Rad Review test questions

Which of the following tissues is (are) considered to be particularly radiosensitive? 1. Intestinal mucous membrane 2. Epidermis of extremities 3. Optic nerves

1. Intestinal mucous membrane

Which of the following involve(s) intentional misconduct? 1. Invasion of privacy 2. False imprisonment 3. Patient sustaining injury from a fall while left unattended

1. Invasion of privacy 2. False imprisonment

Which of the following units is (are) used to express resolution? 1. Line-spread function 2. Line pairs per millimeter 3. Line-focus principle

1. Line-spread function 2. Line pairs per millimeter

The radiographer must perform which of the following procedures prior to entering a contact isolation room with a mobile x-ray unit? 1. Put on gown and gloves only. 2. Put on gown, gloves, mask, and cap. 3. Clean the mobile x-ray unit

1. Put on gown and gloves only

Which of the following is (are) used to account for the differences in tissue characteristics when determining effective dose to biologic material? 1. Tissue weighting factors (W t ) 2. Radiation weighting factors (W r ) 3. Absorbed dose

1. Tissue weighting factors

During IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate: 1. the filling of the ureters 2. the renal pelvis 3. the superior calyces

1. the filling of the ureters 2. the renal pelvis

Capacitor-discharge mobile x-ray units use capacitors to power the: 1. x-ray tube 2. machine locomotion 3. braking mechanism

1. x-ray tube

If the entrance dose for a particular exam is 1200 mGy, the radiation exposure at 1 m from the patient will be approximately:

1.20 mGy

If the entrance dose for a particular exam is 1200 mGy, the radiation exposure at 1 m from the patient will be approximately A. 120 mGy B. 12.0 mGy C. 1.20 mGy D. 0.12 mGy

1.20 mGy **Therefore, if the entrance dose for this image is 1200 mGy, the intensity of radiation at 1 m from the patient is 0.1% of that, or 1.20 mGy (0.001 × 1200 = 1.20)

Primary radiation barriers usually require which thickness of shielding?

1/16 inch lead

Secondary radiation barriers usually require the following thickness of shielding: A. 1/4-inch lead B. 1/8-inch lead C. 1/16-inch lead D. 1/32-inch lead

1/32 inch lead

The recommendation of "elective booking" states that elective abdominal radiographic examinations on women of reproductive age should be limited to the A. 10 days following the menses. B. 10 days following the onset of menses. C. 10 days before the onset of menses. D. last 10 days of the menstrual cycle.

10 days following the onset of menses

If a patient received 0.3 Gy during a 3 minute fluoroscopic examination, what was the dose rate? A. 1 mGy/min B. 10 mGy/min C. 100 mGy/min D. 1000 mGy/min

100 mGy/min

Which of the following diastolic pressure readings might indicate hypertension? A. 40 mm Hg B. 60 mm Hg C. 80 mm Hg D. 100 mm Hg

100 mm Hg

Which of the following voltage ripples is (are) produced by single phase equipment? 1. 100% voltage ripple 2. 13% voltage ripple 3. 3.5% voltage ripple

100%

If the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer is supplied by 220 V and has 200 turns, and the secondary coil has 100,000 turns, what is the voltage induced in the secondary coil? A. 40 kV B. 110 kV C. 40 V D. 110 V

110 kVp (110,000 V)

Using a multifield image intensifier tube, which of the following input phosphor diameters will provide the greatest magnification? A. 35 cm B. 25 cm C. 17 cm D.12 cm

12 cm

In a posteroanterior (PA) projection of the chest being used for cardiac evaluation, the heart measures 14.7 cm between its widest points. If the magnification factor is known to be 1.2, what is the actual diameter of the heart? A. 10.4 cm B. 12.25 cm C. 13.5 cm D.17.64 cm

12.25

Which of the following voltage ripples is (are) produced by three-phase, 6-pulse equipment 1. 100% voltage ripple 2. 13% voltage ripple 3. 3.5% voltage ripple

13%

If a patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient's head A. 15 degrees toward the side being examined B. 15 degrees away from the side being examined C. 30 degrees toward the side being examined D. 30 degrees away from the side being examined

15 degrees toward the side being examined

What is the annual dose limit (DL) for the lens of the eye?

150 mSv/year

If the exposure rate to a body standing 8 feet from a radiation source is 70 mGy/min, what will be the dose to that body at a distance of 5 feet from the source? a. 27 mGy/min b.43 mGy/min c.112 mGy/min d. 179 mGy/min

179 mGy/min

An exposure was made using 600 mA, 0.04 sec exposure, and 85 kVp. Each of the following changes will serve to reduce the receptor exposure by one-half except change to A. 1/50 sec exposure B. 72 kVp C. 18 mAs D. 300 mA

18 mAs

When caring for a patient with an IV line, the radiographer should keep the medication

18 to 20 inches above the level of the vein

A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate: 1. a fracture 2. a foreign body 3. soft tissue

2 & 3

An incorrect relationship between the primary beam and the center of a focused grid results in: 1. an increase in scattered radiation production 2. grid cutoff 3. insufficient receptor exposure

2 & 3

Central ray angulation may be required for: magnification of anatomic structures foreshortening or self-superimposition superimposition of overlying structures

2 & 3

Delivery of large exposures to a cold anode or the use of exposures exceeding tube limitation can result in: 1. increased tube output 2. cracking of the anode 3. rotor-bearing damage

2 & 3

During chest radiography, the act of inspiration: 1. elevates the diaphragm 2. raises the ribs 3. depresses the abdominal viscera

2 & 3

Facsimile transmission of health information is 1. not permitted. 2. permitted for urgently needed patient care. 3. permitted for third-party payer hospitalization certification.

2 & 3

Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate: 1. internal disk lesions. 2. posttraumatic swelling of the spinal cord. 3. posterior disk herniation.

2 & 3

Spatial resolution can be improved by decreasing: 1. the SID 2. the OID 3. patient/part motion

2 & 3

The Bucky slot cover is in place to protect the: 1. patient 2. fluoroscopist 3. technologist

2 & 3

The four major arteries supplying the brain include the: 1. brachiocephalic artery 2. common carotid arteries 3. vertebral arteries

2 & 3

The functions of a picture archiving and communication system (PACS) include: 1. storage of analog images 2. retrieval of digital images 3. storage of digital images

2 & 3

The hard palate is formed by the: 1. ethmoid bone. 2. maxillary bone. 3. palatine bone.

2 & 3

The male bony pelvis differs from the female bony pelvis in which of the following way(s)? The male pelvis has a larger pelvic inlet. The female pubic arch is greater than 90 degrees. The male ilium is more vertical.

2 & 3

The term differential absorption is closely related to: 1. beam intensity 2. subject contrast 3. pathology

2 & 3

When radiographing the elderly, it is helpful to: 1. move quickly. 2. address them by their full name. 3. give straightforward instructions.

2 & 3

When radiographing the elderly, it is helpful to: move quickly. address them by their full name. give straightforward instructions.

2 & 3

Which of the following will occur as a result of a decrease in the anode target angle? 1. Less pronounced anode heel effect 2. Decreased effective focal spot size 3. Greater photon intensity toward the cathode side of the x-ray tube

2 & 3

Which projection(s) of the abdomen would be used to demonstrate pneumoperitoneum? 1. Right lateral decubitus 2. Left lateral decubitus 3. Upright

2 & 3

With three-phase equipment, the voltage across the x-ray tube: 1. drops to zero every 180 degrees 2. is 87% to 96% of the maximum value 3. is at nearly constant potential

2 & 3

The act of expiration will cause the: 1. diaphragm to move inferiorly 2. sternum and ribs to move inferiorly 3. diaphragm to move superiorly

2 & 3 The diaphragm is the major muscle of respiration. On inspiration/inhalation, the diaphragm and abdominal viscera are depressed, enabling the filling and expansion of the lungs, accompanied by upward movement of the sternum and ribs. During expiration/exhalation, air leaves the lungs and they deflate, and the diaphragm relaxes and moves to a more superior position along with the abdominal viscera. As the diaphragm relaxes and moves up, the sternum and ribs move inferiorly.

Facsimile transmission of health information is: 1. not permitted 2. permitted for urgently needed patient care. 3. permitted for third-party payer hospitalization certification.

2 & 3 -permitted for urgently needed patient care. -permitted for third-party payer hospitalization certification.

Advantages of direct digital radiography over computed radiography (CR) include: 1. direct digital is less expensive. 2. direct digital has immediate readout. 3. PSPs are not needed for direct digital .

2 & 3 only

Free air in the abdominal cavity is demonstrated in which of the following? 1. Lateral recumbent abdomen 2. Erect AP abdomen 3. Left lateral decubitus abdomen

2 & 3 only

Skeletal conditions characterized by faulty bone calcification include 1. osteoarthritis. 2. osteomalacia. 3. rickets.

2 & 3 only

Sources of natural background radiation contributing to whole-body radiation dose include: 1. dental x-rays 2. terrestrial radionuclides 3. internal radionuclides

2 & 3 only

The primary parts of the cathode include the: 1. focal track. 2. filament. 3. focusing cup.

2 & 3 only

Use of a portion of the input phosphor during fluoroscopy, rather than the entire input phosphor, will result in: 1. a larger field of view (FOV). 2. a magnified image. 3. improved spatial resolution.

2 & 3 only

Which of the following is (are) possible long-term somatic effects of radiation exposure? 1. Blood changes 2. Cataractogenesis 3. Embryologic effects

2 & 3 only

Which of the following materials may be used as grid interspace material? 1. Lead 2. Plastic 3. Aluminum A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

2 & 3 only

Which of the following positions will demonstrate the right axillary ribs? 1. RAO 2. LAO 3. RPO

2 & 3 only

Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)? 1. Spleen 2. Gallbladder 3. Hepatic flexure

2 & 3 only

Which of the following would be appropriate IP front material(s)? 1. Tungsten 2. Magnesium 3. Bakelite A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

2 & 3 only

Intervertebral foramina will be demonstrated in which of the following projections? 1. Lateral cervical spine 2. Lateral thoracic spine 3. Lateral lumbar spine

2 and 3

The ARRT Rules of Ethics are: 1. aspirational. 2. mandatory. 3. minimally acceptable standards. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

2 and 3 (The Code of Ethics is aspirational. The Rules of Ethics are minimally acceptable mandatory and enforceable standards required of all imaging professionals to ensure quality patient care. Violation of the Code of Ethics renders the individual subject to sanction. The Rules of Ethics cover issues such as fraud/deceit regarding individual ARRT certification)

Stochastic effects of radiation are those that: 1. have a threshold 2. may be described as "all-or-nothing" effects 3. are late effects

2 and 3 only

In the blood pressure reading 145/75 mmHg, what does 145 represent? 1. The phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle tissue 2. The phase of contraction of the cardiac muscle tissue 3. A higher-than-average diastolic pressure

2 only

In what order should the following contrast examinations be performed on the same patient? 1. Upper GI series 2. IVU 3. BE

2-3-1

In what order should the following examinations be scheduled? 1. Upper GI 2. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) 3. Barium enema (BE)

2-3-1 --The IVP should be scheduled first because the contrast medium used is excreted rapidly. The BE should be scheduled next. Finally, the upper GI series is scheduled. Any barium remaining from the previous BE should not be enough to interfere with the stomach or duodenum (a preliminary scout image should be taken in each case)

In what order should the following examinations be performed on the same patient? 1. Upper GI series 2. IVU 3. BE

2-3-1 IVU-BE-Upper GI

A radiographer should recognize that gerontologic patients often have undergone physical changes that include loss ofL

-muscle mass. -bone calcium

What pixel size has a 2,048 × 2,048 matrix with a 60-cm FOV? A. 0.3 mm B. 0.5 mm C. 0.15 mm D. 0.03 mm

0.3 mm

When reviewing patient blood chemistry levels, what is considered the normal creatinine range? A. 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL B. 4.5 to 6 mg/100 mL C. 8 to 25 mg/100 mL D. Up to 50 mg/100 mL

0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL

A backup timer for the AEC serves to: 1. protect the patient from overexposure 2. protect the x-ray tube from excessive heat 3. adjust image contrast

1 & 2

A diabetic patient who has prepared for a fasting radiographic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by 1. shaking and nervousness. 2. cold, clammy skin. 3. cyanosis.

1 & 2

A diabetic patient who has prepared for a fasting radiographic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by: 1. shaking and nervousness. 2. cold, clammy skin. 3. cyanosis.

1 & 2

A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following? 1. Sacral vertebrae 2. Thoracic vertebrae 3. Lumbar vertebrae

1 & 2

An analog x-ray exposure of a particular part is made and restricted to a 14 × 17 in. field size. The same exposure is repeated, but the x-ray beam is restricted to a 4 × 4 in. field. Compared with the first image, the second image will demonstrate: 1. less receptor exposure 2. more contrast 3. more receptor exposure

1 & 2

Characteristics of low ratio focused grids include the following: 1. they have a greater focal range 2. they are less efficient in collecting SR 3. they can be used inverted

1 & 2

Disadvantages of moving grids over stationary grids include which of the following? 1. They can prohibit the use of very short exposure times. 2. They increase patient radiation dose. 3. They can cause phantom images when anatomic parts parallel their motion.

1 & 2

Disadvantages of using lower kilovoltage technical factors, with mAs compensated to maintain receptor exposure, include: 1. insufficient penetration 2. increased patient dose 3. diminished resolution

1 & 2

Examples of means by which infectious microorganisms can be transmitted via indirect contact include: 1. a fomite. 2. a vector. 3. nasal or oral secretions.

1 & 2

Exposure rate increases with an increase in 1. mA. 2. kVp. 3. SID.

1 & 2

Fluorescent light is collected from the image intensifier output phosphor and converted to an electronic video signal by the: 1. TV camera tube. 2. CCD. 3. coaxial cable

1 & 2

Sources of natural background radiation exposure include 1. the food we eat. 2. air travel. 3. medical and dental x-rays.

1 & 2

The AEC device operates on which of the following principles? 1. Delivery of the required exposure time 2. A parallel-plate ionization chamber charged by x-ray photons 3. Motion of magnetic fields inducing current in a conductor

1 & 2

The effect that differential absorption has on radiographic contrast of a high-subject-contrast part can be minimized by using a compensating filter. using high-kilovoltage exposure factors. increased collimation.

1 & 2

The main forms of COPD include: 1. chronic bronchitis. 2. pulmonary emphysema. 3. asthma.

1 & 2

The output phosphor can be coupled with the Vidicon TV camera or charge-coupled device (CCD) via 1. fiber optics. 2. an image distributor or lens. 3. closed-circuit TV.

1 & 2

The right posterior oblique (RPO) position of the left acetabulum will demonstrate the 1. posterior rim of the left acetabulum. 2. left anterior iliopubic column. 3. left iliac wing.

1 & 2

The right posterior oblique position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the 1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum 2. right iliac wing 3. right anterior iliopubic column

1 & 2

The risk of inoculation with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is considered high for the following: 1. Broken skin 2. Shared needles 3. Conjunctiva

1 & 2

Types of moving grid mechanisms include: 1. oscillating. 2. reciprocating. 3. synchronous.

1 & 2

Which of the following can be transmitted via infected blood? 1. HBV 2. AIDS 3. TB

1 & 2

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lateral projection of the cervical spine? 1. Intervertebral joints 2. Zygapophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral foramina

1 & 2

Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone? 1. Posterior clinoid processes 2. Dorsum sella 3. Posterior arch of C1

1 & 2

An advantage of coupling the image intensifier to the TV camera or CCD via a fiber-optic coupling device is its: 1. compact size 2. durability 3. ability to accommodate auxillary imaging devices

1 & 2 --The image intensifier can be coupled to the TV camera via a fiber-optic bundle or via a lens coupling device. The fiber-optic connection offers less fragility, more compactness, and ease of maneuverability. The objective lens can use the, now infrequently used, auxiliary imaging devices such as a cine camera or spot-film camera.

Diseases that require contact precautions include: 1. MRSA 2. Clostridium difficile (C-diff) 3. TB

1 & 2 Any disease spread by direct or close contact, such as MRSA and Clostridium difficile (C-diff), and some wounds require contact precautions. Contact precaution procedures require a private patient room and the use of gloves and gowns for anyone coming in direct contact with the infected individual or the infected person's environment. Some facilities require health care workers to wear a mask when caring for a patient with MRSA infection. TB, like varicella and rubeola, requires airborne precautions. Rubella, mumps, and influenza require droplet precautions.

Which of the following circuit devices operate(s) on the principle of self-induction? 1. Autotransformer 2. Choke coil 3. High-voltage transformer

1 & 2 It is important to note that self-induction is a characteristic of AC only. The fact that AC is constantly changing direction accounts for the opposing current set up in the coil. Two x-ray circuit devices operate on the principle of self-induction. The autotransformer operates on the principle of self-induction and enables the radiographer to vary the kilovoltage. The choke coil also operates on the principle of self-induction; it is a type of variable resistor that may be used to regulate filament current. --High voltage transformer= mutual induction

An esophagram would most likely be requested for patients with which of the following esophageal disorders/symptoms? 1. Varices 2. Achalasia 3. Dysphasia

1 & 2 ONLY (Dysphasia is a speech impairment resulting from a brain lesion; it is unrelated to the esophagus. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing and is the most common esophageal complaint.)

A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension to demonstrate which of the following structures? 1. Esophagus 2. Pylorus 3. Ilium

1 & 2 only

Advantages of battery-powered mobile x-ray units include their 1. ability to store a large quantity of energy 2. ability to store energy for extended periods of time 3. lightness and ease of maneuverability

1 & 2 only

Bone densitometry is often performed to: 1. measure degree of bone (de)mineralization 2. evaluate results of osteoporosis treatment/therapy 3. evaluate condition of soft tissue adjacent to bone

1 & 2 only

Characteristics of a patient with pulmonary emphysema include: 1. shoulder girdle elevation 2. increased AP diameter of the chest 3. hyperventilation

1 & 2 only

Compared to a low ratio grid, a high ratio grid will 1. absorb more primary radiation. 2. absorb more scattered radiation. 3. allow more centering latitude.

1 & 2 only

Components of digital imaging include: 1. computer manipulation of the image 2. formation of an electronic image on the radiation detector 3. formation of an x-ray image directly on the emulsion

1 & 2 only

Conditions that contribute to x-ray tube damage include: 1. lengthy anode rotation 2. exposures to a cold anode 3. low-milliampere-seconds/high- kilovoltage exposure factors

1 & 2 only

Double-focus x-ray tubes have two: 1. focal spots. 2. filaments. 3. anodes.

1 & 2 only

Fluids and medications are administered to patients intravenously for which of the following reasons? 1. To promote rapid response 2. To administer parenteral nutrition 3. To achieve a local effect

1 & 2 only

Forms of intentional misconduct include: 1. slander. 2. invasion of privacy. 3. negligence.

1 & 2 only

In which of the following conditions is a double-contrast BE essential for demonstration of the condition? 1. Polyps 2. Colitis 3. Diverticulosis

1 & 2 only

It is essential to question female patients of childbearing age regarding the 1. date of their last menstrual period 2. possibility of their being pregnant 3. number of x-ray examinations they have had in the past 12 months

1 & 2 only

Low-kilovoltage exposure factors usually are indicated for radiographic examinations using 1. water-soluble, iodinated media 2. a negative contrast agent 3. barium sulfate

1 & 2 only

Patients' rights include which of the following? 1. The right to refuse treatment 2. The right to confidentiality 3. The right to possess his or her radiographs

1 & 2 only

Structures comprising the neural, or vertebral, arch include: 1. pedicles 2. laminae 3. body

1 & 2 only

The advantages of capacitor-discharge mobile x-ray equipment include: 1. compact size 2. light weight 3. high kilovoltage capability

1 & 2 only

What information must be included on an x-ray image for it to be considered as legitimate legal evidence? 1. Name of facility where exam performed 2. Examination date 3. Date of birth

1 & 2 only

When caring for the elderly, it is important to remember that, as one ages, there is often a decrease in: 1. reaction time 2. strength 3. long-term memory

1 & 2 only

Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type? 1. Short, wide, transverse heart 2. High and peripheral large bowel 3. Diaphragm positioned low

1 & 2 only

Which of the following conditions would require an increase in exposure factors? 1. Congestive heart failure 2. Pleural effusion 3. Emphysema

1 & 2 only

Which of the following examinations require(s) restriction of a patient's diet? 1. Barium enema 2. Pyelogram 3. Metastatic survey

1 & 2 only

Which of the following factors will affect both the quality and the quantity of the primary beam? 1. HVL 2. kV 3. mA

1 & 2 only

Which of the following information is necessary to determine the maximum safe kilovoltage using the appropriate x-ray tube rating chart? 1. Milliamperage and exposure time 2. Focal-spot size 3. Imaging-system speed

1 & 2 only

Which of the following is (are) evaluation criteria for a PA chest radiograph of the heart and lungs? 1. Ten posterior ribs should be seen above the diaphragm. 2. The medial ends of the clavicles should be equidistant from the vertebral column. 3. The scapulae should be seen through the upper lung fields.

1 & 2 only

Which of the following medication routes refers to the term parenteral? 1. Subcutaneous 2. Intramuscular 3. Oral

1 & 2 only

Which of the following positions is/are most frequently used to demonstrate the sphenoid sinuses? 1. Modified Waters (mouth open) 2. Lateral 3. PA axial

1 & 2 only

Which of the following types of adult tissues is (are) relatively insensitive to radiation exposure? 1. Muscle tissue 2. Nerve tissue 3. Epithelial tissue

1 & 2 only

Which of the following units is (are) used to express resolution? 1. Line-spread function 2. Line pairs per millimeter 3. Line-focus principle

1 & 2 only

Which of the following will improve the spatial resolution of image-intensified images? 1. A very thin coating of cesium iodide on the input phosphor 2. A smaller-diameter input screen/phosphor 3. Increased total brightness gain

1 & 2 only

A diabetic patient who has taken insulin while preparing for a fasting radiologic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by 1. fatigue 2. cyanosis 3. restlessness

1 & 3

Capacitor-discharge mobile x-ray units: 1. use a grid-controlled x-ray tube 2. are typically charged before the day's work 3. provide a direct-current output

1 & 3

Resolution in CR increases as: 1. laser beam size decreases 2. monitor matrix size decreases 3. PSP crystal size decreases

1 & 3

The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles? 1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR 2. MSP perpendicular to the IR 3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR

1 & 3

Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of a 16:1 grid? 1. It absorbs more useful radiation than an 8:1 grid. 2. It has more centering latitude than an 8:1 grid. 3. It is used with higher-kilovoltage exposures than an 8:1 grid.

1 & 3

Which of the following statements regarding dual x-ray absorptiometry is (are) true? 1. Radiation dose is low. 2. Only low-energy photons are used. 3. Photon attenuation by bone is calculated.

1 & 3

Which of the following statements would be true regarding tracheostomy patients? 1. Tracheostomy patients have difficulty speaking. 2. A routine chest x-ray requires the tracheostomy tubing to be rotated out of view. 3. Audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction.

1 & 3

If a radiograph exhibits insufficient receptor exposure, this might be attributed to: 1. insufficient kVp. 2. insufficient SID. 3. grid cutoff.

1 & 3 only

Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of a 16:1 grid? 1. It absorbs more useful radiation than an 8:1 grid. 2. It has more centering latitude than an 8:1 grid. 3. It is used with higher-kilovoltage exposures than an 8:1 grid.

1 & 3 only

Which of the following statements is (are) correct regarding the parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method) of the skull? 1. The head is rested on the extended chin. 2. The orbitomeatal line (OML) is perpendicular to the (IR). 3. The maxillary antra should be projected above the petrosa

1 & 3 only

Which of the following statements regarding dual x-ray absorptiometry is (are) true? 1. Radiation dose is low. 2. Only low-energy photons are used. 3. Photon attenuation by bone is calculated.

1 & 3 only

With a patient suffering abdominal pain, it is frequently helpful to: 1. elevate the head slightly with a pillow. 2. perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position. 3. place a support under the knees. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

1 & 3 only (Strain on the abdominal muscles may be minimized by placing a pillow under the patient's head and a support under the patient's knees. The pillow also relieves neck strain, reduces the chance of aspiration in the nauseated patient, and allows the patient to observe his or her surroundings. The Trendelenburg position causes the diaphragm to assume a higher position and can cause a patient to become short of breath. )

The law of Bergonié and Tribondeau states that cells are more radiosensitive if they are: 1. highly proliferative 2. highly differentiated 3. immature

1 & 3 only (highly undifferentiated means immature which would mean more radiosensitive)

The output phosphor can be coupled with the Vidicon TV camera or charge-coupled device (CCD) via 1. fiber optics. 2. an image distributor or lens. 3. closed-circuit TV.

1 &2 ONLY

Sternal compressions during CPR are made with the heels of the hands located about

1 1/2 inches superior to the xiphoid tip

Which of the following is (are) likely to improve image quality and decrease patient dose? 1. Beam restriction 2. Low kilovolt and high milliampere- second factors 3. Grid

1 ONLY

Which of the following would be useful for an examination of a patient suffering from Parkinson disease? 1. Short exposure time 2. High ratio grid 3. Compensating filtration

1 ONLY

Types of inflammatory bowel disease include ulcerative colitis. Crohn's disease. intussusception.

1 and 2

Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)? Hepatic flexure Gallbladder Ileocecal valve

1 and 2

The advantages of capacitor-discharge mobile x-ray equipment include: 1. compact size 2. light weight 3. high kilovoltage capability

1 and 2 only

Which of the following will serve to increase the effective energy of the x-ray beam? Increase in added filtration Increase in kilovoltage Increase in milliamperage A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

1 and 2 only

Which of the following x-ray circuit devices operate(s) on the principle of mutual induction? 1. High-voltage transformer 2. Filament transformer 3. Autotransformer

1 and 2 only

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the lateral projection of the lumbar spine? 1.The MSP is parallel to the tabletop. 2.The vertebral foramina are well visualized. 3.The pedicles are well visualized.

1 and 3

The dose equivalent limit for a radiography student under the age of 18 years is:

1 mSv

All of the following statements regarding dual x-ray absorptiometry are true, except 1. radiation dose is considerable. 2. two x-ray photon energies are used. 3. photon attenuation by bone is calculated.

1 only

Any images obtained using dual x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) bone densitometry: 1. are used to evaluate accuracy of the region of interest (ROI) 2. are used as evaluation for various bone/joint disorders 3. reflect the similar attenuation properties of soft tissue and bone

1 only

Image resolution depends on all the following except: 1. quantity of filtration. 2. anode angle. 3. OIDs.

1 only

Terms that refer to size distortion include: 1. magnification 2. attenuation 3. elongation

1 only

The correct way(s) to check for cracks in lead aprons is (are) 1. to fluoroscope them once a year 2. to radiograph them at low kilovoltage twice a year 3. by visual inspection

1 only

When using the smaller field in a dual-field image intensifier, 1. the image is magnified 2. the image is brighter 3. a larger anatomic area is viewed

1 only

Which of the following are demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical spine? 1. Intervertebral foramina 2. Zygapophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral joints

1 only

Which of the following is (are) directly related to photon energy? Kilovoltage Milliamperes Wavelength

1 only

Which of the following is/are components of the secondary, or high voltage, side of the x-ray circuit? 1. Rectification system 2. Autotransformer 3. kV meter

1 only

Which of the following statements regarding the male pelvis is (are) true? 1. The angle formed by the pubic arch is less than that of the female. 2. The pelvic outlet is wider than that of the female. 3. The ischial tuberosities are further apart.

1 only

Which of the following would be useful for an examination of a patient suffering from Parkinson disease? 1. Short exposure time 2. High ratio grid 3. Compensating filtration

1 only

Spatial resolution is directly related to 1. SID. 2. tube current. 3. focal-spot size.

1 only ----As SID increases, so does spatial resolution because magnification is decreased - a direct relationship. Therefore, SID is directly related to spatial resolution. As focal spot size increases, spatial resolution decreases because more penumbral blur is produced. Focal spot size is thus inversely related to spatial resolution - as FSS increases,resolution decreases. Tube current affects receptor exposure and is unrelated to spatial resolution.

In which type of equipment does kilovoltage decrease during the actual length of the exposure? 1. Condenser-discharge mobile equipment 2. Battery-operated mobile equipment 3. Fixed x-ray equipment

1 only -Condenser-discharge mobile x-ray units do not use batteries; this type of mobile unit requires that it be charged before each exposure. A condenser (or capacitor) is a device that stores electrical energy. The stored energy is used to operate the x-ray tube only. Because this machine does not carry many batteries, it is much lighter and does not need a motor to drive or brake it. The major disadvantage of the capacitor/condenser-discharge unit is that as the capacitor discharges its electrical charge, the kilovoltage gradually decreases throughout the length of the exposure—therefore limiting tube output and requiring recharging between exposures.

Which of the following is (are) well demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical vertebrae? 1. Intervertebral foramina 2. Disk spaces 3. Zygapophyseal joints

1 only (The cervical intervertebral foramina form a 45-degree angle with the MSP and, therefore, are well visualized in a 45-degree oblique position. Zygapophyseal joints are formed by articulating surfaces of the inferior articular facet of one vertebra with the superior articular facet of the vertebra below; they are well demonstrated in the lateral position of the cervical spine. The intervertebral disk spaces are best demonstrated in the lateral position.)

Deposition of vaporized tungsten on the inner surface of the x-ray tube glass window: 1. acts as additional filtration 2. results in increased tube output 3. results in anode pitting

1 only- acts as additional filtration

When radiographing young children, it is helpful to 1. let them bring a toy. 2. tell them it will not hurt. 3. be cheerful and unhurried.

1&3 only

A controlled area is defined as one: 1. that is occupied by people trained in radiation safety 2. that is occupied by people who wear radiation monitors 3. whose occupancy factor is 1

1, 2 & 3

Component parts of a CT imaging system include a(n): 1. high-frequency generator 2. x-ray tube 3. operator console

1, 2 & 3

In 1906, Bergonié and Tribondeau theorized that undifferentiated cells are highly radiosensitive. Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of undifferentiated cells? 1. Young cells 2. Highly mitotic cells 3. Precursor cells

1, 2 & 3

Moderate hypertension can produce damage to which of the following organs? 1. Lungs 2. Kidneys 3. Brain

1, 2 & 3

The decision as to whether to deliver ionic or nonionic contrast medium should include a preliminary patient history including, but not limited to: 1. patient age. 2. history of respiratory disease. 3. history of cardiac disease.

1, 2 & 3

Types of gonadal shielding include which of the following? Flat contact Shaped contact (contour) Shadow A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

1, 2 & 3

When using the smaller field in a dual-field image intensifier, 1. a smaller patient area is viewed. 2. the image is magnified. 3. the image is less bright.

1, 2 & 3

Which of the following features of fluoroscopic equipment is (are) designed to minimize radiation exposure to the patient or personnel? 1. Bucky slot cover 2. Exposure switch/foot pedal 3. Cumulative exposure timer

1, 2 & 3

Which of the following has (have) an effect on the amount and type of radiation-induced tissue damage? 1. Quality of radiation 2. Type of tissue being irradiated 3. Fractionation

1, 2 & 3

Which of the following is (are) considered especially radiosensitive tissues? 1. Bone marrow 2. Intestinal crypt cells 3. Erythroblasts

1, 2 & 3

Routine excretory urography usually includes a postmicturition radiograph of the bladder. This is done to demonstrate: 1. tumor masses. 2. residual urine. 3. prostatic enlargement.

1, 2 and 3

What instructions might a patient be given following an upper GI examination? 1. Drink plenty of fluids. 2. Take a mild laxative. 3. Increase dietary fiber.

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following must be included in a patient's medical record or chart? 1. Diagnostic and therapeutic orders 2. Medical history 3. Informed consent

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following statements regarding the pregnant radiographer is (are) true? 1. She should declare her pregnancy to her supervisor. 2. She should be assigned a second personnel monitor. 3. Her radiation history should be reviewed.

1, 2 and 3

X-ray tubes used in CT differ from those used in x-ray, in that CT x-ray tubes must: 1. have a very high short-exposure rating 2. be capable of tolerating several million heat units 3. have a small focal spot for optimal resolution

1, 2 and 3

X-ray tubes used in CT imaging systems must be capable of: 1. high short-exposure rating 2. tolerating millions of heat units 3. high-speed anode rotation

1, 2 and 3

Anode angle will have an effect on the: 1. severity of the heel effect 2. focal-spot size 3. heat-load capacity

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is (are) correct regarding care of protective leaded apparel? A. Lead aprons should be fluoroscoped yearly to check for cracks. B. Lead gloves should be fluoroscoped yearly to check for cracks. C. Lead aprons should be hung on appropriate racks when not in use.

1, 2, and 3

During studies of the soft tissue of the neck, the exposure can be made 1. during phonation before/after opacification. 2. during Valsalva maneuver. 3. at the height of swallowing motion with opacification.

1,2 &3

Which of the following may be used as landmark(s) for an AP projection of the hip? 1. 2 inches medial to the ASIS 2. Prominence of the greater trochanter 3. Midway between the iliac crest and the pubic symphysis

1. 2 inches medial to the ASIS 2. Prominence of the greater trochanter

What is the approximate ESE for the average AP lumbar spine radiograph? A. 1.0 mGy B. 1.75 mGy C. 2.75 mGy D. 4.0 mGy

2.75 mGy The average PA chest delivers an ESE of about 0.1 mGy. The average AP supine lumbar spine delivers an ESE of about 2.5 - 3 mGy; the average AP thoracic spine about 1.8 mGy; the average AP cervical spine about 1.0 mGy. The average AP pelvis delivers about 1.5 mGy. The average lateral skull about 0.7 mGy, the shoulder about 0.90 mGy, and the extremity about 0.5 mGy.

When modifying the PA axial projection of the skull to demonstrate superior orbital fissures, the central ray is directed A. 20° to 25° caudad. B. 20° to 25° cephalad. C. 30° to 35° caudad. D. 30° to 35° cephalad.

20° to 25° caudad.

Possible side effects of an iodinated contrast medium that is administered intravenously include all the following except: 1. a warm, flushed feeling. 2. altered taste. 3. rash and hives.

3 only

Classify the following tissues in order of increasing radiosensitivity: 1. Liver cells 2. Intestinal crypt cells 3. Muscle cells

3-1-2

Which of the following voltage ripples is (are) produced by a three-phase, 12-pulse equipment? 1. 100% voltage ripple 2. 13% voltage ripple 3. 3.5% voltage ripple

3.5%

Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral zygapophyseal articulation? A. AP B. Lateral C. 30-degree RPO D. 45-degree LPO

30 deg RPO

Which of the following will produce the greatest distortion? A. AP projection of the skull B. PA projection of the skull C. 37° AP axial of the skull D. 20° PA axial of the skull

37 degree AP axial of the skull

At least how many HVLs are required to reduce the intensity of a beam of monoenergetic photons to less than 10% of its original value? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

4 An HVL may be defined as the amount and thickness of absorber necessary to reduce the radiation intensity to half its original value. Thus, the first HVL would reduce the intensity to 50% of its original value, the second to 25%, the third to 12.5%, and the fourth to 6.25% of its original value.

If a patient received 0.2 Gy during a 5 minute fluoroscopic examination, what was the dose rate? A. 0.04 mGy/min B. 1.0 mGy/min C. 10.0 mGy/min D. 40.0 mGy/min

40.0 mGy/min -0.2 Gy is equal to 200 mGy. If 200 mGy were delivered in 5 minutes, then the dose rate would be 40 mGy/min: 200 mGy / 5 min = x / 1 5 x = 200 x = 40 mGy/min

Occupational radiation monitoring is required when it is possible that the individual's annual dose might exceed:

5 mSv

According to the NCRP, the annual occupational whole-body dose-equivalent limit is A. 1 mSv B. 50 mSv C. 150 mSv D. 500 mSv

50 mSv

According to the NCRP, the annual occupational dose-equivalent limit to the thyroid, skin, and extremities is:

500 mSv

If the primary coil of a high-voltage transformer is supplied by 220 V and has 400 turns and the secondary coil has 100,000 turns, what is the voltage induced in the secondary coil? A. 80 kV B. 55 kV C. 80 V D. 55 V

55 kV

If the distance from the focal spot to the center of the collimator's mirror is 6 in., what distance should the illuminator's light bulb be from the center of the mirror? A. 3 in. B. 6 in. C. 9 in. D. 12 in.

6 inches -In order for the projected light beam to be the same size as the x-ray beam, the focal spot and the light bulb must be exactly the same distance from the center of the mirror.

Primary radiation barriers must be at least how high? A. 5 ft B. 6 ft C. 7 ft D. 8 ft

7 ft

What percentage of x-ray attenuation does a 0.5-mm lead equivalent apron at 100 kVp provide? A. 51% B. 66% C. 75% D. 94%

75%

How much protection is provided from a 75-kVp x-ray beam when using a 0.50-mm lead equivalent apron? A. 51% B. 66% C. 88% D. 99%

88%

Medical and dental radiation accounts for what percentage of the general public's exposure to human-made radiation?

90%

If a lateral projection of the chest is being performed on an asthenic patient and the outer photocells are selected, what is likely to be the outcome? A Decreased receptor exposure B Increased receptor exposure C Scattered radiation fog D Motion blur

A

In classifying IV contrast agents, the total number of dissolved particles in solution per kilogram of water defines A. osmolality B. toxicity. C. viscosity. D. miscibility.

A

The AP axial projection of the pulmonary apices requires the CR to be directed A 15 degrees cephalad B 15 degrees caudad C 30 degrees cephalad D 30 degrees caudad

A

Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous glandular breast tissue? A. A postpubertal adolescent B. A 20-year-old with one previous pregnancy C. A menopausal woman D. A postmenopausal 65-year-old

A postpubertal adolescent

The purpose of magnification fluoroscopy is to: A. Enhance the image in order to facilitate diagnostic interpretation B. Decrease patient dosage C. Decrease fluoroscopy time D. Increase efficiency of X-ray production

A.

Which of the following combinations would pose the most hazard to a particular anode? A. 0.6 mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs B. 0.6 mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs C. 1.2 mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs D. 1.2 mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs

A. 0.6 mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs

Which of the following combinations would pose the most hazard to a particular anode? A. 0.6 mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs B. 0.6 mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs C. 1.2 mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs D. 1.2 mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs

A. 0.6 mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs The total number of HU that an exposure generates also influences the amount of stress (in the form of heat) imparted to the anode. The product of mAs and kVp determines HU. Groups A and C produce 2250 HU; groups B and D produce 1275 HU. Groups B and D deliver less heat load, but group D delivers it to a larger area (actual focal spot) making this the least hazardous group of technical factors. The most hazardous group of technical factors is group A because it delivers the greatest heat (2,250 HU) with the small focal spot.

Which of the following combinations would pose the least hazard to a particular anode? A. 1.2-mm focal spot, 92 kVp, 1.5 mAs B. 0.6-mm focal spot, 80 kVp, 3 mAs C. 1.2-mm focal spot, 70 kVp, 6 mAs D. 0.6-mm focal spot, 60 kVp, 12 mAs

A. 1.2-mm focal spot, 92 kVp, 1.5 mAs

The submentovertical (SMV) oblique axial projection of the zygomatic arches requires that the skull be rotated A. 15 degrees toward the affected side. B. 15 degrees away from the affected side. C. 45 degrees toward the affected side. D. 45 degrees away from the affected side.

A. 15 degrees toward the affected side

A fill factor of 80% in direct or indirect digital radiography means that: A. 20% of the pixel area is occupied by the detector electronics with 80% representing the sensing area B. 80% of the pixel area is occupied by the detector electronics with 20% representing the sensing area C. The saturation level will be unacceptable D. Only 20% of the image will be captured

A. 20% of the pixel area is occupied by the detector electronics with 80% representing the sensing area -The fill factor is expressed as a percentage. In this case (A), 80% means that 20% of the pixel area is occupied by the detector electronics with 80% representing the sensing area which, in turn, represents the image. Larger fill factors indicate large sensing areas; larger fill factors (and sensing areas) indicate better spatial and contrast resolution.

Which of the following systems function(s) to compensate for changing patient/part thicknesses during fluoroscopic procedures? A. Automatic brightness control B. Minification gain C. Automatic resolution control D. Flux gain

A. Automatic brightness control

In the CR reader, some of the laser light is redirected to a reference detector by way of a(n): A. Beam splitter B. Analog-to-digital converter C. Photomultiplier tube D. f-theta lens

A. Beam splitter

Quality control testing of digital display monitors should be conducted A. Daily B. Weekly C. Monthly D. Annually

A. Daily

The safe approach to avoid an exposure field recognition error when using CR is to: A. Expose one image on the smallest IP available with collimation margins aligned parallel to the edges of the IP B. Expose multiple images on one IP, but make sure all collimation margins overlap C. Expose one image on the IP, but do not collimate D. Expose multiple images on one IP, but make sure all collimation margins are parallel to each other and do not overlap

A. Expose one image on the smallest IP available with collimation margins aligned parallel to the edges of the IP

While indirect digital detectors use a scintillator (phosphor) to convert X-ray energy, direct detectors use a: A. Photoconductor B. Scintillator C. Charged coupled device D. Histogram detector screen

A. Photoconductor

The movement of the IP through the transport system of a CR reader is referred to as the: A. Slow-scan direction B. Charge-coupled direction C. Nyquist direction D. Fast-scan direction

A. Slow-scan direction

In digital imaging, the maximum spatial resolution is equal to: A. The Nyquist frequency, which is 1/2X the pixel pitch (mm) B. The wavelength of the detector system's analog-to-digital convertor's electrical signal C. The distance between the silver halide crystals in the image receptor D. The detective quantum efficiency of the imaging system; this should be at least 2X the frequency of the analog-to-digital convertor electrical signal

A. The Nyquist frequency, which is 1/2X the pixel pitch (mm)

If the center photocell were selected for a lateral projection of the lumbar spine that was positioned with the spinous processes instead of the vertebral bodies centered to the grid, how would the resulting radiograph look? A. The image would be underexposed. B. The image would be overexposed. C. The image would be correctly exposed. D. An exposure could not be made.

A. The image would be underexposed. --If the photocell were centered more posteriorly to a thinner and less dense structure, then the exposure received would be correct for that less-dense structure. The spinous processes would be well visualized, but the denser vertebral bodies and surrounding structures (pedicles and lamina) would be underexposed. Accurate selection of photocells and precise positioning are critical with the use of automatic exposure devices.

The following are disadvantages of a capacitor-discharge mobile unit, except: A. The mAs increases during the exposure, called "mAs creep" B. The capacitor may continue to discharge after the exposure C. The actual kilovoltage achieved during an exposure is significantly lower than the set kVp D. At lower kVp settings, the capacitors discharge more slowly and, therefore, a considerable residual kV may exist after the desired exposure time

A. The mAs increases during the exposure, called "mAs creep"

When radiographing a cross-table lateral hip or axial shoulder using CR, one method of creating a collimation margin at the bottom of the radiograph is to: A. Use a narrow lead strip at the bottom edge of the IP, but out of the anatomy B. Only one collimation margin is necessary, so this would not be necessary C. Make two exposures with suspended respiration; one for the uppermost anatomy, then a second for the dependent anatomy D. Expose the anatomy as is and use the post-processing cropping feature

A. Use a narrow lead strip at the bottom edge of the IP, but out of the anatomy

The image intensifier's input phosphor generally is composed of A. cesium iodide B. zinc cadmium sulfide C. gadolinium oxysulfide D. calcium tungstate

A. cesium iodid

To compensate for variations in gain across a digital receptor, which of the following maintenance steps should be taken? A. Conduct a calibration correction for image nonuniformity B. Increase or decrease the exposure factors to compensate C. Install a variable resistor to adjust the electrical supply to the unit D. Keep a log for at least 30 days to confirm consistent variations before making any adjustments

A. conduct a calibration correction for image nonuniformity

If a radiograph, made using AEC, is overexposed because an exposure shorter than the minimum response time was required, the radiographer generally should A. decrease the milliamperage B. increase the milliamperage C. increase the kilovoltage D. decrease the kilovoltage

A. decrease the milliamperage --Decreasing or increasing the kilovoltage will produce a change in radiographic contrast. The image was overexposed (from excessive exposure time) because the AEC wasn't capable of producing the required extremely short exposure time. To bring the required exposure to an exposure time the AEC is capable of, the mA should be decreased (thus requiring a longer exposure time, within the capability of the AEC).

The image intensifier's input phosphor differs from the output phosphor in that the input phosphor A. is much larger than the output phosphor B. emits electrons, whereas the output phosphor emits light photons C. absorbs electrons, whereas the output phosphor absorbs light photons D. is a fixed size, and the size of the output phosphor can vary

A. is much larger than the output phosphor

Fractional-focus tubes, with a 0.3-mm focal spot or smaller, have special application in A. magnification radiography B. fluoroscopy C. tomography D. image intensification

A. magnification radiography Because OID is an integral part of magnification radiography, the problem of magnification unsharpness arises. The use of a fractional focal spot (0.3 mm or smaller) is essential to the maintenance of image sharpness in magnification films.

The line-focus principle expresses the relationship between A. the actual and the effective focal spot B. exposure given the IR and resulting spatial resolution C. SID used and resulting receptor exposure D. grid ratio and lines per inch

A. the actual and the effective focal spot

All the following statements regarding three-phase current are true except A. three-phase current is constant-potential direct current. B. three-phase equipment produces more x-rays per milliampere-second. C. three-phase equipment produces higher-average-energy x-rays than single-phase equipment. D. the three-phase waveform has less ripple than the single-phase waveform.

A. three-phase current is constant-potential direct current

During CR imaging, the latent image present on the PSP is changed to a digital signal by the A. PSP B. Scanner-reader C. ADC D. helium-neon laser

ADC

The luminescent light emitted by the PSP is converted to a digital image by the A. DAC B. scanner-reader C. ADC D. helium-neon laser

ADC

A device used to ensure reproducible radiographs, regardless of tissue-density variations, is the A. AEC B. penetrometer C. moving grid D. compensating filter

AEC

A parallel-plate ionization chamber receives a particular charge as x-ray photons travel through it. This is the operating principle of which of the following devices? A. AEC B. Image intensifier C. Cine camera D. Spot camera

AEC

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the PA axial projection of the cranium? 1. The central ray is directed caudally to the OML. 2. The petrous pyramids are projected into the lower third of the orbits. 3. The frontal sinuses are visualized.

ALL 3

Which of the following positions is most likely to offer the best visualization of the pulmonary apices? A. Lateral decubitus B. Dorsal decubitus C. Erect lateral D. AP axial lordotic

AP axial lordotic

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation? A. AP recumbent, affected shoulder B. AP recumbent, both shoulders C. AP erect, affected shoulder D. AP erect, both shoulders

AP erect, both shoulders

Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following positions? A. AP projection, left lateral decubitus position B. AP projection, right lateral decubitus position C. PA recumbent position D. AP recumbent position

AP projection, left lateral decubitus position (because liver tissue is so homogeneous, a small amount of air will be perceived more easily superimposed on it rather than on left-sided structures. Thus, an AP projection obtained in the left lateral decubitus position will best demonstrate a small amount of free air because that air will be superimposed on the liver.)

The lesser tubercle of the humerus will be visualized in profile in the:

AP shoulder internal rotation radiograph.

Which of the following artifacts is occasionally associated with the use of grids in digital imaging? A. Incomplete erasure B. Aliasing C. Image fading D. Vignetting

Aliasing

Anaphylactic shock manifests early symptoms that include: 1. dysphagia. 2. itching of palms and soles. 3. constriction of the throat

All 3

Gonadal shielding should be provided for male patients in which of the following examinations? 1. Femur 2. Abdomen 3. Pelvis

All 3

Indirect modes of disease transmission include: 1. airborne 2. fomite 3. vector

All 3

The legal document or individual authorized to make an individual's health care decisions, should the individual be unable to make them for himself or herself, is the: 1. advance health care directive. 2. living will. 3. health care proxy.

All 3

The radiographer's radiation monitor report must include which of the following information? 1. Lifetime dose equivalent 2. Quarterly dose equivalent 3. Inception date

All 3

Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP? 1. A fluoroscopic unit with imaging device and tilt-table capabilities 2. A fiber-optic endoscope 3. Polyethylene catheters

All 3

Which of the following is (are) tested as part of a QC program? 1. Beam alignment 2. Reproducibility 3. Linearity

All 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy? 1. Employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason. 2. Before you suction a tracheostomy, the patient should be well aerated. 3. Never suction for longer than 15 seconds, permitting the patient to rest in between.

All 3

The sternoclavicular joints will be best demonstrated in which of the following positions? A. Apical lordotic B. Anterior oblique C. Lateral D. Weight-bearing

Anterior Oblique

A patient developed hives several minutes after injection of an iodinated contrast agent. What type of drug should be readily available? A. Analgesic B. Antihistamine C. Anti-inflammatory D. Antibiotic

Antihistamine

What is the first treatment for extravasation of contrast media during an IV injection? A. Apply a hot compress. B. Apply a cold compress. C. Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops. D. Remove the needle and locate a sturdier vein immediately.

Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops

What is the effect on RBE as LET increases? A. As LET increases, RBE increases. B. As LET increases, RBE decreases. C. As LET increases, RBE stabilizes. D. LET has no effect on RBE.

As LET increases, RBE increases

Which of the following is a radiologic procedure that functions to dilate a stenotic vessel? A. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy B. Percutaneous angioplasty C. Renal arteriography D. Surgical nephrostomy

B

Which of the following medications commonly found on emergency carts functions to raise blood pressure? A. Heparin B. Norepinephrine C. Nitroglycerin D. Lidocaine

B

Sources of secondary radiation include: A. background radiation B. leakage radiation C. scattered radiation

B&C -leakage radiation -scattered radiation

If a high-voltage transformer has 100 primary turns and 35,000 secondary turns, and is supplied by 220 V and 75 A, what are the secondary voltage and current? A. 200 A and 77 V B. 200 mA and 77 kVp C. 20 A and 77 V D. 20 mA and 77 kVp

B.

Which of the following combinations will offer the greatest heat-loading capability? A. 17-degree target angle, 1.2-mm actual focal spot B. 10-degree target angle, 1.2-mm actual focal spot C. 17-degree target angle, 0.6-mm actual focal spot D. 10-degree target angle, 0.6-mm actual focal spot

B. 10-degree target angle, 1.2-mm actual focal spot The smaller the focal spot, the more limited the anode is with respect to the quantity of heat it can safely accept. As the target angle decreases, the actual focal spot can be increased while still maintaining a small effective focal spot. Therefore, group (B) offers the greatest heat-loading potential, with a steep target angle and a large actual focal spot. It must be remembered, however, that a steep target angle increases the heel effect, and IR coverage may be compromised

Due to the high sensitivity of digital detectors to low intensity radiation (background, scatter and/or off-focus radiation), there is likely to be scatter and off-focus radiation contributing to the image outside the collimation margins. Since many radiologists find this distracting, the most appropriate radiographer action would be to: A. Use film-screen imaging only B. Apply a black border to the image before it is printed or sent to PACS C. Expose the anatomical parts as is; there is nothing that can be done to improve the presentation of the image(s) due to the inherent sensitivity of the system D. Reduce exposure factors by one-half to ensure minimal scatter and off-focus radiation

B. Apply a black border to the image before it is printed or sent to PACS

The X-ray scintillator layer used with indirect flat-panel digital detectors is usually either _____________ or ______________. A. Silicon dioxide, silver halide B. Cesium iodide, gadolinium oxysulfide C. Yttrium oxysulfide, barium fluoride D. Amorphous silicon dioxide, barium platinocyanide

B. Cesium iodide, gadolinium oxysulfide

Which of the following is used in digital fluoroscopy, replacing the image intensifier's television camera tube? A. Solid-state diode B. Charge-coupled device C. Photostimulable phosphor D. Vidicon

B. Charge-coupled device

To ensure proper operation of the digital image display monitor, all of the following are important in order to develop a quality control (QC) program, except: A. Routine quality control tests by the QC technologist B. Disassembly and cleaning of the internal monitor control devices by the QC technologist C Periodic review of the QC program by a qualified medical physicist D Annual and post-repair medical physics performance evaluations

B. Disassembly and cleaning of the internal monitor control devices by the QC technologist

Histogram data that is skewed relative to the values of interest (VOI) of the histogram analysis used for a particular exam may be caused by all of the following, except: A. Anatomical structures not centered to the IP B. Excessive windowing C. The X-ray beam is not correctly aligned to the edges of the IP D. The beam edge is irregular because of overlap of a radiopaque shadow, such as a gonadal shield

B. Excessive windowing

A focal-spot size of 0.3 mm or smaller is essential for which of the following procedures? A. Bone radiography B. Magnification radiography C. Tomography D. Fluoroscopy

B. Magnification radiography

Magnification fluoroscopy is only possible with: A. Decreased patient dosage B. Multifield image intensifiers C. Decreased fluoroscopic time D. Increased efficiency of X-ray production

B. Multifield image intesifers

One reason why only one image is preferred per image plate is: A. To ensure that the anatomical part is properly centered to avoid undercutting of the image B. To allow the radiologist to split the PACS monitor and display the current image and a prior image side-by-side for comparison C. To ensure optimal radiation safety, since only one image is exposed on one image plate D. To reduce the chances of grid cutoff artifacts

B. To allow the radiologist to split the PACS monitor and display the current image and a prior image side-by-side for comparison

Off-focus and scatter radiation outside of the exposure field when using CR can cause: A. Narrowing of the histogram B. Widening of the histogram C. Improper alignment of the exposure field D. High contrast

B. Widening of the histogram

Off-focus, or extrafocal, radiation is minimized by A. avoiding the use of very high kilovoltages B. restricting the x-ray beam as close to its source as possible C. using compression devices to reduce tissue thickness D. avoiding extreme collimation

B. restricting the x-ray beam as close to its source as possible

A three-phase timer can be tested for accuracy using a synchronous spinning top. The resulting image looks like a A. series of dots or dashes, each representative of a radiation pulse B. solid arc, with the angle (in degrees) representative of the exposure time C. series of gray tones, from white to black D. multitude of small, mesh-like squares of uniform sharpness

B. solid arc, with the angle (in degrees) representative of the exposure time

Star and wye configurations are related to A. autotransformers B. three-phase transformers C. rectification systems D. AECs

B. three-phase transformers The terms star and wye (or delta) refer to the configuration of transformer windings in three-phase equipment. Instead of having a single primary coil and a single secondary coil, the high-voltage transformer has three primary and three secondary windings—one winding for each phase (Figure 5-13). Autotransformers operate on the principle of self-induction and have only one winding. Three-phase x-ray equipment often has three autotransformers. (Selman, 9th ed., p. 163)

Focal-spot blur is greatest A. toward the anode end of the x-ray beam B. toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam C. directly along the course of the CR D. as the SID is increased

B. toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam --Focal-spot blur, or geometric blur, is caused by photons emerging from a large focal spot. Because the projected focal spot is greatest at the cathode end of the x-ray tube, geometric blur is also greatest at the corresponding part (cathode end) of the radiograph. The projected focal-spot size becomes progressively smaller toward the anode end of the x-ray tube.

TV camera tubes used in image intensification, such as the Plumbicon and Vidicon, function to A. increase the brightness of the input-phosphor image. B. transfer the output-phosphor image to the TV monitor. C. focus and accelerate electrons toward the output phosphor. D. record the output-phosphor image on the IR.

B. transfer the output-phosphor image to the TV monitor

Which of the following radiologic examinations requires preparation consisting of a low-residue diet, cathartics, and enemas? A. Upper GI series B. Small bowel series C. Barium enema (BE) D. Intravenous (IV) cystogram

BE

If a radiographer performed a lumbar spine examination on a patient who was supposed to have an elbow examination, which of the following charges may be brought against the radiographer? A.Assault B. Battery C. False imprisonment D. Defamation

Battery

A decrease from 80 mAs to 40 mAs will result in a decrease in which of the following? 1. Wavelength 2. Exposure rate 3. Beam intensity

Beam intensity & exposure rate

What is the device that directs the light emitted from the image intensifier to various viewing and imaging apparatus? A. Output phosphor B. Beam splitter C. Spot-film changer D. Automatic brightness control

Beam splitter

You have encountered a person who is apparently unconscious. Although you open his airway, there is no rise and fall of the chest, and you can hear no breath sounds. You should: A. begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, giving two full breaths. B. proceed with the Heimlich maneuver. C. begin external chest compressions at a rate of 70-80 compressions/min. D. begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 compressions/min.

Begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 compressions/min.

"Saturation" of an image in CR means that:

Beyond a certain exposure level, a large number of pixels will be at maximum digital value (black), resulting in loss of visibility of anatomical structures in that region.

The largest amount of diagnostic x-ray absorption is most likely to occur in which of the following tissues? A. Lung B. Adipose C. Muscle D. Bone

Bone

A lateral projection of the larynx is occasionally required to rule out foreign body, polyps, or tumor. The CR should be directed A. just below the EAM B. to the level of the mandibular angles C. to the level of the laryngeal prominence D. to the level of C7

C

Fluoroscopic imaging of the ileocecal valve is generally part of a(n) A. esophagram. B. upper GI series. C. small-bowel series. D. ERCP.

C

When a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, both subjective and objective data should be obtained. An example of subjective data is that A. the patient appears to have a productive cough. B. the patient has a blood pressure of 130/95 mm Hg. C. the patient states that she experiences extreme pain in the upright position. D. the patient has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant of the left breast.

C

The condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated, causing the patient to consciously exhale, is A. bronchial asthma B. bronchitis C. emphysema D. tuberculosis

C. Emphysema is a progressive disorder caused by long-term irritation of the bronchial passages, such as by air pollution or cigarette smoking. Emphysema patients are unable to exhale normally because of the loss of elasticity of the alveolar walls. If emphysema patients receive oxygen, it is usually administered at a very slow rate because their respirations are controlled by the level of carbon dioxide in the blood.

If 82 kVp, 300 mA, and 0.05 second were used for a particular exposure using 3-phase, 12-pulse equipment, what mAs would be required, using single-phase equipment, to produce a similar radiograph? A. 7.5 B. 20 C. 30 D. 50

C. 30 With three-phase equipment, the voltage never drops to zero and x-ray intensity is significantly greater. When changing from single-phase to three-phase, six-pulse equipment, two-thirds of the original mAs is required to produce a radiograph with similar receptor exposure. When changing from single-phase to three-phase, 12-pulse equipment, only one-half of the original mAs is required. In this problem, we are changing from three-phase, 12-pulse to single-phase equipment; therefore, the mAs should be doubled

n reviewing a patient's blood chemistry, which of the following blood urea nitrogen (BUN) ranges is considered normal? A. 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL B. 4.5 to 6 mg/100 mL C. 8 to 25 mg/100 mL D. Up to 50 mg/100 mL

C. 8 to 25 mg/100 mL

Although the stated focal-spot size is measured directly under the actual focal spot, focal-spot size actually varies along the length of the x-ray beam. At which portion of the x-ray beam is the effective focal spot the largest? A. At its outer edge B. Along the path of the central ray C. At the cathode end D. At the anode end

C. At the cathode end

Which of the following technical changes would best serve to remedy the effect of very dissimilar tissue densities? A. Use of short exposure time B. Use of a high-ratio grid C. High-kilovoltage exposure factors D. High milliampere-seconds exposure factors

C. High-kilovoltage exposure factors

Which of the following modes of a trifield image intensifier will result in the highest patient dose? A. Its 25-cm. mode B. Its 17-cm. mode C. Its 12-cm. mode D. Diameter does not affect patient dose

C. Its 12-cm anode -When a change to a smaller-diameter mode is made, the voltage on the electrostatic focusing lenses is increased, and the result is a magnified but dimmer image. The milliamperage will be increased automatically to compensate for the loss in brightness with a magnified image, resulting in higher patient dose in the smaller-diameter modes.

If your patient is unable to stay erect for a paranasal sinus examination, which of the following alternatives should be chosen? A. Recumbent AP B. Lateral recumbent C. Lateral cross-table recumbent D. Recumbent Waters'

C. Lateral cross-table recumbent (Radiography of the paranasal sinuses should be performed in the erect position whenever possible to demonstrate the presence of an air-fluid level. The only way air-fluid levels can be demonstrated is to have the central ray parallel the floor, as in erect, decubitus, and cross-table projections. Therefore, of the choices provided, the cross-table lateral is the only one that will demonstrate air-fluid levels.)

All of the following are steps that should be used to accomplish quality control (QC) in digital radiography, except: A. Acceptance testing B. Establishment of baseline performance C. Monitoring patient size to evaluate variations in equipment performance D. Diagnosis of changes in performance

C. Monitoring patient size to evaluate variations in equipment performance

All of the following are advantages of digital fluoroscopic imaging systems over conventional fluoroscopic imaging systems, except: A. Post-processing capability to enhance image contrast B. Increased image acquisition speed C. No need for pulsed or continuous radiation exposure D. Higher milliamperage settings can be used

C. No need for pulsed or continuous radiation exposure

If obtaining multiple images on one image plate, it is important to: A. Allow for X-ray tube cooling between successive exposures B. Avoid shielding of the image plate at all times to avoid field recognition errors C. Properly shield each exposed and unexposed area during the imaging of each individual image D. Expose the AP or PA projection in the right lower portion of the image plate

C. Properly shield each exposed and unexposed area during the imaging of each individual image

Cassetteless digital systems have a fixed spatial resolution determined by: A. The image plate laser divergence B. The focal spot size used C. The thin film transistor (TFT) detector element (DEL) size D. The proximity of the phosphor screen crystals

C. The thin film transistor (TFT) detector element (DEL) size

: Major components of a CR reader include all of the following, except: A. Laser source B. Image plate transport mechanism C. Thin-film transistor D. Analog-to-digital convertor

C. Thin-film transistor

The x-ray tube in a CT imaging system is most likely to be associated with: A. low-energy photons B. an unrestricted x-ray beam C. a pulsed x-ray beam D. a large focal spot

C. a pulsed x-ray beam

The x-ray imaging system that uses a flat panel detector is A. film emulsion system. B. computed radiography. C. direct digital radiography. D. fluoroscopy.

C. direct digital radiography

An illness of unknown or obscure cause is said to be A. systemic. B. epidemic. C. idiopathic. D. pathogenic.

C. idiopathic

According to the CDC, all the following precaution guidelines are true except A. airborne precautions require that the patient wear a mask. B. masks are indicated when caring for patients on MRSA precautions. C. patients under MRSA precautions require a negative-pressure room. D. gloves are indicated when caring for a patient on droplet precautions.

C. patients under MRSA precautions require a negative-pressure room.

Geometric blur can be evaluated using all the following devices except A. star pattern B. slit camera C. penetrometer D. pinhole camera

C. penetrometer

The most common cause of x-ray tube failure is A. a cracked anode. B. a pitted anode. C. vaporized tungsten on glass envelope. D. insufficient heat production.

C. vaporized tungsten on glass envelope.

A photostimulable phosphor plate is used with A. CR B. Direct DR C. fluoroscopic intensifying screens D. image-intensified fluoroscopy

CR

Following the ingestion of a fatty meal, what hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to stimulate contraction of the gallbladder? A. Insulin B. Cholecystokinin C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone D. Gastrin

Cholecytokinin

Which of the following effects does an antibiotic have on the body? A. Decreases pain B. Helps delay clotting C. Increases urine output D. Combats bacterial growth

Combats bacterial growth

Which of the following devices is used to overcome severe variation in patient anatomy or tissue density, providing more uniform radiographic density? A. Compensating filter B. Grid C. Collimator D. Protective filter

Compensating filter

Lead aprons are worn during fluoroscopy to protect the radiographer from exposure to radiation from A. the photoelectric effect B. Compton scatter C. classic scatter D. pair production

Compton scatter

Which of the following interactions between x-ray photons and matter involves a high-energy photon and the ejection of an outer shell electron?

Compton scatter

Which interaction between x-ray photons and matter involves partial transfer of the incident photon energy to the involved atom?

Compton scattering

What type of x-ray imaging uses an area beam and a photostimulable phosphor as the IR?

Computed Radiography

Which of the following legal phrases defines a circumstance in which both the health care provider's and the patient's actions contributed to an injurious outcome? A. Intentional misconduct B. Contributory negligence C. Gross negligence D. Corporate negligence

Contributory negligence

Which of the following blood chemistry levels must the radiographer check prior to excretory urography? 1. Creatinine 2. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 3. Red blood cells (RBCs)

Creatinine and BUN

One advantage of a battery-powered mobile radiographic unit is: A. It requires less kilovoltage to penetrate the anatomical part of interest B. It produces radiographic images of much better image quality C. It is much lighter than other mobile units D. Electrical power is available to drive itself

D

Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations? A. Barium examinations B. Spine radiography C. Skull radiography D. Emergency and trauma radiography

D

Which of the following combinations would pose the least hazard to a particular anode? A. 0.6-mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs B. 0.6-mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs C. 1.2-mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs D. 1.2-mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs

D

In digital imaging, artifacts arise from a number of sources, including which of the following? A. Imaging hardware B. Image processing software C. Operator error artifacts D. All of these may be sources of image artifacts

D n digital imaging, artifacts arise from a number of sources. Imaging hardware artifacts include aged, cracked phosphor storage plates and mishandled and poorly cared for IPs. Image processing software artifacts can arise from incorrectly selected processing algorithms or from exposure field recognition issues from improper collimation, positioning, or sizing. Operator error artifacts can arise from incorrectly stored IPs, incorrect use of equipment, inaccurate selection of factors, etc

If 85 kV and 20 mAs were used for a particular abdominal exposure with single-phase equipment, what mAs would be required to produce a similar radiograph with 3-phase, 12-pulse equipment. A. 40 B. 25 C. 20 D. 10

D. 10

Which of the following groups of technical factors will produce the least receptor exposure? A. 400 mA, 0.010 second, 94 kV B. 500 mA, 0.008 second, 94 kV C. 200 mA, 0.040 second, 94 kV D. 100 mA, 0.020 second, 80 kV

D. 100 mA, 0.020 second, 80 kV

Using a multifield image intensifier tube, which of the following input phosphor diameters will provide the best spatial resolution? A. 35 cm B. 25 cm C. 17 cm D. 12 cm

D. 12 cm

The x-ray beam and collimator light field must coincide to within A. 10% of the OID B. 2% of the OID C. 10% of the SID D. 2% of the SID

D. 2% of the SID

Which of the following groups of exposure factors would be most effective in eliminating prominent pulmonary vascular markings in the RAO position of the sternum? A. 500 mA, 1/30 s, 70 kV B. 200 mA, 0.04 second, 80 kV C. 300 mA, 1/10 s, 80 kV D. 25 mA, 7/10 s, 70 kV

D. 25 mA, 7/10 s, 70 kV

The effect described as differential absorption is responsible for: 1. radiographic contrast 2. a result of attenuating characteristics of tissue 3. minimized by the use of a high peak kilovoltage A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. All 3

All of the following are daily quality control (QC) steps to ensure optimal diagnostic images on a digital display monitor, except: A. Turn on the monitor and allow it to warm up B. Evaluate luminance, reflection, noise and glare C. Make sure that the monitor is dust-free on the viewing surface D. Evaluate the QC patterns at the periphery and verify that all letters and numbers appear

D. Evaluate the QC patterns at the periphery and verify that all letters and numbers appear --the QC pattern should be evaluated at the center and corners to verify that all letters and numbers can be visualized

The long axis of the laser beam moving transversely back and forth across the image plate in a CR reader is called the: A. Scan/translation mode B. Zig-zag scan mode C. Slow scan direction D. Fast scan direction

D. Fast scan direction

The optimal alignment of the anatomical part being imaged for all digital receptors should be: A. Field centered to IP with at least two collimation margins and parallel to the IP edges B. Centered anywhere on the IP, but having four distinct collimation margins, regardless of parallel orientation to the IP edges C. Centered to the IP with at least one collimation margin aligned to nearest edge of IP D. Field centered to IP with four collimation margins parallel to the IP edges

D. Field centered to IP with four collimation margins parallel to the IP edges

In conventional fluoroscopy, all of the following are methods of permanently recording the images, except: A. Cassette-loaded spot film B. Photospot camera film C. Cine film D. Flat panel image receptor

D. Flat panel image receptor

Too much edge enhancement of the image in digital systems can cause an unwanted artifact called the: A. Photoelectric effect artifact B. Scaling artifact C. Hounsfield artifact D. Halo effect artifact

D. Halo effect artifact

Magnification fluoroscopy provides: A. Decreased resolution and decreased patient dose B. Decreased resolution and increased patient dose C. Increased resolution and decreased patient dose D. Increased resolution and increased patient dose

D. Increased resolution and increased patient dose

Which part of an induction motor is located within the x-ray tube glass envelope? A. Filament B. Focusing cup C. Stator D. Rotor

D. Rotor

Objectionable widening of the histogram in CR can be caused by all of the following, except: A. Off-focus and scatter radiation outside of the exposure field B. Windowing C. Improper pre-exposure anatomical selection D. Subtraction

D. Subtraction

A test pattern, such as the TG 18-CT test pattern, is used to qualitatively evaluate A. Radiographic film-screen contact B. The luminance response of a digital display monitor C. The X-ray exposure field alignment D. The exposure rate in an X-ray beam

D. The luminance response of a digital display monitor

Geometric unsharpness is most likely to be greater A. at long SIDs. B. at the anode end of the image. C. with small focal spots. D. at the cathode end of the image.

D. at the cathode end of the image.

When medications are administered parenterally, they are given A. orally B. orally or intravenously C. intravenously or intramuscularly D. by a route other than orally

D. by a route other than orally

Each time an x-ray photon scatters, A. its intensity increases 4 times. B. its intensity increases 1000 times. C. its intensity decreases 4 times. D. its intensity decreases 1000 times.

D. its intensity decreases 1000 times.

Filtration is added to the x-ray beam to A. decrease photoelectric interaction. B. remove the "hard" x-rays. C. produce a more heterogeneous x-ray beam. D. produce an x-ray beam with higher average energy.

D. produce an x-ray beam with higher average energy. -Because this radiation is "soft" (low energy) and would not reach the image receptor anyway, the x-ray tube total filtration has no effect on receptor exposure. Filtration serves to increase the overall average energy of the beam; it "hardens" the x-ray beam.

An autoclave is used for A.dry heat sterilization. B. chemical sterilization. C. gas sterilization. D. steam sterilization.

D. steam sterilization

In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the A. cisterna magna. B. individual intervertebral disks. C. subarachnoid space between the first and second vertebrae. D. subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.

D. subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.

All the following are associated with the anode except A. the line-focus principle B. the heel effect C. the focal track D. thermionic emission

D. thermionic emission -The rotating anode has a target (or focal spot) on its beveled edge that forms the target angle. As the anode rotates, it constantly turns a new face to the incoming electrons; this is the focal track. The portion of the focal track that is bombarded by electrons is the actual focal spot, and because of the target's angle, the effective or projected focal spot is always smaller (line-focus principle). The anode heel effect refers to decreased beam intensity at the anode end of the x-ray beam. The electrons impinging on the target have "boiled off" the cathode filament as a result of thermionic emission.

Quality control testing of digital display monitors should be conducted A. Daily B. Weekly C. Monthly D. Annually

Daily

Which of the following will produce the most significant increase in patient dose? A. Decreased mAs B. Decreased SID C. Increased filtration D. Increased kVp

Decreased SID

Quality Control (QC) testing is used to evaluate digital display monitors in all of the following ways, EXCEPT: A. Display luminance response B. Display resolution C. Display matrix size D. Display noise

Display matrix size

What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis? A. Dome of the acetabulum B. Femoral neck C.Greater trochanter D. Iliac crest

Dome of the acetabulum

A patient experiencing an episode of syncope should be placed in which of the following positions? A. Dorsal recumbent with head elevated B. Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated C. Lateral recumbent D. Seated with feet supported

Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated

All of the following are potential digital pre-processing problems, except: A. Edge enhancement B. Defective pixel C. Image lag D. Line noise

Edge Enhancement

All of the following are potential digital pre-processing problems, except: A. Edge enhancement B. Defective pixel C. Image lag D. Line noise

Edge enhancement (this is a type of post processing image manipulation) which can be effective for enhancing fractures and small, high contrast tissues)

In the production of characteristic radiation at the tungsten target, the incident electron A. ejects an inner-shell tungsten electron B. ejects an outer-shell tungsten electron C. is deflected, with resulting energy loss D. is deflected, with resulting energy gain

Ejects an INNER-shell tungsten electron

Which of the following pathologic conditions would require a decrease in exposure factors? A. Congestive heart failure B. Pneumonia C. Emphysema D. Pleural effusion

Emphysema

Which of the following is a vasopressor and may be used for an anaphylactic reaction or a cardiac arrest?

Epinephrine

A patient suffering from orthopnea would experience the least discomfort in which body position? A. Fowler B. Trendelenburg C. Recumbent D. Erect

Erect Orthopnea is a respiratory condition in which the patient has difficulty breathing (dyspnea) in any position other than erect. The patient is usually comfortable in the erect, standing, or seated position. The Trendelenburg position places the patient's head lower than the rest of the body, the Fowler position is a semierect position, and the recumbent position is lying down.

Which of the following may occur if the X-ray exposure field is not properly collimated, positioned, and sized? A. Modulation transfer function failure B. Moiré artifact C. Exposure field recognition errors may occur D. Ghost artifact

Exposure field recognition errors may occur

An important feature of the pixel in a flat-panel TFT digital detector active matrix array is the: A. Nyquist frequency B. Fill factor C. Image lag D. Modulation transfer function

Fill factor (The fill factor (B) is defined as the ratio of the sensing area of the pixel to the area of the pixel itself. The sensing area of the pixel receives the data from the layer above it, which captures X-rays that are subsequently converted to light (indirect flat-panel detectors) or electrical charges (direct flat-panel detectors).

Which of the following is a device that can be used in lieu of an image intensifier/charge-coupled device combination in digital fluoroscopy? A. Charge-coupled device B. Flat panel image receptor C. photometer D. photomultiplier tube

Flat panel image receptor

The use of which of the following is (are) essential in magnification radiography? 1. High-ratio grid 2. Fractional focal spot 3. Direct exposure technique

Fractional focal spot

Which of the following structures will usually contain air, in the PA recumbent position on a sthenic patient, during a double-contrast upper GI (UGI) examination? A. Duodenal bulb B. Descending duodenum C. Pyloric vestibule D. Gastric fundus

Gastric fundus

Which of the following structures will be filled with barium in the AP recumbent position of a sthenic patient during an upper GI examination? A. Duodenal bulb B. Descending duodenum C. Pyloric vestibule D. Gastric fundus

Gastric fundus [The stomach is normally angled with the fundus lying posteriorly and the body, pylorus, and duodenum inferior to the fundus and angling anteriorly. Therefore, when the patient ingests barium and lies AP recumbent, the heavy barium gravitates easily to the fundus and fills it. With the patient PA recumbent, barium gravitates inferiorly to the body, pylorus, and duodenum, displacing air into the fundus.]

Focusing distance is associated with which of the following? A. Computed tomography B. Chest radiography C. Magnification radiography D. Grids

Grids

A type of laser used in CR scanners is A. Cesium-iodide B. Helium-halide C. Barium-fluorohalide D. Helium-neon

Helium-neon

Drugs that may be used to prolong blood clotting time include: 1. heparin 2. diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 3. lidocaine

Heparin

What venous device can be used for a patient requiring IV injections at frequent or regular intervals? A. Butterfly needle B. Heparin lock C. IV infusion D. Hypodermic needle

Heparin lock

Which of the following is another name for an intermittent injection port? A. Hypodermic needle B. Butterfly needle C. Heparin lock D. Intravenous (IV) infusion

Heparin lock

Which of the following anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position, in a positive-contrast exam?

Hepatic flexure

What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient? A. High and vertical B. High and horizontal C. Low and vertical D. Low and horizontal

High and horizontal

Which of the following waveforms has the lowest percentage voltage ripple? A. Single-phase B. Three-phase, six-pulse C. Three-phase, 12-pulse D. High-frequency

High frequency -Single-phase current has a 100% voltage drop between peak voltages. Three-phase current decreases this voltage drop considerably. Three-phase, six-pulse current has about a 13% voltage drop between peak voltages, and three-phase, 12-pulse current has only about a 4% drop between peak voltages. However, high-frequency current is almost constant potential, having less than 1% voltage ripple

All the following statements regarding CR IPs are true except A IPs have a thin lead foil backing. B IPs can be placed in the Bucky tray. C IPs must exclude all white light. D IPs function to protect the PSP.

IPs must exclude all white light

While performing mobile radiography on a patient, you note that the requisition is for a chest image to check placement of a Swan-Ganz catheter. A Swan-Ganz catheter is a(n)

IV catheter

Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm's tumor? A. BE B. Upper GI C. IVU D. Bone survey

IVU

What should be done to correct for magnification when using air-gap technique? A. Decrease OID B. Increase OID C. Decrease SID D. Increase SID

Increase SID

Before a flat-panel detector can be used for a radiographic exposure, it must be prepared. This preparation is referred to as: A. Propagation B. Initialization C. Augmentation D. Instrumentation

Initialization

For exposure to 1 mGy of each of the following ionizing radiations, which would result in the greatest dose to the individual? A. External source of 1-MeV x-rays B. External source of diagnostic x-rays C. Internal source of alpha particles D. External source of beta particles

Internal source of alpha particles

Administration of contrast agents for radiographic demonstration of the spinal canal is performed by which of the following parenteral routes? A. Subcutaneous B. Intravenous C. Intramuscular D. Intrathecal

Intrathecal

Sterile technique is required when contrast agents are administered:

Intrathecally

Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children? A. Appendicitis B. Intussusception C. Regional enteritis D. Ulcerative colitis

Intussusception

How will x-ray photon intensity be affected if the SID is doubled?

Its intensity decreases FOUR times

Which of the following structures is located at the level of the interspace between the second and third thoracic vertebrae? A. Manubrium B. Jugular notch C. Sternal angle D. Xiphoid process

Jugular Notch

Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient? A. LAO B. RAO C. LPO D. Erect

LAO

Which of the following positions demonstrates all the paranasal sinuses? A. Parietoacanthial B. PA axial C. Lateral D. True PA

Lateral

With the patient supine, the left side of the pelvis elevated 25 degrees, and the CR entering 1 in. medial to the left anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS), which of the following is demonstrated?

Left SI joint

The legal doctrine respondeat superior relates to which of the following? A. Let the master answer. B. The thing speaks for itself. C. A thing or matter settled by justice. D. A matter settled by precedent.

Let the master answer

In order to erase a CR PSP storage plate, it must be exposed to high-intensity: A. Heat B. X-radiation C. Microwaves D. Light

Light

The smallest digital detectors (approximately 100 microns) provide the best spatial resolution and, therefore, are best-suited for use in: A. Fluoroscopy procedures B. Mammography C. Pediatric radiography D. Long bone measurement to ensure measurement accuracy

Mammography

In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated? A. AP B. Lateral oblique C. Medial oblique D. Lateral

Medial Oblique

An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations? A. Intravenous urogram B. Retrograde pyelogram C. Myelogram D. Cystogram

Myelogram

Which of the following cells is the least radiosensitive? A. Myelocytes B. Myocytes C. Megakaryocytes D. Erythroblasts

Myocytes

Hirschsprung disease, or congenital megacolon, is related age group?

Neonate

Which of the following cell types has the lowest radiosensitivity? A. Nerve cells B. Muscle cells C. Spermatids D. Lymphocytes

Nerve cells

Which of the following medications commonly found on emergency carts functions to raise blood pressure? A. Heparin B. Norepinephrine C. Nitroglycerin D. Lidocaine

Norepinephrine

The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine? A. Eye B. Nose C. Body D. Ear

Nose

Which of the x-ray circuit devices shown in Figure 6-5 operates on the principle of self-induction?

Number 1 (the autotransformer)

Europium-activated barium fluorohalide is associated with A. fluoroscopy B. image intensifiers C. PSP storage plates D. filament material

PSP storage plates

Backscatter on a digital image can cause an artifact called a A. Phantom image artifact B. Moiré artifact C. Static artifact D. Grid cutoff artifact

Phantom image artifact

A device used to measure the luminance response and uniformity of monitors used in digital imaging is called a A. Penetrometer B. Densitometer C. Sensitometer D. Photometer

Photometer

A device contained within many CR readers that functions to convert light energy released by the PSP into electrical energy, is called a:

Photomultiplier tube

Sampling frequency in computed radiography (CR) is expressed as: A. The TFT array size B. An inverse relationship between focal spot size and matrix size C. The light spread between the image plate and the light guide of the scanner D. Pixels/mm or pixel density

Pixels/mm or pixel density

Which of the following personnel radiation monitors will provide an immediate reading? A. TLD B. Film badge C. Lithium fluoride chips D. Pocket dosimeter

Pocket dosimeter

What should you do if you discover while taking patient history that the patient scheduled for an intravenous urogram (IVU) takes metformin hydrochloride daily but has no evidence of AKI and with eGFR ≥30 mL/l.732 ? 1. Proceed with the examination if kidney function is normal. 2. Instruct the patient to withhold the metformin for 48 hours after the examination. 3. Reschedule the examination until the patient has been off metformin for 48 hours.

Proceed with the examination if kidney function is normal.

The pyloric canal and duodenal bulb are best demonstrated during an upper GI series in which of the following positions?

RAO

With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized? A. Symphysis B. Rami C. Body D. Angle

Rami

The electron beam in a television cathode ray tube (CRT) is projected onto the output phosphor in a: A. Vertical pattern B. Fixed direct beam C. Broad field D. Raster pattern

Raster pattern

What lies immediately under the phosphor layer of a PSP storage plate? A. Reflective layer B. Base C. Antistatic layer D. Lead foil

Reflective layer

Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter? A. Nephrotomography B. Retrograde urography C. Cystourethrography D. IVU

Retrograde urography

Which of the following devices is used to control voltage by varying resistance? A. Autotransformer B. High-voltage transformer C. Rheostat D. Fuse

Rheostat

Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process? A. AP axial B. Lateral C. Parietoacanthial D. Submentovertical (SMV)

SMV submentovertical

All of the following are equipment options that may be used to record the anatomical image in mobile radiography, except: A. Tethered flat panel B. Remote (wireless) digital flat panel array C. Scanned projection radiography (SPR) D. Conventional radiographic film

Scanned projection radiography (SPR)

Radiography using a collimated thin fan X-ray beam would be found in: A. Scanned projection radiography (SPR) of the chest B. Long bone measurement radiography C. Radiography of foreign objects D. Fluoroscopic evaluation of the ureters, as they are thin structures

Scanned projection radiography (SPR) of the chest

Maslow's hierarchy of basic human needs includes which of the following? 1. Self-esteem 2. Love and belongingness 3. Death with dignity

Self-esteem & Love and belongingness

All of the following are components of a television picture tube (cathode ray tube), except: A. Electron gun B. Glass envelope C. Signal plate D. Focusing coil

Signal plate

Recently, dual-sided reading technology has become available in more modern CR readers, in which two sets of photodetectors are used to capture light released from the front and back sides of the phosphor storage plate, or PSP (photostimulable phosphor). This technology enables improved: A. Slow-scan direction speed B. Modulation transfer function C. Signal-to-noise ratio D. Fast-scan direction speed

Signal-to-noise ratio

Which of the following requires two exposures to evaluate focal-spot accuracy? A. Pinhole camera B. Slit camera C. Star pattern D. Bar pattern

Slit camera

OID is related to spatial resolution in which of the following ways? A. Spatial resolution is directly related to OID. B. Spatial resolution is inversely related to OID. C. As OID increases, so does spatial resolution. D. OID is unrelated to spatial resolution.

Spatial resolution is inversely related to OID. --As the distance from the object to the IR (OID) increases, so does magnification distortion, thereby decreasing spatial resolution.

Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthal projection (Waters method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth? A. Frontal B. Ethmoidal C. Maxillary D. Sphenoidal

Sphenoidal

The device used to test the accuracy of the x-ray timer is the:

Spinning top

What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it? A. Spondylitis B. Spondylolysis C. Spondylolisthesis D. Spondylosis

Spondylolisthesis

Which part of an induction motor is located outside the x-ray tube glass envelope? A. Filament B. Focusing cup C. Stator D. Rotor

Stator

In radiation protection, the product of absorbed dose and the correct weighting factors is used to determine A. air kerma B. Gy C. Sv D. Bq

Sv

Which of the following blood pressure measurements might indicate shock? A. Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg B. Systolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg C. Diastolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg D. Diastolic pressure lower than 90 mmHg

Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg

Which of the following mobile radiography applications enables the radiographer to view the radiographic image before leaving the patient? a. Fixed digital units of any type b.Tethered or wireless flat-panel digital mobile units c. Portable units using conventional radiographic film d. Battery operated conventional radiography mobile units

Tethered or wireless flat-panel digital mobile units

components of an x-ray tube

The figure illustrates the component parts of a rotating-anode x-ray tube enclosed within a glass envelope (number 3) to preserve the vacuum necessary for x-ray production. Number 4 is the rotating anode with its beveled focal track at the periphery (number 8) and its stem (at number 5). Numbers 6 and 7 are the stator and rotor, respectively—the two components of an induction motor—whose function it is to rotate the anode. Number 1 is the filament of the cathode assembly, which is made of thoriated tungsten and functions to liberate electrons (thermionic emission) when heated to white hot (incandescence). Number 2 is the molybdenum focusing cup, which functions to direct the liberated filament electrons to the focal spot.

A cross-sectional image of the abdomen is shown.

The large structure on the right, labeled number 1, is the liver. The gallbladder is seen somewhat darker on the medial border of the liver. The left kidney is labeled number 4; the right kidney is seen clearly on the other side. The vertebra is labeled number 5, and the psoas muscles are seen just posterior to the vertebra. Just anterior to the body of the vertebra is the circular aorta, labeled number 3 (some calcification can be seen brighter). The somewhat flattened inferior vena cava (number 2) is seen to the left of and slightly anterior to the aorta.

13 is the portal vein

The large, homogeneous structure on the right, labeled 14, is the liver. The gallbladder is often seen darker on the medial border of the liver but is not visualized here. The left kidney is labeled 5; the right kidney is seen clearly on the opposite side labeled 11. The vertebra is seen in the center, and the psoas muscles are seen just posterior to the vertebra. Just anterior to the body of the vertebra is the circular aorta, labeled 7. The inferior vena cava (number 12) is seen to the right of the aorta. The circular structure just anterior to the inferior vena cava is the portal vein (number 13). Number 1 is the stomach, number 2 is the splenic/left colic flexure, number 3 is the pancreas, and number 4 is the spleen. Numbers 6 and 10 are portions of the left and right adrenal glands—not normally seen at this level. Number 8 is the celiac trunk; the common hepatic artery is seen branching to the right, and the splenic artery is seen branching to the left. Number 9 is a part of the diaphragmatic crura connecting the vertebrae and diaphragm.

The following are disadvantages of a capacitor-discharge mobile unit, except: A. The mAs increases during the exposure, called "mAs creep" B. The capacitor may continue to discharge after the exposure C. The actual kilovoltage achieved during an exposure is significantly lower than the set kVp D. At lower kVp settings, the capacitors discharge more slowly and, therefore, a considerable residual kV may exist after the desired exposure time

The mAs increases during the exposure, called "mAs creep"

The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except: A. the temporal bones B. the occipital bone C. the ethmoid bone D. the sphenoid bone

The occipital bone

The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur means which of the following? A. Let the master answer. B. The thing speaks for itself. C. A thing or matter settled by justice. D. A matter settled by precedent.

The thing speaks for itself.

With milliamperage adjusted to produce equal exposures, all the following statements are true except A. a single-phase examination done at 10 mAs can be duplicated with three-phase, 12-pulse at 5 mAs. B. There is greater patient dose with three-phase equipment than with single-phase equipment. C. Three-phase equipment can produce comparable radiographs with less heat unit (HU) buildup. D. Three-phase equipment produces lower-contrast radiographs than single-phase equipment.

There is greater patient dose with three-phase equipment than with single-phase equipment.

What type of equipment comes closest to constant potential, as the voltage never falls below 96.5% of maximum value.

Three-phase, 12-pulse equipment

Which of the following equipment is mandatory for performance of a myelogram? A. Cine camera B. 105-mm spot film C. Tilting x-ray table D. Tomography

Tilting x-ray table

With the patient recumbent on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the A. Trendelenburg position B. Fowler position C. decubitus position D. Sims position

Trendelenburg

Which ethical principle is related to sincerity and truthfulness? A. Beneficence B. Autonomy C. Veracity D. Fidelity

Veracity

Which of the following is a type of television camera tube that converts a visible image on the output phosphor of the image intensifier into an electronic signal? A. Ionization chamber B. Vidicon C. Charge-coupled device D. Cathode ray tube

Vidicon

Which of the following radiologic examinations can demonstrate ureteral reflux? A. IV urogram B. Retrograde pyelogram C. Voiding cystourethrogram D. Nephrotomogram

Voiding cystourethrogram

The usual patient preparation for an upper GI examination is A nothing by mouth (NPO) 8 hours before the examination. B light breakfast only on the morning of the examination. C clear fluids only on the morning of the examination. D 2 oz of castor oil and enemas until clear.

a

All the following are central venous lines except A. a Port-a-Cath. B. a PICC. C. a Swan-Ganz catheter. D. a Salem-sump.

a Salem-sump

A decrease in kilovoltage will result in A. a decrease in receptor exposure B. a decrease in image contrast C. a decrease in spatial resolution D. an increase in spatial resolution

a decrease in receptor exposure

The device used to change alternating current to unidirectional current is A. a capacitor B. a solid-state diode C. a transformer D. a generator

a solid-state diode

All of the following statements regarding the RAO position of the sternum are true, except: A. the sternum is generally projected to the left of the vertebral column. B. shallow breathing during the exposure can obliterate prominent pulmonary markings. C. it is helpful to project the sternum over the heart. D. a thin thorax requires a lesser degree of obliquity than a thicker thorax.

a thin thorax requires a lesser degree of obliquity than a thicker thorax. A thin chest would require a greater degree of obliquity to separate the vertebrae and sternum from superimposition than would a thick chest. With the patient in the RAO position, the sternum is projected to the left of the vertebral column and superimposed on the heart. This superimposition promotes more uniform tissue density and therefore more uniform receptor exposure. Prominent pulmonary vascular markings may be obliterated by allowing the patient to breathe (shallow breaths only) during a long exposure (with a very low mA)

A small container holding several doses of medication is termed A. an ampule. B. a vial. C. a bolus. D. a carafe.

a vial

IRs/cassettes frequently have a lead-foil layer behind the rear screen that functions to A. improve penetration B. absorb backscatter C. preserve resolution D. increase the screen speed

absorb backscatter

Unit of exposure in air

air kerma

A QA program serves to: 1. keep patient dose to a minimum 2. keep radiographic quality consistent 3. ensure equipment efficiency

all 3

A minor reaction to the IV administration of a contrast agent can include a few hives nausea a flushed face

all 3

A minor reaction to the IV administration of a contrast agent can include: 1. a few hives 2. nausea 3. a flushed face

all 3

Acceptable method(s) of minimizing motion unsharpness is (are): 1.suspended respiration 2.short exposure time 3.patient instruction

all 3

Advantages of high-frequency generators include: 1. small size 2. decreased patient dose 3. nearly constant potential

all 3

As the image intensifier's FOV is reduced, how is the resulting image affected? 1. Magnification increases 2. Brightness decreases 3. Quality increases

all 3

Body substances and fluids that are considered infectious or potentially infectious include: 1. sputum 2. synovial fluid 3. cerebrospinal fluid

all 3

Characteristics of DR imaging include: 1. solid-state detector receptor plates 2. a direct-capture imaging system 3. immediate image display

all 3

Component parts of a CT gantry include: 1. high-voltage generator 2. multidetector array 3. x-ray tube

all 3

Design characteristics of x-ray tube targets that determine heat capacity include the: 1. rotation of the anode 2. diameter of the anode 3. size of the focal spot

all 3

Excessive anode heating can cause vaporized tungsten to be deposited on the port window. This can result in: 1. decreased tube output. 2. tube failure. 3. electrical sparking.

all 3

Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest are performed to demonstrate 1. partial or complete collapse of pulmonary lobe(s) 2. air in the pleural cavity 3. foreign body

all 3

Involuntary motion can be caused by 1. peristalsis. 2. severe pain. 3. heart muscle contraction.

all 3

One advantage of digital imaging in fluoroscopy is the ability to perform "road-mapping." Road-mapping: 1. keeps the most recent fluoroscopic image on the screen. 2. aids in the placement of guidewires and catheters. 3. reduces the need for continuous x-ray exposure to the patient.

all 3

The brightness level of the fluoroscopic image can vary with: 1. milliamperage 2. kilovoltage 3. patient thickness

all 3

The cycle of infection includes which of the following components? 1. Reservoir of infection 2. Susceptible host 3. Means of transmission

all 3

The structures forming the brain stem include: 1. the pons 2. the medulla oblongata 3. the midbrain

all 3

The x-ray tube used in CT must be capable of: 1. high-speed rotation 2. short pulsed exposures 3. withstanding millions of heat units

all 3

When comparing the male and female bony pelves, it is noted that the: 1. male pelvis is deeper. 2. female pubic arch is greater than 90°. 3. female ilium is more horizontal.

all 3

Which of the following bones participate in the formation of the acetabulum? 1. Ilium 2. Ischium 3. Pubis

all 3

Which of the following factors influence(s) the production of scattered radiation? 1. Kilovoltage level 2. Tissue density 3. Size of field

all 3

Which of the following is (are) characteristics of the x-ray tube? 1. The target material should have a high atomic number and a high melting point. 2. The useful beam emerges from the port window. 3. The cathode assembly receives both low and high voltages.

all 3

Which of the following is (are) essential to high-quality mammographic examinations? Small-focal-spot x-ray tube Short-scale contrast Use of a compression device

all 3

Which of the following must be included in a patient's medical record or chart? 1. Diagnostic and therapeutic orders 2. Medical history 3. Informed consent

all 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the PA axial projection of the paranasal sinuses? 1. OML forms a 15 degree angle with the horizontal beam. 2. The petrous pyramids are projected into the lower third of the orbits. 3. The frontal sinuses are visualized.

all 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to radiation safety in fluoroscopy? 1. Tabletop radiation intensity must not exceed 100 mGya/min. 2. Tabletop radiation intensity must not exceed 21 mGya/min/mA. 3. In high-level fluoroscopy, tabletop intensity up to 200 mGya/min is permitted.

all 3

X-ray tube life may be extended by: 1. using low-milliampere-seconds/high- kilovoltage exposure factors 2. avoiding lengthy anode rotation 3. avoiding exposures to a cold anode

all 3

When using the smaller field in a dual-field image intensifier, 1. a smaller patient area is viewed. 2. the image is magnified. 3. the image is less bright.

all 3 When a dual-field image intensifier is switched to the smaller field, the electrostatic focusing lenses are given a greater charge to focus the electron image more tightly. The focal point, then, moves further from the output phosphor (the diameter of the electron image is therefore smaller as it reaches the output phosphor), and the brightness gain is somewhat diminished. Hence, the patient area viewed is somewhat smaller and is magnified. However, the minification gain has been reduced and the image is somewhat less bright.

A quantity of medication introduced intravenously over a period of time is termed A. an IV push. B. an infusion. C. a bolus. D. a hypodermic

an infusion

To determine how quickly an x-ray tube will disperse its accumulated heat, the radiographer uses a(n) A. technique chart. B. radiographic rating chart. C. anode cooling curve. D. spinning top test.

anode cooling curve

The fact that x-ray intensity across the primary beam can vary as much as 45% describes the A. line-focus principle. B. transformer law. C. anode heel effect. D. inverse-square law.

anode heel effect

The practice that is used to retard the growth of pathogenic bacteria is termed A. antisepsis. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. medical asepsis.

antisepsis

The body habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and low midline stomach and gallbladder is the:

asthenic

All the following statements regarding mobile radiographic equipment are true except A. the exposure cord must permit the operator to stand at least 6 ft from the patient, x-ray tube, and useful beam B. exposure switches must be the two-stage type C. a lead apron should be carried with the unit and worn by the radiographer during exposure D. the radiographer must alert individuals in the area before making the exposure

b. exposure switches must be the two-stage type

The infection streptococcal pharyngitis ("strep throat") is caused by a A. virus. B. fungus. C. protozoon. D. bacterium.

bacterium

Unlawful touching of a person without his or her consent is termed A. assault B. battery C. false imprisonment D. invasion of privacy

battery

Unlawful touching of a person without his or her consent is termed:

battery

The source-to-table distance in fixed/stationary fluoroscopy must:

be at least 38 cm

Chest drainage systems should always be kept: 1. below the level of the patient's chest. 2. above the patient's chest. 3. at the level of the patient's diaphragm.

below the level of the patient's chest

An RT (ARRT) is the supervising manager of a short-staffed imaging facility in a State having legislation that requires professional certification. A job applicant arrives whose ARRT certification has lapsed. The manager hires him to fill a 20-hour position doing chest and extremity radiography. The supervisor is guilty of:

breaking the ARRT Rules of Ethics

The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the A. diploe B. lambda C. bregma D. pterion

bregma

All the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true except A. the large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination. B. retained fecal material can obscure pathology. C. single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions. D. double-contrast studies help to demonstrate mucosal lesions.

c

At approximately what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate? A.Foramen magnum B. Trachea C. laryngopharynx D. nasopharynx

c

The major difference between excretory and retrograde urography is that A. they each require a different type of contrast agent. B. intravenous studies require more images. C. retrograde studies do not demonstrate function. D. more contrast medium-induced adverse reactions occur in retrograde studies.

c

The type of shock often associated with pulmonary embolism or myocardial infarction is classified as A. neurogenic. B. cardiogenic. C. hypovolemic. D. septic.

cardiogenic

To demonstrate the pulmonary apices with the patient in the AP position, the A. central ray is directed 15° to 20° cephalad. B. central ray is directed 15° to 20° caudad. C. exposure is made on full exhalation. D. patient's shoulders are rolled forward.

central ray is directed 15° to 20° cephalad. (When the shoulders are relaxed, the clavicles are usually carried below the pulmonary apices. To examine the portions of the lungs lying behind the clavicles, the central ray is directed cephalad 15° to 20° to project the clavicles above the apices when the patient is examined in the AP position.)

With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids A. below the orbits B. in the lower third of the orbits C. completely within the orbits D. above the orbits

completely within the orbits

Which of the dose-response curves shown in the figure is representative of radiation-induced skin erythema? 1. Dose-response curve A 2. Dose-response curve B 3. Dose-response curve C

curve C

The part of a CT imaging system made of thousands of solid-state photodiodes is the A. gantry. B. detector array. C. collimator assembly. D. x-ray tube.

detector array

What is it called when the heart is seen on the right side?

dextrocardia

Of the four stages of infection, which is the stage during which the infection is most communicable? A Latent period B Incubation period C Disease phase D Convalescent phase

disease phase

To maintain image clarity in an image-intensifier system, the path of electron flow from the photocathode to the output phosphor is controlled by A. the accelerating anode B. electrostatic lenses C. the vacuum glass envelope D. the input phosphor

electrostatic lenses

Ipecac is a medication used to induce vomiting and is classified as a(n) A. diuretic. B. antipyretic. C. antihistamine. D. emetic.

emetic

The medical term for nosebleed is A. vertigo. B. epistaxis. C. urticaria. D. aura.

epistaxis

Dorsal decubitus projections of the chest are used to evaluate small amounts of

fluid in the posterior chest

All of the following have an effect on patient dose except A. inherent filtration. B. added filtration. C. SID. D. focal spot size.

focal spot size

Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the A. position of the organ B. size and shape of the organ C. diverticula D. gastric or bowel mucosa

gastric or bowel mucosa

A drug's chemical name is called its A. generic name. B. trade name. C. brand name. D. proprietary name.

generic name

The absorption of useful radiation by a grid is called A grid selectivity. B grid cleanup. C grid cutoff. D latitude.

grid cutoff

The type of x-ray tube designed to turn on and off rapidly, providing multiple short, precise exposures, is A. high speed B. grid-controlled C. diode D. electrode

grid-controlled

type of shock that occurs from loss of blood

hypovolemic

The structure indicated by the number 5 in image shows the__________. (What position is this patient in?)

ileum (Since the left colic/splenic flexure (number 1) is "open," this is either a RPO or LAO position.)

To obtain an exact axial projection of the clavicle, the patient should be positioned how?

in a lordotic position and direct the central ray at right angles to the coronal plane of the clavicle.

When involuntary motion must be considered, the exposure time may be cut in half if the kilovoltage is A. doubled B. increased by 15% C. increased by 25% D. increased by 35%

increased by 15%

An emetic is used to A. induce vomiting B. stimulate defecation C. promote elimination of urine D. inhibit coughing

induce vomiting

What is the position of the gallbladder in an asthenic patient? A Superior and medial B Superior and lateral C Inferior and medial D Inferior and lateral

inferior and medial

The automatic exposure device that is located immediately under the x-ray table is the A. ionization chamber B. scintillation camera C. photomultiplier D. photocathode

ionization chamber

In fluoroscopy, the automatic brightness control is used to adjust the:

kVp and mA

When the erect position is requested as part of an IVU, it is used to demonstrate A. the adrenal glands. B. the renal surfaces. C. kidney mobility. D. the bladder neck.

kidney mobility

The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the A. transverse processes B. vertebral arches C. laminae D. pedicles

laminae

To "excuse" suboptimal images, a radiographer makes a note on the exam requisition claiming that the patient "was uncooperative." That radiographer can legally be found guilty of A. battery. B. slander. C. libel. D. tort.

libel

term for the long narrow ridge located on the posterior femur.

linea aspera

The ability of an x-ray unit to produce constant radiation output at a given mAs, using various combinations of mA and time is called A. linearity. B. reproducibility. C. densitometry. D. sensitometry.

linearity

The stomach of an asthenic patient is most likely to be located A. high, transverse, and lateral. B. low, transverse, and lateral. C. high, vertical, and toward the midline. D. low, vertical, and toward the midline.

low, vertical, and toward the midline

The auditory, or eustachian, tube extends from the nasopharynx to the A. external ear. B. middle ear. C. inner ear. D. oropharynx.

middle ear

For the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter A. midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface B. midway between the vertebral column and the lateral border of the abdomen C. at the midcoronal line at the level of the iliac crest D. perpendicular to the level of L2

midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface

The focal spot-to-table distance in mobile fluoroscopy must:

not be less than 30 cm

What process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in acute flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the image receptor?

olecranon

The thoracic cavity is lined by: A. parietal pleura. B. visceral pleura. C. parietal peritoneum. D. visceral peritoneum.

parietal pleura

The principal function of filtration in the x-ray tube is to reduce:

patient skin dose

The femoral neck can be located A. parallel to the femoral shaft. B. perpendicular to the femoral shaft. C. perpendicular to a line drawn from the ASIS to the pubic symphysis. D. perpendicular to a line from the iliac crest to the pubic symphysis.

perpendicular to a line drawn from the ASIS to the pubic symphysis.

The continued emission of light by a phosphor after the activating source has ceased is termed A. fluorescence B. phosphorescence C. image intensification D. quantum mottle

phosphorenscence

The component of a CR image plate (IP) that records the radiologic image is the A. emulsion B. helium-neon laser C. photostimulable phosphor D. scanner-reader

photostimulable phosphor

Any wall that the useful x-ray beam can be directed toward is called a A. secondary barrier B. primary barrier C. leakage barrier D. scattered barrier

primary barrier

A patient who is diaphoretic is experiencing:

profuse sweating

Medical Abbreviation meaning every hour

qh

Congruence of the x-ray beam with the light field is tested using A. a pinhole camera B. a star pattern C. radiopaque objects D. a slit camera

radiopaque objects

To be used more efficiently by the x-ray tube, alternating current is changed to unidirectional current by the A. filament transformer. B. autotransformer. C. high-voltage transformer. D. rectifiers.

rectifiers

The type of isolation practiced to prevent the spread of infectious agents in aerosol form is

respiratory isolation

The major difference between excretory and retrograde urography is that A. they each require a different type of contrast agent. B. intravenous studies require more images. C. retrograde studies do not demonstrate function. D. more contrast medium-induced adverse reactions occur in retrograde studies.

retrograde studies do not demonstrate function.

All the following are part of the Patient's Bill of Rights except the right to

review any institutional records

All the following positions are likely to be employed for both single- and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel except A. lateral rectum. B. AP axial rectosigmoid. C. right and left lateral decubitus abdomen. D. RAO and LAO abdomen.

right and left lateral decubitus abdomen (The left and right decubitus positions usually are employed only in double-contrast barium enemas to better demonstrate double contrast of the medial and lateral walls of the ascending and descending colon.)

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the A. right main stem bronchus B. left main stem bronchus C. esophagus D. proximal stomach

right main stem bronchus

An aspirated foreign body is more likely to enter the lower respiratory tract via the A. left main stem bronchus. B. right main stem bronchus. C. bronchioles. D. alveoli.

right main stem bronchus (it is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left—making it the most likely route for aspirated foreign bodies to enter the right lung.)

Verbal disclosure of confidential information that is detrimental to the patient is referred to as

slander

Verbal disclosure of confidential information that is detrimental to the patient is referred to as A. invasion of privacy B. slander C. libel D. assault

slander

Continuous rotation of the CT x-ray tube and detector array, with simultaneous movement of the CT couch, has been accomplished through implementation of A. additional cables. B. slip rings. C. multiple rows of detectors. D. electron beam CT.

slips rings

The device used to test the accuracy of the x-ray timer is the A. densitometer B. sensitometer C. penetrometer D. spinning top

spinning top

The complete killing of all microorganisms is termed A. surgical asepsis. B. medical asepsis. C. sterilization. D. disinfection.

sterilization

A cathartic is used to A. inhibit coughing. B. promote elimination of urine. C. stimulate defecation. D. induce vomiting.

stimulate defacation

Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the: A. pulmonary artery B. pulmonary veins C. superior vena cava D. thoracic aorta

superior vena cava

The variation in photon distribution between the anode and cathode ends of the x-ray tube is known as A. the line focus principle. B. the anode heel effect. C. the inverse square law. D. Bohr's theory.

the anode heel effect

Radiographs are whose property?

the health-care institutions

All the following x-ray circuit devices are located between the incoming power supply and the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer except A. the timer B. the kilovoltage meter C. the milliamperage meter D. the autotransformer

the milliamperage meter (this is connected at the midpoint of the secondary coil of the high-voltage transformer and grounded at the midpoint of the secondary coil (where it is at zero potential). Therefore, it may be placed in the control panel safely.)

The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except A. the temporal bones B. the occipital bone C. the ethmoid bone D. the sphenoid bone

the occipital bone

Below-diaphragm ribs are better demonstrated when A. respiration is suspended at the end of full inhalation. B. exposed using shallow breathing technique. C. the patient is in the recumbent position. D. the patient is in the AP erect position.

the patient is in the recumbent position

For medicolegal reasons, radiographic images are required to include all the following information except A. the patient's name and/or identification number. B. the patient's birth date. C. a right- or left-side marker. D. the date of the examination.

the patient's birth date

All the following x-ray circuit devices are located between the incoming power supply and the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer except A. the circuit breaker. B. the kilovoltage selector. C. the rectifiers. D. the autotransformer.

the rectifers

Graves disease is associated with A. thyroid underactivity B. thyroid overactivity C. adrenal underactivity D. adrenal overactivity

thyroid overactivity

Hemovac or Penrose drains are used for A. bile duct drainage. B. tissue drainage of wounds or postoperative drainage. C. decompression of the gastrointestinal tract. D. feeding patients who are unable to swallow food.

tissue drainage of wounds or post-op drainage

Glossitis refers to inflammation of the A. epiglottis B. salivary glands C. tongue D. ossicles

tongue

The most frequent site of hospital-acquired infection is the A. urinary tract. B. blood. C. respiratory tract. D. digestive tract.

urinary tract

The medical term for hives is

urticaria

The amount of time that x-rays are being produced and directed toward a particular wall is referred to as the:

use factor

The term effective dose refers to A. whole-body dose B. localized organ dose C. genetic effects D. somatic and genetic effects

whole-body dose