RDN Prep 3
Q. When installing a kitchen sink, what is required to prevent backflow? A cross-connection An air gap between the faucet and flood rim of the sink A link between the potable water and contaminated water A hose with a nozzle
Backflow is the unwanted reverse flow of contaminants through a cross-connection into a potable water supply. The only way to prevent backflow is to have an air space, referred to as an air gap, to separate a water supply outlet from any potentially contaminated source.
BMI
BMI is calculated using weight (kg)/height (m2). BMI is based on the ratio of a person's weight to height and has been shown to be a reliable indicator of body fatness.
Q. Which of the following is a conditional amino acid? Tryptophan Tyrosine Alanine Leucine
Tyrosine (Conditional amino acids are typically not essential with the exception of periods of stress and illness. They require a dietary source when endogenous synthesis cannot meet metabolic need. The conditional amino acids are arginine, cysteine, glutamine, glycine, proline, and tyrosine.)
Q. Phenylalanine is a precursor to which amino acid? Arginine Glutamine Cysteine Tyrosine
Tyrosine is a nonessential amino acid the body makes from phenylalanine.
Q. US Fancy is a quality designation used for _____. processed cheese products. milk and dairy products. eggs. fruits and vegetables.
US Fancy means premium quality. US Fancy fruits and vegetables are of more uniform shape and have fewer defects than US No. 1.
What is the definition of a low sodium food for the food label? Less than 5 mg sodium per serving Up to 35 mg of sodium per serving Up to 140 mg sodium per serving At least 25% less sodium than the regular food
Up to 140 mg sodium per serving
Q. Which micronutrient enhances the absorption of nonheme iron? Calcium Copper Vitamin A Vitamin C
Vitamin C in amounts of about 75 mg can increase nonheme iron absorption.
Q. No more than _________ of the National School Lunch Program (NSLP) weekly requirement for servings of fruit may be met by pasteurized full-strength, 100% fruit juice. one-quarter one-third one-half three-quarters
one-half
Q. A research article describes the percentage of the US population diagnosed with obesity in 2001. This statistic represents the _________ of obesity. prevalence incidence specificity sensitivity
prevalence (Prevalence is the proportion of a population with a specific characteristic within a given time frame.)
Q. Wheat does not contain enough lysine for humans to synthesize proteins from wheat alone. Thus, in wheat, lysine is considered to be a(n) _____. incomplete protein inadequate protein nonessential protein limiting amino acid
"Limiting amino acids" refers to essential amino acids in a food protein that fall short of meeting the amino acids required by humans. The limiting amino acids are determined by comparing the amount of amino acids in a gram of protein to the amount of amino acids per gram of protein required.
Q. What is the physical activity factor range for "very active"? : 1.9 to less than 2.5 2.6 to less than 3.2 1.6 to less than 1.9 3.3 to less than 3.9
1.9-2.5 (To estimate total energy needs, multiply resting metabolic rate by physical activity factor. The range for physical activity factors is sedentary (1.0 or more to less than 1.4); low active (1.4 or more to less than 1.6); active (1.6 or more to less than 1.9); and very active (1.9 or more to less than 2.5).)
Q. When cooking pork chops, they should reach an internal temperature of: 135°F for 15 seconds. 145°F for 15 seconds. 155°F for 15 seconds. 165°F for 15 seconds.
145°F for 15 seconds.
Q. Full-time employees generally work 236 days per year due to vacation and benefit days. Approximately how many employees are necessary for everyday coverage of full-time positions? 1.55 1.75 0.75 0.55
365 days each year/236 full-time workdays = 1.55 FTE. 1.55 FTE is required for each FT position.
Q. The temperature range of the "danger zone" is between 40°F and 125°F. 140°F. 145°F. 165°F.
40-140
Q. Total Quality Management is best described by which grouping of words? Processes, improvement, customer satisfaction Outcomes, meet standards, accreditation Proactive, empowerment, outcomes Prevention, standard procedures, diagnostic
A (TQM is a philosophy wherein processes are refined with goal of improving performance in response to customer needs and expectations.)
Q. If the dietetics professional presents new information to an adult orally, about how much of what is heard will be remembered after 2 weeks? 20% 30% 40% 50%
A. 20% (People remember 10% of what they read, 20% of what they hear, 30% of what they see, 50% of what they hear and see, 70% of what they themselves say, and 90% of what they themselves say and do).
Q. Which of the following individuals would be expected to have the highest basal metabolic rate? A 25-year-old male who is 6' tall and weighs 200 pounds A 40-year-old male who is 6' tall and weighs 210 pounds A 30-year-old female who is 5'7" tall and weighs 200 pounds A 50-year-old female who is 5'3" tall and weighs 120 pounds
A. Basal metabolic rate for women = 655 + (4.35 × weight in pounds) + (4.7 × height in inches) - (4.7 × age in years). Basal metabolic rate for men = 66 + (6.23 × weight in pounds) + (12.7 × height in inches) - (6.8 × age in years)
Q. To include formative evaluation in an instruction of breastfeeding techniques, the dietetics professional should _____. A. ask participants several times during the class to share something that they have learned B. determine the number of participants who breastfeed after attending the class C. ask participants what else should have been included at the conclusion of class D. determine what the participants remember from the class 3 to 6 months after attending
A. Formative evaluation helps instructors find out if they are achieving their goals and objectives in the formative stages of the project, instead of waiting until they have finished the project.
Q. What is a key difference between HCI and HIT? A. HIT is used to capture patient data whereas HCI facilitates use of the data to improve patient care quality and safety. B. HCI is used to capture patient data whereas HIT facilitates use of the data are used to improve patient care quality and safety. C. HIT is used in provider offices whereas HCI is used in third-party payor offices. D. There is no difference between the two, as these are interchangeable terms.
A. HIT, or health information technology is used to capture patient data whereas HCI, or health care informatics, facilitates use of the data to improve patient care quality and safety.
Q. What is the correct order of digestion, proximal to distal, of the small intestine? A. Duodenum - Jejunum - Ileum B. Ileum - Jejunum - Duodenum C. Jejunum - Duodenum - Ileum D. Duodenum - Ileum - Jejunum
A. The small intestine consists of three sections. The first section, called the duodenum, connects to the stomach. The middle section is the jejunum. The final section, called the ileum, attaches to the first portion of the large intestine.(DJI)
Q. The best way to address the mortality rate associated with low-birthweight (LBW) and preterm infants is by: A. improving the birthweight of newborn infants. B. reducing the incidence of pica among pregnant women. C. improving the infant formulas for LBW and preterm infants. D. increasing the emphasis on breastfeeding in hospitals.
A. To address mortality rates of preterm and low-birthweight infants, the birthweight needs to be improved. Birthweight is directly correlated to infant mortality.
Q. A consistent theme from the 2011 Dietetics Workforce Demand Study was that which of the following drives change for all areas of dietetics practice? Incidence rates for chronic diseases Costs associated with health care Changes to Medicare eligibility requirements Advances in technology
Advances in Technology
Q. How many pounds are recommended for an overweight woman to gain during her pregnancy? 0 5-10 15-25 28-40
All women should gain weight during pregnancy. Recommendations for gaining 28 to 40 lb in pregnancy are applicable to underweight women. It is recommended that overweight women gain 15 to 25 lb during pregnancy.
Q. Which enzyme is responsible for starch digestion? Amylase Lipase Lactase Insulin
Amylase
Q. A deficiency of vitamin B-12 in older adults is most likely due to diverticulosis. fat malabsorption. atrophic gastritis. gallbladder disease.
Atrophic Gastritis (Vitamin B-12 requires hydrochloric acid in the stomach to be released from its peptide bonds. It then binds with intrinsic factor in the stomach and is absorbed in the ileum. If a person has atrophic gastritis, which increases significantly with age, there is reduced hydrochloric acid secretion. This can result in decreased bioavailability of vitamin B-12).
Q. One of the key features of andragogy is that adults _____. A. expect learning to be subject-centered B. want learning that is relevant to their needs C. desire external sources of motivation D. learn what others think is important
B. There are 4 principles of andragogy. 1. Adults need to be involved in the planning and evaluation of their instruction. 2. Experience provides the basis for learning activities. 3. Adults are most interested in learning subjects that have immediate relevance to their job or personal life. 4. Adult learning is problem-centered rather than content-oriented.
Q. Having the same or similar outputs result from different inputs is called: dynamic equilibrium. equifinality. synergy. interdependency.
B. Equifinality is defined as same or similar output that can be achieved by using different inputs or by varying the transformation process.
Q. Which of the following foods is considered a whole grain and meets the NSLP standards for whole grain? A. Pearled barley B. Graham flour C.Hominy D. Semolina
B. Graham flour is considered a whole grain according to the National School Lunch Program criteria. All the other items listed have been milled so that either the germ or the germ and the bran have been removed.
Q. Which of the following is the best example of a statement that reflects the components expected of an objective? A. Students enrolled in basic nutrition will score 100% on all class quizzes this semester if they study prior to taking each quiz. B. Given the appropriate recipe, the cook will prepare the quantity of beef stroganoff needed to serve 100 people during an 8-hour shift. C. Individuals with diabetes will like the foods that they sample in their class for people newly diagnosed with diabetes. D. After watching the video, the tray line workers will portion foods carefully.
B. Objectives need to be specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and time bound.
Q. Which of the following statements about lipids is true? Steroid hormones are made from one or more fat-soluble vitamins. Digestion of triglycerides requires bile and lipases. Triglyceride digestion is completed in the large intestine. Insulin stimulates lipolysis and the mobilization of triglycerides.
B. The digestion of regular fats and oils, which are usually long-chain triglycerides, requires bile acids as well as lipases. In adults, this digestion usually starts in the small intestine and is done with the aid of lipases and bile acids. The bile acids allow the triglycerides to be properly emulsified and the lipases break the triglycerides into individual fatty acids and monoglycerides in the small intestine.
Q. Which of the components of total energy expenditure accounts for the largest percentage of total energy expenditure? Thermic effect of food Physical activity Nonexercise activity thermogenesis Basal metabolism
Basal Metabolism (The largest percentage of total energy expenditure is basal metabolic rate, or BMR, and the closely related resting metabolic rate. BMR can range from 45% for people with a physically active lifestyle to 70% for those who are sedentary).
Q. As the pH of a glass of orange juice decreases, it becomes _____. hydrophobic hydrophilic more acidic more basic
C. As the pH value decreases, the acidity increases. When the pH value is 7, it is neutral. When it is more than 7, it shifts to alkaline (basic) nature. When it is less than 7, it will be acidic.
Dietetics professionals may apply basic educational principles to program design. Which of the following is the best example of the application of consonance? A. Even though the basics of a heart-healthy meal plan are being explained in a group setting, each participant is given the opportunity to have personal questions answered. B. The successes that clients have had when following a reduced-sodium meal pattern are rewarded by the dietetics professional who gives away samples of salt-free seasoning packets. C. The dietetics professional explains and demonstrates proper procedures for portioning hot entrees for the tray line. D. The professional provides clients newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus a way of monitoring the progress they are making with regard to controlling blood sugar levels.
C. Consonance is the fit between the program and the expected outcomes based on the objectives.
Q. The usual purpose of summative evaluation is to_____. compare the extent of learning between and among learners reduce the cost-benefit ratio of teaching and learning improve the program's delivery and effectiveness determine opportunities for expansion and enhancement of entrepreneurship in education
C. Summative evaluation takes place during and following the implementation and is associated with more objective, quantitative methods. It is used to assess whether the program has met its goals, whether there were any unintended consequences, and how to improve.
Q. For a food that contains less than 50% calories from fat, how many fewer calories should it contain to be considered a "light" or "lite" food? A. At least 25% fewer calories than the typical food B. Less than 5 calories C. One-third fewer calories D. Up to 40 calories
C. The FDA's rule is that if less than 50% of calories are from fat, fat must be reduced by at least 50% or calories reduced by at least1/3 per RACC to be considered a "light" or "lite" food.
Q. A registered dietitian nutritionist who is responsible for procuring food and non-food dietary supplies performs what activities? Inventory control, receiving, pre-preparation, budgeting Receiving, purchasing, storage, inventory control Budgeting, purchasing, inventory control, storage Pre-preparation, purchasing, inventory control, storage
C. Within the subsystem of procurement are purchasing, budgeting, storage, and inventory control. Pre-preparation is part of production.
Q. In terms of illness and disease burden, the four most costly foodborne bacteria pathogens are salmonella, e. coli, listeria, and staphylococcus aureus. clostridium perfringens. clostridium botulinum. campylobacter jejuni.
Campylobacter jejuni is among the four most costly foodborne pathogens in terms of illness and disease burden. Campylobacter species are resistant to antibiotics and have been associated with a longer illness duration of illness, an increased risk of invasive disease and death, and increased health care costs. It was estimated in 2012 that the annual costs of campylobacteriosis in the United States total $1.7 billion.
Q. After a meal, most of the fat that travels from the intestines into the lymph system and eventually into the blood is in the form of particles known as: VLDLs HDLs LDLs Chylomicrons
Chylomicrons are one of the microscopic particles of emulsified fat found in the blood and lymph system that are formed during the digestion of fats.
Q. According to the Essential Practice Competencies for the Commission on Dietetic Registration's Credentialed Nutrition and Dietetics Practitioners, graduates of accredited dietetics programs are required to have knowledge in eight content areas, including physical and biological sciences, social sciences, research, and _____. foodservice systems communications public policy medical nutrition therapy
Communications
Q. The biologically active hormone form of vitamin D is 7-dehydrocholesterol 25-hydroxyvitamin D D3 1, 25-dihydroxyvitamin D
D (Vitamin D is considered to be devoid of direct biological activity. It must be first hydroxylated in the liver by a 25-hydroxylase and then in the kidney by a 1 alpha-hydroxylase, which is responsible for the synthesis of the active metabolite 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D.)
Q. The dietitian has written the following objective: "The clients with high blood pressure who attend the six class sessions will consider their personal barriers to following a reduced-salt diet." Which learning domain does this objective represent? A. Psychomotor B. Rational C. Cognitive D. Affective
D. (There are three domains of educational activities in Bloom's taxonomy: cognitive, affective, and psychomotor. Cognitive is application of knowledge. Psychomotor corresponds with coordination and manual or physical skills. The affective domain corresponds with how people deal with things emotionally, such as feelings, values, appreciation, enthusiasm, motivations, and attitudes.)
Q. Which of the following is a federal requirement for shelf-stable foods? A. All shelf-stable food products must include a sell-by date B. All shelf-stable food products must include both a sell-by and use-by date C. Product dating is encouraged but never required for shelf-stable foods D. Product dating is only required for infant formula
D. Product dating on shelf-stable foods is generally used to indicate food quality, not food safety. Use-by, sell-by, or best-if-used-by are not federally required except for infant formula. If product dating is voluntarily used on shelf-stable foods, the month, date, and year must be displayed, along with which category of product dating it indicates.
Q. In what type of diet would docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) supplementation be important? A. FODMAP B. Anti-inflammatory C. Gluten free D. Vegan
DHA is typically absent in vegan diets, so supplementation may be called for. DHA supplements derived from algae and thus appropriate for vegans are available.
Q. Which of the following types of study has the potential to prove cause and effect? Randomized controlled trial Qualitative survey Case-control Cohort
In randomized controlled trials, the researcher determines who will receive treatment as well as the level of treatment or exposure. Being able to manipulate dosage and document the response to the various levels of treatment allows for better capability to attribute cause and effect.
Q. Which of the following helps a facility simplify meal-ordering procedures while addressing inadequate options by adding menu options? Diet maximization Diet personalization Diet simplification Diet liberalization
Diet liberalization is essential in the registered dietitian nutritionist's assessment and evaluation process to determine the least restricted therapeutic and texture-modified diet order for a patient. The benefits of liberalizing diets include the following: Increased patient food and beverage choices Simplified meal-ordering procedures Improved dining experience Improved flavor and acceptance of foods served Added options to address inadequate intake Simplified foodservice Decreased potential meal service errors Streamlined guidance on diet definitions (who can have what foods/fluids) Increased staff time for calm interaction during meal selection and service Additional supports for a successful survey process
Q. Which dietary reference intake (DRI) value estimates the nutrient needs to meet the requirements of at least half of individuals in a population? RDA AI EAR UL
EAR-EAR, the Estimated Average Requirement, is the intake that meets the established nutrient needs of one-half of the individuals in a specific group.
What is EOQ?
EOQ is a calculation used to determine ordering quantities based on the relationship between ordering costs and holding costs. Balance of costs is desirable. Therefore, when the cost of placing an order aligns with the cost of holding merchandise, EOQ is obtained.
Q. This process uses sublimation to prepare high-quality preserved foods. Pulsed light processing Ozonation Modified atmospheric packaging Freeze-drying
Freeze-drying (Freeze-drying involves freezing the food and then reducing the surrounding pressure to allow the frozen water in the food to sublimate directly from the solid phase to the gas phase.)
Q. The hormone released by gastric cells in response to food in the stomach is ______. gastrin secretin cholecystokinin chymotrypsin
Gastrin (Gastrin is a hormone secreted in the stomach that is involved in the production of gastric acid. Secretin is a hormone formed by the epithelial cells of duodenum under stimulus of acid contents from stomach, which incites secretion of pancreatic juice. Cholesystokinin is a polypeptide hormone produced principally by the small intestine in response to the presence of fats. Chymotrypsin is a pancreatic digestive enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of certain proteins in the small intestine into polypeptides and amino acids.)
Q. If the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs for energy, which of the following can be converted to glucose? Acetyl-CoA Fatty acids Carbon dioxide Amino acids
In a diet that lacks carbohydrates, the liver cells can make glucose from from pyruvate, which can be generated by catabolizing various amino acids, and other 3-carbon compounds like glycerol. Amino acids also produce glucose to keep the brain cells alive.
Q. Which enzyme is responsible for lactose digestion? Amylase Lipase Lactase Insulin
Lactase is an enzyme capable of breaking down lactose.
Q. Which enzyme is responsible for fat digestion? Amylase Lipase Lactase Insulin
Lipase is any of a group of enzymes that break down fat.
Q. Which of the following terms is not defined by US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use on a food label? Sugar free Reduced sugar Low sugar Unsweetened
Low Sugar
Q. Metabolic acidosis is characterized by what physiological changes? Low pH &low bicarbonate (HCO3) High CO2 and low pH High CO2 and normal HCO3 Normal pH and high bicarbonate
Metabolic acidosis is an acid-base disorder characterized by a primary consumption of body buffers including a fall in blood bicarbonate concentration. There are many causes and multiple mechanisms that minimize the fall in arterial pH.
Q. Which oil is highest in monounsaturated fatty acids? Sunflower oil Coconut oil Olive oil Corn oil
Olive oil has 9.85 g monounsaturated fat per tablespoon. Sunflower oil has 2.65 g monounsaturated fat per tablespoon. Coconut oil has 0.86 g monounsaturated fat per tablespoon. Corn oil has 3.75 g monounsaturated fat per tablespoon.
Q. Which is the first document used in the purchasing process? Invoice Requisition Purchase order Inquisition
Requisition (A requisition is an internal form used by a foodservice manager to request items from the purchasing manager or department within his or her facility. Then the purchasing manager will write up a purchase order and give it to the supplier, who supplies the foods and invoices the purchasing manager for the shipment).
Q. If 100 patients with a disease are tested but only 96 test positive for the disease, that means the test has a ________ of 96%. sensitivity specificity positive predictive value negative predictive value
Sensitivity is the ability of a test to correctly identify all screened individuals who are positive for a disease. The test identified 96 out of 100 patients, resulting in 96% sensitivity.
Q. When baking muffins, which of the following is most likely to have a deeper brown crust? A. Muffin made with baking powder and solid sugar B. Muffin made with baking soda and solid sugar C. Muffin made with baking soda, buttermilk, and solid sugar D. Muffin made with baking powder and liquid sugar
The Maillard reaction is most likely to occur in the presence of an alkali environment. Without the addition of an acid, the batter with baking soda and solid sugar will result in a deeper brown color compared with the other options listed.
Q. If a researcher creates a questionnaire so that extra emphasis is placed on certain questions, what type of errors likely will affect the findings? Sampling errors Measurement errors Non-response errors Errors of data distortion
The correct answer is B. Measurement error will likely result. A questionnaire with emphasis on certain questions causes bias because the measuring device (questionnaire) was faulty and, therefore, less reliable. It would not result in a true measure of the situation.
The foodservice manager has completed instructing new hires regarding the safe handling of knives. During the session, the manager talked about how to use knives responsibly, determined what the new hires already knew about knife safety, demonstrated how to handle knives safely, and encouraged questions. What else should the manager have included so that all four steps in "How to Instruct" were covered? A. Share data about the number of injuries that have occurred. B. Develop interest in learning about knife safety. C. Summarize knife safety again in a second session. D. Require the new hires to explain key points while handling knives.
The four steps in "How to Instruct" are: Step 1 - Prepare the learner and find out what the individual knows about the job; Step 2 - Present the operation by tell, show, and illustrate; Step 3 - Try out performance by having the learner explain key points and do the job; Step 4 - Follow up and designate where to obtain help and supervise the independent work of the learner and reinforce key concepts as necessary.
Q. Which category of oral hyperglycemic medication would NOT be appropriate for a client with congestive heart failure? Sulfonylureas Biguanides Meglitinides Thiazolidinediones
Thiazolidinediones can worsen congestive heart failure by promoting weight gain/edema.
Q. If a food manufacturer wanted to include an additive to color a food glaze white, which would be best? Turmeric Sodium citrate Silicon dioxide Titanium dioxide
Titanium dioxide is approved for use as a (white) food coloring agent.
Q. As a manager, you were instructed to prepare a budget without relying on the figures from previous years. This is known as a top-down budget. bottom-up budget. baseline budget. zero-based budget.
Zero-based budget (A top-down budget is prepared by top management and given to each operating units. In a bottom-up budget, individual units prepare their own budget that is then sent to upper management. A baseline budget starts with the previous budget and adjusts for current conditions. A zero-based budget starts with no previous figures before costs, outlay, and inflows are determined.)
Q. A child who consistently plots at the 5th percentile on the weight-for-length/stature Centers for Disease Control and Prevention growth chart demonstrates a negative pattern of growth. demonstrates failure to thrive. has a thin body habitus. reflects a change in growth velocity.
has a thin body habitus.
Q. One of a teacher's functions in andragogy is to_____. serve as a role model structure content serve as facilitator arrange for reinforcement
serve as facilitator (In practical terms, andragogy means that instruction for adults needs to focus more on the process and less on the content being taught. Strategies such as case studies, role playing, simulations, and self-evaluation are most useful. Instructors adopt a role of facilitator or resource rather than lecturer or grader.)
Gross Product
subtracting cost of goods sold from total sales in a given period
