Respiratory ch 24 Chronic

A home health nurse visits a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who requires oxygen. Which statement by the client indicates the need for additional teaching about home oxygen use?

"I make sure my oxygen mask is on tightly so it won't fall off while I nap." P664 Explanation: The client requires additional teaching if he states that he fits his mask tightly. Applying the oxygen mask too tightly can cause skin breakdown, so the client should be cautioned against wearing it too tightly. Oxygen therapy is drying to the oral and nasal mucosa; therefore, the client should be encouraged to apply a water-soluble lubricant, such as K-Y jelly, to prevent drying. Smoking is contraindicated wherever oxygen is in use; posting of a "no smoking" sign warns people against smoking in the client's house. Cleaning the mask with water two or three times per day removes secretions and decreases the risk of infection.

The goal for oxygen therapy in COPD is to support tissue oxygenation, decrease the work of the cardiopulmonary system, and maintain the resting partial arterial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) of at least ______ mm Hg and an arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) of at least ___%.

60 mm Hg; 90% P643 Explanation: The goal is a PaO2 of at least 60 mm Hg and an SaO2 of 90%.

Which statement describes emphysema?

A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli P636 Explanation: Emphysema is a category of COPD. Asthma has a clinical outcome of airflow obstruction. Bronchitis includes the presence of cough and sputum production for at least a combined total of 2 to 3 months in each of two consecutive years. Bronchiectasis is a condition of chronic dilatation of a bronchus or bronchi.

Which of the following is accurate regarding status asthmaticus?

A severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy P664 Explanation: Status asthmaticus is a severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy. It is a medical emergency. Patients report rapid progressive chest tightness, wheezing, dry cough, and shortness of breath. It may occur with little or no warning.

Which is the strongest predisposing factor for asthma?

Allergy p654 Explanation: Allergy is the strongest predisposing factor for asthma.

After reviewing the pharmacological treatment for pulmonary diseases, the nursing student knows that bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm in three ways. Choose the correct three of the following options.

Alter smooth muscle tone Reduce airway obstruction Increase oxygen distribution P640 Explanation: Bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm by altering smooth muscle tone and reduce airway obstruction by allowing increased oxygen distribution throughout the lungs and improving alveolar ventilation.

A nurse is caring for a client with status asthmaticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

An inhaled beta2-adrenergic agonist p656 An inhaled beta2-adrenergic agonist helps promote bronchodilation, which improves oxygenation. Although an I.V. beta2-adrenergic agonist can be used, the client needs be monitored because of the drug's greater systemic effects. The I.V. form is typically used when the inhaled beta2-adrenergic agonist doesn't work. A corticosteroid is slow acting, so its use won't reduce hypoxia in the acute phase.

Which statement is true about both lung transplant and bullectomy?

Both procedures improve the overall quality of life of a client with COPD. P643-644 Explanation: Treatments for COPD are aimed more at treating the symptoms and preventing complications, thereby improving the overall quality of life of a client with COPD. In fact, there is no cure for COPD. Lung transplant is aimed at treating end-stage emphysema and bullectomy is used to treat clients with bullous emphysema.

Upon assessment, the nurse suspects that a patient with COPD may have bronchospasm. What manifestations validate the nurse's concern? (Select all that apply.)

Compromised gas exchange Decreased airflow Wheezes p645 Explanation: Bronchospasm, which occurs in many pulmonary diseases, reduces the caliber of the small bronchi and may cause dyspnea, static secretions, and infection. Bronchospasm can sometimes be detected on auscultation with a stethoscope when wheezing or diminished breath sounds are heard. Increased mucus production, along with decreased mucociliary action, contributes to further reduction in the caliber of the bronchi and results in decreased airflow and decreased gas exchange. This is further aggravated by the loss of lung elasticity that occurs with COPD (GOLD, 2010).

The nurse has instructed the client to use a peak flow meter. The nurse evaluates client learning as satisfactory when the client

Exhales hard and fast with a single blow P662 Explanation: To use a peak flow meter, the client stands. Then the client takes a deep breath and exhales hard and fast with a single blow. The client repeats this twice and records a "personal best" in an asthma diary.

A nurse evaluates the results of a spirometry test to help confirm a diagnosis of obstructive lung disease. Which one of the following results indicates an initial early stage of COPD? (FEV1 refers to forced expired volume in 1 second.)

FEV1 > 80% P639 Explanation: The FEV1 decreases as the severity of obstruction increases. Therefore, an FEV1 of more than 80% indicates an initial stage, and an FEV1 of 30% indicates a very severe stage.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) expresses a desire to quit smoking. The first appropriate response from the nurse is:

Have you tried to quit smoking before?" P638 Explanation: All the options are appropriate statements; however, the nurse needs to assess the client's statement further. Assessment data include information about previous attempts to quit smoking.

A nurse consulting with a nutrition specialist knows it's important to consider a special diet for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which diet is appropriate for this client?

High protein P645 Breathing is more difficult for clients with COPD, and increased metabolic demand puts them at risk for nutritional deficiencies. These clients must have a high intake of protein for increased calorie consumption. Full liquids, 1,800-calorie ADA, and low-fat diets aren't appropriate for a client wit

Asthma is cause by which type of response?

IgE-mediated P655 Explanation: Atopy, the genetic predisposition for the development of an IgE-mediated response to allergens, is the most common identifiable predisposing factor for asthma. Chronic exposure to airway allergens may sensitize IgE antibodies and the cells of the airway.

Which of the following is the key underlying feature of asthma?

Inflammation P654 Inflammation is the key underlying feature and leads to recurrent episodes of asthma symptoms: cough, chest tightness, wheeze, and dyspnea.

**A client is being seen in the emergency department for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The first action of the nurse is to administer which of the following prescribed treatments?

Oxygen through nasal cannula at 2 L/minute P638 Explanation: All options listed are treatments that may be used for a client with an exacerbation of COPD. The first line of treatment is oxygen therapy.

The nurse is assigned the care of a 30-year-old client diagnosed with cystic fibrosis (CF). Which nursing intervention will be included in the client's care plan?

Performing chest physiotherapy as ordered P667 Explanation: Nursing care includes helping clients manage pulmonary symptoms and prevent complications. Specific measures include strategies that promote removal of pulmonary secretions, chest physiotherapy, and breathing exercises. In addition, the nurse emphasizes the importance of an adequate fluid and dietary intake to promote removal of secretions and to ensure an adequate nutritional status. Clients with CF also experience increased salt content in sweat gland secretions; thus it is important to ensure the client consumes a diet that contains adequate amounts of sodium. As the disease progresses, the client will develop increasing hypoxemia. In this situation, preferences for end-of-life care should be discussed, documented, and honored; however, there is no indication that the client is terminally ill.

As status asthmaticus worsens, the nurse would expect which acid-base imbalance?

Respiratory acidosis P664 Explanation: As status asthmaticus worsens, the PaCO2increases and the pH decreases, reflecting respiratory acidosis.

A nurse administers albuterol (Proventil), as ordered, to a client with emphysema. Which finding indicates that the drug is producing a therapeutic effect?

Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute P658 Explanation: In a client with emphysema, albuterol is used as a bronchodilator. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute indicates that the drug has achieved its therapeutic effect because fewer respirations are required to achieve oxygenation. Albuterol has no effect on pupil reaction or urine output. It may cause a change in the heart rate, but this is an adverse, not therapeutic, effect.

Which of the following are risk factors for the development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Select all that apply.

Tobacco smoke Occupational dust Air pollution Infection Second-hand smoke P638 Explanation: Risk factors for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are tobacco smoke, environmental tobacco smoke, occupational dust and chemicals, indoor and outdoor air pollution, and infection.

Which of the following occupy space in the thorax, but do not contribute to ventilation?

Bullae p643 Explanation: Bullae are enlarged airspaces that do not contribute to ventilation but occupy space in the thorax. Bullae may compress areas of healthier lung and impair gas exchange. Alveoli are the functional units of the lungs. Lung parenchyma is lung tissue. Mast cells, when activated, release several chemicals called mediators that include histamine, bradykinin, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes.

Upon assessment, the nurse suspects that a patient with COPD may have bronchospasm. What manifestations validate the nurse's concern? (Select all that apply.)

Compromised gas exchange Decreased airflow Wheezes P645 Explanation: Bronchospasm, which occurs in many pulmonary diseases, reduces the caliber of the small bronchi and may cause dyspnea, static secretions, and infection. Bronchospasm can sometimes be detected on auscultation with a stethoscope when wheezing or diminished breath sounds are heard. Increased mucus production, along with decreased mucociliary action, contributes to further reduction in the caliber of the bronchi and results in decreased airflow and decreased gas exchange. This is further aggravated by the loss of lung elasticity that occurs with COPD (GOLD, 2010).

A client with bronchiectasis is admitted to the nursing unit. The primary focus of nursing care for this client includes

Implementing measures to clear pulmonary secretions. P654 Explanation: Nursing management focuses on alleviating symptoms and helping clients clear pulmonary secretions. Although teaching the family how to perform postural drainage and instructing the client on the signs of respiratory infection are important, they are not the nurse's primary focus. The presence of a large amount of mucus may decrease the client's appetite and result in inadequate dietary intake; therefore, the client's nutritional status is assessed and strategies are implemented to ensure an adequate diet.

A nursing student is taking a pathophysiology examination. Which of the following factors would the student correctly identify as contributing to the underlying pathophysiology of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Choose all that apply.

Inflamed airways that obstruct airflow Mucus secretions that block airways Overinflated alveoli that impair gas exchange P635 Because of chronic inflammation and the body's attempts to repair it, changes and narrowing occur in the airways. In the proximal airways, changes include increased numbers of goblet cells and enlarged submucosal glands, both of which lead to hypersecretion of mucus. In the peripheral airways, inflammation causes thickening of the airway wall, peribronchial fibrosis, exudate in the airway, and overall airway narrowing.

A pneumothorax is a possible complication of COPD. Symptoms will depend on the suddenness of the attack and the size of the air leak. The most common, immediate symptom that should be assessed is:

harp, stabbing chest pain p652 Explanation: The initial symptom is usually chest pain of sudden onset that leads to feelings of chest pressure, dyspnea, and tachycardia. A cough may be present

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to an acute care facility because of an acute respiratory infection. When assessing the client's respiratory status, which finding should the nurse anticipate?

An inspiratory-expiratory (I:E) ratio of 2:1 p635 Explanation: The normal I:E ratio is 1:2, meaning that expiration takes twice as long as inspiration. A ratio of 2:1 is seen in clients with COPD because inspiration is shorter than expiration. A client with COPD typically has a barrel chest in which the anteroposterior diameter is larger than the transverse chest diameter. A client with COPD usually has a respiratory rate greater than 12 breaths/minute and an oxygen saturation rate below 93%.

A client presents to the ED experiencing symptoms of COPD exacerbation. The nurse understands that goals of therapy should be achieved to improve the client's condition. Which statements reflect therapy goals? Select all that apply.

Provide medical support for the current exacerbation. Treat the underlying cause of the event. Return the client to their original functioning abilities. Provide long-term support for medical management. Explanation: The goal is to have a stable client with COPD leading the most productive life possible. COPD cannot necessarily be cured, but it can be managed so that the client can live a reasonably normal life. With adequate management, clients should not have to give up their usual activities.

The nurse is assigned to care for a patient with COPD with hypoxemia and hypercapnia. When planning care for this patient, what does the nurse understand is the main goal of treatment?

Providing sufficient oxygen to improve oxygenation P643 Explanation: The main objective in treating patients with hypoxemia and hypercapnia is to give sufficient oxygen to improve oxygenation.

A patient comes to the clinic for the third time in 2 months with chronic bronchitis. What clinical symptoms does the nurse anticipate assessing for this patient?

Sputum and a productive cough P635 Explanation: Chronic bronchitis, a disease of the airways, is defined as the presence of cough and sputum production for at least 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years.

The classification of Stage III of COPD is defined as

severe COPD. P639 Explanation: Stage III is severe COPD. Stage 0 is at risk for COPD. Stage I is mild COPD. Stage II is moderate COPD. Stage IV is very severe COPD.

Which diagnostic test is most accurate in assessing acute airway obstruction?

Pulmonary function studies p637-638 Explanation: Pulmonary function studies are used to help confirm the diagnosis of COPD, determine disease severity, and monitor disease progression. ABGs and pulse oximetry are not the most accurate diagnostics for an airway obstruction. Spirometry is used to evaluate airflow obstruction, which is determined by the ratio of FEV1 to forced vital capacity (FVC).

A nursing instructor is discussing asthma and its complications with medical-surgical nursing students. Which of the following would the group identify as complications of asthma? Choose all that apply.

Status asthmaticus Respiratory failure Atelectasis P655-666 Explanation: Complications of asthma may include status asthmaticus, respiratory failure, pneumonia, and atelectasis. Pertussis and pneumothorax are not complications

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. The nurse knows the client's condition is worsening when he:

uses the sternocleidomastoid muscles. P664 Explanation: Use of accessory muscles indicates worsening breathing conditions. Assuming the tripod position, a 93% pulse oximetry reading, and a request for the nurse to raise the head of the bed don't indicate that the client's condition is worsening.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. To help this client maintain a patent airway and achieve maximal gas exchange, the nurse should:

instruct the client to drink at least 2 L of fluid daily. P644 Explanation: Mobilizing secretions is crucial to maintaining a patent airway and maximizing gas exchange in the client with COPD. Measures that help mobilize secretions include drinking 2 L of fluid daily, practicing controlled pursed-lip breathing, and engaging in moderate activity. Anxiolytics rarely are recommended for the client with COPD because they may cause sedation and subsequent infection from inadequate mobilization of secretions. Because COPD rarely causes pain, pain medication isn't indicated.