Section 5 - NASM CPT
From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients?
4 to 6 drills
What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients?
48-72 hours
Set
A group of consecutive repetitions.
talk test
An aerobic test that measures the participants ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels.
posterior pelvic tilt
An excessive rotation of the pelvis that results in lesser lumbar lordosis.
Training intensity
An individual's level of effort, compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage.
Fundamental movement patterns
Common and essential movements performed in daily life and are involved in exercise motions within a training session.
Ball combo I
Consists of three parts: Y, T then A position (or scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra)
Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training?
Integrated training
Which of the following is an all-inclusive approach to exercise that can lead to improvements in overall health, wellness and athletic performance?
Integrated training
Osteokinematics
Movement of a limb that is visible.
Horizontal Loading
Performing all sets of an exercise (or body part) before moving on to the next exercise (or body part)
Which phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model is designed to teach optimal movement patterns and to help clients become familiar with various modes of exercise?
Phase 1
What is defined as the ability to generate force as quickly as possible?
Rate of force production
What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ?
Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change
Controversial stretches
Stretches that have the potential for injury risk.
Dynamic balance
The ability to maintain a center of mass over an ever-changing base of support.
Adherence
The level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action.
Rate of progression
The process and speed from which frequency, intensity, time, and type are increased.
autogenic inhibition
The process by which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles.
Homeostasis
The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium.
What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?
To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
Superset
Two exercises performed back to back in rapid succession with minimal to no rest.
muscular hypertrophy
enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers.
Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?
nerves
Repetition
one complete movement of an exercise
Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness (DOMS)
Pain or discomfort often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity.
Nociceptors
Pain receptors located in the skin and fascia connective tissues.
Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?
Plyometric training
What issue is indicated by abdominal protrusion during marching exercises?
Poor activation of the local cores
Postural Distortion Patterns
Predictable patterns of muscle imbalances
Ventilation
Process by which oxygen is transferred to the muscles from the lungs.
Frontside Mechanics
Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis.
Backside Mechanics
Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis.
This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone's static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance
Proprioceptively enriched
vestibular system
Provides information about the position of the body and head, and spatial orientation relative to its surrounding environment; located in the inner ears that assist with balance.
somatosensory system
Provides information that is acquired from receptors in the body (skin, muscle, joints, tendons) about the position and motion of the body parts relative to other body regions and the support surface.
What resistance training system involved a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set?
Pyramid system
Which of the following refers to the ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time?
Rate of force production
Ground Reaction Force
Reaction force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it.
What is plyometric training also known as?
Reactive training - plyometric training helps develop efficient control of ground reaction forces, so it is also called reactive training.
When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antragonist. What is this phenomenon called?
Reciprocal inhibition
Metabolic Specificity
Refers to the energy demand placed on the body.
Midpoint
Refers to the intensity level halfway between ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) and ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2).
Neuromuscular Specificity
Refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection.
Mechanical Specificity
Refers to the weight and movements placed on the body.
Unilateral
Relating to one side of the body.
unilateral
Relating to one side of the body.
bilateral
Relating to two sides of the body.
When performing rows, how should the client initiate the movement?
Retracting and depressing the shoulder blades
When performing the single leg hip rotation exercise, what will help to decrease the stress to the spine and enhance control of the core?
Rotate through the hip of the balance leg rather than the spine
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?
Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
What should precede dynamic stretching if an individual possesses muscle imbalances?
Self-myofascial techniques and static stretching
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural conte within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support?
Semi-dynamic balance
What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?
Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
muscle spindles
Sensory receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change.
Which of the following total-body exercises targets many muscles of the posterior chain, including the gluteus Maximus and should retractors, such as the posterior deltoids and rhomboids?
Single leg squat to row
Which of the following exercises is appropriate for entry-level balance training?
Single-leg lift and chop
Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?
Single-leg squat
To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create?
Small circuits - performing small circuits using a variety of SAQ drills is very helpful for weight-loss clients.
Golgi tendon organs
Specialized sensory receptor located at the point where skeletal muscle fibers insert into the tendons of the skeletal muscle; sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of tension change.
SAQ is broken down into what three components?
Speed, agility and quickness.
During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body?
Squat, curl, to two-arm press
Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise?
Squatting
What is defined as the body's ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements?
Stabilization
When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased?
Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing
Which of the following provides greater demands on core stability and proprioception by progressing from bilateral to unilateral movements, using slow repetition tempos and high repetition schemes?
Stabilization-focused exercises
What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such a reducing their risk for diabetes?
Stage 1
Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?
Stage 2
Davis's Law
States that soft tissue models along the lines of stress
Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience within the last few months?
Strength Endurance Training
What exercise equipment should clients always use when performing plyometric training, due to its high-impact nature?
Supportive shoes
The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?
Synergistic dominance
What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle?
Synergistic dominance
What term refers to the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergistic take over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover (agonist)?
Synergistic dominance
Self-myofascial techniques
Techniques used for treating and breaking up adhesions of the fascia and the surrounding muscle tissues; examples include foam rolling or self-massage.
core stability
The ability of an individual to maintain a given position, adequately stabilizing the spine while the extremities are moving.
cardiorespiratory fitness
The ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to supply oxygen-rich blood to skeletal muscles during sustained physical activity.
Neuromuscular efficiency
The ability of the nervous system to recruit the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body's structure in all three planes of motion.
Core endurance
The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration.
core strength
The ability to control the motion of the spine.
stretch tolerance
The ability to experience the physical sensations of stretching to reduce the discomfort felt at the end range of motion.
Semi-dynamic balance
The ability to maintain the center of mass with a stationary base of support yet allowing movement for the base supporting the body.
Static balance
The ability to maintain the center of mass within the base support in a stationary position, meaning no linear or angular movement.
Speed
The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible.
Agility
The ability to start (or accelerate), stop (or decelerate and stabilize), and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control.
Bone densitt
The amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorus, in a segment of bone.
Enjoyment
The amount of pleasure derived from performing a physical activity
Training Duration
The amount of time of a training session.
center of gravity
The approximate midpoint of the body; while the location may vary between individuals, it is typically located at the midportion of the trunk.
Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?
The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface
Limits of Stability (LOS)
The area within which an individual can move ones center of gravity without changing the base of support without falling.
Resistance Development
The body increases its functional capacity to adapt to the stressor.
Proprioception
The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts.
Stabilization
The body's ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements.
Myofascial
The body's connective tissue that includes muscles and fascia.
Human movement system (HMS)
The collective components and structures that work together to move the body: muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems.
Myofibrils
The contractile components of a muscle cell; the myofilaments (actin and myosin) are contained within a myofibril.
Range of Motion (ROM)
The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move; often measured in degrees.
range of motion
The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move; often measured in degrees.
Arthrokinematics
The description of joint surface movement; consists of three major types: roll, slide, and spin.
Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.
stride length
The distance covered with each stride during the gait cycle.
time
The duration an individual is engaged in a given activity
Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic?
The exercise is intense.
Which portion of a clients exercise program should be designed first?
The flexibility portion
activities of daily living (ADLs)
The fundamental tastes needed to manage basic self-car activities, such as bathing, dressing, grooming, meal preparation and feeding, and homemaking.
Alarm Reaction Stage
The initial reaction to a stressor.
What does the term midpoint refer to?
The intensity level halfway between VT1 and VT2
sensorimotor function
The interaction between the way the body processes visual, vestibular, and somatosensory information with the motor response of the body to that information.
Intensity
The level of demand that a given activity places on the body
type
The mode of physical activity in which an individual is engaged.
Synergistic Dominance
The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover.
Lordotic/Lordosis
The normal curvature of the cervical and lumbar spine regions, creating a concave portion of the spine.
Kyphotic/Kyphosis
The normal curvature of the thoracic spine region, creating a convex portion of the spine.
Flexibility
The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows the full range of motion of a joint
Stride rate
The number of strides taken in a given amount of time (or distance).
Frequency
The number of training sessions in a given timeframe
Training Frequency
The number of training sessions performed during a specified period (usually 1 week)
Post-activation potentiation (PAP)
The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle.
ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)
The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources.
Ventilatory threshold (Tvent)
The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake, signifying a switch from predominately aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production.
Relative Flexibility
The process in which the body seeks the path of least resistance during functional movements.
inspiration
The process of contracting the inspiratory muscles to move air into the body.
peripheral heart action system
The resistance training system that is another variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit
Neuromuscular control
The response (conscious or unconscious) of the muscles within the body to control purposeful movement.
Repetition Tempo
The speed with which each repetition is performed.
Morbidity
The state of having a disease.
Why is the hurdler's stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch?
The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.
Core
The structures that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC), including the lumbar spine, the pelvic girdle, abdomen, and the hip joint.
Training Volume
The sum of the repetitions performed in a given set during each training session, multiplied by the resistance used.
Force-couple relationship
The synergistic action of multiple muscles working together to produce movement around a joint.
Rest Interval
The time taken to recuperate between sets
Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate?
The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
Amortization phase
The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading during the stretch-shortening cycle.
Why are acute variables an important part of exercise programming?
They specify how each exercise is to be performed, which can help achieve goals.
The circuit-training system
This consists of a series of exercises that an individual performs one after another with minimal rest.
Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch?
This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.
Soft tissue
Tissue connecting, supporting, and surrounding bodily structures and organs.
Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following?
Tissue overload
With regard to the cumulative injury cycle, current theory supports the idea that repetitive movements, such as long periods of poor posture, are believed to lead to which of the following?
Tissue trauma and inflammation
What is the goal of core training?
To develop optimal levels of stability, muscular endurance, strength, and power
Integrated Performance Paradigm
To move with efficiency, forces must be dampened (eccentrically), stabilized (isometrically), and then accelerated (concentrically).
What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?
To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.
What is the goal of dynamic stretching?
To prepare the body for more intense and
What synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
Triceps Brachii
True or false: the forward rounding of the shoulders theoretical limits the ability to lift the rib cage during ventilation and forcefully contract the diaphragm during inspiration.
True.
What is the proper lower-body progression for balance training when starting with a new client?
Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable - progression should go from the most stable and easy to perform to less stable and more challenging.
Local muscles consist primarily of which type of muscle fiber?
Type 1
What term is used to describe the point during graded exercise in which there is a switch from predominantly aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production?
Ventilatory threshold (Tvent)
What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?
Volume and progression
underactive
When a muscle is experiencing neural inhibition and limited neuromuscular recruitment.
lengthening reaction
When a muscle is lengthened, a cascade of neurological reactions occur that allows the muscle to be stretched.
Altered length-tension relationship
When a muscle's resting length is too short or too long, reducing the amount of force it can produce.
reciprocal inhibition
When an agonist receives a signal to contract, its functional antagonist also receives an inhibitory signal allowing it to lengthen.
Overactive
When elevated neural drive causes a muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction.
Muscle Imbalance
When muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships.
foot and ankle complex
While sprinting forward, the foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexion position when it hits the ground. Slight devotions (e.g., foot external rotation) are expected during multidirectional running and lateral shuffles.
complex training
a combination of high-intensity resistance training followed by plyometrics
What is sarcopenia?
age related loss of muscle tissue
Vertical loading
alternating body parts trained from set to set, starting from the upper extremity and moving to the lower extremity
During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force Production?
amortization
What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?
amortization
Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?
arthrokinematics
When performing the T-drill, which movement is used to complete the last 10 yards of the drill?
backpedal
Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus?
calf raise
Which of the following exercises helps strengthen the gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantar flexor muscles?
calf raise
What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish?
deceleration
Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training?
decrease metabolic rate
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability?
dynamic balance
Maintaining ones balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance?
dynamic balance: dynamic balance occurs when an individual has to maintain their center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability.
What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises?
eccentric loading
plyometric training
exercises that generate quick, powerful movements involving an explosive concentric muscle contraction preceded by an eccentric muscle action
The use of weight belts for apparently healthy adults engaging in a moderately intense exercise program is recommended?
false
Which surface would be the easiest for a new client starting a balance training program?
firm surface
What is the number one cause of death around the world?
heart disease
What is the number one cause of death in the United States?
heart disease
Which of the following global muscles primary action is hip flexion?
iliopsoas
Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine.
increased lordosis - if a client contracts muscles of the core to generate more anterior pelvic tilt; this would result in increased lordosis at the lumbar spine.
What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?
intensity
What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?
isometric
Which of the following is a predictive factor for knee injury?
knee valgus
Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw?
latissimus dorsi
When performing the modified box drill, where should the client begin?
middle cone
Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body?
muscle hypertrophy
What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time?
muscular endurance
Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity?
neuromuscular function
What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise?
posterior chain - which includes the hamstrings, gluteals, and back musculature, is primarily targeted.
What term refers to increasing the intensity or volume of an exercise program using systematic and gradual approach?
progressive overload
Exhaustion
prolonged stress or stress that is intolerable and will produce exhaustion or distress to the system
What is defined as the awareness of the positioning and movement of body segments?
proprioception
What is the mechanism of action for active stretching?
reciprocal inhibition
When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called?
reciprocal inhibition
What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a plyometric training regimen?
recovery
According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will not include which of the following factors for training?
rehabilitation
Bilateral
relating to two sides of the body.
Which of the following is a common compensation that occurs when performing a standing cable chest press?
shoulder shrug
What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible?
speed - speed involved movement in one direction as fast as possible.
Which stage(s) are most appropriate and effective for improving health and wellness, as well as promoting a healthy body weight for most weight-loss clients and those new to exercise?
stages 1 and 2
Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?
standing
Maintaining ones balance while standing still on a single foot on contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance?
static balance
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control in a stationary position?
static balance
What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?
step ups
If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?
sternocleidomastoid
What is defined as the distance covered in one stride?
stride length
Speed is the product of what two variables?
stride rate and stride length
Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)?
tensor fascia latae
strength
the ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load
Muscular Endurance
the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time
Quickness
the ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities
Base of support
the area beneath a person that includes every point of contact that the person makes with the supporting surface
central nervous system
the division of the nervous system consisting of the brain and spinal cord
Posture
the relative disposition of the body parts in relation to the physical position, such as standing, lying down, and sitting.
Volume
total amount of weight lifted in a training session
The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle?
transverse abdominis
When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?
transverse abdominis
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?
transverse abdominis
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
visual system
What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?
volume
What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps?
0-90 seconds
Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?
1 or 2 sets
What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?
1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions
What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling?
1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds
With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform?
1-4 sets
What is the shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?
10 minutes
What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion?
140 beats per minute
What is the corresponding heart rate for intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion?
140; with the original Borg 6 to 20 scale, each value corresponds to a heart rate. For example, a score of 120 beats per minute, and a score of 16 equals 160 beats per minute.
If a client is exercising for 150 minutes per week (30 minutes, 5 days per week), then a 10% increase in volume would result in how many minutes total per week?
165 minutes per week
You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
3-5 reps
A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed?
4 seconds - the number 4 represents lowering the body toward the floor for 4 seconds; this is the eccentric action of the push-up exercise.
What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?
4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?
5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down?
5-10 minutes
Collagen matrix
A complex meshwork of connective tissue, including collagen proteins.
Osteoperosis
A condition of reduced bone mineral density, which increases risk of bone fracture.
Cumulative Injury Cycle
A cycle whereby tissue trauma will induce inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalances.
Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)
A high-energy molecule that serves as the main form of energy in the human body; known as the energy currency of the body.
anterior cruciate ligament
A key ligament within the knee joint that provides stability to limit excessive motion of the tibia relative to the femur.
Drawing-in Maneuver
A maneuver used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the navel in toward the spine.
Tanaka Formula
A mathematical formula used to estimate an individual's maximal heart rate: 208 - (0.7 × age).
motor unit
A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates
target heart rate
A predetermined exercising heart rate.
Principle of Specificity
A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it; also known as the Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands (SAID) principle.
Valsalva maneuver
A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability.
contraindication
A specific situation where a medication, procedure, or exercise should be avoided because it may prove to be harmful to the individual.
mortality
A state or a risk of death or dying.
pyramid system
A system of strength training that involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases weight with each set or decreases weight with each set
Superset System
A system of strength training that uses a couple of exercises performed in rapid succession of one another
Split-Routine System
A system that incorporates training an individual's body parts with a high volume on separate days.
Integrated Training
A training concept that applies all forms of exercise, such as flexibility; cardiorespiratory; core; balance; plyometric; speed, agility, quickness; and resistance training, into one system.
systematic review
A type of research article that synthesizes and summarizes findings from multiple existing research articles on a specific topic.
static stretching
A type of stretch where the muscle is passively lengthened to the point of tension and held for a sustained amount of time.
active stretching
A type of stretching that uses agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion; includes holding the stretched position for 1-2 seconds and repeating for 5-10 repetitions.
dynamic stretching
A type of stretching that uses the force production of a muscle and the bodies momentum to take a joint through the full available range of motion.
Fascia System
A web of connecting fibers made of connective tissues that are found just under the skin.
Rate of Force Production
Ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.
What is the term used to describe a type of stretching are uses agonist and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion?
Active stretching
What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?
Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
Steady-state (SS) aerobic exercise
Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption.
What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome?
Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion
Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?
Altered movement patterns
Scoliosis
An abnormal curve of the spine from side to side.
sarcopenia
An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults.
Perturbation
An alteration of the body's current state caused by the application of an external force.
What is a drop set?
An approach that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set
anterior pelvic tilt
An excessive forward rotation of the pelvis that results in greater lumbar lordosis.
High-intensity interval training (HIIT)
An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods.
Training Intensity
An individual's level of effort, compared with his or her maximal effort; usually expressed as a percentage.
Proprioceptively enriched environment
An unstable (yet controllable) physical situation in which exercises are performed that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms.
What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics?
Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg
Medical precautions
Any medical conditions that could be potentially unsafe for a client.
Which of the following is a component of quickness training?
Assessment of visual stimuli
When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called?
Autogenic inhibition
Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement?
Ball squat, curl to press
NASM recommends the cardiorespiratory portion of a warm-up be performed at a low-to-moderate intensity and last for how long?
Between 5 and 10 minutes
What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?
Bracing
What term refers to a co-contraction of global muscles such as the rectus abdominus and external obliques?
Bracing
Extensibility
Capability to be elongated or stretched
Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?
Close grip bench press
Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?
Close grip bench press - the proper hand position should be slightly inside shoulder-width apart during this exercise.
A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used?
Complex training
Pattern Overload
Consistently repeating the same pattern of motion over long periods of time that can lead to dysfunction or injury.
bracing
Contracting the global abdominals such as the rectus abdominis and obliques at the same time.
Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?
Davis's law
General Adaptation Syndrome
Describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress.
What are the exercises included in the last progression of balance training designed to do?
Develop proper deceleration ability to move the body from a dynamic state to a controlled stationary position
EICI
Eccentric - lowering phase Isometric - pause immediately following lowering phase Concentric - raising phase Isometric - pause immediately following raising phase
No exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores and taking the stairs.
hypertrophy
Enlargement of an organ or tissue; in the context of fitness, it is often used to describe the enlargement of skeletal muscle.
Overtraining
Excessive frequency, volume, or intensity of training, resulting in fatigue (which is also caused by a lack of proper rest and recovery).
Plyometric exercises are only appropriate for athletes?
False
Static stretching, when performed for 30 seconds or less prior to every workout and followed by dynamic activities, impairs athletic performance.
False
While performing a ball bridge exercise, clients should be instructed to avoid resting the head and shoulders on top of the stability ball.
False
What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?
Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components?
Flexibility and joint ROM
Power
Force x velocity or work / time
When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2?
From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2
Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (power training) superset?
Front medicine ball oblique throw
Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?
Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins?
Gentle static stretching
Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling?
Handstand Push Up
Mechanical effect
Having a physical effect.
Neurophysiological effect
Having an effect on the nervous system.
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?
Ice skaters - Powerful movements are the next step after repeated plyometric exercises can be performed efficiently.
Acute Variables
Important components that specify how each exercise is to be performed.
Acute variables
Important components that specify how each exercise is to be performed.
Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training?
Improved sleep
Triple flexion
Includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion; the lead leg while sprinting.
Triple extension
Includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension and hip extension; the rear leg while sprinting.
What is a physical benefit of resistance training?
Increased muscular hypertrophy
progressive overload
Increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach.
Which term best describes core trainings effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries?
Injury resistance
Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training?
Interval phase
Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?
Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency
Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement?
It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.
When performing a single-leg dumbbell curl; which of the following ensures proper scapular stability, placing more of an emphasis on the biceps musculature?
Keeping the scapulae retracted
Which of the following is an antirotational exercise designed to target the local core muscles?
Kneeling Pallof press
Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following?
Less braking force
stretch-shortening cycle
Loading of a muscle eccentrically to prepare it for a rapid concentric contraction.
General Warm-Up
Low intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise that is to follow
Specific Warm-Up
Low intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those that will be included in the more intense exercise that is to follow
How is a general warm-up best defined?
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
osteopenia
Lower than normal bone density and a precursor to osteoporosis.
The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body?
Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region
Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting?
Maximal Strength Training
Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?
Medicine ball pullover throw
Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?
Multifidus
Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?
Multifidus
Type 1 (slow twitch) muscle fibers
Muscle fibers that are small in size, generate lower amounts of force, and are more resistant to fatigue.
What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training?
Muscular hypertrophy
stretch reflex
Neurological signal from the muscle spindle that causes a muscle to contract to prevent excessive lengthening.
How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise?
No more than 10% of body weight - the goal is to throw the ball as hard as possible to maximize power production.
How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer thrown exercise?
No more than 10% of body weight.
Altered reciprocal inhibition
Occurs when an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to its functional antagonist.
self-efficacy
One's belief in his or her own ability.
mobility
Optimal flexibility and joint range of motion; ability to move freely.
When introducing plyometric exercises, especially to new or beginner clients, movements should involve lower amplitude jumps; designed to establish which of the following?
Optimal landing mechanics