SAUNDERS HESI MED SURG PT 2

The nurse should evaluate that defibrillation of a client was most successful if which observation was made? 1. Arousable, sinus rhythm, blood pressure (BP) 116/72 mm Hg 2. Nonarousable, sinus rhythm, BP 88/60 mm Hg 3. Arousable, marked bradycardia, BP 86/ 54 mm Hg 4. Nonarousable, supraventricular tachycardia, BP 122/60 mm Hg

1 After defibrillation, the client requires continuous monitoring of electrocardiographic rhythm, hemodynamic status, and neurological status. Respiratory and metabolic acidosis develop during ventricular fibrillation because of lack of respiration and cardiac output. These can cause cerebral and cardiopulmonary complications. Arousable status, adequate BP, and a sinus rhythm indicate successful response to defibrillation.

During the early postoperative period, a client who has undergone a cataract extraction complains of nausea and severe eye pain over the operative site. What should be the initial nursing action? 1. Call the health care provider (HCP). 2. Reassure the client that this is normal. 3. Turn the client onto his or her operative side. 4. Administer the prescribed pain medication and antiemetic

1 Severe pain or pain accompanied by nausea following a cataract extraction is an indicator of increased intraocular pressure and should be reported to the HCP immediately. Options 2, 3, and 4 are inappropriate actions.

A client who is human immunodeficiency virus seropositive has been taking stavudine. The nurse should monitor which most closely while the client is taking this medication? 1. Gait 2. Appetite 3. Level of consciousness 4. Gastrointestinal function

1 Stavudine is an antiretroviral used to manage human immunodeficiency virus infection in clients who do not respond to or who cannot tolerate conventional therapy. The medication can cause peripheral neuropathy, and the nurse should monitor the client's gait closely and ask the client about paresthesia. Options 2, 3, and 4 are unrelated to this medication.

The nurse is assisting in planning care for a client with a diagnosis of immunodeficiency and should incorporate which action as a priority in the plan? 1. Protecting the client from infection 2. Providing emotional support to decrease fear 3. Encouraging discussion about lifestyle changes 4. Identifying factors that decreased the immune function

1 The client with immunodeficiency has inadequate or absence of immune bodies and is at risk for infection. The priority nursing intervention would be to protect the client from infection. Options 2, 3, and 4 may be components of care but are not the priority.

Which interventions apply in the care of a client at high risk for an allergic response to a latex allergy? Select all that apply. 1. Use nonlatex gloves. 2. Use medications from glass ampules. 3. Place the client in a private room only. 4. Keep a latex-safe supply cart available in the client's area. 5. Avoid the use of medication vials that have rubber stoppers. 6. Use a blood pressure cuff from an electronic device only to measure the blood pressure.

1, 2, 4, 5 If a client is allergic to latex and is at high risk for an allergic response, the nurse would use nonlatexgloves and latexsafe supplies, and would keep a latex-safe supply cart available in the client's area. Any supplies or materials that contain latex would be avoided. These include blood pressure cuffs and medication vials with rubber stoppers that require puncture with a needle. It is not necessary to place the client in a private room.

A client with myocardial infarction is developing cardiogenic shock. Because of the risk of myocardial ischemia, what condition should the nurse carefully assess the client for? 1. Bradycardia 2. Ventricular dysrhythmias 3. Rising diastolic blood pressure 4. Falling central venous pressure

2 Classic signs of cardiogenic shock as they relate to myocardial ischemia include low blood pressure and tachycardia. The central venous pressure would rise as the backward effects of the severe left ventricular failure became apparent. Dysrhythmias commonly occur as a result of decreased oxygenation and severe damage to greater than 40% of the myocardium.

In preparation for cataract surgery, the nurse is to administer cyclopentolate eye drops at 0900 for surgery that is scheduled for 0915. What initial action should the nurse take in relation to the characteristics of the medication action? 1. Provide lubrication to the operative eye prior to giving the eye drops. 2. Call the surgeon, as this medication will further constrict the operative pupil. 3. Consult the surgeon, as there is not sufficient time for the dilative effects to occur. 4. Give the medication as prescribed; the surgeon needs optimal constriction of the pupil.

3 Cyclopentolate is a rapidly acting mydriatic and cycloplegic medication. Cyclopentolate is effective in 25 to 75 minutes, and accommodation returns in 6 to 24 hours. Cyclopentolate is used for preoperative mydriasis, not pupil constriction. The nurse should consult with the surgeon about the time of administration of the eye drops since 15 minutes is not adequate time for dilation to occur.

The nurse is administering an intravenous dose of methocarbamol to a client with multiple sclerosis. For which adverse effect should the nurse monitor? 1. Tachycardia 2. Rapid pulse 3. Bradycardia 4. Hypertension

3 Intravenous administration of methocarbamol can cause hypotension and bradycardia. The nurse needs to monitor for these adverse effects. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not effects with administration of this medication.

The nurse is watching the cardiac monitor and notices that the rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves, the QRS complexes are wide, and the ventricular rate is regular but more than 140 beats/minute. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing which dysrhythmia? 1. Sinus tachycardia 2. Ventricular fibrillation 3. Ventricular tachycardia 4. Premature ventricular contractions

3 Ventricular tachycardia is characterized by the absence of P waves, wide QRS complexes (longer than 0.12 seconds), and typically a rate between 140 and 180 impulses/minute. The rhythm is regular.

The nurse is collecting data from a client. Which symptom described by the client is characteristic of an early symptom of benign prostatic hyperplasia? 1. Nocturia 2. Scrotal edema 3. Occasional constipation 4. Decreased force in the stream of urine

4 Decreased force in the stream of urine is an early symptom of benign prostatic hyperplasia. The stream later becomes weak and dribbling. The client then may develop hematuria, frequency, urgency, urge incontinence, and nocturia. If untreated, complete obstruction and urinary retention can occur. Constipation or scrotal edema is not associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia.

Carbidopa-levodopa is prescribed for a client with Parkinson's disease. The nurse monitors the client for side and adverse effects of the medication. Which finding indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect? 1. Pruritus 2. Tachycardia 3. Hypertension 4. Impaired voluntary movements

4 Dyskinesia and impaired voluntary movements may occur with high carbidopa-levodopa dosages. Nausea, anorexia, dizziness, orthostatic hypotension, bradycardia, and akinesia are frequent side effects of the medication.

The nurse is assigned to care for a client with cytomegalovirus retinitis and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome who is receiving foscarnet, an antiviral medication. The nurse should monitor the results of which laboratory study while the client is taking this medication? 1. CD4+ T cell count 2. Lymphocyte count 3. Serum albumin level 4. Serum creatinine level

4 Foscarnet is toxic to the kidneys. The serum creatinine level is monitored before therapy, two or three times per week during induction therapy, and at least weekly during maintenance therapy. Foscarnet also may cause decreased levels of calcium, magnesium, phosphorus, and potassium. Thus, these levels also are measured with the same frequency

Aclient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia, and a transurethral resection of the prostate is performed. Four hours after surgery, the nurse takes the client's vital signs and empties the urinary drainage bag. Which assessment finding indicates the need to notify the health care provider (HCP)? 1. Red, bloody urine 2. Pain rated as 2 on a 0-10 pain scale 3. Urinary output of 200 mL higher than intake 4. Blood pressure, 100/50 mm Hg; pulse, 130 beats/minute

4 Frank bleeding (arterial or venous) may occur during the first day after surgery. Some hematuria is usual for several days after surgery. A urinary output of 200 mL more than intake is adequate. Aclient pain rating of 2 on a 0-10 scale indicates adequate pain control. A rapid pulse with a low blood pressure is a potential sign of excessive blood loss. The HCP should be notified.

The client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome and Pneumocystis jiroveci infection has been receiving pentamidine. The client develops a temperature of 101 °F (38.3 °C). The nurse continues to assess the client, knowing that this sign most likely indicates which condition? 1. That the dose of the medication is too low 2. That the client is experiencing toxic effects of the medication 3. That the client has developed inadequacy of thermoregulation 4. That the client has developed another infection caused by leukopenic effects of the medication

4 Frequent adverse effects of this medication include leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and anemia. The client should be monitored routinely for signs and symptoms of infection. Options 1, 2, and 3 are inaccurate interpretations.

The nurse has instructed the family of a client with stroke (brain attack) who has homonymous hemianopsia about measures to help the client overcome the deficit. Which statement suggests that the family understands the measures to use when caring for the client? 1. "We need to discourage him from wearing eyeglasses." 2. "We need to place objects in his impaired field of vision." 3. "We need to approach him from the impaired field of vision." 4. "We need to remind him to turn his head to scan the lost visual field."

4 Homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field. The client with homonymous hemianopsia should have objects placed in the intact field of vision, and the nurse also should approach the client from the intact side. The nurse instructs the client to scan the environment to overcome the visual deficit and does client teaching from within the intact field of vision. The nurse encourages the use of personal eyeglasses, if they are available.

A client who has a cold is seen in the emergency department with an inability to void. Because the client has a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia, the nurse determines that the client should be questioned about the use of which medication? 1. Diuretics 2. Antibiotics 3. Antilipemics 4. Decongestants

4 In the client with benign prostatic hyperplasia, episodes of urinary retention can be triggered by certain medications, such as decongestants, anticholinergics, and antidepressants. These medications lessen the voluntary ability to contract the bladder. The client should be questioned about the use of these medications if he has urinary retention. Diuretics increase urine output. Antibiotics and antlipemics do not affect ability to urinate.

The nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department who has been diagnosed with Bell's palsy. The client has been taking acetaminophen, and acetaminophen overdose is suspected. Which antidote should the nurse prepare for administration if prescribed? 1. Pentostatin 2. Auranofin 3. Fludarabine 4. Acetylcysteine

4 The antidote for acetaminophen is acetylcysteine. The normal therapeutic serum level of acetaminophen is 10 to 20 mcg/mL (40 to 79 mcmol/L). A toxic level is higher than 50 mcg/mL(200 mcmol/L), and levels higher than 100 mcg/mL (400 mcmol/L) could indicate hepatotoxicity. Auranofin is a gold preparation that may be used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Pentostatin and fludarabine are antineoplastic agents.

A client complains of fever, perineal pain, and urinary urgency, frequency, and dysuria. To assess whether the client's problem is related to bacterial prostatitis, the nurse reviews the results of the prostate examination for which characteristic of this disorder? 1. Soft and swollen prostate gland 2. Swollen, and boggy prostate gland 3. Tender and edematous prostate gland 4. Tender, indurated prostate gland that is warm to the touch

4 The client with bacterial prostatitis has a swollen and tender prostate gland that is also warm to the touch, firm, and indurated. Systemic symptoms include fever with chills, perineal and low back pain, and signs of urinary tract infection, which often accompany the disorder.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just had implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. The nurse should assess which item based on priority? 1. Anxiety level of the client and family 2. Presence of a MedicAlert card for the client to carry 3. Knowledge of restrictions on postdischarge physical activity 4. Activation status of the device, heart rate cutoff, and number ofshocks it is programmed to deliver

4 The nurse who is caring for the client after insertion of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator needs to assess device settings, similar to after insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Specifically, the nurse needs to know whether the device is activated, the heart rate cutoff above which it will fire, and the number of shocks it is programmed to deliver. The remaining options are also nursing interventions but are not the priority.

The nurse is assisting to defibrillate a client in ventricular fibrillation. After placing the pad on the client's chest and before discharge, which intervention is a priority? 1. Ensure that the client has been intubated. 2. Set the defibrillator to the "synchronize" mode. 3. Administer an amiodarone bolus intravenously. 4. Confirm that the rhythm is actually ventricular fibrillation.

4 Until the defibrillator is attached and charged, the client is resuscitated by using cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Once the defibrillator has been attached, the electrocardiogram is checked to verify that the rhythm is ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Leads also are checked for any loose connections. A nitroglycerin patch, if present, is removed. The client does not have to be intubated to be defibrillated. The machine is not set to the synchronous mode because there is no underlying rhythm with which to synchronize. Amiodarone may be given subsequently but is not required before defibrillation.

The nurse witnessed a vehicle hit a pedestrian. The victim is dazed and tries to get up. Aleg appears fractured. Which intervention should the nurse take? 1. Try to reduce the fracture manually. 2. Assist the victim to get up and walk to the sidewalk. 3. Leave the victim for a few moments to call an ambulance. 4. Stay with the victim and encourage him or her to remain still.

4 With a suspected fracture, the victim is not moved unless it is dangerous to remain in that spot. The nurse should remain with the victim and have someone else call for emergency help. A fracture is not reduced at the scene. Before the victim is moved, the site of fracture is immobilized to prevent further injury.

A client with severe back pain and hematuria is found to have hydronephrosis due to urolithiasis. The nurse anticipates which treatment will be done to relieve the obstruction? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.) 1. Peritoneal dialysis 2. Analysis of the urinary stone 3. Intravenous opioid analgesics 4. Insertion of a nephrostomy tube 5. Placement of a ureteral stent with ureteroscopy

4, 5 Urolithiasis is the condition that occurs when a stone forms in the urinary system. Hydronephrosis develops when the stone has blocked the ureter and urine backs up and dilates and damages the kidney. Priority treatment is to allow the urine to drain and relieve the obstruction in the ureter. This is accomplished by placement of a percutaneous nephrostomy tube to drain urine from the kidney and placement of a ureteral stent to keep the ureter open. Peritoneal dialysis is not needed since the kidney is functioning. Stone analysis will be done later when the stone has been retrieved and analyzed. Opioid analgesics are necessary for pain relief but do not treat the obstruction.

The nurse is planning to administer hydrochlorothiazide to a client. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effects related to the administration of this medication? 1. Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia 2. Increased risk of osteoporosis 3. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy 4. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy

3 Thiazide diuretics such as hydrochlorothiazide are sulfa-based medications, and a client with a sulfa allergy is at risk for an allergic reaction. Also, clients are at risk for hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia.

A client is being discharged to home after application of a plaster leg cast. Which statement indicates that the client understands proper care of the cast? 1. "I need to avoid getting the cast wet." 2. "I need to cover the casted leg with warm blankets." 3. "I need to use my fingertips to lift and move my leg." 4. "I need to use something like a padded coat hanger end to scratch under the cast if it itches."

1 A plaster cast must remain dry to keep its strength. The cast should be handled with the palms of the hands, not the fingertips, until fully dry; using the fingertips results in indentations in the cast and skin pressure under the cast. Air should circulate freely around the cast to help it dry; the cast also gives off heat as it dries. The client should never scratch under the cast because of the risk of altered skin integrity; the client may use a hair dryer on the cool setting to relieve an itch.

The nurse is caring for a client being treated for fat embolus after multiple fractures. Which data would the nurse evaluate as the most favorable indication of resolution of the fat embolus? 1. Clear mentation 2. Minimal dyspnea 3. Oxygen saturation of 85% 4. Arterial oxygen level of 78 mm Hg (10.3 kPa)

1 An altered mental state is an early indication of fat emboli; therefore, clear mentation is a good indicator that a fat embolus is resolving. Eupnea, not minimal dyspnea, is a normal sign. Arterial oxygen levels should be 80-100 mm Hg (10.6-13.33 kPa). Oxygen saturation should be higher than 95%.

The nurse is assessing the neurovascular status of a client who returned to the surgical nursing unit 4 hours ago after undergoing aortoiliac bypass graft. The affected leg is warm, and the nurse notes redness and edema. The pedal pulse is palpable and unchanged from admission. How should the nurse correctly interpret the client's neurovascular status? 1. The neurovascular status is normal because of increased blood flow through the leg. 2. The neurovascular status is moderately impaired, and the surgeon should be called. 3. The neurovascular status is slightly deteriorating and should be monitored for another hour. 4. The neurovascular status is adequate from an arterial approach, but venous complications are arising.

1 An expected outcome of aortoiliac bypass graft surgery is warmth, redness, and edema in the surgical extremity because of increased blood flow. The remaining options are incorrect interpretations.

The nurse is watching the cardiac monitor, and a client's rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves; instead, there are fibrillatory waves before each QRS complex. How should the nurse correctly interpret the client's heart rhythm? 1. Atrial fibrillation 2. Sinus tachycardia 3. Ventricular fibrillation 4. Ventricular tachycardia

1 Atrial fibrillation is characterized by a loss of P waves and fibrillatory waves before each QRS complex. The atria quiver, which can lead to thrombus formation.

Cyclobenzaprine is prescribed for a client for muscle spasms and the nurse is reviewing the client's record. Which disorder, if noted in the record, would indicate a need to contact the health care provider about the administration of this medication? 1. Glaucoma 2. Emphysema 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Diabetes mellitus

1 Because cyclobenzaprine has anticholinergic effects, it should be used with caution in clients with a history of urinary retention, glaucoma, and increased intraocular pressure. Cyclobenzaprine should be used only for a short time (2 to 3 weeks). The conditions in options 2, 3, and 4 are not a concern with this medication.

The nurse prepares a client for ear irrigation as prescribed by the health care provider. Which action should the nurse take when performing the procedure? 1. Warm the irrigating solution to 98.6 °F(37.0 °C). 2. Position the client with the affected side up following the irrigation. 3. Direct a slow, steady stream of irrigation solution toward the eardrum. 4. Assist the client to turn his or her head so that the ear to be irrigated is facing upward.

1 Before ear irrigation, the nurse should inspect the tympanic membrane to ensure that it is intact. The irrigating solution should be warmed to 98.6 °F (37.0 °C) because a solution temperature that is not close to the client's body temperature will cause ear injury, nausea, and vertigo. The affected side should be down following the irrigation to assist in drainage of the fluid. When irrigating, a direct and slow steady stream of irrigation solution is directed toward the wall of the canal, not toward the eardrum. The client is positioned sitting, facing forward with the head in a natural position; if the ear is faced upward, the nurse would not be able to visualize the canal.

A client is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain that is consistent with myocardial infarction based on elevated troponin levels. Heart sounds are normal and vital signs are noted on the client's chart. The nurse should alert the health care provider because these changes are most consistent with which complication? Refer to chart. 1. Cardiogenic shock 2. Cardiac tamponade 3. Pulmonary embolism 4. Dissecting thoracic aortic aneurysm

1 Cardiogenic shock occurs with severe damage (more than 40%) to the left ventricle. Classic signs include hypotension; a rapid pulse that becomes weaker; decreased urine output; and cool, clammy skin. Respiratory rate increases as the body develops metabolic acidosis from shock. Cardiac tamponade is accompanied by distant, muffled heart sounds and prominent neck vessels. Pulmonary embolism presents suddenly with severe dyspnea accompanying the chest pain. Dissecting aortic aneurysms usually are accompanied by back pain.

A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin by the intravenous (IV) route. The nurse appropriately administers the medication by performing which action? 1. Infusing slowly over 60 minutes 2. Infusing in a light-protective bag 3. Infusing only through a central line 4. Infusing rapidly as a direct IV push medication

1 Ciprofloxacin is prescribed for treatment of mild, moderate, severe, and complicated infections of the urinary tract, lower respiratory tract, and skin and skin structure. A single dose is administered slowly over 60 minutes to minimize discomfort and vein irritation. Ciprofloxacin is not light sensitive, may be infused through a peripheral IV access, and is not given by IV push method.

Allopurinol is prescribed for a client and the nurse provides medication instructions to the client. Which instruction should the nurse provide? 1. Drink 3000 mL of fluid a day. 2. Take the medication on an empty stomach. 3. The effect of the medication will occur immediately. 4. Any swelling of the lips is a normal expected response.

1 Clients taking allopurinol are encouraged to drink 3000 mLof fluid a day, unless otherwise contraindicated. A full therapeutic effect may take 1 week or longer. Allopurinol is to be given with, or immediately after, meals or milk. A client who develops a rash, irritation of the eyes, or swelling of the lips or mouth should contact the health care provider because this may indicate hypersensitivity.

The nurse is teaching a client with myasthenia gravis about the prevention of myasthenic and cholinergic crises. Which client activity suggests that teaching is most effective? 1. Taking medications as scheduled 2. Eating large, well-balanced meals 3. Doing muscle-strengthening exercises 4. Doing all chores early in the day while less fatigued

1 Clients with myasthenia gravis are taught to space out activities over the day to conserve energy and restore muscle strength. Taking medications correctly to maintain blood levels that are not too low or too high is important. Muscle strengthening exercises are not helpful and can fatigue the client. Overeating is a cause of exacerbation of symptoms, as is exposure to heat, crowds, erratic sleep habits, and emotional stress.

A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa. Which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication? 1. Hematocrit of 33% (0.33) 2. Platelet count of 400,000 mm3 (400 Â 109 /L) 3. White blood cell count of 6000 mm3 (6.0 Â 109 /L) \ 4. Blood urea nitrogen level of 15 mg/dL (5.25 mmol/L)

1 Epoetin alfa is synthetic erythropoietin, which the kidneys produce to stimulate red blood cell production in the bone marrow. It is used to treat anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. The normal hematocrit level is Male: 42% to 52% (0.42 to 0.52); Female: 37% to 47% (0.37 to 0.47). Therapeutic effect is seen when the hematocrit reaches between 30% and 33% (0.30 and 0.33). The normal platelet count is 150,000 to 400,000 mm3 (150 to 400 Â 109 /L). The normal blood urea nitrogen level is 10 to 20 mg/dL (3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L). The normal white blood cell count is 5000 to 10,000 mm3 (5 to 10 Â 109 /L). Platelet production, white blood cell production, and blood urea nitrogen do not respond to erythropoietin.

A woman was working in her garden. She accidentally sprayed insecticide into her right eye. She calls the emergency department, frantic and screaming for help. The nurse should instruct the woman to take which immediate action? 1. Irrigate the eyes with water. 2. Come to the emergency department. 3. Call the health care provider (HCP). 4. Irrigate the eyes with diluted hydrogen peroxide.

1 In this type of accident, the client is instructed to irrigate the eyes immediately with running water for at least 20 minutes, or until the emergency medical services personnel arrive. In the emergency department, the cleansing agent of choice is usually normal saline. Calling the HCP and going to the emergency department delays necessary intervention. Hydrogen peroxide is never placed in the eyes.

The community health nurse is conducting a research study and is identifying clients in the community at risk for latex allergy. Which client population is most at risk for developing this type of allergy? 1. Hairdressers 2. The homeless 3. Children in day care centers 4. Individuals living in a group home

1 Individuals most at risk for developing a latex allergy include health care workers; individuals who work in the rubber industry; or those who have had multiple surgeries, have spina bifida, wear gloves frequently (such as food handlers, hairdressers, and auto mechanics), or are allergic to kiwis, bananas, pineapples, tropical fruits, grapes, avocados, potatoes, hazelnuts, or water chestnuts.

The client arrives at the emergency department complaining of back spasms. The client states, "I have been taking 2 to 3 aspirin every 4 hours for the last week, and it hasn't helped my back." Since acetylsalicylic acid intoxication is suspected, the nurse should assess the client for which manifestation? 1. Tinnitus 2. Diarrhea 3. Constipation 4. Photosensitivity

1 Mild intoxication with acetylsalicylic acid is called salicylism and is experienced commonly when the daily dosage is higher than 4 g. Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is the most frequent effect noted with intoxication. Hyperventilation may occur because salicylate stimulates the respiratory center. Fever may result because salicylate interferes with the metabolic pathways coupling oxygen consumption and heat production. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not associated specifically with toxicity.

The nurse receives a call from a client concerned about eliminating brown-colored urine after taking nitrofurantoin for a urinary tract infection. The nurse should make which appropriate response? 1. "Continue taking the medication; the brown urine occurs and is not harmful." 2. "Take magnesium hydroxide with your medication to lighten the urine color." 3. "Discontinue taking the medication and make an appointment for a urine culture." 4. "Decrease your medication to half the dose, because your urine is too concentrated."

1 Nitrofurantoin imparts a harmless brown color to the urine and the medication should not be discontinued until the prescribed dose is completed. Magnesium hydroxide will not affect urine color. In addition, antacids should be avoided because they interfere with medication effectiveness.

A client's electrocardiogram strip shows atrial and ventricular rates of110 beats/minute. The PRinterval is 0.14 seconds, the QRScomplexmeasures 0.08 seconds, and the PP and RR intervals are regular. How should the nurse correctly interpret this rhythm? 1. Sinus tachycardia 2. Sinus bradycardia 3. Sinus dysrhythmia 4. Normal sinus rhythm

1 Sinus tachycardia has the characteristics of normal sinus rhythm, including a regular PP interval and normalwidth PR and QRS intervals; however, the rate is the differentiating factor. In sinus tachycardia, the atrial and ventricular rates are greater than 100 beats/minute.

The nurse is reviewing a client's record and notes that the health care provider has documented that the client has chronic renal disease. On review of the laboratory results, the nurse most likely would expect to note which finding? 1. Elevated creatinine level 2. Decreased hemoglobin level 3. Decreased red blood cell count 4. Increased number of white blood cells in the urine

1 The creatinine level is the most specific laboratory test to determine renal function. The creatinine level increases when at least 50% of renal function is lost. A decreased hemoglobin level and red blood cell count are associated with anemia or blood loss and not specifically with decreased renal function. Increased white blood cells in the urine are noted with urinary tract infection.

The nurse is assessing the patency of a client's left arm arteriovenous fistula prior to initiating hemodialysis. Which finding indicates that the fistula is patent? 1. Palpation of a thrill over the fistula 2. Presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist 3. Visualization of enlarged blood vessels at the fistula site 4. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers on the left hand

1 The nurse assesses the patency of the fistula by palpating for the presence of a thrill or auscultating for a bruit. The presence of a thrill and bruit indicate patency of the fistula. Enlarged visible blood vessels at the fistula site are a normal observation but are not indicative of fistula patency. Although the presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist and capillary refill less than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers on the left hand indicate adequate circulation to the hand, they do not assess fistula patency.

The nurse is caring for a client who has had spinal fusion, with insertion of hardware. The nurse would be most concerned with which assessment finding? 1. Temperature of 101.6°F (38.7°C) orally 2. Complaints of discomfort during repositioning 3. Old bloody drainage outlined on the surgical dressing 4. Discomfort during coughing and deepbreathing exercises

1 The nursing assessment conducted after spinal surgery is similar to that done after other surgical procedures. For this specific type of surgery, the nurse assesses the neurovascular status of the lower extremities, watches for signs and symptoms of infection, and inspects the surgical site for evidence of cerebrospinal fluid leakage (drainage is clear and tests positive for glucose). A mild temperature is expected after insertion of hardware, but a temperature of 101.6 °F (38.7 °C) should be reported.

A client is admitted to the emergency department following a fall from a horse and the health care provider (HCP) prescribes insertion of a urinary catheter. While preparing for the procedure, the nurse notes blood at the urinary meatus. The nurse should take which action? 1. Notify the HCP before performing the catheterization. 2. Use a small-sized catheter and an anesthetic gel as a lubricant. 3. Administer parenteral pain medication before inserting the catheter. 4. Clean the meatus with soap and water before opening the catheterization kit.

1 The presence of blood at the urinary meatus may indicate urethral trauma or disruption. The nurse notifies the HCP, knowing that the client should not be catheterized until the cause of the bleeding is determined by diagnostic testing. The other options include performing the catheterization procedure and therefore are incorrect.

The nurse provides home care instructions to a client with systemic lupus erythematosus and tells the client about methods to manage fatigue. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "I should take hot baths because they are relaxing." 2. "I should sit whenever possible to conserve my energy." 3. "I should avoid long periods of rest because it causes joint stiffness." 4. "I should do some exercises, such as walking, when I am not fatigued."

1 To help reduce fatigue in the client with systemic lupus erythematosus, the nurse should instruct the client to sit whenever possible, avoid hot baths (because they exacerbate fatigue), schedule moderate low-impact exercises when not fatigued, and maintain a balanced diet. The client is instructed to avoid long periods of rest because it promotes joint stiffness.

The client sustains a contusion of the eyeball following a traumatic injury with a blunt object. Which intervention should be initiated immediately? 1. Apply ice to the affected eye. 2. Irrigate the eye with cool water. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Accompany the client to the emergency department.

1 Treatment for a contusion begins at the time of injury. Ice is applied immediately. The client then should be seen by an HCP and receive a thorough eye examination to rule out the presence of other eye injuries.

A client has frequent bursts of ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor. What should the nurse be most concerned about with this dysrhythmia? 1. It can develop into ventricular fibrillation at any time. 2. It is almost impossible to convert to a normal rhythm. 3. It is uncomfortable for the client, giving a sense of impending doom. 4. It produces a high cardiac output that quickly leads to cerebral and myocardial ischemia.

1 Ventricular tachycardia is a life-threatening dysrhythmia that results from an irritable ectopic focus that takes over as the pacemaker for the heart. The low cardiac output that results can lead quickly to cerebral and myocardial ischemia. Clients frequently experience a feeling of impending doom. Ventricular tachycardia is treated with antidysrhythmic medications, cardioversion (if the client is awake), or defibrillation (loss of consciousness). Ventricular tachycardia can deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation at any time.

The nurse is preparing to test the visual acuity of a client, using a Snellen chart. Which identifies the accurate procedure for this visual acuity test? 1. The right eye is tested, followed by the left eye, and then both eyes are tested. 2. Both eyes are assessed together, followed by an assessment of the right eye and then the left eye. 3. The client is asked to stand at a distance of 40 feet (12 meters) from the chart and to read the largest line on the chart. 4. The client is asked to stand at a distance of 40 feet (12 meters) from the chart and to read the line that can be read 200 feet (60 meters) away by an individual with unimpaired vision.

1 Visual acuity is assessed in 1 eye at a time, and then in both eyes together, with the client comfortably standing or sitting. The right eye is tested with the left eye covered; then the left eye is tested with the right eye covered. Both eyes are then tested together. Visual acuity is measured with or without corrective lenses and the client stands at a distance of 20 feet (6 meters) from the chart.

A client is prescribed an eye drop and an eye ointment for the right eye. How should the nurse best administer the medications? 1. Administer the eye drop first, followed by the eye ointment. 2. Administer the eye ointment first, followed by the eye drop. 3. Administer the eye drop, wait 15 minutes, and administer the eye ointment. 4. Administer the eye ointment, wait 15 minutes, and administer the eye drop.

1 When an eye drop and an eye ointment are scheduled to be administered at the same time, the eye drop is administered first. The instillation of two medications is separated by 3 to 5 minutes.

The nurse is conducting allergy skin testing on a client. Which post-procedure interventions are most appropriate? Select all that apply. 1. Record site, date, and time of the test. 2. Give the client a list of potential allergens if identified. 3. Estimate the size of the wheal and document the finding. 4. Tell the client to return to have the site inspected only if there is a reaction. 5. Have the client wait in the waiting room for at least 1 to 2 hours after injection.

1, 2 Skin testing involves administration of an allergen to the surface of the skin or into the dermis. Site, date, and time of the test must be recorded, and the client must return at a specific date and time for a follow-up site evaluation, even if no reaction is suspected; a list of potential allergens is identified. For the follow-up evaluation, the size of the site has to be measured and not estimated. After injection, clients only need to be monitored for about 30 minutes to assess for any adverse effects.

Which cast care instructions should the nurse provide to a client who just had a plaster cast applied to the right forearm? Select all that apply. 1. Keep the cast clean and dry. 2. Allow the cast 24 to 72 hours to dry. 3. Keep the cast and extremity elevated. 4. Expect tingling and numbness in the extremity. 5. Use a hair dryer set on a warm to hot setting to dry the cast. 6. Use a soft, padded object that will fit under the cast to scratch the skin under the cast.

1, 2, 3 A plaster cast takes 24 to 72 hours to dry (synthetic casts dry in 20 minutes). The cast and extremity should be elevated to reduce edema if prescribed. A wet cast is handled with the palms of the hand until it is dry, and the extremity is turned (unless contraindicated) so that all sides of the wet cast will dry. Acool setting on the hair dryer can be used to dry a plaster cast (heat cannot be used on a plaster cast because the cast heats up and burns the skin). The cast needs to be kept clean and dry, and the client is instructed not to stick anything under the cast because of the risk of breaking skin integrity. The client is instructed to monitor the extremity for circulatory impairment, such as pain, swelling, discoloration, tingling, numbness, coolness, or diminished pulse. The health care provider is notified immediately if circulatory impairment occurs.

A client develops an anaphylactic reaction after receiving morphine. The nurse should plan to institute which actions? Select all that apply. 1. Administer oxygen. 2. Quickly assess the client's respiratory status. 3. Document the event, interventions, and client's response. 4. Leave the client briefly to contact a health care provider (HCP). 5. Keep the client supine regardless of the blood pressure readings. 6. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of D5W and administer a 500-mL bolus.

1, 2, 3 An anaphylactic reaction requires immediate action, starting with quickly assessing the client's respiratory status. Although the HCP and the Rapid Response Team must be notified immediately, the nurse must stay with the client. Oxygen is administered and an IV of normal saline is started and infused per HCP prescription. Documentation of the event, actions taken, and client outcomes needs to be done. The head of the bed should be elevated if the client's blood pressure is normal.

In monitoring a client's response to disease modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), which assessment findings would the nurse consider acceptable responses? Select all that apply. 1. Control of symptoms during periods of emotional stress 2. Normal white blood cell, platelet, and neutrophil counts 3. Radiological findings that show no progression of joint degeneration 4. An increased range of motion in the affected joints 3 months into therapy 5. Inflammation and irritation at the injection site 3 days after the injection is given 6. A low-grade temperature on rising in the morning that remains throughout the day

1, 2, 3, 4 Because emotional stress frequently exacerbates the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis, the absence of symptoms is a positive finding. DMARDs are given to slow the progression of joint degeneration. In addition, an improvement in the range of motion after 3 months of therapy with normal blood work is a positive finding. Temperature elevation and inflammation and irritation at the medication injection site could indicate signs of infection.

The nurse in a medical unit is caring for a client with heart failure. The client suddenly develops extreme dyspnea, tachycardia, and lung crackles and the nurse suspects pulmonary edema. The nurse immediately asks another nurse to contact the health care provider and prepares to implement which priority interventions? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.) 1. Administering oxygen 2. Inserting a Foley catheter 3. Administering furosemide 4. Administering morphine sulfate intravenously 5. Transporting the client to the coronary care unit 6. Placing the client in a low Fowler's side-lying position

1, 2, 3, 4 Pulmonary edema is a life-threatening event that can result from severe heart failure. In pulmonary edema, the left ventricle fails to eject sufficient blood, and pressure increases in the lungs because of the accumulated blood. Oxygen is always prescribed, and the client is placed in a high Fowler's position to ease the work of breathing. Furosemide, a rapid-acting diuretic, will eliminate accumulated fluid. A Foley catheter is inserted to measure output accurately. Intravenously administered morphine sulfate reduces venous return (preload), decreases anxiety, and also reduces the work of breathing. Transporting the client to the coronary care unit is not a priority intervention. In fact, this may not be necessary at all if the client's response to treatment is successful.

The nurse is preparing to administer eye drops. Which interventions should the nurse take to administer the drops? Select all that apply. 1. Wash hands. 2. Put gloves on. 3. Place the drop in the conjunctival sac. 4. Pull the lower lid down against the cheekbone. 5. Instruct the client to squeeze the eyes shut after instilling the eye drop. 6. Instruct the client to tilt the head forward, open the eyes, and look down.

1, 2, 3, 4 To administer eye medications, the nurse should wash hands and put gloves on. The client is instructed to tilt the head backward, open the eyes, and look up. The nurse pulls the lower lid down against the cheekbone and holds the bottle like a pencil with the tip downward. Holding the bottle, the nurse gently rests the wrist of the hand on the client's cheek and squeezes the bottle gently to allow the drop to fall into the conjunctival sac. The client is instructed to close the eyes gently and not to squeeze the eyes shut to prevent the loss of medication.

The nurse is assigned to care for a client with complete right-sided hemiparesis from a stroke (brain attack). Which characteristics are associated with this condition? Select all that apply. 1. The client is aphasic. 2. The client has weakness on the right side of the body. 3. The client has complete bilateral paralysis of the arms and legs. 4. The client has weakness on the right side of the face and tongue. 5. The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but is able to walk independently. 6. The client has lost the ability to ambulate independently but is able to feed and bathe himself or herself without assistance.

1, 2, 4 Hemiparesis is a weakness of one side of the body that may occur after a stroke. It involves weakness of the face and tongue, arm, and leg on one side. These clients are also aphasic: unable to discriminate words and letters. They are generally very cautious and get anxious when attempting a new task. Complete bilateral paralysis does not occur in hemiparesis. The client with right-sided hemiparesis has weakness of the right arm and leg and needs assistance with feeding, bathing, and ambulating.

The nurse has given the client instructions about crutch safety. Which statement indicates that the client understands the instructions? Select all that apply. 1. "I should not use someone else's crutches." 2. "I need to remove any scatter rugs at home." 3. "I can use crutch tips even when they are wet." 4. "I need to have spare crutches and tips available." 5. "When I'm using the crutches, my arms need to be completely straight."

1, 2, 4 The client should use only crutches measured for the client. When assessing for home safety, the nurse ensures that the client knows to remove any scatter rugs and does not walk on highly waxed floors. The tips should be inspected for wear, and spare crutches and tips should be available if needed. Crutch tips should remain dry. If crutch tips get wet, the client should dry them with a cloth or paper towel. When walking with crutches, both elbows need to be flexed not more than 30 degrees when the palms are on the handle.

A client with a spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse should include which measures in the plan of care to minimize the risk of occurrence? Select all that apply. 1. Keeping the linens wrinkle-free under the client 2. Preventing unnecessary pressure on the lower limbs 3. Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours 4. Turning and repositioning the client at least every 2 hours 5. Ensuring that the client has a bowel movement at least once a week

1, 2, 4 The most frequent cause of autonomic dysreflexia is a distended bladder. Straight catheterization should be done every 4 to 6 hours (catheterization every 12 hours is too infrequent), and urinary catheters should be checked frequently to prevent kinks in the tubing. Constipation and fecal impaction are other causes, so maintaining bowel regularity is important. Ensuring a bowel movement once a week is much too infrequent. Other causes include stimulation of the skin from tactile, thermal, or painful stimuli. The nurse administers care to minimize risk in these areas.

A client being treated for heart failure is administered intravenous bumetanide. Which outcome indicates that the medication has achieved the expected effect? 1. Cough becomes productive of frothy pink sputum. 2. Urine output increases from 10 mL/hour to greater than 50 mL hourly. 3. The serum potassium level changes from 3.8 to 3.1 mEq/L (3.8 to 3.1 mmol/L). 4. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) factor increases from 200 to 262 pg/mL (200 to 262 ng/L).

2 Bumetanide is a diuretic and expected outcomes include increased urine output, decreased crackles, and decreased weight. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

A client with acute kidney injury has a serum potassium level of 7.0 mEq/L (7.0 mmol/L). The nurse should plan which actions as a priority? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.) 1. Place the client on a cardiac monitor. 2. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 3. Put the client on NPO (nothing by mouth) status except for ice chips. 4. Review the client's medications to determine if any contain or retain potassium. 5. Allow an extra 500 mL of intravenous fluid intake to dilute the electrolyte concentration.

1, 2, 4 The normal potassium level is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L (3.5- 5.0 mmol/L). A potassium level of 7.0 is elevated. The client with hyperkalemia is at risk of developing cardiac dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Because of this, the client should be placed on a cardiac monitor. The nurse should notify the HCP and also review medications to determine if any contain potassium or are potassium retaining. The client does not need to be put on NPO status. Fluid intake is not increased because it contributes to fluid overload and would not affect the serum potassium level significantly.

The nurse monitoring a client receiving peritoneal dialysis notes that the client's outflow is less than the inflow. Which actions should the nurse take? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.) 1. Check the level of the drainage bag. 2. Reposition the client to his or her side. 3. Contact the health care provider (HCP). 4. Place the client in good body alignment. 5. Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks. 6. Increase the flow rate of the peritoneal dialysis solution.

1, 2, 4, 5 If outflow drainage is inadequate, the nurse attempts to stimulate outflow by changing the client's position. Turning the client to the side or making sure that the client is in good body alignment may assist with outflow drainage. The drainage bag needs to be lower than the client's abdomen to enhance gravity drainage. The connecting tubing and peritoneal dialysis system are also checked for kinks or twisting and the clamps on the system are checked to ensure that they are open. There is no reason to contact the HCP. Increasing the flow rate should not be done and also is not associated with the amount of outflow solution.

The nurse is instituting seizure precautions for a client who is being admitted from the emergency department. Which measures should the nurse include in planning for the client's safety? Select all that apply. 1. Padding the side rails of the bed 2. Placing an airway at the bedside 3. Placing the bed in the high position 4. Putting a padded tongue blade at the head of the bed 5. Placing oxygen and suction equipment at the bedside 6. Flushing the intravenous catheter to ensure that the site is patent

1, 2, 5, 6 Seizure precautions may vary from agency to agency, but they generally have some common features. Usually, an airway, oxygen, and suctioning equipment are kept available at the bedside.The side railsofthe bed are padded, and the bed iskept in the lowest position. The client has an intravenous access in place to have a readily accessible route if anti-seizure medications must be administered, and as part of the routine assessment the nurse should be checking patency of the catheter. The use of padded tongue blades ishighlycontroversial, and theyshould not be kept at the bedside. Forcing a tongue blade into the mouth during a seizure more likely will harm the client who bites down during seizure activity. Risks include blocking the airway from improper placement, chipping the client's teeth, and subsequent risk of aspirating tooth fragments. If the client has an aura before the seizure, it may give the nurse enough time to place an oral airway before seizure activity begins

A client being hemodialyzed suddenly becomes short of breath and complains of chest pain. The client is tachycardic, pale, and anxious and the nurse suspects air embolism. What are the priority nursing actions? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.) 1. Administer oxygen to the client. 2. Continue dialysis at a slower rate after checking the lines for air. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP) and Rapid Response Team. 4. Stop dialysis, and turn the client on the left side with head lower than feet. 5. Bolus the client with 500 mL of normal saline to break up the air embolus.

1, 3, 4 If the client experiences air embolus during hemodialysis, the nurse should terminate dialysis immediately, position the client so the air embolus is in the right side of the heart, notify the HCP and Rapid Response Team, and administer oxygen as needed. Slowing the dialysis treatment or giving an intravenous bolus will not correct the air embolism or prevent complications.

The nurse is caring for a client who begins to experience seizure activity while in bed. Which actions should the nurse take?Select all that apply. 1. Loosening restrictive clothing 2. Restraining the client's limbs 3. Removing the pillow and raising padded side rails 4. Positioning the client to the side, if possible, with the head flexed forward 5. Keeping the curtain around the client and the room door open so when help arrives they can quickly enter to assist

1, 3, 4 Nursing actions during a seizure include providing for privacy, loosening restrictive clothing, removing the pillow and raising padded side rails in the bed, and placing the client on 1 side with the head flexed forward, if possible, to allow the tongue to fall forward and facilitate drainage. The limbs are never restrained because the strong muscle contractions could cause the client harm. If the client is not in bed when seizure activity begins, the nurse lowers the client to the floor, if possible; protects the head from injury; and moves furniture that may injure the client.

The nurse discusses plans for future treatment options with a client with symptomatic polycystic kidney disease. Which treatment should be included in this discussion? Select all that apply. 1. Hemodialysis 2. Peritoneal dialysis 3. Kidney transplant 4. Bilateral nephrectomy 5. Intense immunosuppression therapy

1, 3, 4 Polycystic kidney disease is a genetic familial disease in which the kidneys enlarge with cysts that rupture and scar the kidney, eventually resulting in end-stage renal disease. Treatment options include hemodialysis or kidney transplant. Clients usually undergo bilateral nephrectomy to remove the large, painful, cyst-filled kidneys. Peritoneal dialysis is not a treatment option due to the infected cysts. The condition does not respond to immunosuppression.

Colchicine is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of gout. The nurse reviews the client's record, knowing that this medication would be used with caution in which disorder? 1. Myxedema 2. Kidney disease 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Diabetes mellitus

2 Colchicine is used with caution in older clients, debilitated clients, and clients with cardiac, kidney, or gastrointestinal disease. The disorders in options 1, 3, and 4 are not concerns with administration of this medication.

The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client who had a cataract extraction with intraocular implantation. Which home care measures should the nurse include in the plan? Select all that apply. 1. Avoid activities that require bending over. 2. Contact the surgeon if eye scratchiness occurs. 3. Take acetaminophen for minor eye discomfort. 4. Expect episodes of sudden severe pain in the eye. 5. Place an eye shield on the surgical eye at bedtime. 6. Contact the surgeon if a decrease in visual acuity occurs.

1, 3, 5, 6 Following eye surgery, some scratchiness and mild eye discomfort may occur in the operative eye and usually is relieved by mild analgesics. If the eye pain becomes severe, the client should notify the surgeon because this may indicate hemorrhage, infection, or increased intraocular pressure (IOP). The nurse also would instruct the client to notify the surgeon of increased purulent drainage, increased redness, or any decrease in visual acuity. The client is instructed to place an eye shield over the operative eye at bedtime to protect the eye from injury during sleep and to avoid activities that increase IOP, such as bending over.

Aclient with atrial fibrillation is receiving a continuous heparin infusion at 1000 units/hour. The nurse determines that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect based on which results? 1. Prothrombin time of 12.5 seconds 2. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 60 seconds 3. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 28 seconds 4. Activated partial thromboplastin time longer than 120 seconds

2 Common laboratory ranges for activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are 30 to 40 seconds. Because the aPTT should be 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value, the client's aPTTwould be considered therapeutic if it was 60 seconds. Prothrombin time assesses response to warfarin therapy.

A client has a neurological deficit involving the limbic system. On assessment, which finding is specific to this type of deficit? 1. Is disoriented to person, place, and time 2. Affect is flat, with periods of emotional lability 3. Cannot recall what was eaten for breakfast today 4. Demonstrates inability to add and subtract; does not know who is the president of the United States

2 : The limbic system is responsible for feelings (affect) and emotions. Calculation ability and knowledge of current events relate to function of the frontal lobe. The cerebral hemispheres, with specific regional functions, control orientation. Recall of recent events is controlled by the hippocampus.

The nurse is caring for the client with increased intracranial pressure. The nurse would note which trend in vital signs if the intracranial pressure is rising? 1. Increasing temperature, increasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure 2. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure 3. Decreasing temperature, decreasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure 4. Decreasing temperature, increasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure

2 A change in vital signs may be a late sign of increased intracranial pressure. Trends include increasing temperature and blood pressure and decreasing pulse and respirations. Respiratory irregularities also may occur.

A client arrives in the emergency department following an automobile crash. The client's forehead hit the steering wheel and a hyphema is diagnosed. The nurse should place the client in which position? 1. Flat in bed 2. A semi-Fowler's position 3. Lateral on the affected side 4. Lateral on the unaffected side

2 A hyphema is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber. Hyphema is produced when a force is sufficient to break the integrity of the blood vessels in the eye and can be caused by direct injury, such as a penetrating injury from a BB or pellet, or indirectly, such as from striking the forehead on a steering wheel during an accident. The client is treated by bed rest in a semi-Fowler's position to assist gravity in keeping the hyphema away from the optical center of the cornea.

A client with chronic kidney disease returns to the nursing unit following a hemodialysis treatment. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client's temperature is 38.5 °C (101.2 °F). Which nursing action is most appropriate? 1. Encourage fluid intake. 2. Notify the health care provider. 3. Continue to monitor vital signs. 4. Monitor the site of the shunt for infection.

2 A temperature of 101.2 °F (38.5 °C) is significantly elevated and may indicate infection. The nurse should notify the health care provider (HCP). Dialysis clients cannot have fluid intake encouraged. Vital signs and the shunt site should be monitored, but the HCP should be notified first.

The nurse is instructing a client with diabetes mellitus about peritoneal dialysis. The nurse tells the client that it is important to maintain the prescribed dwell time for the dialysis because of the risk of which complication? 1. Peritonitis 2. Hyperglycemia 3. Hyperphosphatemia 4. Disequilibrium syndrome

2 An extended dwell time increases the risk of hyperglycemia in the client with diabetes mellitus as a result of absorption of glucose from the dialysate and electrolyte changes. Diabetic clients may require extra insulin when receiving peritoneal dialysis. Peritonitis is a risk associated with breaks in aseptic technique. Hyperphosphatemia is an electrolyte imbalance that occurs with renal dysfunction. Disequilibrium syndrome is a complication associated with hemodialysis.

The nurse is monitoring a client who is taking propranolol. Which assessment finding indicates a potential adverse complication associated with this medication? 1. The development of complaints of insomnia 2. The development of audible expiratory wheezes 3. A baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mm Hg after 2 doses of the medication 4. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/minute followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats/ minute after 2 doses of the medication

2 Audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm. Beta blockers may induce this reaction, particularly in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma. Normal decreases in blood pressure and heart rate are expected. Insomnia is a frequent mild side effect and should be monitored.

The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a client receiving baclofen. Which instruction should be included in the teaching plan? 1. Restrict fluid intake. 2. Avoid the use of alcohol. 3. Stop the medication if diarrhea occurs. 4. Notify the health care provider (HCP) if fatigue occurs.

2 Baclofen is a skeletal muscle relaxant. The client should be cautioned against the use of alcohol and other central nervous system depressants because baclofen potentiates the depressant activity of these agents. Constipation rather than diarrhea is a side effect. Restriction of fluids is not necessary, but the client should be warned that urinary retention can occur. Fatigue is related to a central nervous system effect that is most intense during the early phase of therapy and diminishes with continued medication use. The client does not need to notify the HCP about fatigue.

Bethanechol chloride is prescribed for a client with urinary retention. Which disorder would be a contraindication to the administration of this medication? 1. Gastric atony 2. Urinary strictures 3. Neurogenic atony 4. Gastroesophageal reflux

2 Bethanechol chloride can be hazardous to clients with urinary tract obstruction or weakness of the bladder wall. The medication has the ability to contract the bladder and thereby increase pressure within the urinary tract. Elevation of pressure within the urinary tract could damage or rupture the bladder in clients with these conditions.

A client being measured for crutches asks the nurse why the crutches cannot rest up underneath the arm for extra support. The nurse responds knowing that which would most likely result from this improper crutch measurement? 1. A fall and further injury 2. Injury to the brachial plexus nerves 3. Skin breakdown in the area of the axilla 4. Impaired range of motion while the client ambulates

2 Crutches are measured so that the tops are 2 to 3 fingerwidths from the axillae. This ensures that the client's axillae are not resting on the crutch or bearing the weight of the crutch, which could result in injury to the nerves of the brachial plexus. Although the conditions in options 1, 3, and 4 can occur, they are not the most likely result from resting the axilla directly on the crutches.

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client receiving trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which instruction should be included in the list? 1. Advise that sunscreen is not needed. 2. Drink 8 to 10 glasses of water per day. 3. If the urine turns dark brown, call the health care provider (HCP) immediately. 4. Decrease the dosage when symptoms are improving to prevent an allergic response.

2 Each dose of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole should be administered with a full glass of water, and the client should maintain a high fluid intake to avoid crystalluria. The medication is more soluble in alkaline urine. The client should not be instructed to taper or discontinue the dose. Clients should be advised to use sunscreen since the skin becomes sensitive to the sun. Some forms of trimethoprimsulfamethoxazole cause urine to turn dark brown or red. This does not indicate the need to notify the HCP.

The nurse is caring for a client who had a resection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm yesterday. The client has an intravenous (IV) infusion at a rate of 150 mL/hour, unchanged for the last 10 hours. The client's urine output for the last 3 hours has been 90, 50, and 28 mL (28 mL is most recent). The client's blood urea nitrogen level is 35 mg/dL (12.6 mmol/L) and the serum creatinine level is 1.8 mg/dL (159 mcmol/L), measured this morning. Which nursing action is the priority? 1. Check the urine specific gravity. 2. Call the health care provider (HCP). 3. Put the IV line on a pump so that the infusion rate is sure to stay stable. 4. Check to see if the client had a blood sample for a serum albumin level drawn.

2 Following abdominal aortic aneurysm resection or repair, the nurse monitors the client for signs of acute kidney injury. Acute kidney injury can occur because often much blood is lost during the surgery and, depending on the aneurysm location, the renal arteries may be hypoperfused for a short period during surgery. Normal reference levels are BUN, 10 to 20 mg/dL (3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L), and creatinine: male, 0.6-1.2 mg/dL (53-106 mcmol/L) and female 0.5-1.1 mg/dL (44-97 mcmol/L). Options 1 and 4 are not associated with the data in the question. The IV should have already been on a pump. Urine output lower than 30 mL/hour is reported to the HCP.

The nurse is evaluating the condition of a client after pericardiocentesis performed to treat cardiac tamponade. Which observation would indicate that the procedure was effective? 1. Muffled heart sounds 2. A rise in blood pressure 3. Jugular venous distention 4. Client expressions of dyspnea

2 Following pericardiocentesis, the client usually expresses immediate relief. Heart sounds are no longer muffled or distant and blood pressure increases. Distended neck veins are a sign of increased venous pressure, which occurs with cardiac tamponade.

The nurse prepares to give a bath and change the bed linens of a client with cutaneous Kaposi's sarcoma lesions. The lesions are open and draining a scant amount of serous fluid. Which would the nurse incorporate into the plan during the bathing of this client? 1. Wearing gloves 2. Wearing a gown and gloves 3. Wearing a gown, gloves, and a mask 4. Wearing a gown and gloves to change the bed linens, and gloves only for the bath

2 Gowns and gloves are required if the nurse anticipates contact with soiled items such as those with wound drainage, or is caring for a client who is incontinent with diarrhea or a client who has an ileostomy or colostomy. Masks are not required unless droplet or airborne precautions are necessary. Regardless of the amount of wound drainage, a gown and gloves must be worn.

Aclient arrives in the emergency department with a penetrating eye injury from wood chips that occurred while cutting wood. The nurse assesses the eye and notes a piece of wood protruding from the eye. What is the initial nursing action? 1. Apply an eye patch. 2. Perform visual acuity tests. 3. Irrigate the eye with sterile saline. 4. Remove the piece of wood using a sterile eye clamp.

2 If the eye injury is the result of a penetrating object, the object may be noted protruding from the eye. This object must never be removed except by the ophthalmologist because it may be holding ocular structures in place. Application of an eye patch or irrigation of the eye may disrupt the foreign body and cause further tearing of the cornea.

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of gout. Which laboratory value would the nurse expect to note in the client? 1. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL (2.25 mmol/L) 2. Uric acid level of 9.0 mg/dL (0.54 mmol/L) 3. Potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L (4.1 mmol/L) 4. Phosphorus level of 3.1 mg/dL (1.0 mmol/L)

2 In addition to the presence of clinical manifestations, gout is diagnosed by the presence of persistent hyperuricemia, with a uric acid level higher than 8 mg/dL (0.48 mmol/ L); a normal value for a male ranges from 4.0 to 8.5 mg/dL (0.24 to 0.51 mmol/L) and for a female, from 2.7 to 7.3 mg/ dL(0.16 to 0.43 mmol/L). Options 1, 3, and 4 indicate normal laboratory values. In addition, the presence of uric acid in an aspirated sample of synovial fluid confirms the diagnosis.

A client calls the nurse in the emergency department and states that he was just stung by a bumblebee while gardening. The client is afraid of a severe reaction because the client's neighbor experienced such a reaction just 1 week ago. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Advise the client to soak the site in hydrogen peroxide. 2. Ask the client if he ever sustained a bee sting in the past. 3. Tell the client to call an ambulance for transport to the emergency department. 4. Tell the client not to worry about the sting unless difficulty with breathing occurs.

2 In some types of allergies, a reaction occurs only on second and subsequent contacts with the allergen. The appropriate action, therefore, would be to ask the client if he ever experienced a bee sting in the past. Option 1 is not appropriate advice. Option 3 is unnecessary. The client should not be told "not to worry."

A client has been on treatment for rheumatoid arthritis for 3 weeks. During the administration of etanercept, which is most important for the nurse to assess? 1. The injection site for itching and edema 2. The white blood cell counts and platelet counts 3. Whether the client is experiencing fatigue and joint pain 4. Whether the client is experiencing a metallic taste in the mouth, and a loss of appetite

2 Infection and pancytopenia are adverse effects of etanercept. Laboratory studies are performed prior to and during medication treatment. The appearance of abnormal white blood cell counts and abnormal platelet counts can alert the nurse to a potentially life-threatening infection. Injection site itching is a common occurrence following administration. A metallic taste and loss of appetite are not common signs of adverse effects of this medication.

A client admitted to the hospital with chest pain and a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for cardiac catheterization. Which medication would need to be withheld for 24 hours before the procedure and for 48 hours after the procedure? 1. Glipizide 2. Metformin 3. Repaglinide 4. Regular insulin

2 Metformin needs to be withheld 24 hours before and for 48 hours after cardiac catheterization because of the injection of contrast medium during the procedure. If the contrast medium affects kidney function, with metformin in the system the client would be at increased risk for lactic acidosis. The medications in the remaining options do not need to be withheld 24 hours before and 48 hours after cardiac catheterization.

The nurse is assessing the motor and sensory function of an unconscious client. The nurse should use which technique to test the client's peripheral response to pain? 1. Sternal rub 2. Nail bed pressure 3. Pressure on the orbital rim 4. Squeezing of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

2 Nail bed pressure tests a basic motor and sensory peripheral response. Cerebral responses to pain are tested using a sternal rub, placing upward pressure on the orbital rim, or squeezing the clavicle or sternocleidomastoid muscle. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, testing peripheral response to pain. The nail beds are the most distal of all options and are therefore the most peripheral. Each of the other options may elicit a generalized response, but not a localized one.

The nurse is evaluating a client's response to cardioversion. Which assessment would be the priority? 1. Blood pressure 2. Status of airway 3. Oxygen flow rate 4. Level of consciousness

2 Nursing responsibilities after cardioversion include maintenance first of a patent airway, and then oxygen administration, assessment of vital signs and level of consciousness, and dysrhythmia detection.

Phenazopyridine is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. The nurse evaluates that the medication is effective based on which observation? 1. Urine is clear amber. 2. Urination is not painful. 3. Urge incontinence is not present. 4. A reddish-orange discoloration of the urine is present.

2 Phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic. It is effective when it eliminates pain and burning with urination. It does not eliminate the bacteria causing the infection, so it would not make the urine clear amber. It does not treat urge incontinence. It will cause the client to have reddish-orange discoloration of urine but this is a side effect of the medication, not the desired effect.

A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Which finding would the nurse anticipate when auscultating the client's breath sounds? 1. Stridor 2. Crackles 3. Scattered rhonchi 4. Diminished breath sounds

2 Pulmonary edema is characterized by extreme breathlessness, dyspnea, air hunger, and the production of frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles. Rhonchi and diminished breath sounds are not associated with pulmonary edema. Stridor is a crowing sound associated with laryngospasm or edema of the upper airway.

A client is diagnosed with scleroderma. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed? 1. Maintain bed rest as much as possible. 2. Administer corticosteroids as prescribed for inflammation. 3. Advise the client to remain supine for 1 to 2 hours after meals. 4. Keep the room temperature warm during the day and cool at night.

2 Scleroderma is a chronic connective tissue disease similar to systemic lupus erythematosus. Corticosteroids may be prescribed to treat inflammation. Topical agents may provide some relief from joint pain. Activity is encouraged as tolerated and the room temperature needs to be constant. Clients need to sit up for 1 to 2 hours after meals if esophageal involvement is present.

Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client. While implementing this prescription, the nurse ensures that which medication is available on the nursing unit? 1. Vitamin K 2. Protamine sulfate 3. Potassium chloride 4. Aminocaproic acid

2 The antidote to heparin is protamine sulfate; it should be readily available for use if excessive bleeding or hemorrhage should occur. Vitamin K is an antidote for warfarin sodium. Potassium chloride is administered for a potassium deficit. Aminocaproic acid is the antidote for thrombolytic therapy.

A client who had cardiac surgery 24 hours ago has had a urine output averaging 20 mL/hour for 2 hours. The client received a single bolus of 500 mL of intravenous fluid. Urine output for the subsequent hour was 25 mL. Daily laboratory results indicate that the blood urea nitrogen level is 45 mg/dL(16 mmol/L) and the serum creatinine level is 2.2 mg/dL (194 mcmol/L). On the basis of these findings, the nurse would anticipate that the client is at risk for which problem? 1. Hypovolemia 2. Acute kidney injury 3. Glomerulonephritis 4. Urinary tract infection

2 The client who undergoes cardiac surgery is at risk for renal injury from poor perfusion, hemolysis, low cardiac output, or vasopressor medication therapy. Renal injury is signaled by decreased urine output and increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. Normal reference levels are BUN, 10 to 20 mg/dL (3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L), and creatinine: male, 0.6-1.2 mg/dL (53-106 mcmol/L) and female 0.5-1.1 mg/dL (44-97 mcmol/L). The client may need medications to increase renal perfusion and possibly could need peritoneal dialysis or hemodialysis. No data in the question indicate the presence of hypovolemia, glomerulonephritis, or urinary tract infection.

The nurse is caring for a postrenal transplantation client taking cyclosporine. The nurse notes an increase in one of the client's vital signs and the client is complaining of a headache. What vital sign is most likely increased? 1. Pulse 2. Respirations 3. Blood pressure 4. Pulse oximetry

3 Hypertension can occur in a client taking cyclosporine, and because this client is also complaining of a headache, the blood pressure is the vital sign to be monitored most closely. Other adverse effects include infection, nephrotoxicity, and hirsutism. Options 1, 2, and 4 are unrelated to the use of this medication.

The nurse has conducted teaching with a client in an arm cast about the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome. The nurse determines that the client understands the information if the client states that he or she should report which early symptom of compartment syndrome? 1. Cold, bluish-colored fingers 2. Numbness and tingling in the fingers 3. Pain that increases when the arm is dependent 4. Pain that is out of proportion to the severity of the fracture

2 The earliest symptom of compartment syndrome is paresthesia (numbness and tingling in the fingers). Other symptoms include pain unrelieved by opioids, pain that increases with limb elevation, and pallor and coolness to the distal limb. Cyanosis is a late sign. Pain that is out of proportion to the severity of the fracture, along with other symptoms associated with the pain, is not an early manifestation.

The nurse has completed discharge instructions for a client with application of a halo device. Which statement indicates that the client needs further clarification of the instructions? 1. "I will use a straw for drinking." 2. "I will drive only during the daytime." 3. "I will be careful because the device alters balance." 4. I will wash the skin daily under the lamb's wool liner of the vest."

2 The halo device alters balance and can cause fatigue because of its weight. The client should cleanse the skin daily under the vest to protect the skin from ulceration and should avoid the use of powder or lotions. The liner should be changed if odor becomes a problem. The client should have food cut into small pieces to facilitate chewing and use a straw for drinking. Pin care is done as instructed. The client cannot drive at all because the device impairs the range of vision.

A client with Meniere's disease is experiencing severe vertigo. Which instruction should the nurse give to the client to assist in controlling the vertigo? 1. Increase sodium in the diet. 2. Avoid sudden head movements. 3. Lie still and watch the television. 4. Increase fluid intake to 3000 mL a day.

2 The nurse instructs the client to make slow head movements to prevent worsening of the vertigo. Dietary changes such as salt and fluid restrictions that reduce the amount of endolymphatic fluid are sometimes prescribed. Lying still and watching television will not control vertigo.

A client presents at the health care provider's office with complaints of a ring-like rash on his upper leg. Which question should the nurse ask first? 1. "Do you have any cats in your home?" 2. "Have you been camping in the last month?" 3. "Have you or close contacts had any flu-like symptoms within the last few weeks?" 4. "Have you been in physical contact with anyone who has the same type of rash?"

2 The nurse should ask questions to assist in identifying a cause of Lyme disease, which is a multisystem infection that results from a bite by a tick carried by several species of deer. The rash from a tick bite can be a ring-like rash occurring 3 to 4 weeks after a bite and is commonly seen on the groin, buttocks, axillae, trunk, and upper arms or legs. Option 1 is referring to toxoplasmosis, which is caused by the inhalation of cysts from contaminated cat feces. Lyme disease cannot be transmitted from one person to another.

A client is diagnosed with a disorder involving the inner ear. Which is the most common client complaint associated with a disorder involving this part of the ear? 1. Pruritus 2. Tinnitus 3. Hearing loss 4. Burning in the ear

2 Tinnitus is the most common complaint of clients with otological disorders, especially disorders involving the inner ear. Symptoms of tinnitus range from mild ringing in the ear, which can go unnoticed during the day, to a loud roaring in the ear, which can interfere with the client's thinking process and attention span. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not associated specifically with disorders of the inner ear.

Tonometry is performed on a client with a suspected diagnosis of glaucoma. The nurse looks at the documented test results and notes an intraocular pressure (IOP) value of 23. What should be the nurse's initial action? 1. Apply normal saline drops. 2. Note the time of day the test was done. 3. Contact the health care provider (HCP). 4. Instruct the client to sleep with the head of the bed flat.

2 Tonometry is a method of measuring intraocular fluid pressure. Pressures between 10 and 21 mm Hg are considered within the normal range. However, IOP is slightly higher in the morning. Therefore, the initial action is to check the time the test was performed. Normal saline drops are not a specific treatment for glaucoma. It is not necessary to contact the HCP as an initial action. Flat positions may increase the pressure.

The nurse has given medication instructions to a client receiving phenytoin. Which statement indicates that the client has an adequate understanding of the instructions? 1. "Alcohol is not contraindicated while taking this medication." 2. "Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing." 3. "The medication dose may be self-adjusted, depending on side effects." 4. "The morning dose of the medication should be taken before a serum medication level is drawn."

2 Typical antiseizure medication instructions include taking the prescribed daily dosage to keep the blood level of the medication constant and having a sample drawn for serum medication level determination before taking the morning dose. The client is taught not to stop the medication abruptly, to avoid alcohol, to check with a health care provider before taking over-the-counter medications, to avoid activities in which alertness and coordination are required until medication effects are known, to provide good oral hygiene, and to obtain regular dental care. The client should also wear a MedicAlert bracelet.

A client's vision is tested with a Snellen chart. The results of the tests are documented as 20/60. What action should the nurse implement based on this finding? 1. Provide the client with materials on legal blindness. 2. Instruct the client that he or she may need glasses when driving. 3. Inform the client of where he or she can purchase a white cane with a red tip. 4. Inform the client that it is best to sit near the back of the room when attending lectures.

2 Vision that is 20/20 is normal—that is, the client is able to read from 20 feet (6 meters) what a person with normal vision can read from 20 feet (6 meters). A client with a visual acuity of 20/60 can only read at a distance of 20 feet (6 meters) what a person with normal vision can read at 60 feet (18 meters). With this vision, the client may need glasses while driving in order to read signs and to see far ahead. The client should be instructed to sit in the front of the room for lectures to aid in visualization. This is not considered to be legal blindness.

A client with a clot in the right atrium is receiving a heparin sodium infusion at 1000 units/hour and warfarin sodium 7.5 mg at 5:00 p.m. daily. The morning laboratory results are as follows: activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), 32 seconds; international normalized ratio (INR), 1.3. The nurse should take which action based on the client's laboratory results? 1. Collaborate with the health care provider (HCP) to discontinue the heparin infusion and administer the warfarin sodium as prescribed. 2. Collaborate with the HCP to obtain a prescription to increase the heparin infusion and administer the warfarin sodium as prescribed. 3. Collaborate with the HCP to withhold the warfarin sodium since the client is receiving a heparin infusion and the aPTT is within the therapeutic range. 4. Collaborate with the HCP to continue the heparin infusion at the same rate and to discuss use of dabigatran etexilate in place of warfarin sodium.

2 When a client is receiving warfarin for clot prevention due to atrial fibrillation, an INR of 2 to 3 is appropriate for most clients. Until the INR has achieved a therapeutic range, the client should be maintained on a continuous heparin infusion with the aPTT ranging between 60 and 80 seconds. Therefore, the nurse should collaborate with the HCP to obtain a prescription to increase the heparin infusion and to administer the warfarin as prescribed.

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic back pain. Codeine has been prescribed for the client. Specific to this medication, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care while the client is taking this medication? 1. Monitor radial pulse. 2. Monitor bowel activity. 3. Monitor apical heart rate. 4. Monitor peripheral pulses.

2 While the client is taking codeine, the nurse would monitor vital signs and assess for hypotension. The nurse also should increase fluid intake, palpate the bladder for urinary retention, auscultate bowel sounds, and monitor the pattern of daily bowel activity and stool consistency because the medication causes constipation. The nurse should monitor respiratory status and initiate deep-breathing and coughing exercises. In addition, the nurse monitors the effectiveness of the pain medication.

Betaxolol hydrochloride eye drops have been prescribed for a client with glaucoma. Which nursing action is most appropriate related to monitoring for side and adverse effects of this medication? 1. Assessing for edema 2. Monitoring temperature 3. Monitoring blood pressure 4. Assessing blood glucose level

3 Hypotension, dizziness, nausea, diaphoresis, headache, fatigue, constipation, and diarrhea are side and adverse effects of the medication. Nursing interventions include monitoring the blood pressure for hypotension and assessing the pulse for strength, weakness, irregular rate, and bradycardia. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not specifically associated with this medication.

A client arrives at the health care clinic and tells the nurse that she was just bitten by a tick and would like to be tested for Lyme disease. The client tells the nurse that she removed the tick and flushed it down the toilet. Which actions are most appropriate? Select all that apply. 1. Tell the client that testing is not necessary unless arthralgia develops. 2. Tell the client to avoid any woody, grassy areas that may contain ticks. 3. Instruct the client to immediately start to take the antibiotics that are prescribed. 4. Inform the client to plan to have a blood test 4 to 6 weeks after a bite to detect the presence of the disease. 5. Tell the client that if this happens again, to never remove the tick but vigorously scrub the area with an antiseptic.

2, 3, 4 A blood test is available to detect Lyme disease; however, the test is not reliable if performed before 4 to 6 weeks following the tick bite. Antibody formation takes place in the following manner. Immunoglobulin M is detected 3 to 4 weeks after Lyme disease onset, peaks at 6 to 8 weeks, and then gradually disappears; immunoglobulin G is detected 2 to 3 months after infection and may remain elevated for years. Areas that ticks inhabit need to be avoided. Ticks should be removed with tweezers and then the area is washed with an antiseptic. Options 1 and 5 are incorrect.

The nurse caring for a client who is taking an aminoglycoside should monitor the client for which adverse effects of the medication? Select all that apply 1. Seizures 2. Ototoxicity 3. Renal toxicity 4. Dysrhythmias 5. Hepatotoxicity

2, 3, 4 Aminoglycosides are administered to inhibit the growth of bacteria. Adverse effects of this medication include confusion, ototoxicity, renal toxicity, gastrointestinal irritation, palpitations or dysrhythmias, blood pressure changes, and hypersensitivity reactions. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.

Meperidine has been prescribed for a client to treat pain. Which side and adverse effects should the nurse monitor for? Select all that apply. 1. Diarrhea 2. Tremors 3. Drowsiness 4. Hypotension 5. Urinary frequency 6. Increased respiratory rate

2, 3, 4 Meperidine is an opioid analgesic. Side and adverse effects include respiratory depression, drowsiness, hypotension, constipation, urinary retention, nausea, vomiting, and tremors.

Ketoconazole is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of candidiasis. Which interventions should the nurse include when administering this medication? Select all that apply. 1. Restrict fluid intake. 2. Monitor liver function studies. 3. Instruct the client to avoid alcohol. 4. Administer the medication with an antacid. 5. Instruct the client to avoid exposure to the sun. 6. Administer the medication on an empty stomach

2, 3, 5 Ketoconazole is an antifungal medication. There is no reason for the client to restrict fluid intake; in fact, this could be harmful to the client. The medication is hepatotoxic, and the nurse monitors liver function. It is administered with food (not on an empty stomach) and antacids are avoided for 2 hours after taking the medication to ensure absorption. The client is also instructed to avoid alcohol. In addition, the client is instructed to avoid exposure to the sun because the medication increases photosensitivity.

The nurse is monitoring a client who is taking digoxin for adverse effects. Which findings are characteristic of digoxin toxicity? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.) 1. Tremors 2. Diarrhea 3. Irritability 4. Blurred vision 5. Nausea and vomiting

2, 4, 5 Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside. The risk of toxicity can occur with the use of this medication. Toxicity can lead to life-threatening events and the nurse needs to monitor the client closely for signs of toxicity. Early signs of toxicity include gastrointestinal manifestations such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Subsequent manifestations include headache; visual disturbances such as diplopia, blurred vision, yellow-green halos, and photophobia; drowsiness; fatigue; and weakness. Cardiac rhythm abnormalities can also occur. The nurse also monitors the digoxin level. The optimal therapeutic range for digoxin is 0.5 to 0.8 ng/mL.

The client has developed atrial fibrillation, with a ventricular rate of 150 beats/minute. The nurse should assess the client for which associated signs and/or symptoms? 1. Flat neck veins 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Hypotension and dizziness 4. Hypertension and headache

3 The client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate more than 100 beats/minute is at risk for low cardiac output because of loss of atrial kick. The nurse assesses the client for palpitations, chest pain or discomfort, hypotension, pulse deficit, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, syncope, shortness of breath, and distended neck veins.

The nurse is evaluating a client in skeletal traction. When evaluating the pin sites, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding? 1. Redness around the pin sites 2. Pain on palpation at the pin sites 3. Thick, yellow drainage from the pin sites 4. Clear, watery drainage from the pin sites

3 The nurse should monitor for signs of infection such as inflammation, purulent drainage, and pain at the pin site. However, some degree of inflammation, pain at the pin site, and serous drainage would be expected; the nurse should correlate assessment findings with other clinical findings, such as fever, elevated white blood cell count, and changes in vital signs. Additionally, the nurse should compare any findings to baseline findings to determine if there were any changes.

A client is taking the prescribed dose of phenytoin to control seizures. Results of a phenytoin blood level study reveal a level of 35 mcg/mL (140 mcmol/L). Which finding would be expected as a result of this laboratory result? 1. Hypotension 2. Tachycardia 3. Slurred speech 4. No abnormal finding

3 The therapeutic phenytoin level is 10 to 20 mcg/mL (40-79 mcmol/L). At a level higher than 20 mcg/mL, involuntary movements of the eyeballs (nystagmus) occur. At a level higher than 30 mcg/mL (120 mcmol/L), ataxia and slurred speech occur.

The nurse is assessing the casted extremity of a client. Which sign is indicative of infection? 1. Dependent edema 2. Diminished distal pulse 3. Presence of a "hot spot" on the cast 4. Coolness and pallor of the extremity

3 : Signs of infection under a casted area include odor or purulent drainage from the cast or the presence of "hot spots," which are areas of the cast that are warmer than others. The health care provider should be notified if any of these occur. Signs of impaired circulation in the distal limb include coolness and pallor of the skin, diminished distal pulse, and edema.

A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to sound its alarm. The nurse sees no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. Which is the priority nursing action? 1. Call a code. 2. Call the health care provider. 3. Check the client's status and lead placement. 4. Press the recorder button on the electrocardiogram console.

3 : Sudden loss of electrocardiographic complexes indicates ventricular asystole or possibly electrode displacement. Accurate assessment of the client and equipment is necessary to determine the cause and identify the appropriate intervention. The remaining options are secondary to client assessment.

The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client who has been prescribed cyclosporine. Which food item should the nurse instruct the client to exclude from the diet? 1. Red meats 2. Orange juice 3. Grapefruit juice 4. Green, leafy vegetables

3 A compound present in grapefruit juice inhibits metabolism of cyclosporine through the cytochrome P450 system. As a result, consumption of grapefruit juice can raise cyclosporine levels by 50% to 100%, thereby greatly increasing the risk of toxicity. Red meats, orange juice, and green, leafy vegetables do not interact with the cytochrome P450 system.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus. Which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication? 1. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L (3.8 mmol/L) 2. Platelet count of 300,000 mm3 (300 Â 109 /L) 3. Fasting blood glucose of 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) 4. White blood cell count of 6000 mm3 (5 to 10 Â 109 /L)

3 A fasting blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) is significantly elevated above the normal range of 70 to 110 mg/dL (4 to 6 mmol/L) and suggests an adverse effect. Recall that fasting blood glucose levels are sometimes based on health care provider preference. Other adverse effects include neurotoxicity evidenced by headache, tremor, and insomnia; gastrointestinal effects such as diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting; hypertension; and hyperkalemia. The remaining options identify normal reference levels. The normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). The normal platelet count is 150,000 to 400,000 mm3 (150 to 400 Â 109 /L). The normal white blood cell count is 5000 to 10,000 mm3 (5 to 10 Â 109 /L).

A client with trigeminal neuralgia is being treated with carbamazepine, 400 mg orally daily. Which value indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect to the medication? 1. Sodium level, 140 mEq/L (140 mmol/L) 2. Uric acid level, 4.0 mg/dL (0.24 mmol/L) 3. White blood cell count, 3000 mm3 (3.0 Â 109 /L) 4. Blood urea nitrogen level, 10 mg/dL (3.6 mmol/L)

3 Adverse effects of carbamazepine appear as blood dyscrasias, including aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia; cardiovascular disturbances, including thrombophlebitis and dysrhythmias; and dermatological effects. The low white blood cell count reflects agranulocytosis. The laboratory values in options 1, 2, and 4 are normal values.

Amikacin is prescribed for a client with a bacterial infection. The nurse instructs the client to contact the health care provider (HCP) immediately if which occurs? 1. Nausea 2. Lethargy 3. Hearing loss 4. Muscle aches

3 Amikacin is an aminoglycoside. Adverse effects of aminoglycosides include ototoxicity (hearing problems), confusion, disorientation, gastrointestinal irritation, palpitations, blood pressure changes, nephrotoxicity, and hypersensitivity. The nurse instructs the client to report hearing loss to the HCP immediately. Lethargy and muscle aches are not associated with the use of this medication. It is not necessary to contact the HCP immediately if nausea occurs. If nausea persists or results in vomiting, the HCP should be notified.

A client was just admitted to the hospital to rule out a gastrointestinal (GI) bleed. The client has brought several bottles of medications prescribed by different specialists. During the admission assessment, the client states, "Lately, I have been hearing some roaring sounds in my ears, especially when I am alone." Which medication would the nurse identify as the cause of the client's complaint? 1. Doxycycline 2. Atropine sulfate 3. Acetylsalicylic acid 4. Diltiazem hydrochloride

3 Aspirin is contraindicated for GI bleeding and is potentially ototoxic. The client should be advised to notify the prescribing health care provider so the medication can be discontinued and/or a substitute that is less toxic to the ear can be taken instead. Options 1, 2, and 4 do not have effects that are potentially associated with hearing difficulties.

A client arrives at the emergency department with complaints of low abdominal pain and hematuria. The client is afebrile. The nurse next assesses the client to determine a history of which condition? 1. Pyelonephritis 2. Glomerulonephritis 3. Trauma to the bladder or abdomen 4. Renal cancer in the client's family

3 Bladder trauma or injury should be considered or suspected in the client with low abdominal pain and hematuria. Glomerulonephritis and pyelonephritis would be accompanied by fever and are thus not applicable to the client described in this question. Renal cancer would not cause pain that is felt in the low abdomen; rather, the pain would be in the flank area

The nurse, who is administering bethanechol chloride, is monitoring for cholinergic overdose associated with the medication. The nurse should check the client for which sign of overdose? 1. Dry skin 2. Dry mouth 3. Bradycardia 4. Signs of dehydration

3 Cholinergic overdose of bethanechol chloride produces manifestations of excessive muscarinic stimulation such as salivation, sweating, involuntary urination and defecation, bradycardia, and severe hypotension. Remember that the sympathetic nervous system speeds the heart rate and the cholinergic (parasympathetic) nervous system slows the heart rate. Treatment includes supportive measures and the administration of atropine sulfate (anticholinergic) subcutaneously or intravenously.

Following kidney transplantation, cyclosporine is prescribed for a client. Which laboratory result would indicate an adverse effect from the use of this medication? 1. Hemoglobin level of 14.0 g/dL (140 mmol/L) 2. Creatinine level of 0.6 mg/dL (53 mcmol/L) 3. Blood urea nitrogen level of 25 mg/dL (8.8 mmol/L) 4. Fasting blood glucose level of 99 mg/dL (5.5 mmol/L)

3 Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant. Nephrotoxicity can occur from the use of cyclosporine. Nephrotoxicity is evaluated by monitoring for elevated blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine levels. The normal blood urea nitrogen level is 10 to 20 mg/dL (3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L). The normal creatinine level for a male is 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL (53 to 106 mcmol/L) and for a female 0.5 to1.1 mg/dL(44 to 97 mcmol/L). Cyclosporine can lower complete blood cell count levels. A normal hemoglobin is Male: 14 to 18 g/dL (140 to 180 mmol/L); Female: 12 to 16 g/dL (120 to 160 mmol/L). A normal hemoglobin is not an adverse effect. Cyclosporine does affect the glucose level. The normal fasting glucose is 70 to 110 mg/dL (4 to 6 mmol/L).

The nurse is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies drawn on a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome who is receiving didanosine. The nurse interprets that the client may have the medication discontinued by the health care provider if which elevated result is noted? 1. Serum protein level 2. Blood glucose level 3. Serum amylase level 4. Serum creatinine level

3 Didanosine can cause pancreatitis. A serum amylase level that is increased to 1.5 to 2 times normal may signify pancreatitis in the client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome and is potentially fatal. The medication may have to be discontinued. The medication is also hepatotoxic and can result in liver failure.

The nurse is analyzing the laboratory studies on a client receiving dantrolene. Which laboratory test would identify an adverse effect associated with the administration of this medication? 1. Platelet count 2. Creatinine level 3. Liver function tests 4. Blood urea nitrogen level

3 Dose-related liver damage is the most serious adverse effect of dantrolene. To reduce the risk of liver damage, liver function tests should be performed before treatment and throughout the treatment interval. Dantrolene is administered at the lowest effective dosage for the shortest time necessary.

The nurse is caring for a client who had an above knee amputation 2 days ago. The residual limb was wrapped with an elastic compression bandage, which has come off. Which immediate action should the nurse take? 1. Apply ice to the site. 2. Call the health care provider (HCP). 3. Rewrap the residual limb with an elastic compression bandage. 4. Apply a dry, sterile dressing and elevate the residual limb on 1 pillow.

3 If the client with an amputation has a cast or elastic compression bandage that slips off, the nurse must wrap the residual limb immediately with another elastic compression bandage. Otherwise, excessive edema will form rapidly, which could cause a significant delay in rehabilitation. If the client had a cast that slipped off, the nurse would have to call the HCP so that a new one could be applied. Elevation on 1 pillow is not going to impede the development of edema greatly once compression is released. Ice would be of limited value in controlling edema from this cause. If the HCP were called, the prescription likely would be to reapply the compression dressing anyway.

The nurse is caring for a client following enucleation and notes the presence of bright red drainage on the dressing. Which action should the nurse take at this time? 1. Document the finding. 2. Continue to monitor the drainage. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Mark the drainage on the dressing and monitor for any increase in bleeding.

3 If the nurse notes the presence of bright red drainage on the dressing, it must be reported to the HCP, because this indicates hemorrhage. Options 1, 2, and 4 are inappropriate at this time.

The nurse is preparing a group of Cub Scouts for an overnight camping trip and instructs the Scouts about the methods to prevent Lyme disease. Which statement by one of the Scouts indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "I need to bring a hat to wear during the trip." 2. "I should wear long-sleeved tops and long pants." 3. "I should not use insect repellents because it will attract the ticks." 4. "I need to wear closed shoes and socks that can be pulled up over my pants."

3 In the prevention of Lyme disease, individuals need to be instructed to use an insect repellent on the skin and clothes when in an area where ticks are likely to be found. Long-sleeved tops and long pants, closed shoes, and a hat or cap should be worn. If possible, heavily wooded areas or areas with thick underbrush should be avoided. Socks can be pulled up and over the pant legs to prevent ticks from entering under clothing.

The client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is diagnosed with cutaneous Kaposi's sarcoma. Based on this diagnosis, the nurse understands that this has been confirmed by which finding? 1. Swelling in the genital area 2. Swelling in the lower extremities 3. Positive punch biopsy of the cutaneous lesions 4. Appearance of reddish-blue lesions noted on the skin

3 Kaposi's sarcoma lesions begin as red, dark blue, or purple macules on the lower legs that change into plaques. These large plaques ulcerate or open and drain. The lesions spread by metastasis through the upper body and then to the face and oral mucosa. They can move to the lymphatic system, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract. Late disease results in swelling and pain in the lower extremities, penis, scrotum, or face. Diagnosis is made by punch biopsy of cutaneous lesions and biopsy of pulmonary and gastrointestinal lesions.

A client is complaining of low back pain that radiates down the left posterior thigh. The nurse should ask the client if the pain is worsened or aggravated by which factor? 1. Bed rest 2. Ibuprofen 3. Bending or lifting 4. Application of heat

3 Low back pain that radiates into 1 leg (sciatica) is consistent with herniated lumbar disk. The nurse assesses the client to see whether the pain is aggravated by events that increase intraspinal pressure, such as bending, lifting, sneezing, and coughing, or by lifting the leg straight up while supine (straight leg-raising test). Bed rest, heat (or sometimes ice), and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) usually relieve back pain.

A miotic medication has been prescribed for the client with glaucoma and the client asks the nurse about the purpose of the medication. Which response should the nurse provide to the client? 1. "The medication will help dilate the eye to prevent pressure from occurring." 2. "The medication will relax the muscles of the eyes and prevent blurred vision." 3. "The medication causes the pupil to constrict and will lower the pressure in the eye." 4. "The medication will help block the responses that are sent to the muscles in the eye."

3 Miotics cause pupillary constriction and are used to treat glaucoma. They lower the intraocular pressure, thereby increasing blood flow to the retina and decreasing retinal damage and loss of vision. Miotics cause a contraction of the ciliary muscle and a widening of the trabecular meshwork. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

A client has sustained a closed fracture and has just had a cast applied to the affected arm. The client is complaining of intense pain. The nurse elevates the limb, applies an ice bag, and administers an analgesic, with little relief. Which problem may be causing this pain? 1. Infection under the cast 2. The anxiety of the client 3. Impaired tissue perfusion 4. The recent occurrence of the fracture

3 Most pain associated with fractures can be minimized with rest, elevation, application of cold, and administration of analgesics. Pain that is not relieved by these measures should be reported to the health care provider because pain unrelieved by medications and other measures may indicate neurovascular compromise. Because this is a new closed fracture and cast, infection would not have had time to set in. Intense pain after casting is normally not associated with anxiety or the recent occurrence of the injury. Treatment following the fracture should assist in relieving the pain associated with the injury.

The nurse is conducting a teaching session with a client on their diagnosis of pemphigus. Which statement by the client indicates that the client understands the diagnosis? 1. "My skin will have tiny red vesicles." 2. "The presence of the skin vesicles is caused by a virus." 3. "I have an autoimmune disease that causes blistering in the epidermis." 4. "The presence of red, raised papules and large plaques covered by silvery scales will be present on my skin."

3 Pemphigus is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering in the epidermis. The client has large flaccid blisters (bullae). Because the blistersare in the epidermis, they have a thin covering of skin and break easily, leaving large denuded areas of skin. On initial examination, clients may have crusting areas instead of intact blisters. Option 1 describes eczema, option 2 describes herpes zoster, and option 4 describes psoriasis.

The home health nurse visits a client who is taking phenytoin for control of seizures. During the assessment, the nurse notes that the client is taking birth control pills. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan? 1. Pregnancy must be avoided while taking phenytoin. 2. The client may stop the medication if it is causing severe gastrointestinal effects. 3. There is the potential of decreased effectiveness of birth control pills while taking phenytoin. 4. There is the increased risk of thrombophlebitis while taking phenytoin and birth control pills together.

3 Phenytoin enhances the rate of estrogen metabolism, which can decrease the effectiveness of some birth control pills. Options 1, 2, and 4 are inappropriate instructions. Pregnancy does not need to be "avoided" while taking phenytoin; however, because phenytoin may cause some risk to the fetus (Pregnancy Category D medication), consultation with the health care provider should be done if pregnancy is considered. Telling a client that there is an increased risk of thrombophlebitis is incorrect and inappropriate and could cause anxiety in the client. A client should not be instructed to stop anti-seizure medication.

A client is having frequent premature ventricular contractions. The nurse should place priority on assessment of which item? 1. Sensation of palpitations 2. Causative factors, such as caffeine 3. Blood pressure and oxygen saturation 4. Precipitating factors, such as infection

3 Premature ventricular contractions can cause hemodynamic compromise. Therefore, the priority is to monitor the blood pressure and oxygen saturation. The shortened ventricular filling time can lead to decreased cardiac output. The client may be asymptomatic or may feel palpitations. Premature ventricular contractions can be caused by cardiac disorders; states of hypoxemia; any number of physiological stressors, such as infection, illness, surgery, or trauma; and intake of caffeine, nicotine, or alcohol.

The nurse notes that the health care provider has documented a diagnosis of presbycusis on a client's chart. Based on this information, what action should the nurse take? 1. Speak loudly, but mumble or slur the words. 2. Speak loudly and clearly while facing the client. 3. Speak at normal tone and pitch, slowly and clearly. 4. Speak loudly and directly into the client's affected ear.

3 Presbycusis is a type of hearing loss that occurs with aging. Presbycusis is a gradual sensorineural loss caused by nerve degeneration in the inner ear or auditory nerve. When communicating with a client with this condition, the nurse should speak at a normal tone and pitch, slowly and clearly. It is not appropriate to speak loudly, mumble or slur words, or speak into the client's affected ear.

The nurse is evaluating the neurological signs of a client in spinal shock following spinal cord injury. Which observation indicates that spinal shock persists? 1. Hyperreflexia 2. Positive reflexes 3. Flaccid paralysis 4. Reflex emptying of the bladder

3 Resolution of spinal shock is occurring when there is return of reflexes (especially flexors to noxious cutaneous stimuli), a state of hyperreflexia rather than flaccidity, and reflex emptying of the bladder.

The nurse is evaluating the status of a client who had a craniotomy 3 days ago. Which assessment finding would indicate that the client is developing meningitis as a complication of surgery? 1. A negative Kernig's sign 2. Absence of nuchal rigidity 3. A positive Brudzinski's sign 4. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15

3 Signs of meningeal irritation compatible with meningitis include nuchal rigidity, a positive Brudzinski's sign, and positive Kernig's sign. Nuchal rigidity is characterized by a stiff neck and soreness, which is especially noticeable when the neck is flexed. Kernig's sign is positive when the client feels pain and spasm of the hamstring muscles when the leg is fully flexed at the knee and hip. Brudzinski's sign is positive when the client flexes the hips and knees in response to the nurse gently flexing the head and neck onto the chest. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 is a perfect score and indicates that the client is awake and alert, with no neurological deficits.

The nurse is caring for a hearing-impaired client. Which approach will facilitate communication? 1. Speak loudly. 2. Speak frequently. 3. Speak at a normal volume. 4. Speak directly into the impaired ear.

3 Speaking in a normal tone to the client with impaired hearing and not shouting are important. The nurse should talk directly to the client while facing the client and speak clearly. If the client does not seem to understand what is said, the nurse should express it differently. Moving closer to the client and toward the better ear may facilitate communication, but the nurse should avoid talking directly into the impaired ear.

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with glaucoma. Which instruction should the nurse include in the plan of care? 1. Avoid overuse of the eyes. 2. Decrease the amount of salt in the diet. 3. Eye medications will need to be administered for life. 4. Decrease fluid intake to control the intraocular pressure

3 The administration of eye drops is a critical component of the treatment plan for the client with glaucoma. The client needs to be instructed that medications will need to be taken for the rest of his or her life. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not accurate instructions.

A client receiving thrombolytic therapy with a continuous infusion of alteplase suddenly becomes extremely anxious and complains of itching. The nurse hears stridor and notes generalized urticaria and hypotension. Which nursing action is the priority? 1. Administer oxygen and protamine sulfate. 2. Cut the infusion rate in half and sit the client up in bed. 3. Stop the infusion and call for the Rapid Response Team (RRT). 4. Administer diphenhydramine and epinephrine and continue the infusion.

3 The client is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. Therefore, the priority action is to stop the infusion and notify the RRT. The health care provider should be contacted once the client has been stabilized. The client may be treated with epinephrine, antihistamines, and corticosteroids as prescribed, but the infusion should not be continued

A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome has ascending paralysis and is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. Which strategy should the nurse incorporate in the plan of care to help the client cope with this illness? 1. Giving client full control over care decisions and restricting visitors 2. Providing positive feedback and encouraging active range of motion 3. Providing information, giving positive feedback, and encouraging relaxation 4. Providing intravenously administered sedatives, reducing distractions, and limiting visitors

3 The client with Guillain-Barre syndrome experiences fear and anxiety from the ascending paralysis and sudden onset of the disorder. The nurse can alleviate these fears by providing accurate information about the client's condition, giving expert care and positive feedback to the client, and encouraging relaxation and distraction. The family can become involved with selected care activities and provide diversion for the client as well.

The nurse should report which assessment finding to the health care provider (HCP) before initiating thrombolytic therapy in a client with pulmonary embolism? 1. Adventitious breath sounds 2. Temperature of 99.4 °F (37.4 °C) orally 3. Blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg 4. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute

3 Thrombolytic therapy is contraindicated in a number of preexisting conditions in which there is a risk of uncontrolled bleeding, similar to the case in anticoagulant therapy. Thrombolytic therapy also is contraindicated in severe uncontrolled hypertension because of the risk of cerebral hemorrhage. Therefore, the nurse would report the results of the blood pressure to the HCP before initiating therapy.

A client is diagnosed with an ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) and is receiving a tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase. Which action is a priority nursing intervention? 1. Monitor for kidney failure. 2. Monitor psychosocial status. 3. Monitor for signs of bleeding. 4. Have heparin sodium available

3 Tissue plasminogen activator is a thrombolytic. Hemorrhage is a complication of any type of thrombolytic medication. The client is monitored for bleeding. Monitoring for renal failure and monitoring the client's psychosocial status are important but are not the most critical interventions. Heparin may be administered after thrombolytic therapy, but the question is not asking about follow-up medications.

The nurse is assessing a client with epididymitis. The nurse anticipates which findings on physical examination? 1. Fever, diarrhea, groin pain, and ecchymosis 2. Nausea, painful scrotal edema, and ecchymosis 3. Fever, nausea, vomiting, and painful scrotal edema 4. Diarrhea, groin pain, testicular torsion, and scrotal edema

3 Typical signs and symptoms of epididymitis include scrotal pain and edema, which often are accompanied by fever, nausea and vomiting, and chills. Epididymitis most often is caused by infection, although sometimes it can be caused by trauma. The remaining options do not present all of the accurate manifestations.

The nurse notes that a client with sinus rhythm has a premature ventricular contraction that falls on the T wave of the preceding beat. The client's rhythm suddenly changes to one with no P waves, no definable QRS complexes, and coarse wavy lines of varying amplitude. How should the nurse correctly interpret this rhythm? 1. Asystole 2. Atrial fibrillation 3. Ventricular fibrillation 4. Ventricular tachycardia

3 Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by irregular chaotic undulations of varying amplitudes. Ventricular fibrillation has no measurable rate and no visible P waves or QRS complexes and results from electrical chaos in the ventricles.

The nurse is caring for a client who has been taking a sulfonamide and should monitor for signs and symptoms of which adverse effects of the medication? Select all that apply. 1. Ototoxicity 2. Palpitations 3. Nephrotoxicity 4. Bone marrow suppression 5. Gastrointestinal (GI) effects 6. Increased white blood cell (WBC) count

3, 4, 5 Adverse effects of sulfonamides include nephrotoxicity, bone marrow suppression, GI effects, hepatotoxicity, dermatological effects, and some neurological symptoms, including headache, dizziness, vertigo, ataxia, depression, and seizures. Options 1, 2, and 6 are unrelated to these medications.

Tacrolimus is prescribed for a client who underwent a kidney transplant. Which instruction should the nurse include when teaching the client about this medication? 1. Eat at frequent intervals to avoid hypoglycemia. 2. Take the medication with a full glass of grapefruit juice. 3. Change positions carefully due to risk of orthostatic hypotension. 4. Take the oral medication every 12 hours at the same times every day

4 : Tacrolimus is a potent immunosuppressant used to prevent organ rejection in transplant clients. It is important that the medication be taken at 12-hour intervals to maintain a stable blood level to prevent organ rejection. Adverse effects include hyperglycemia and hypertension, so the client does not eat frequently to avoid hypoglycemia or use precautions to avoid orthostatic hypotension. Tacrolimus is metabolized through the cytochrome P450 system, so grapefruit juice is not allowed.

The nurse is admitting a client with multiple trauma injuries to the nursing unit. The client has a leg fracture and had a plaster cast applied. Which position would be best for the casted leg? 1. Elevated for 3 hours, then flat for 1 hour 2. Flat for 3 hours, then elevated for 1 hour 3. Flat for 12 hours, then elevated for 12 hours 4. Elevated on pillows continuously for 24 to 48 hours

4 A casted extremity is elevated continuously for the first 24 to 48 hours to minimize swelling and promote venous drainage. Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a suspected diagnosis of cataract. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to note in the early stages of cataract formation? 1. Diplopia 2. Eye pain 3. Floating spots 4. Blurred vision

4 A gradual, painless blurring of central vision is the chief clinical manifestation of a cataract. Early symptoms include slightly blurred vision and a decrease in color perception. Options 1, 2, and 3 are not characteristics of a cataract.

The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client with a diagnosis of detached retina. Which sign or symptom is associated with this eye disorder? 1. Total loss of vision 2. Pain in the affected eye 3. A yellow discoloration of the sclera 4. A sense of a curtain falling across the field of vision

4 Acharacteristic manifestation of retinal detachment described by the client is the feeling that a shadow or curtain is falling across the field of vision. No pain is associated with detachment of the retina. Options 1 and 3 are not characteristics of this disorder. A retinal detachment is an ophthalmic emergency and even more so if visual acuity is still normal.

A client recovering from a head injury is participating in care. The nurse determines that the client understands measures to prevent elevations in intracranial pressure if the nurse observes the client doing which activity? 1. Blowing the nose 2. Isometric exercises 3. Coughing vigorously 4. Exhaling during repositioning

4 Activities that increase intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressures cause an indirect elevation of the intracranial pressure. Some of these activities include isometric exercises, Valsalva's maneuver, coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose. Exhaling during activities such as repositioning or pulling up in bed opens the glottis, which prevents intrathoracic pressure from rising.

A week after kidney transplantation, a client develops a temperature of 101 °F (38.3 °C), the blood pressure is elevated, and there is tenderness over the transplanted kidney. The serum creatinine is rising and urine output is decreased. The x-ray indicates that the transplanted kidney is enlarged. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse anticipates which treatment? 1. Antibiotic therapy 2. Peritoneal dialysis 3. Removal of the transplanted kidney 4. Increased immunosuppression therapy

4 Acute rejection most often occurs within 1 week after transplantation but can occur any time posttransplantation. Clinical manifestations include fever, malaise, elevated white blood cell count, acute hypertension, graft tenderness, and manifestations of deteriorating renal function. Treatment consists of increasing immunosuppressive therapy. Antibiotics are used to treat infection. Peritoneal dialysis cannot be used with a newly transplanted kidney due to the recent surgery. Removal of the transplanted kidney is indicated with hyperacute rejection, which occurs within 48 hours of the transplant surgery

The nurse has given instructions to a client returning home after knee arthroscopy. Which statement by the client indicates that the instructions are understood? 1. "I can resume regular exercise tomorrow." 2. "I can't eat food for the remainder of the day." 3. "I need to stay off the leg entirely for the rest of the day." 4. "I need to report a fever or swelling to my health care provider."

4 After arthroscopy, the client usually can walk carefully on the leg once sensation has returned. The client is instructed to avoid strenuous exercise for at least a few days. The client may resume the usual diet. Signs and symptoms of infection should be reported to the health care provider.

The nurse is caring for a client following craniotomy for removal of an acoustic neuroma. Assessment of which cranial nerve would identify a complication specifically associated with this surgery? 1. Cranial nerve I, olfactory 2. Cranial nerve IV, trochlear 3. Cranial nerve III, oculomotor 4. Cranial nerve VII, facial nerve

4 An acoustic neuroma (or vestibular schwannoma) is a unilateral benign tumor that occurs where the vestibulocochlear or acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII) enters the internal auditory canal. It is important that an early diagnosis be made because the tumor can compress the trigeminal and facial nerves and arteries within the internal auditory canal. Treatment for acoustic neuroma is surgical removal via a craniotomy. Assessment of the trigeminal and facial nerves is important. Extreme care is taken to preserve remaining hearing and preserve the function of the facial nerve. Acoustic neuromas rarely recur following surgical removal.

A client with myasthenia gravis has become increasingly weaker. The health care provider prepares to identify whether the client is reacting to an overdose of the medication (cholinergic crisis) or an increasing severity of the disease (myasthenic crisis). An injection of edrophonium is administered. Which finding would indicate that the client is in cholinergic crisis? 1. No change in the condition 2. Complaints of muscle spasms 3. An improvement of the weakness 4. A temporary worsening of the condition

4 An edrophonium injection makes the client in cholinergic crisis temporarily worse. An improvement in the weakness indicates myasthenia crisis. Muscle spasms are not associated with this test.

Prior to administering a client's daily dose of digoxin, the nurse reviews the client's laboratory data and notes the following results: serum calcium, 9.8 mg/dL (2.45 mmol/L); serum magnesium, 1.0 mEq/L (0.5 mmol/L); serum potassium, 4.1 mEq/L (4.1 mmol/L); serum creatinine, 0.9 mg/ dL (79.5 mcmol/L). Which result should alert the nurse that the client is at risk for digoxin toxicity? 1. Serum calcium level 2. Serum potassium level 3. Serum creatinine level 4. Serum magnesium level

4 An increased risk of toxicity exists in clients with hypercalcemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypothyroidism, and impaired renal function. The calcium, creatinine, and potassium levels are all within normal limits. The normal range for magnesium is 1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L(0.65-1.05 mmol/L) and the results in the correct option are reflective of hypomagnesemia. Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the laboratory result that places the client at risk for digoxin toxicity. Recalling the normal laboratory values for each electrolyte identified in the options will assist in answering correctly.

The nurse is providing instructions to a client who will be self-administering eye drops. To minimize systemic absorption of the eye drops, the nurse should instruct the client to take which action? 1. Eat before instilling the drops. 2. Swallow several times after instilling the drops. 3. Blink vigorously to encourage tearing after instilling the drops. 4. Occlude the nasolacrimal duct with a finger after instilling the drops.

4 Applying pressure on the nasolacrimal duct prevents systemic absorption of the medication. Options 1, 2, and 3 will not prevent systemic absorption.

The nurse provides discharge instructions to a client who is taking warfarin sodium. Which statement, by the client, reflects the need for further teaching? 1. "I will avoid alcohol consumption." 2. "I will take my pills every day at the same time." 3. "I have already called my family to pick up a MedicAlert bracelet." 4. "I will take coated aspirin for my headaches because it will coat my stomach."

4 Aspirin-containing products need to be avoided when a client is taking this medication. Alcohol consumption should be avoided by a client taking warfarin sodium. Taking the prescribed medication at the same time each day increases client compliance. The MedicAlert bracelet provides health care personnel with emergency information.

A client with a hip fracture asks the nurse about Buck's (extension) traction that is being applied before surgery and what is involved. The nurse should provide which information to the client? 1. Allows bony healing to begin before surgery and involves pins and screws 2. Provides rigid immobilization of the fracture site and involves pulleys and wheels 3. Lengthens the fractured leg to prevent severing of blood vessels and involves pins and screws 4. Provides comfort by reducing muscle spasms, provides fracture immobilization, and involves pulleys and wheels

4 Buck's (extension) traction is a type of skin traction often applied after hip fracture before the fracture is reduced in surgery. Traction reduces muscle spasms and helps to immobilize the fracture. Traction does not allow for bony healing to begin or provide rigid immobilization. Traction does not lengthen the leg for the purpose of preventing blood vessel severance. This type of traction involves pulleys and wheels, not pins and screws.

The nurse is assessing the adaptation of a client to changes in functional status after a stroke (brain attack). Which observation indicates to the nurse that the client is adapting most successfully? 1. Gets angry with family if they interrupt a task 2. Experiences bouts of depression and irritability 3. Has difficulty with using modified feeding utensils 4. Consistently uses adaptive equipment in dressing self

4 Clients are evaluated as coping successfully with lifestyle changes after a stroke if they make appropriate lifestyle alterations, use the assistance of others, and have appropriate social interactions. Options 1 and 2 are not adaptive behaviors; option 3 indicates a not yet successful attempt to adapt.

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is prescribed for a client. The nurse should instruct the client to report which symptom if it develops during the course of this medication therapy? 1. Nausea 2. Diarrhea 3. Headache 4. Sore throat

4 Clients taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole should be informed about early signs and symptoms of blood disorders that can occur from this medication. These include sore throat, fever, and pallor, and the client should be instructed to notify the health care provider (HCP) if these occur. The other options do not require HCP notification.

A client with diabetes mellitus has had a right below-knee amputation. Given the client's history of diabetes mellitus, which complication is the client at most risk for after surgery? 1. Hemorrhage 2. Edema of the residual limb 3. Slight redness of the incision 4. Separation of the wound edges

4 Clients with diabetes mellitus are more prone to wound infection and delayed wound healing because of the disease. Postoperative hemorrhage and edema of the residual limb are complications in the immediate postoperative period that apply to any client with an amputation. Slight redness of the incision is considered normal, as long as the incision is dry and intact.

The home health care nurse is visiting a client with elevated triglyceride levels and a serum cholesterol level of 398 mg/dL (10 mmol/L). The client is taking cholestyramine and the nurse teaches the client about the medication. Which statement, by the client, indicates the need for further teaching? 1. "Constipation and bloating might be a problem." 2. "I'll continue to watch my diet and reduce my fats." 3. "Walking a mile each day will help the whole process." 4. "I'll continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store."

4 Nicotinic acid, even an over-the-counter form, should be avoided because it may lead to liver abnormalities. All lipid-lowering medications also can cause liver abnormalities, so a combination of nicotinic acid and cholestyramine resin needs to be avoided. Constipation and bloating are the 2 most common adverse effects. Walking and the reduction of fats in the diet are therapeutic measures to reduce cholesterol and triglyceride levels.

The client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease recently has begun hemodialysis. Knowing that the client is at risk for disequilibrium syndrome, the nurse should assess the client during dialysis for which associated manifestations? 1. Hypertension, tachycardia, and fever 2. Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia 3. Restlessness, irritability, and generalized weakness 4. Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness, and twitching

4 Disequilibrium syndrome is characterized by headache, mental confusion, decreasing level of consciousness, nausea, vomiting, twitching, and possible seizure activity. Disequilibrium syndrome is caused by rapid removal of solutes from the body during hemodialysis. At the same time, the blood-brain barrier interferes with the efficient removal of wastes from brain tissue. As a result, water goes into cerebral cells because of the osmotic gradient, causing increased intracranial pressure and onset of symptoms. The syndrome most often occurs in clients who are new to dialysis and is prevented by dialyzing for shorter times or at reduced blood flow rates. Tachycardia and fever are associated with infection. Generalized weakness is associated with low blood pressure and anemia. Restlessness and irritability are not associated with disequilibrium syndrome.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has returned from the dialysis unit following hemodialysis. The client is complaining of headache and nausea and is extremely restless. Which is the priority nursing action? 1. Monitor the client. 2. Elevate the head of the bed. 3. Assess the fistula site and dressing. 4. Notify the health care provider (HCP)

4 Disequilibrium syndrome may be caused by rapid removal of solutes from the body during hemodialysis. These changes can cause cerebral edema that leads to increased intracranial pressure. The client is exhibiting early signs and symptoms of disequilibrium syndrome and appropriate treatments with anticonvulsive medications and barbiturates may be necessary to prevent a life-threatening situation. The HCP must be notified. Monitoring the client, elevating the head of the bed, and assessing the fistula site are correct actions, but the priority action is to notify the HCP.

The nurse has given suggestions to a client with trigeminal neuralgia about strategies to minimize episodes of pain. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client makes which statement? 1. "I will wash my face with cotton pads." 2. "I'll have to start chewing on my unaffected side." 3. "I should rinse my mouth if toothbrushing is painful." 4. "I'll try to eat my food either very warm or very cold."

4 Facial pain can be minimized by using cotton pads to wash the face and using room temperature water. The client should chew on the unaffected side of the mouth, eat a soft diet, and take in foods and beverages at room temperature. If brushing the teeth triggers pain, an oral rinse after meals may be helpful instead.

A client is prescribed nicotinic acid for hyperlipidemia and the nurse provides instructions to the client about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions? 1. "It is not necessary to avoid the use of alcohol." 2. "The medication should be taken with meals to decrease flushing." 3. "Clay-colored stools are a common side effect and should not be of concern." 4. "Ibuprofen IB taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing."

4 Flushing is an adverse effect of this medication. Aspirin or a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug can be taken 30 minutes prior to taking the medication to decrease flushing. Alcohol consumption needs to be avoided because it will enhance this effect. The medication should be taken with meals to decrease gastrointestinal upset; however, taking the medication with meals has no effect on the flushing. Clay-colored stools are a sign of hepatic dysfunction and should be reported to the health care provider (HCP) immediately.

The client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which past medical history finding makes the client most at risk for this disease? 1. Meningitis or encephalitis during the last 5 years 2. Seizures or trauma to the brain within the last year 3. Back injury or trauma to the spinal cord during the last 2 years 4. Respiratory or gastrointestinal infection during the previous month

4 Guillain-Barre syndrome is a clinical syndrome of unknown origin that involves cranial and peripheral nerves. Many clients report a history of respiratory or gastrointestinal infection in the 1 to 4 weeks before the onset of neurological deficits. On occasion, the syndrome can be triggered by vaccination or surgery.

A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen is taken daily for the relief of generalized discomfort. Which laboratory value would indicate toxicity associated with the medication? 1. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L (140 mmol/L) 2. Platelet count of 400,000 mm3 (400 Â 109 /L) 3. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds (12 seconds) 4. Direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL (34 mcmol/L

4 In adults, overdose of acetaminophen causes liver damage. The correct option is an indicator of liver function and is the only option that indicates an abnormal laboratory value. The normal direct bilirubin level is 0.1 to 0.3 mg/dL (1.7 to 5.1 mcmol/L). The normal sodium level is 135 to 145 mEq/ L (135 to 145 mmol/L). The normal prothrombin time is 11 to 12.5 seconds (11 to 12.5 seconds). The normal platelet count is 150,000 to 400,000 mm3 (150-400 Â 109 /L).

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has been diagnosed with an allergy to latex. In determining the client's risk factors, the nurse should question the client about an allergy to which food item? 1. Eggs 2. Milk 3. Yogurt 4. Bananas

4 Individuals who are allergic to kiwis, bananas, pineapples, tropical fruits, grapes, avocados, potatoes, hazelnuts, or water chestnuts are at risk for developing a latex allergy. This is thought to be the result of a possible cross-reaction between the food and the latex allergen. Options 1, 2, and 3 are unrelated to latex allergy.

A client has clear fluid leaking from the nose following a basilar skull fracture. Which finding would alert the nurse that cerebrospinal fluid is present? 1. Fluid is clear and tests negative for glucose. 2. Fluid is grossly bloody in appearance and has a pH of 6. 3. Fluid clumps together on the dressing and has a pH of 7. 4. Fluid separates into concentric rings and tests positive for glucose.

4 Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ears or nose may accompany basilar skull fracture. CSF can be distinguished from other body fluids because the drainage will separate into bloody and yellow concentric rings on dressing material, called a halo sign. The fluid also tests positive for glucose.

Nitrofurantoin is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. The client contacts the nurse and reports a cough, chills, fever, and difficulty breathing. The nurse should make which interpretation about the client's complaints? 1. The client may have contracted the flu. 2. The client is experiencing anaphylaxis. 3. The client is experiencing the expected effects of the medication. 4. The client is experiencing a pulmonary reaction requiring cessation of the medication.

4 Nitrofurantoin can induce 2 kinds of pulmonary reactions: acute and subacute. Acute reactions, which are most common, manifest with dyspnea, chest pain, chills, fever, cough, and alveolar infiltrates. These symptoms resolve 2 to 4 days after discontinuing the medication. Acute pulmonary responses are thought to be hypersensitivity reactions. Subacute reactions are rare and occur during prolonged treatment. Symptoms (e.g., dyspnea, cough, malaise) usually regress over weeks to months following nitrofurantoin withdrawal. However, in some clients, permanent lung damage may occur. The remaining options are incorrect interpretations.

The nurse is reviewing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.16 seconds, and QRS complexes measure 0.06 seconds. The overall heart rate is 64 beats/minute. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Check vital signs. 2. Check laboratory test results. 3. Notify the health care provider. 4. Continue to monitor for any rhythm change.

4 Normal sinus rhythm is defined as a regular rhythm, with an overall rate of 60 to 100 beats/minute. The PR and QRS measurements are normal, measuring between 0.12 and 0.20 seconds and 0.04 and 0.10 seconds, respectively. There are no irregularities in this rhythm currently, so there is no immediate need to check vital signs or laboratory results, or to notify the health care provider. Therefore, the nurse would continue to monitor the client for any rhythm change.

Which medication, if prescribed for the client with glaucoma, should the nurse question? 1. Betaxolol 2. Pilocarpine 3. Erythromycin 4. Atropine sulfate

4 Options 1 and 2 are miotic agents used to treat glaucoma. Option 3 is an anti-infective medication used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis. Atropine sulfate is a mydriatic and cycloplegic (also anticholinergic) medication, and its use is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma. Mydriatic medications dilate the pupil and can cause an increase in intraocular pressure in the eye.

The nurse is performing an otoscopic examination on a client with mastoiditis. On examination of the tympanic membrane, which finding should the nurse expect to observe? 1. A pink-colored tympanic membrane 2. A pearly colored tympanic membrane 3. A transparent and clear tympanic membrane 4. A red, dull, thick, and immobile tympanic membrane

4 Otoscopic examination in a client with mastoiditis reveals a red, dull, thick, and immobile tympanic membrane, with or without perforation. Postauricular lymph nodes are tender and enlarged. Clients also have a low-grade fever, malaise, anorexia, swelling behind the ear, and pain with minimal movement of the head.

Alendronate is prescribed for a client with osteoporosis and the nurse is providing instructions on administration of the medication. Which instruction should the nurse provide? 1. Take the medication at bedtime. 2. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast. 3. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication. 4. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning.

4 Precautions need to be taken with the administration of alendronate to prevent gastrointestinal adverse effects (especially esophageal irritation) and to increase absorption of the medication. The medication needs to be taken with a full glass of water after rising in the morning. The client should not eat or drink anything for 30 minutes following administration and should not lie down after taking the medication.

The nurse is conducting health screening for osteoporosis. Which client is at greatest risk of developing this disorder? 1. A 25-year-old woman who runs 2. A 36-year-old man who has asthma 3. A70-year-old man who consumes excess alcohol 4. A sedentary 65-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes

4 Risk factors for osteoporosis include female gender, being postmenopausal, advanced age, a low-calcium diet, excessive alcohol intake, being sedentary, and smoking cigarettes. Long-term use of corticosteroids, anticonvulsants, and/or furosemide also increases the risk.

A client is being treated with procainamide for a cardiac dysrhythmia. Following intravenous administration of the medication, the client complains of dizziness. What intervention should the nurse take first? 1. Measure the heart rate on the rhythm strip. 2. Administer prescribed nitroglycerin tablets. 3. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram immediately. 4. Auscultate the client's apical pulse and obtain a blood pressure

4 Signs of toxicity from procainamide include confusion, dizziness, drowsiness, decreased urination, nausea, vomiting, and tachydysrhythmias. If the client complains of dizziness, the nurse should assess the vital signs first. Although measuring the heart rate on the rhythm strip and obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram may be interventions, these would be done after the vital signs are taken. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator and will lower the blood pressure.

A client in sinus bradycardia, with a heart rate of 45 beats/minute, complains of dizziness and has a blood pressure of 82/60 mm Hg. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed? 1. Administer digoxin. 2. Defibrillate the client. 3. Continue to monitor the client. 4. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing

4 Sinus bradycardia is noted with a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. This rhythm becomes a concern when the client becomes symptomatic. Hypotension and dizziness are signs of decreased cardiac output. Transcutaneous pacing provides a temporary measure to increase the heart rate and thus perfusion in the symptomatic client. Defibrillation is used for treatment of pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. Digoxin will further decrease the client's heart rate. Continuing to monitor the client delays necessary intervention.

A hemodialysis client with a left arm fistula is at risk for arterial steal syndrome. The nurse should assess for which manifestations of this complication? 1. Warmth, redness, and pain in the left hand 2. Ecchymosis and audible bruit over the fistula 3. Edema and reddish discoloration of the left arm 4. Pallor, diminished pulse, and pain in the left hand

4 Steal syndrome results from vascular insufficiency after creation of a fistula. The client exhibits pallor and a diminished pulse distal to the fistula. The client also complains of pain distal to the fistula, caused by tissue ischemia. Warmth and redness probably would characterize a problem with infection. Ecchymosis and a bruit are normal findings for a fistula.

The nurse is admitting a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome to the nursing unit. The client has ascending paralysis to the level of the waist. Knowing the complications of the disorder, the nurse should bring which most essential items into the client's room? 1. Nebulizer and pulse oximeter 2. Blood pressure cuff and flashlight 3. Flashlight and incentive spirometer 4. Electrocardiographic monitoring electrodes and intubation tray

4 The client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is at risk for respiratory failure because of ascending paralysis. An intubation tray should be available for use. Another complication of this syndrome is cardiac dysrhythmias, which necessitates the use of electrocardiographic monitoring. Because the client is immobilized, the nurse should assess for deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism routinely. Although items in the incorrect options may be used in care, they are not the most essential items from the options provided.

The nurse is instructing a client with Parkinson's disease about preventing falls. Which client statement reflects a need for further teaching? 1. "I can sit down to put on my pants and shoes." 2. "I try to exercise every day and rest when I'm tired." 3. "My son removed all loose rugs from my bedroom." 4. "I don't need to use my walker to get to the bathroom.

4 The client with Parkinson's disease should be instructed regarding safety measures in the home. The client should use his or her walker as support to get to the bathroom because of bradykinesia. The client should sit down to put on pants and shoes to prevent falling. The client should exercise every day in the morning when energy levels are highest. The client should have all loose rugs in the home removed to prevent falling.

A client in ventricular fibrillation is about to be defibrillated. To convert this rhythm effectively, the monophasic defibrillator machine should be set at which energy level (in joules, J) for the first delivery? 1. 50 J 2. 120 J 3. 200 J 4. 360 J

4 The energy level used for all defibrillation attempts with a monophasic defibrillator is 360 joules.

A client who is receiving digoxin daily has a serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L (3 mmol/L) and is complaining of anorexia. The health care provider prescribes a serum digoxin level to be done. The nurse checks the results and should expect to note which level that is outside of the therapeutic range? 1. 0.3 ng/mL 2. 0.5 ng/mL 3. 0.8 ng/mL 4. 1.0 ng/mL

4 The optimal therapeutic range for digoxin is 0.5 to 0.8 ng/mL. If the client is experiencing symptoms such as anorexia and is experiencing hypokalemia as evidenced by a low potassium level, digoxin toxicity is a concern. Therefore, option 4 is correct because it is outside of the therapeutic level and an elevated level.

Oxybutynin chloride is prescribed for a client with urge incontinence. Which sign would indicate a possible toxic effect related to this medication? 1. Pallor 2. Drowsiness 3. Bradycardia 4. Restlessness

4 Toxicity (overdosage) of oxybutynin produces central nervous system excitation, such as nervousness, restlessness, hallucinations, and irritability. Other signs of toxicity include hypotension or hypertension, confusion, tachycardia, flushed or red face, and signs of respiratory depression. Drowsiness is a frequent side effect of the medication but does not indicate overdosage.

A male client has a tentative diagnosis of urethritis. The nurse should assess the client for which manifestation of the disorder? 1. Hematuria and pyuria 2. Dysuria and proteinuria 3. Hematuria and urgency 4. Dysuria and penile discharge

4 Urethritis in the male client often results from chlamydial infection and is characterized by dysuria, which is accompanied by a clear to mucopurulent discharge. Because this disorder often coexists with gonorrhea, diagnostic tests are done for both and include culture and rapid assays. Hematuria is not associated with urethritis. Proteinuria is associated with kidney dysfunction.

A client with variant angina is scheduled to receive an oral calcium channel blocker twice daily. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching? 1. "I should notify my doctor if my feet or legs start to swell." 2. "My doctor told me to call his office if my pulse rate decreases below 60." 3. "Avoiding grapefruit juice will definitely be a challenge for me, since I usually drink it every morning with breakfast." 4. "My spouse told me that since I have developed this problem, we are going to stop walking in the mall every morning."

4 Variant angina, or Prinzmetal's angina, is prolonged and severe and occurs at the same time each day, most often at rest. The pain is a result of coronary artery spasm. The treatment of choice is usually a calcium channel blocker, which relaxes and dilates the vascular smooth muscle, thus relieving the coronary artery spasm in variant angina. Adverse effects can include peripheral edema, hypotension, bradycardia, and heart failure. Grapefruit juice interacts with calcium channel blockers and should be avoided. If bradycardia occurs, the client should contact the health care provider. Clients should also be taught to change positions slowly to prevent orthostatic hypotension. Physical exertion does not cause this type of angina; therefore, the client should be able to continue morning walks with his or her spouse.