philosophy has the strongest effect on the code of ethics, previously communitarian and feminist theory had the most influence

a. now, nursing action is judged based on context, previously it was not b. now, the code of ethics is "non=negotiable" previously it was not

How many scopes of practice are there for the professional nurse? a. one b. two c. three d. there can be unlimited scopes of practice

a. one

The 2015 scope of standards document divides professional nursing standards into which of the following categories? mark all that apply a. standards of practice b. standards of ethical behavior c. standards of professional performance d. standards of nursing process

a. standards of practice c. standards of professional performance

Which of the following is the optimal sequence? a. state nurse practice acts are built upon the profession's foundational documents b. the professions foundational documents are built upon the states nurse practice acts

a. state nurse practice acts are built upon the profession's foundational documents

Which of the following describes the majority of RNs sitting on the board? Mark all that apply Rn's on the LSBN boards are predominantly.... a. white b. female c. hold a BSN as their highest degree d. actively practice in acute direct-patient care

a. white b. female

Which of the following statements describes a "professional?" mark all that apply a. Members of a profession often identify themselves with the profession to outsiders i.e. "I am Doctor Smith" or "I am Nurse Smith" b. Members of a profession practice autonomously c. members of a profession practice following professional guidelines and standards developed by the profession itself d. members of a profession practice following a code of conduct or code of ethics

all of them

4. What is an example of a natural threat? a. Aircraft incident. b. Animal disease outbreak. c. Hazardous material release. d. Workplace violence.

b. Animal disease outbreak.

How does Aiken describe nursing in Educational Levels of Hospital Nurses and Surgical Patient Mortality? a. Nursing constitutes a comprehensive healthcare system b. nurses constitute a surveillance system for early detection of patient complication c. nursing is the essential link in the delivery of safe patient care d. nurses bring a unique knowledge system into the healthcare delivery system

b. Nurses constitute a "surveillance system" for early detection of patient complication

21. What phase of emergency management includes exercises and drills? a. Mitigation. b. Preparedness. c. Recovery. d. Response.

b. Preparedness.

Which injuries would likely be given a green tag after a disaster? Select all that apply. A Shock B Strains C Sprains D Abrasions E Airway obstruction

b. Strains c. Sprains d. Abrasions According to the disaster triage tag system, green tags are applied to clients with strains, sprains, and abrasions. Clients with shock and airway obstruction are marked with red tags according to the disaster triage tag system.

Which of the following is a competency listed under "standard 6" evaluation in the current scope and standards of practice? a. Integrates the code of ethics for nurses with interpretive stmts to guide nursing practice and articulate the moral foundation of nursing b. uses ongoing assessment data to revise the diagnoses, outcomes, plan and implementation of strategies c. elicits the healthcare consumer's values, preferences, expressed and unexpressed needs, and knowledge of the healthcare situation d. documents diagnoses, problems, and issues in a manner that facilitates the determination of the expected outcomes and plan

b. Uses ongoing assessment data to revise the diagnoses, outcomes, plan and implementation of strategies

A La RN wishes to delegate an IV start to an LPN. The patient is stable. Which of the following should the RN asure has occurred before proceeding with the delegation? Select all that apply a. verify the LPN's school transcript is in the hospital's permanent records. b. verify the LPN has documented validation of competency in starting IV's c. be sure the hospital has a written policy/procedure in place for starting IV's d. be sure the LPN has received 15 hours education in IV initiation

b. Verify the LPN has documented validation of competency in starting IV c. Be sure the hospital has a written policy/procedure in place for starting IV's

Which of the following organizations claim to represent all registered nurses? a. national league of nursing b. american nurses association c. baton rouge district nurse association

b. american nurses associaton

Which of the following describes the legal regulation of nursing? a. The congress has passed a national nurse practice act b. each state legislature has passed a nurse practice act c. the Governor of each state has ratified a nurse practice act for the states nurses d. the state nursing association is responsible for regulating nursing in each state

b. each state legislature has passed a nurse practice act

Which clients belong to class I according to the disaster triage tag system? A Clients who can wait a short time for treatment B Clients who are dead or expected to die C Clients who need emergency treatment D Clients who have no urgent need for treatment

c. Clients who need emergency treatment Emergent clients are identified with red tags and belong to class I according to the disaster triage tag system. Clients who can wait a short time for treatment are identified by yellow tags and belong to class II according to the disaster triage tag system. Clients who are expected to die or are dead are given a black tag and belong to class IV in the disaster triage tag system. Clients who have no urgency for treatment are issued green tags and belong to class III.

An RN is working with an LPN to care for a group of patients. Which nursing task should not be delegated/assigned to an LPN? a. Administration of routine oral medication b. Bed baths and oral care c. Evaluating the patient's progress d. Transporting a patient to dialysis

c. Evaluating the patient's progress

1. What is an appropriate strategy for responding to an individual experiencing acute distress? a. Have the individual list everything that they lost in the disaster. b. Have the individual receive disaster preparedness training. c. Have the individual state their most urgent needs. d. Have the individual think about what they will need in the future.

c. Have the individual state their most urgent needs.

Which of the following differentiate hippocratic physicians from Asclepiaads? the Hippocratics.... a. charged the same price for services rendered b. had standardized intervention s c. kept pt info confidential d. performed minor surgeries

c. Kept patient information confidential

23. Which is a Medical Countermeasure (MCM)? a. Covering mouth when coughing. b. Hand Hygiene. c. Personal Protective Equipment (PPE). d. Social distancing.

c. Personal Protective Equipment (PPE).

What is the role of the La State Nurses Association in the appt of nurses to the LSBN? The LSNA .... a. verifies that all LSBN RN applicants have the appropriate background and credentials b. selects RNs from its membership to sit on the LSBN c. compiles a list of RN nominees from which LSBN members are selected d. develops the criteria by which LSBN appts are deemed worthy

c. compiles a list of RN nominees from which LSBN members are selected

Which group of registered nursed did Mrs. Pounders argue should have a dedicated seat on the LSBN? a. nurse educators b. nurse administration c. direct patient care providers d. retired nurses

c. direct patient-care providers

The RN notes a new order for a 24-hour urine collection for a specific patient. Which of the following aspects can be delegated to a nursing assistant? a. instructing the patient to collect urine with each voiding b. teaching the patient the purpose of collecting urine for 24 hours c. ensuring that all urine obtained for the test is kept on ice d. assessing the patient's urine for color, odor and sediment

c. ensuring that all urine obtained for the test is kept on ice

7. The Strategic National Stockpile (SNS) is a national cache of: a. blankets and clothing. b. emergency vehicles and personnel. c. medication and medical supplies. d. storage containers and evacuation signage.

c. medication and medical supplies.

6. According to the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA), stored food and water in a home disaster supply kit should be changed every: a. two months. b. three months. c. six months. d. twelve months.

c. six months.

14. A Continuity of Operations Plan requires: a. that ancillary departments remain open for business. b. the avoidance of facility evacuation. c. the continuation of mission essential functions. d. the reduction in the standards of care.

c. the continuation of mission essential functions.

How are fund collected by the LSBN used? a. to support political candidates with pro nursing positions b. to lobby for passage of legislative bills favorable to nursing c. to meet necessary expenses incurred in the administration of the NPA d. all of the above

c. to meet necessary expenses incurred in the administration of the NPA

8. Data collected through disease surveillance to help guide the response is distributed: a. in the professional literature. b. throughout the organization and widely to the public. c. to the management chain and other stakeholders. d. within media channels.

c. to the management chain and other stakeholders.

According to the LSBN, the RN must answer which question first when deciding to delegate an intervention to another healthcare worker? a. Does the agenc or nursing employer have written policies and procedures in place for this task? b. Has the provider being delegated to received training for the inervention and has competency been validated? c. Does the delegation of the task meet the requirements of the LSBN administrative rules? d. is the task to be delegated within the RN's scope of practice

d. Is the task to be delegated within the RN's scope of practice

24. What reference must be accessible at every workplace for each hazardous substance? a. Emergency Response Guide. b. Hazard Diamond Graphic. c. Package Insert. d. Safety Data Sheet.

d. Safety Data Sheet.

16. Which activity must be completed before on-scene triage? a. A Joint Information Center (JIC) has been established. b. Incident Commander must be in place. c. Privacy is assured. d. Scene safety has been assured.

d. Scene safety has been assured.

18. Which method is most effective for the decontamination of individuals? a. Bleach and water. b. Charcoal. c. Dry brush. d. Soap and water.

d. Soap and water.

Which of the following are included in the current Scope of Standards of Practice text under "standards of professional performance: a. implementation b. evaluation c. diagnosis d. education

d. education

12. Federal assets are deployed through: a. Federal Bureau of Land Management (BLM). b. Memoranda of Understanding (MOU). c. the American Red Cross. d. the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA).

d. the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA).

All of the following pts require assistance to the toilet. It is appropriate for the RN to direct the nursing assistant to assist with which patients? the patient.... a. who is one day post open cholecystectomy b. who has bruised of unknown origin on the hips and knees c. who is scheduled for coronary artery bypass grafting the next day d. who is complaining loudly that one one has come to see him

d. who is complaining loudly that no one has come to see him

All students seeking to enroll in pre-licensure clinical education courses must be approved by the LSBN. Is this a common practice among American states?

yes

Can a lay person provide medical services gratuitously to family member?

yes

Can a layperson provide nursing services gratuitously to a family member?

yes

Can an RN charge a family member for nursing services rendered?

yes

Who are considered Advanced Practice registered nurse

•NP- Nurse Practitioner •CRNA- Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist •CNS- Clinical Nurse Specialist