Section 5 - NASM CPT

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From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients?

4 to 6 drills

What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients?

48-72 hours

Set

A group of consecutive repetitions.

talk test

An aerobic test that measures the participants ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels.

posterior pelvic tilt

An excessive rotation of the pelvis that results in lesser lumbar lordosis.

Training intensity

An individual's level of effort, compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage.

Fundamental movement patterns

Common and essential movements performed in daily life and are involved in exercise motions within a training session.

Ball combo I

Consists of three parts: Y, T then A position (or scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra)

Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training?

Integrated training

Which of the following is an all-inclusive approach to exercise that can lead to improvements in overall health, wellness and athletic performance?

Integrated training

Osteokinematics

Movement of a limb that is visible.

Horizontal Loading

Performing all sets of an exercise (or body part) before moving on to the next exercise (or body part)

Which phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model is designed to teach optimal movement patterns and to help clients become familiar with various modes of exercise?

Phase 1

What is defined as the ability to generate force as quickly as possible?

Rate of force production

What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ?

Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change

Controversial stretches

Stretches that have the potential for injury risk.

Dynamic balance

The ability to maintain a center of mass over an ever-changing base of support.

Adherence

The level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action.

Rate of progression

The process and speed from which frequency, intensity, time, and type are increased.

autogenic inhibition

The process by which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles.

Homeostasis

The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium.

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?

To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

Superset

Two exercises performed back to back in rapid succession with minimal to no rest.

muscular hypertrophy

enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers.

Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?

nerves

Repetition

one complete movement of an exercise

Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness (DOMS)

Pain or discomfort often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity.

Nociceptors

Pain receptors located in the skin and fascia connective tissues.

Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?

Plyometric training

What issue is indicated by abdominal protrusion during marching exercises?

Poor activation of the local cores

Postural Distortion Patterns

Predictable patterns of muscle imbalances

Ventilation

Process by which oxygen is transferred to the muscles from the lungs.

Frontside Mechanics

Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis.

Backside Mechanics

Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis.

This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone's static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance

Proprioceptively enriched

vestibular system

Provides information about the position of the body and head, and spatial orientation relative to its surrounding environment; located in the inner ears that assist with balance.

somatosensory system

Provides information that is acquired from receptors in the body (skin, muscle, joints, tendons) about the position and motion of the body parts relative to other body regions and the support surface.

What resistance training system involved a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set?

Pyramid system

Which of the following refers to the ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time?

Rate of force production

Ground Reaction Force

Reaction force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it.

What is plyometric training also known as?

Reactive training - plyometric training helps develop efficient control of ground reaction forces, so it is also called reactive training.

When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antragonist. What is this phenomenon called?

Reciprocal inhibition

Metabolic Specificity

Refers to the energy demand placed on the body.

Midpoint

Refers to the intensity level halfway between ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) and ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2).

Neuromuscular Specificity

Refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection.

Mechanical Specificity

Refers to the weight and movements placed on the body.

Unilateral

Relating to one side of the body.

unilateral

Relating to one side of the body.

bilateral

Relating to two sides of the body.

When performing rows, how should the client initiate the movement?

Retracting and depressing the shoulder blades

When performing the single leg hip rotation exercise, what will help to decrease the stress to the spine and enhance control of the core?

Rotate through the hip of the balance leg rather than the spine

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?

Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

What should precede dynamic stretching if an individual possesses muscle imbalances?

Self-myofascial techniques and static stretching

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural conte within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support?

Semi-dynamic balance

What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?

Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change

muscle spindles

Sensory receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change.

Which of the following total-body exercises targets many muscles of the posterior chain, including the gluteus Maximus and should retractors, such as the posterior deltoids and rhomboids?

Single leg squat to row

Which of the following exercises is appropriate for entry-level balance training?

Single-leg lift and chop

Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion?

Single-leg squat

To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create?

Small circuits - performing small circuits using a variety of SAQ drills is very helpful for weight-loss clients.

Golgi tendon organs

Specialized sensory receptor located at the point where skeletal muscle fibers insert into the tendons of the skeletal muscle; sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of tension change.

SAQ is broken down into what three components?

Speed, agility and quickness.

During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body?

Squat, curl, to two-arm press

Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise?

Squatting

What is defined as the body's ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements?

Stabilization

When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased?

Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing

Which of the following provides greater demands on core stability and proprioception by progressing from bilateral to unilateral movements, using slow repetition tempos and high repetition schemes?

Stabilization-focused exercises

What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such a reducing their risk for diabetes?

Stage 1

Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?

Stage 2

Davis's Law

States that soft tissue models along the lines of stress

Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience within the last few months?

Strength Endurance Training

What exercise equipment should clients always use when performing plyometric training, due to its high-impact nature?

Supportive shoes

The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?

Synergistic dominance

What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle?

Synergistic dominance

What term refers to the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergistic take over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover (agonist)?

Synergistic dominance

Self-myofascial techniques

Techniques used for treating and breaking up adhesions of the fascia and the surrounding muscle tissues; examples include foam rolling or self-massage.

core stability

The ability of an individual to maintain a given position, adequately stabilizing the spine while the extremities are moving.

cardiorespiratory fitness

The ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to supply oxygen-rich blood to skeletal muscles during sustained physical activity.

Neuromuscular efficiency

The ability of the nervous system to recruit the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body's structure in all three planes of motion.

Core endurance

The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration.

core strength

The ability to control the motion of the spine.

stretch tolerance

The ability to experience the physical sensations of stretching to reduce the discomfort felt at the end range of motion.

Semi-dynamic balance

The ability to maintain the center of mass with a stationary base of support yet allowing movement for the base supporting the body.

Static balance

The ability to maintain the center of mass within the base support in a stationary position, meaning no linear or angular movement.

Speed

The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible.

Agility

The ability to start (or accelerate), stop (or decelerate and stabilize), and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control.

Bone densitt

The amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorus, in a segment of bone.

Enjoyment

The amount of pleasure derived from performing a physical activity

Training Duration

The amount of time of a training session.

center of gravity

The approximate midpoint of the body; while the location may vary between individuals, it is typically located at the midportion of the trunk.

Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body?

The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface

Limits of Stability (LOS)

The area within which an individual can move ones center of gravity without changing the base of support without falling.

Resistance Development

The body increases its functional capacity to adapt to the stressor.

Proprioception

The body's ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts.

Stabilization

The body's ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements.

Myofascial

The body's connective tissue that includes muscles and fascia.

Human movement system (HMS)

The collective components and structures that work together to move the body: muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems.

Myofibrils

The contractile components of a muscle cell; the myofilaments (actin and myosin) are contained within a myofibril.

Range of Motion (ROM)

The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move; often measured in degrees.

range of motion

The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move; often measured in degrees.

Arthrokinematics

The description of joint surface movement; consists of three major types: roll, slide, and spin.

Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?

The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.

stride length

The distance covered with each stride during the gait cycle.

time

The duration an individual is engaged in a given activity

Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic?

The exercise is intense.

Which portion of a clients exercise program should be designed first?

The flexibility portion

activities of daily living (ADLs)

The fundamental tastes needed to manage basic self-car activities, such as bathing, dressing, grooming, meal preparation and feeding, and homemaking.

Alarm Reaction Stage

The initial reaction to a stressor.

What does the term midpoint refer to?

The intensity level halfway between VT1 and VT2

sensorimotor function

The interaction between the way the body processes visual, vestibular, and somatosensory information with the motor response of the body to that information.

Intensity

The level of demand that a given activity places on the body

type

The mode of physical activity in which an individual is engaged.

Synergistic Dominance

The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover.

Lordotic/Lordosis

The normal curvature of the cervical and lumbar spine regions, creating a concave portion of the spine.

Kyphotic/Kyphosis

The normal curvature of the thoracic spine region, creating a convex portion of the spine.

Flexibility

The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows the full range of motion of a joint

Stride rate

The number of strides taken in a given amount of time (or distance).

Frequency

The number of training sessions in a given timeframe

Training Frequency

The number of training sessions performed during a specified period (usually 1 week)

Post-activation potentiation (PAP)

The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle.

ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)

The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources.

Ventilatory threshold (Tvent)

The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake, signifying a switch from predominately aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production.

Relative Flexibility

The process in which the body seeks the path of least resistance during functional movements.

inspiration

The process of contracting the inspiratory muscles to move air into the body.

peripheral heart action system

The resistance training system that is another variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit

Neuromuscular control

The response (conscious or unconscious) of the muscles within the body to control purposeful movement.

Repetition Tempo

The speed with which each repetition is performed.

Morbidity

The state of having a disease.

Why is the hurdler's stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch?

The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.

Core

The structures that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC), including the lumbar spine, the pelvic girdle, abdomen, and the hip joint.

Training Volume

The sum of the repetitions performed in a given set during each training session, multiplied by the resistance used.

Force-couple relationship

The synergistic action of multiple muscles working together to produce movement around a joint.

Rest Interval

The time taken to recuperate between sets

Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate?

The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

Amortization phase

The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading during the stretch-shortening cycle.

Why are acute variables an important part of exercise programming?

They specify how each exercise is to be performed, which can help achieve goals.

The circuit-training system

This consists of a series of exercises that an individual performs one after another with minimal rest.

Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch?

This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.

Soft tissue

Tissue connecting, supporting, and surrounding bodily structures and organs.

Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following?

Tissue overload

With regard to the cumulative injury cycle, current theory supports the idea that repetitive movements, such as long periods of poor posture, are believed to lead to which of the following?

Tissue trauma and inflammation

What is the goal of core training?

To develop optimal levels of stability, muscular endurance, strength, and power

Integrated Performance Paradigm

To move with efficiency, forces must be dampened (eccentrically), stabilized (isometrically), and then accelerated (concentrically).

What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?

To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.

What is the goal of dynamic stretching?

To prepare the body for more intense and

What synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?

Triceps Brachii

True or false: the forward rounding of the shoulders theoretical limits the ability to lift the rib cage during ventilation and forcefully contract the diaphragm during inspiration.

True.

What is the proper lower-body progression for balance training when starting with a new client?

Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable - progression should go from the most stable and easy to perform to less stable and more challenging.

Local muscles consist primarily of which type of muscle fiber?

Type 1

What term is used to describe the point during graded exercise in which there is a switch from predominantly aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production?

Ventilatory threshold (Tvent)

What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training?

Volume and progression

underactive

When a muscle is experiencing neural inhibition and limited neuromuscular recruitment.

lengthening reaction

When a muscle is lengthened, a cascade of neurological reactions occur that allows the muscle to be stretched.

Altered length-tension relationship

When a muscle's resting length is too short or too long, reducing the amount of force it can produce.

reciprocal inhibition

When an agonist receives a signal to contract, its functional antagonist also receives an inhibitory signal allowing it to lengthen.

Overactive

When elevated neural drive causes a muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction.

Muscle Imbalance

When muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships.

foot and ankle complex

While sprinting forward, the foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexion position when it hits the ground. Slight devotions (e.g., foot external rotation) are expected during multidirectional running and lateral shuffles.

complex training

a combination of high-intensity resistance training followed by plyometrics

What is sarcopenia?

age related loss of muscle tissue

Vertical loading

alternating body parts trained from set to set, starting from the upper extremity and moving to the lower extremity

During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force Production?

amortization

What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay?

amortization

Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?

arthrokinematics

When performing the T-drill, which movement is used to complete the last 10 yards of the drill?

backpedal

Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus?

calf raise

Which of the following exercises helps strengthen the gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantar flexor muscles?

calf raise

What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish?

deceleration

Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training?

decrease metabolic rate

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain the center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability?

dynamic balance

Maintaining ones balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance?

dynamic balance: dynamic balance occurs when an individual has to maintain their center of mass over an ever-changing limit of stability.

What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises?

eccentric loading

plyometric training

exercises that generate quick, powerful movements involving an explosive concentric muscle contraction preceded by an eccentric muscle action

The use of weight belts for apparently healthy adults engaging in a moderately intense exercise program is recommended?

false

Which surface would be the easiest for a new client starting a balance training program?

firm surface

What is the number one cause of death around the world?

heart disease

What is the number one cause of death in the United States?

heart disease

Which of the following global muscles primary action is hip flexion?

iliopsoas

Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine.

increased lordosis - if a client contracts muscles of the core to generate more anterior pelvic tilt; this would result in increased lordosis at the lumbar spine.

What plyometric exercise variable is defined as the distance covered and amount of effort applied by the muscles?

intensity

What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?

isometric

Which of the following is a predictive factor for knee injury?

knee valgus

Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw?

latissimus dorsi

When performing the modified box drill, where should the client begin?

middle cone

Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is an example of which improvement of the body?

muscle hypertrophy

What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time?

muscular endurance

Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity?

neuromuscular function

What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise?

posterior chain - which includes the hamstrings, gluteals, and back musculature, is primarily targeted.

What term refers to increasing the intensity or volume of an exercise program using systematic and gradual approach?

progressive overload

Exhaustion

prolonged stress or stress that is intolerable and will produce exhaustion or distress to the system

What is defined as the awareness of the positioning and movement of body segments?

proprioception

What is the mechanism of action for active stretching?

reciprocal inhibition

When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called?

reciprocal inhibition

What must be sufficient in order to prevent overtraining and injury during a plyometric training regimen?

recovery

According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will not include which of the following factors for training?

rehabilitation

Bilateral

relating to two sides of the body.

Which of the following is a common compensation that occurs when performing a standing cable chest press?

shoulder shrug

What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible?

speed - speed involved movement in one direction as fast as possible.

Which stage(s) are most appropriate and effective for improving health and wellness, as well as promoting a healthy body weight for most weight-loss clients and those new to exercise?

stages 1 and 2

Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises?

standing

Maintaining ones balance while standing still on a single foot on contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance?

static balance

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control in a stationary position?

static balance

What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly?

step ups

If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?

sternocleidomastoid

What is defined as the distance covered in one stride?

stride length

Speed is the product of what two variables?

stride rate and stride length

Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)?

tensor fascia latae

strength

the ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load

Muscular Endurance

the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time

Quickness

the ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities

Base of support

the area beneath a person that includes every point of contact that the person makes with the supporting surface

central nervous system

the division of the nervous system consisting of the brain and spinal cord

Posture

the relative disposition of the body parts in relation to the physical position, such as standing, lying down, and sitting.

Volume

total amount of weight lifted in a training session

The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle?

transverse abdominis

When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?

transverse abdominis

Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?

transverse abdominis

Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?

visual system

What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?

volume

What is the general recommended rest for advanced clients between SAQ reps?

0-90 seconds

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?

1 or 2 sets

What are the recommended training variables for active stretching?

1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions

What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling?

1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds

With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform?

1-4 sets

What is the shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?

10 minutes

What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion?

140 beats per minute

What is the corresponding heart rate for intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion?

140; with the original Borg 6 to 20 scale, each value corresponds to a heart rate. For example, a score of 120 beats per minute, and a score of 16 equals 160 beats per minute.

If a client is exercising for 150 minutes per week (30 minutes, 5 days per week), then a 10% increase in volume would result in how many minutes total per week?

165 minutes per week

You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?

3-5 reps

A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed?

4 seconds - the number 4 represents lowering the body toward the floor for 4 seconds; this is the eccentric action of the push-up exercise.

What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?

4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve maximal strength adaptations?

5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down?

5-10 minutes

Collagen matrix

A complex meshwork of connective tissue, including collagen proteins.

Osteoperosis

A condition of reduced bone mineral density, which increases risk of bone fracture.

Cumulative Injury Cycle

A cycle whereby tissue trauma will induce inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalances.

Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)

A high-energy molecule that serves as the main form of energy in the human body; known as the energy currency of the body.

anterior cruciate ligament

A key ligament within the knee joint that provides stability to limit excessive motion of the tibia relative to the femur.

Drawing-in Maneuver

A maneuver used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the navel in toward the spine.

Tanaka Formula

A mathematical formula used to estimate an individual's maximal heart rate: 208 - (0.7 × age).

motor unit

A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates

target heart rate

A predetermined exercising heart rate.

Principle of Specificity

A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it; also known as the Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands (SAID) principle.

Valsalva maneuver

A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability.

contraindication

A specific situation where a medication, procedure, or exercise should be avoided because it may prove to be harmful to the individual.

mortality

A state or a risk of death or dying.

pyramid system

A system of strength training that involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases weight with each set or decreases weight with each set

Superset System

A system of strength training that uses a couple of exercises performed in rapid succession of one another

Split-Routine System

A system that incorporates training an individual's body parts with a high volume on separate days.

Integrated Training

A training concept that applies all forms of exercise, such as flexibility; cardiorespiratory; core; balance; plyometric; speed, agility, quickness; and resistance training, into one system.

systematic review

A type of research article that synthesizes and summarizes findings from multiple existing research articles on a specific topic.

static stretching

A type of stretch where the muscle is passively lengthened to the point of tension and held for a sustained amount of time.

active stretching

A type of stretching that uses agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion; includes holding the stretched position for 1-2 seconds and repeating for 5-10 repetitions.

dynamic stretching

A type of stretching that uses the force production of a muscle and the bodies momentum to take a joint through the full available range of motion.

Fascia System

A web of connecting fibers made of connective tissues that are found just under the skin.

Rate of Force Production

Ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.

What is the term used to describe a type of stretching are uses agonist and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion?

Active stretching

What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?

Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

Steady-state (SS) aerobic exercise

Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption.

What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome?

Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion

Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?

Altered movement patterns

Scoliosis

An abnormal curve of the spine from side to side.

sarcopenia

An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults.

Perturbation

An alteration of the body's current state caused by the application of an external force.

What is a drop set?

An approach that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set

anterior pelvic tilt

An excessive forward rotation of the pelvis that results in greater lumbar lordosis.

High-intensity interval training (HIIT)

An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods.

Training Intensity

An individual's level of effort, compared with his or her maximal effort; usually expressed as a percentage.

Proprioceptively enriched environment

An unstable (yet controllable) physical situation in which exercises are performed that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms.

What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics?

Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg

Medical precautions

Any medical conditions that could be potentially unsafe for a client.

Which of the following is a component of quickness training?

Assessment of visual stimuli

When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called?

Autogenic inhibition

Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement?

Ball squat, curl to press

NASM recommends the cardiorespiratory portion of a warm-up be performed at a low-to-moderate intensity and last for how long?

Between 5 and 10 minutes

What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?

Bracing

What term refers to a co-contraction of global muscles such as the rectus abdominus and external obliques?

Bracing

Extensibility

Capability to be elongated or stretched

Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?

Close grip bench press

Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?

Close grip bench press - the proper hand position should be slightly inside shoulder-width apart during this exercise.

A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used?

Complex training

Pattern Overload

Consistently repeating the same pattern of motion over long periods of time that can lead to dysfunction or injury.

bracing

Contracting the global abdominals such as the rectus abdominis and obliques at the same time.

Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?

Davis's law

General Adaptation Syndrome

Describes the way in which the body responds and adapts to stress.

What are the exercises included in the last progression of balance training designed to do?

Develop proper deceleration ability to move the body from a dynamic state to a controlled stationary position

EICI

Eccentric - lowering phase Isometric - pause immediately following lowering phase Concentric - raising phase Isometric - pause immediately following raising phase

No exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)

Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores and taking the stairs.

hypertrophy

Enlargement of an organ or tissue; in the context of fitness, it is often used to describe the enlargement of skeletal muscle.

Overtraining

Excessive frequency, volume, or intensity of training, resulting in fatigue (which is also caused by a lack of proper rest and recovery).

Plyometric exercises are only appropriate for athletes?

False

Static stretching, when performed for 30 seconds or less prior to every workout and followed by dynamic activities, impairs athletic performance.

False

While performing a ball bridge exercise, clients should be instructed to avoid resting the head and shoulders on top of the stability ball.

False

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?

Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components?

Flexibility and joint ROM

Power

Force x velocity or work / time

When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2?

From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2

Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (power training) superset?

Front medicine ball oblique throw

Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?

Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.

What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins?

Gentle static stretching

Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are traveling?

Handstand Push Up

Mechanical effect

Having a physical effect.

Neurophysiological effect

Having an effect on the nervous system.

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?

Ice skaters - Powerful movements are the next step after repeated plyometric exercises can be performed efficiently.

Acute Variables

Important components that specify how each exercise is to be performed.

Acute variables

Important components that specify how each exercise is to be performed.

Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training?

Improved sleep

Triple flexion

Includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion; the lead leg while sprinting.

Triple extension

Includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension and hip extension; the rear leg while sprinting.

What is a physical benefit of resistance training?

Increased muscular hypertrophy

progressive overload

Increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach.

Which term best describes core trainings effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries?

Injury resistance

Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training?

Interval phase

Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function?

Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement?

It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.

When performing a single-leg dumbbell curl; which of the following ensures proper scapular stability, placing more of an emphasis on the biceps musculature?

Keeping the scapulae retracted

Which of the following is an antirotational exercise designed to target the local core muscles?

Kneeling Pallof press

Improving frontside running mechanics is associated with which of the following?

Less braking force

stretch-shortening cycle

Loading of a muscle eccentrically to prepare it for a rapid concentric contraction.

General Warm-Up

Low intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise that is to follow

Specific Warm-Up

Low intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those that will be included in the more intense exercise that is to follow

How is a general warm-up best defined?

Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

osteopenia

Lower than normal bone density and a precursor to osteoporosis.

The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body?

Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region

Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting?

Maximal Strength Training

Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?

Medicine ball pullover throw

Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?

Multifidus

Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?

Multifidus

Type 1 (slow twitch) muscle fibers

Muscle fibers that are small in size, generate lower amounts of force, and are more resistant to fatigue.

What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training?

Muscular hypertrophy

stretch reflex

Neurological signal from the muscle spindle that causes a muscle to contract to prevent excessive lengthening.

How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise?

No more than 10% of body weight - the goal is to throw the ball as hard as possible to maximize power production.

How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer thrown exercise?

No more than 10% of body weight.

Altered reciprocal inhibition

Occurs when an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to its functional antagonist.

self-efficacy

One's belief in his or her own ability.

mobility

Optimal flexibility and joint range of motion; ability to move freely.

When introducing plyometric exercises, especially to new or beginner clients, movements should involve lower amplitude jumps; designed to establish which of the following?

Optimal landing mechanics


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