RAD 130: Final Exam

An RPO position of the cervical spine requires a 45 degree oblique of the body with a 15 degree caudad CR angle. Select one: True False

False

In general, the term lateromedial projection is one in which the lateral aspect of the anatomical part is closest to the IR. Select one: True False

False

It is legally acceptable to utilize the "right" or "left" computerized annotations when your lead marker has been collimated off. Select one: True False

False

The Danielus-Miller method is intended for nontraumatic hip situations. Select one: True False

False

The intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine and the midsagittal plane form an angle of: Select one: a. 90° b. 45° c. 35° d. 70°

a. 90°

Which of the following thoracic vertebra(e) possess no facets for the costotransverse joints? Select one: a. T9-10 b. T11-12 c. T1 d. None of the above

b. T11-12

Where is the CR located during positioning of a lateral knee projection? Select one: a. 1/2" below the base of the patella b. 1" below the lateral condyle c. 1" below the medial condyle d. 1/2" below the apex of the patella

c. 1" below the medial condyle

The scapulohumeral joint allows for the following types of movement: 1. Abduction 2. Circumduction 3. Extension Select one: a. 2 and 3 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 1 only

c. 1, 2, and 3

The costovertebral joint is formed by the: 1. Tubercle of the rib 2. Head of the rib 3. Transverse process of the rib 4. Body of a thoracic vertebrae Select one: a. 1 and 3 only b. 1, 2, 3, and 4 c. 2 and 4 only d. 2, 3, and 4 only

c. 2 and 4 only

Where is the CR centered for the projection of a left lateral decubitus abdomen? Select one: a. 2 inches (5 cm) below the iliac crest b. level of iliac crest c. 2 inches (5 cm) above the iliac crest d. xiphoid process

c. 2 inches (5 cm) above the iliac crest

What type of CR angle must be used for an AP axial (Taylor Method) "outlet" projection for a male patient? Select one: a. 20 to 35° caudad b. 15 to 20° cephalad c. 25 to 30° cephalad d. 0° (CR perpendicular to the image receptor)

c. 25 to 30° cephalad

Both an erect AP and a left lateral decubitis will demonstrate air-fluid levels within the abdomen. Select one: True False

True

For AC joint weight bearing studies, patients should not be asked to hold onto the weights with their hands; rather the weights should be attached to the wrists. Select one: True False

True

The radiographer is responsible for communicating with the patient to obtain pertinent clinical information. Select one: True False

True

When viewing images of the hand on the computer screen, the digits should be pointing upward. Select one: True False

True

If a patient is unable to lean back, how much CR angle is required for the AP semi-axial projection for the lung apices? Select one: a. 15 to 20 degrees b. 20 to 25 degrees c. 10 to 15 degrees d. 5 to 10 degrees

A. 15 to 20 degrees

Which of the following muscles should be demonstrated on a well-exposed abdomen projection on an average size patient? Select one: a. Psoas major b. Quadratus Laborum c. Latissimus dorsi d. Erector spinae

A. Psoas major

Within the abdominal cavity, the left kidney is situated lower due to the stomach pushing it down. Select one: True False

False

Palpable topographic landmarks include the: 1. Jugular notch 2. Sternal angle 3. Xiphoid process Select one: a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 2 and 3 only

a. 1, 2, and 3

Which topographic landmark corresponds to the level of L2-L3? Select one: a. Lower costal margin b. ASIS c. Xiphoid process d. Iliac crest

a. Lower costal margin

To ensure that the diaphragm is included on the erect abdomen projection, the top of the image receptor should be at the approximate level of the: Select one: a. axilla b. jugular notch c. inferior costal margin d. xiphoid process

a. axilla

The widest part of the bony thorax occurs at the level of: Select one: a. the eighth and ninth ribs b. the eleventh and twelfth ribs. c. T7 d. the sternoclavicular joints

a. eighth and ninth ribs

The radiographic term projection is defined as: Select one: a. path or direction of the central ray. b. computer-assisted image. c. general position of the patient. d. radiographic image as seen from the vantage of the image receptor.

a. path or direction of the central ray

The amount of scatter reaching the image receptor for the lateral lumbar spine projection may be reduced by: 1. Lowering the kVp 2. Collimating to the area of interest 3. Placing a led mat on the table posterior to the patient. Select one: a. 1,2, and 3 b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 3 only

b. 1 and 3 only

Which of the following would be present on the image of a properly positioned lateral projection of the forearm? 1. Olecranon process in profile 2. Elbow in 45° flexion 3. Superimposition of the distal radius and ulna Select one: a. 2 and 3 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

b. 1 and 3 only

For an AP projection of the shoulder, the CR is centered: Select one: a. 1 inch inferior to acromion b. 1 inch inferior to the coracoid process c. 2 inched medial to the coracoid process d. 2 inches medial to the acromion

b. 1 inch inferior to the coracoid process

An upright position with the arms abducted, palms forward, and head forward describes the: Select one: a. oblique position b. anatomic position c. anterioposterior (AP) position d. decubitus position

b. anatomic position

The joint found between the base of the third metacarpal and carpal bone is the: Select one: a. interphalangeal b. carpometacarpal c. intercarpal d. proximal metacarpophalangeal

b. carpometacarpal

The joint classification of the symphysis pubis is: Select one: a. synovial and synarthrodial b. synovial and amphiarthrodial c. cartilaginous and amphiarthrodial d. cartilaginous and synarthrodial

c. cartilaginous and amphiarthrodial

A longitudinal plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts is the _____ plane. Select one: a. horizontal b. oblique c. midcoronal d. midsagittal

c. midcoronal

A well-inspired average adult chest PA projection will have the minimum of ____ posterior ribs seen above the diaphragm. Select one: a. 8 b. 12 c. 7 d. 10

d. 10

For the average adult, the angle of the femoral neck to the femoral shaft is: Select one: a. 60° b. 90° c. 150° d. 120°

d. 120°

Which of the following joints is NOT a synovial joint? Select one: a. hip joint b. elbow joint c. proximal radioulnar joint d. skull suture

d. skull suture

Which of the following features makes the cervical vertebra unique as compared with other vertebrae of the spine? a. All of the above b. Presence of the zygapophyseal joints. c. Overlapping vertebral bodies. d. Transverse foramina and double (bifid) tips of the spinous processes

d. transverse foramina and double (bifid) tips of the spinous processes

The joints between the articular processes of the vertebra are termed: Select one: a. synarthrodial joints b. fibrous joints c. intervertebral joints d. zygapophyseal joints

d. zygapophyseal joints

According to Bontrager, how many individual body systems comprise the human body? Select one: a. 22 b. 13 c. 10 d. 8

c. 10

On average, how many bones are in the adult vertebral column? Select one: a. 33 b. 31 c. 26 d. 28

c. 26

The posterior aspect of the rib is: Select one: a. 1 to 2 inches superior to the anterior part. b. 3 to 5 inches inferior to the anterior part. c. 3 to 5 inches superior to the anterior part. d. 1 to 2 inches inferior to the anterior part.

c. 3 to 5 inches superior to the anterior part

For the AP oblique projection (Grashey Method) of the shoulder, the patient is rotated: Select one: a. 10 to 20° toward the affected side b. 35 to 45° away from the affected side c. 35 to 45° toward the affected side d. 10 to 20° away from the affected side

c. 35 to 45 toward the affected side

For the scapular Y view projection in the anterior oblique position, the patient is rotated: Select one: a. 10 to 15 degrees b. 10 to 25 degrees c. 45 to 60 degrees d. 30 to 45 degrees

c. 45 to 60 degrees

For a mediolateral projection of the knee, the CR is directed: Select one: a. 5 to 7° caudad b. 10 to 15° caudad c. 5 to 7° cephalad d. 10 to 15° cephalad

c. 5 to 7° cephalad

Question text The angle between the thoracic zygapophyseal joints and the midsagittal plane is approximately: Select one: a. 45° b. 30° c. 70° d. 90°

c. 70°

How many bones are there in the adult axial skeleton? Select one: a. 206 b. 126 c. 80 d. 54

c. 80

The sustentaculum tali is found on the: Select one: a. Talus b. Medial cunieform c. Calcaneus d. Navicular

c. Calcaneus

Which of the following bones is classified as a short bone? Select one: a. Phalanges b. Vertebrae c. Carpal d. Scapulae

c. Carpal

The process of flexing the foot and toes back toward the ankle is termed: Select one: a. Plantar extension b. Plantar abduction c. Dorsiflexion d. Plantar flexion

c. Dorsiflexion

The front leg of the "Scottie dog" represents the: Select one: a. Pars interarticularis b. Pedicle c. Inferior articular processes d. Superior articular processes

c. Inferior articular processes

The spinal cord tapers off to a point distally at the vertebral level of: Select one: a. L2-3 intervertebral space b. L4-L5 intervertebral space c. L1-L2 d. lower L5

c. L1-L2

The innominate bone consists of the: 1. Ilium 2. Ischium 3. Pubis Select one: a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1 and 2 only

a. 1, 2, and 3

Using the hip localization method, the femoral neck can be located: Select one: a. 1.5 inches (4 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks. b. at the level of the symphysis pubis c. 2 - 2.5 inches (6 to 7 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks. d. 1 inch (2.5 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks.

a. 1.5 inches (4 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks.

For the AP axial projection of the coccyx, the CR is directed: Select one: a. 10° caudad b. 10° cephalad c. 20° caudad d. 20° cephalad

a. 10° caudad

For a lateral projection of the sacrum and coccyx, the central ray is centered: Select one: a. 3 to 4 inches posterior to the ASIS b. 1 to 2 inches anterior to the ASIS c. 3 to4 inches anterior to the ASIS d. 1 to 2 inches posterior to the ASIS

a. 3 to 4 inches posterior to the ASIS

The number of fused segments forming the coccyx is: Select one: a. 3 to 5 b. 5 to 7 c. 7 to 9 d. 1 to 3

a. 3 to 5

How much CR angulation is required for an asthenic patient for an AP axial projection of the clavicle? Select one: a. 30° b. 15° c. 45° d. No CR angulation should be used for this projection

a. 30°

A patient enters the ER with possible bilateral fractured hips. Which of the following routines should be performed? Select one: a. AP pelvis and axiolateral (clements-Nakayma method) projection for both hips. b. AP pelvis and posterior oblique (Judet) projections. c. AP pelvis and bilateral frog-leg projections d. AP pelvis and axiolateral (inferosuperior)projection of both hips.

a. AP pelvis and axiolateral (clements-Nakayma method) projection for both hips

How would one assess a lateral chest radiograph for rotation? Select one: a. Assure that there is no more than 1/2 inch separation between the right and left posterior ribs. b. There is no good way to check for rotation on a lateral projection. c. Determine if the spine is centered between the SC joints. d. Assure that there is no more than 1/2 inch separation between the sternum and thoracic spine.

a. Assure that there is no more than 1/2 inch separation between the right and left posterior

Which aspect of the small intestine is considered the shortest? Select one: a. Duodenum b. Cecum c. Jejunum d. Ileum

a. Duodenum

Which projection of the elbow best demonstrates the coronoid process of the elbow? Select one: a. AP b. AP oblique with medial rotation c. AP oblique with lateral rotation d. Lateral

b. AP oblique with medial rotation

What is the primary disadvantage of performing an AP projection of the chest rather than a PA? Select one: a. Increased magnification of the heart b. More radiation exposure to the lungs c. AP projection requiresmore kVp than the PA projection d. Distortion of the Ribs

a. Increased magnification of the heart

Which landmark is more inferior? Select one: a. Ischial tuberosity b. Iliac crest c. ASIS d. Pubic symphysis

a. Ischial tuberosity

Which factor is most important to open up the intervertebral joint spaces for a lateral thoracic spine projection? Select one: a. Keep the vertebral column parallel to the tabletop. b. Use sufficiently high kVp. c. Collimate to the spine region to reduce scatter. d. Angle the CR (central ray) 10 to 15° degrees caudad.

a. Keep the vertebral column parallel to the tabletop

What other position can be used for the sternum if the patient cannot assume the recumbent RAO? Select one: a. LPO b. Lateral Decubitis c. RPO d. LAO

a. LPO

Where is the CR placed for an AP pelvis projection? Select one: a. Midway between the ASIS and symphysis pubis. b. 1 inch (2.5 cm) above the symphysis pubis. c. At the level of the ASIS. d. At the level of the iliac crest.

a. Midway between the ASIS and symphysis pubis

For imaging of the 4th digit, where is the central ray located? Select one: a. PIP joint b. MCP joint c. Base of the middle phalanx d. the DIP joint

a. PIP joint

Of the following factors, which one must be applied to demonstrate possible air fluid levels in the chest? Select one: a. Patient in the erect position b. High kVp technique c. Using a high ,A and short exposure time d. 72-inch SID

a. Patient in the erect position

Which of the following abdominal regions would contain the right colic (hepatic) flexure? Select one: a. Right Hypochondriac b. Epigastric c. Right Lateral Lumbar d. Right Inguinal

a. Right Hypochondriac

In which of the four major quadrants of the abdomen would the cecum be found? Select one: a. Right lower quadrant b. Left lower quadrant c. Right Upper Quadrant d. Left upper quadrant

a. Right lower quadrant

The two most common bony landmarks utilized in chest positioning are: Select one: a. jugular notch and the vertebra prominens. b. lower margin of the thyroid cartilage and the inferior angle of the scapula. c. jugular notch and top of the shoulders. d. top of shoulder and xiphoid process.

a. jugular notch and the vertebra prominens

How are the humeral epicondyles aligned for a rotational lateromedial projection of the humerus? Select one: a. Perpendicular to IR b. Parallel to IR c. 45 degrees to IR d. 20 degrees to IR

a. perpendicular to IR

What is the best method to control voluntary motion during abdominal radiography? Select one: a. Short Exposure time b. Second breath hold c. Careful instructions to the patient d. Use a small focal spot

a. short exposure time

A projection in which the CR skims the body part is termed: Select one: a. tangential b. Axial c. Decubitis d. Lordotic

a. tangential

For a PA SC joint position what is true about the following: 1. Center 3 inches distal to the vertebra prominens2. Use 65 to 75 kVp3. Direct the CR to level of T2-T3 Select one: a. 3 only b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 1 and 2 only d. 2 only

b. 1, 2, and 3

The shoulder joint is composed of the: 1. Clavicle 2. Humerus 3. Scapula Select one: a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1,2, and 3 d. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

For both a PA oblique hand and a PA oblique wrist, how much should the hand and wrist be rotated? Select one: a. 30 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 15 degrees d. 30-40degrees

b. 45 degrees

The angle between the cervical intervertebral foramina and the midsagittal plane is: Select one: a. 70° b. 45° c. 30° d. 90° e. 15°

b. 45°

When the spine is unsupported for the lateral projection of the L5-S1 view, the CR should be directed: Select one: a. 10 to 15° cephalad b. 5 to 8° caudad c. 10 to 15° caudad d. 5 to 8° cephalad

b. 5 to 8° caudad

How many tarsal bones are found in the foot? Select one: a. 14 b. 7 c. 5 d. 26

b. 7

For an average size female patient, where is the CR placed for a PA projection of the chest? Select one: a. 3 inches (7.6 cm) below hte jugular notch b. 7 inches (18 cm) below the vertebra prominens c. 2 inches (5 cm) above the shoulders d. 8 inches (20 cm) below the jugular notch

b. 7 inches (18 cm) below the vertebra prominens

Which position or projection of the cervical spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint spaces between C1 and C2? Select one: a. Lateral b. AP open mouth c. Anteroposterior (AP) axial d. 45° anterior or posterior oblique

b. AP open mouth

Which of the following routines should be performed for a study of the second toe? Select one: a. AP, AP oblique with lateral rotation, and lateromedial projection b. AP, AP oblique with medial rotation, and lateromedial projection c. AP, AP oblique with medial rotation, and mediolateral projection d. AP, AP oblique with lateral rotation, and mediolateral projection

b. AP, AP oblique with medial rotation, and lateromedial projection

The patient comes to the radiology department for a knee study with special interest in the region of the proximal tibiofibular joint and the lateral condyle of the tibia. Which of the following positioning routines should the technologist obtain? Select one: a. AP, Lateral, and PA axial intercondylar fossa of the knee b. AP, Lateral, and medial oblique of the knee c. AP, lateral, and lateral oblique of the knee d. AP and lateral of the knee

b. AP, Lateral , and medial oblique of the knee

When positioning for a sunrise view of the patella, how should the CR be aligned in relation to the lower leg? Select one: a. tangential to the femoropatellar joint space b. All of the above c. 15 to 20 degrees from the lower leg d. so it is parallel with the patella

b. All of the above

Which cervical vertebra is referred to as the axis? Select one: a. T12 b. C2 c. L1 d. C1

b. C2

Which system of the human body is responsible for the elimination of solid waste? Select one: a. Respiratory b. Digestive c. Circulatory d. Urinary

b. Digestive

Which of the following structures is NOT considered a mediastinal structure? Select one: a. Thymus gland b. Epiglottis c. Trachea d. Aorta

b. Epiglottis

An ambulatory patient enters the ED with a possible injury to the right upper posterior ribs. Which of the following routines should be taken to demonstrate the involved area? Select one: a. Recumbent AP and LAO b. Erect AP and RPO c. Erect PA and RAO d. Erect PA and LAO

b. Erect AP and RPO

What type of respiration should be employed during the exposure for the anteroposterior (AP) kidneys, ureter, and bladder (KUB) abdomen projection? Select one: a. Shallow breathing during the exposure b. Expiration c. Inspiration d. Either on inspiration or expiration

b. Expiration

Which of the following joints displays a "hinge" type of movement? Select one: a. Trochoid b. Ginglymus c. Sellar d. Ellipsoidal

b. Ginglymus

Which position of the shoulder and proximal humerus projects the lesser tubercle in profile medially? Select one: a. External Rotation b. Internal rotation c. Neutral rotation

b. Internal rotation

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the axillary portion of the ribs? Select one: a. PA b. LAO c. RAO d. AP

b. LAO

Where is the central ray centered for a PA projection of the SC joints? Select one: a. Level of T7 b. Level of the T2-T3 c. Level of the vertebral prominence d. Level of the Xiphoid Process

b. Level of the T2-T3

A patient is erect facing the x-ray tube and leaning the shoulders backward 20° to 30° toward the IR. The central ray is perpendicular to the IR. What specific position has been performed? Select one: a. Kyphotic b. Lordotic c. Axial d. Decubitus

b. Lordotic

In the wrist, where is the hamate located? Select one: a. Lateral side, proximal row b. Medial side, distal row c. Medial side, proximal row d. Lateral side, distal row

b. Medial side, distal row

A radiograph of a PA projection of the hand reveals that the distal radius and ulna and the carpals were cut off. What should the technologist do to correct this problem? Select one: a. If the injury to the patient did not involve the carpal region and distal forearm, do not repeat it. b. Repeat the PA projection to include all the carpals and 1 inch (2.5 cm) of the distal radius and ulna. c. Accept the radiograph. Carpals and distal radius are not part of the hand study. d. Make sure the carpals, distal radius and ulna are included on the lateral projection.

b. Repeat the PA projection to include all the carpals and 1 inch (2.5 cm) of the distal radius and ulna.

Which hemi-diaphargm is located more superior? And because of which organ? Select one: a. Left/Liver b. Right/Liver c. Left/Stomach d. Right/Stomach

b. Right/Liver

The supraspionous and infraspinous fossa of the scapula are separated by: Select one: a. Coracoid process b. Scapular spine c. Inferior angle d. Glenoid cavity

b. Scapular spine

A radiograph of an AP KUB reveals that the obturator foramina are cut off from the bottom of the image. The kidneys and symphysis pubis are demonstrated. What centering adjustments should the technologist make to improve this image? Select one: a. Use two 35 x 42 cm (14 X17 inch) cassettes crosswise. b. This radiograph is correctly centered. No centering adjustments are necessary. c. Open up the collimators to include the ischial spine. d. Center the cassette 2 inches (5cm) below the iliac crest.

b. This radiograph is correctly centered. No centering adjustments are necessary.

Scoliosis is defined as an abnormal or exaggerated _________ curvature. Select one: a. convex b. lateral c. concave d. "swayback" lumbar

b. lateral

The most posterior aspect of the typical vertebra is the: Select one: a. pedicle b. spinous process c. lamina d. body

b. spinous process

The ankle joint is a _____ joint with a _____ type of movement. Select one: a. fibrous; ginglymus b. synovial; sellar c. fibrous; plane d. synovial; ginglymus

b. synovial; sellar

The inner layer of the pleura that encloses the lungs and heart is called the: Select one: a. parietal Pleura b. visceral pleura c. pericardial sac d. pleural cavity

b. visceral pleura

A patient is in the intensive care unit with multiple injuries. The attending physician is concerned about a pleural effusion in the left lung. The patient had surgery recently and cannot stand. Which position/projection would be best to rule out the pleural effusion? Select one: a. Apical Lordotic b. Right lateral decubitus c. Left lateral decubitus d. AP supine

c. Left lateral decubitus

When reviewing lumbar images, the left zygapophyseal joints are best demonstrated on the: Select one: a. Left lateral position b. Right posterior oblique position c. Left posterior oblique position d. Right lateral position

c. Left posterior oblique position

The CR location for an AP ankle is: Select one: a. 1 inch superior to the mortise joint b. Medial malleolus c. Mid-malleoli d. None of the above

c. Mid-Malleoli

The inner aspect of the intervertebral disk is termed: Select one: a. Annulus fibrosis b. Interdisk matrix c. Nucleus pulpous d. Ligamentum flavum

c. Nucleus pulpous

The bony structures connected directly to the vertebral body are the: Select one: a. Transverse Processes b. Articular processes c. Pedicles d. Laminae

c. Pedicles

The capitulum articulates with the: Select one: a. Ulnar head b. Ulnar olecranon process c. Radial head d. Radial styloid process

c. Radial head

The use of 80 to 85 kVp technique as opposed to 70 kVp with a corresponding mAs change for an AP pelvis projection will result in: Select one: a. increased radiographic contrast b. improved spatial resolution c. reduction in gonadal dose d. none of the above; there will be no difference

c. Reduction in gonadal dose

Which aspect of the long bones is responsible for the production of red blood cells? Select one: a. Medullary Cavity b. Compact bone c. Spongy or Cancellous bone d. Periosteum

c. Spongy or cancellous bone

The only connection between the bony thorax and the shoulder girdle is the: Select one: a. Costovertebral joint b. Costotransverse joint c. Sternoclavicular joint d. Costcartilage joint

c. Sternoclavicular joint

The structural term for a freely movable joint is: Select one: a. gomphosis b. fibrous c. Synovial d. cartilaginous

c. Synovial

The xiphoid process corresponds to the vertebral level of: Select one: a. T12 b. T8 c. T9-10 d. T7

c. T9-T10

Which of the following choices is true? Select one: a. The left hemi-diaphargm is higher because of the liver b. The right hemi-diaphargm is higher because of the stomach c. The right hemi-diaphargm is higher because of the liver d. The left hemi-diaphragm is higher because of the stomach

c. The right hemi-diaphragm is higher because of the liver

What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the knee? Select one: a. Two b. One c. Three d. Four

c. Three

If a surgeon wants to check for anterior mobility of the cervical spine post spinal fusion, what additional projections beyond the routine cervical spine protocol would assess for mobility of the spine? Select one: a. Vertbral pillar projections b. cross-table lateral projection c. flexion and extension projections d. "wagging" jaw projections

c. flexion and extension projections

The first carpometacarpal joint is classified as a _______ joint. Select one: a. plane b. ginglymus c. sellar d. trochodial

c. sellar

Which region of the vertebral column has a lordotic curvature? 1. Thoracic 2. Lumbar 3. Cervical Select one: a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 only d. 2 and 3 only

d. 2 and 3 only

What is the recommended degree of obliquity for an RAO projection of the sternum for an asthenic type of patient? Select one: a. 30° b. 15° c. 10° d. 20°

d. 20°

The sacroiliac joints open at an angle of: Select one: a. 5° b. 20° c. 10° d. 30°

d. 30°

How much CR angulation to the long axis of the foot is required for the plantodorsal (axial) projection of the calcaneus? Select one: a. 15 to 20° b. 30° c. 45 to 50° d. 40°

d. 40°

What is degree of CR angulation require for an average size adult patient for a lateral knee projection? Select one: a. 7-10 degrees cephalic b. 3-5 degrees cepahlic c. 0 degrees. perpendicular to IR d. 5-7 degrees cephalic

d. 5-7 degrees cephalic

A radiographic image taken to demonstrate ribs below the diaphragm should include ribs numbered: Select one: a. 6 through 12 b. 5 through 12 c. 8 through 12 d. 9 through 12

d. 9 through 12

The internal prominence or ridge in which the trachea bifurcates into the right and left bronchi is termed the: Select one: a. costophrenic angle b. thyroid cartilage c. hilum d. carina

d. Carina

Why should a forearm never be taken as a PA projection? Select one: a. Too painful for the patient b. Causes the distal radius to cross over the ulna c. Increases the chance of clipping the anatomy d. Causes the proximal radius to cross over the ulna

d. Causes the proximal radius to cross over the ulna

A patient is lying on their back. The x-ray tube is horizontally directed with the CR centering the right side of the body. The image receptor is adjacent to the left side of the body. What is the radiographic position? Select one: a. Right Lateral Decubitus b. Left Lateral c. Left Lateral Decubitus d. Dorsal Decubitus

d. Dorsal Decubitus

What two bony landmarks are palpated during positioning of the elbow? Select one: a. Radial and ulnar styloid processes b. Trochlea and capitulum c. Humeral condyles d. Humeral epicondyles

d. Humeral epicondyles

Which landmark is not demonstrated if the lower limbs have been adequately rotated for an AP projection of the pelvis? Select one: a. Ischial tuberosities b. Ischial spines c. Greater trochanters d. Lesser trochanters

d. Lesser trochanters

When the humerus is in a true anteroposterior (AP) or frontal view, the: Select one: a. Greater tubercle is anterior and the lesser tubercle is lateral b. Lesser tubercle is anterior and the greater tubercle is medial c. Greater tubercle is anterior and the lesser tubercle is medial d. Lesser tubercle is anterior and the greater tubercle is lateral

d. Lesser tubercle is anterior and the greater tubercle is lateral

What is the name of the double-walled tissue that lines the abdominopelvic cavity? Select one: a. Omentum b. Mesentry c. Viscera d. Peritoneum

d. Peritoneum

The top of the foot is placed against the image receptor with the perpendicular central ray entering the sole of the foot. What specific projection has been performed? Select one: a. Axial dorsoplantar b. Transpedal c. Tangential plantodorsal d. Plantodorsal

d. Plantodorsal

A patient is lying on her back facing the x-ray tube. the right side of her body is turned 20° toward the image receptor. What is this radiographic position? Select one: a. LAO (Left anterior Oblique) b. LPO (Left posterior oblique) c. RAO (right anterior oblique) d. RPO (right posterior oblique)

d. RPO (right posterior oblique)

A radiograph of an AP clavicle reveals that the sternal extremity is partially collimated off. What should the technologists do? Select one: a. Ask the radiologist if he or she would like it repeated. b. Only repeat it if the patient's pain/symptoms involve the sternal extremity. c. Make sure the sternal end is included in the AP axial projection. d. Repeat the AP projection and change the collimation

d. Repeat the AP projection and change the collimation

A recumbent oblique position in which the patient is lying on the left anterior side, rotated anteriorly with the right knee and thigh flexed is termed: Select one: a. Left posterior oblique b. Trendelenburg c. Fowler's position d. Sim's position

d. Sim's position

The lower margin of the scapula is the same level as: Select one: a. T5 b. T9 c. T11 d. T7

d. T7

Why are the shoulders rotated forward when obtaining a PA chest radiograph? Select one: a. To get the patient closer to the film. b. So the arms can be more comfortable on the hips. c. You do not rotate the shoulders forward on a PA chest. d. To rotate the scapulae laterally and remove them from the lung fields

d. To rotate the scapulae laterally and remove them from the lung fields

Which of the following structures of the forearm is most distal? Select one: a. Coronoid process b. Radial neck c. Trochlear notch d. Ulnar head

d. Ulnar head