Sole- Ch 10: Rapid Response Teams and Code Management, Sole - Chapter 9: Ventilatory Assistance, Sole - Ch 13 Cardiovascular Alterations, exam 1 practice questions
A patient has been prescribed nitroglycerin (NTG) in the ED for chest pain. In taking the health history, the nurse will be sure to verify whether the patient has taken medications before admission for: a. erectile dysfunction. b. prostate enlargement. c. asthma. d. peripheral vascular disease.
A
A patient is admitted to the cardiac surgical intensive care unit after cardiac surgery. Four hours after admission to the surgical intensive care unit at 4 PM, the patient has stable vital signs and normal arterial blood gases (ABGs), and is placed on a T-piece for ventilatory weaning. What interdisciplinary staff member does the nurse notify to assist in the care of this patient while preparing to give this patient diuretics? A. Respiratory therapist to adjust ventilator B. Social worker to notify family C. Phlebotomy to obtain another set of blood gasses D. Nursing assistant to help reposition the patient
A
A patient is admitted to the emergency department with clinical indications of an acute myocardial infarction. Symptoms began 3 hours ago. The facility does not have the capability for percutaneous coronary intervention. Given this scenario, what is the priority intervention in the treatment and nursing management of this patient? a. Administer thrombolytic therapy unless contraindicated b. Diurese aggressively and monitor daily weight c. Keep oxygen saturation levels to at least 88% d. Maintain heart rate above 100 beats/min
A
A patient presents to the ED complaining of severe substernal chest pressure radiating to the left shoulder and back that started about 12 hours ago. The patient delayed coming to the ED, hoping the pain would go away. The patient's 12-lead ECG shows ST-segment depression in the inferior leads. Troponin and CK-MB are both elevated. What does the nurse understand about thrombolysis in this patient? a. The patient is not a candidate for thrombolysis. b. The patient's history makes him a good candidate for thrombolysis. c. Thrombolysis is appropriate for a candidate having a non-Q wave MI. d. Thrombolysis should be started immediately.
A
A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) with chest pain that he has had for the past 2 hours. The patient is nauseated and diaphoretic, with dusky skin color. The electrocardiogram shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which therapeutic intervention would the nurse question? a. Emergent pacemaker insertion b. Emergent percutaneous coronary intervention c. Emergent thrombolytic therapy d. Immediate coronary artery bypass graft surgery
A
A patient's endotracheal tube is not secured tightly. The respiratory care practitioner assists the nurse in taping the tube. After the tube is retaped, the nurse auscultates the patient's lungs and notes that the breath sounds over the left lung fields are absent. The nurse suspects that A. The endotracheal tube is in the right mainstem bronchus. B. The patient has a left pneumothorax. C. The patient has aspirated secretions during the procedure. D. The stethoscope earpiece is clogged with wax.
A
A patient's ventilator settings are adjusted to treat hypoxemia. The fraction of inspired oxygen is increased from 0.6 to 0.7, and the positive end-expiratory pressure is increased from 10 to 15 cm H2O. Shortly after these adjustments, the nurse notes that the patient's blood pressure drops from 120/76 mm Hg to 90/60 mm Hg. What is the most likely cause of this decrease in blood pressure? A. Decrease in cardiac output B. Hypovolemia C. Increase in venous return D. Oxygen toxicity
A
Laypersons should use which device to treat lethal ventricular dysrhythmias that occur outside a hospital setting? A. Automatic external defibrillator B. Carbon dioxide detector C. Pocket mask D. Transcutaneous pacemaker
A
The nurse chooses which method and concentration of oxygen administration until intubation is established in a patient who has sustained a cardiopulmonary arrest? A. Bag-valve-mask at FiO2 of 100% B. Bag-valve-mask at FiO2 of 50% C. Mouth-to-mask ventilation with supplemental oxygen D. Non-rebreather mask at FiO2 of 100%
A
The nurse is caring for a patient who is mechanically ventilated. As part of the nursing care, the nurse understands that A. Communication with intubated patients is often difficult. B. Controlled ventilation is the preferred mode for most patients. C. Patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease wean easily from mechanical ventilation. D. Wrist restraints are applied to all patients to avoid self-extubation.
A
The nurse is caring for a patient who is on a cardiac monitor. The nurse realizes that the sinus node is the pacemaker of the heart because it is a. the fastest pacemaker cell in the heart. b. the only pacemaker cell in the heart. c. the only cell that does not affect the cardiac cycle. d. located in the left side of the heart.
A
The nurse is providing care to a patient on fibrinolytic therapy. Which statement from the patient warrants further assessment and intervention by the critical care nurse? a. "I have an incredible headache!" b. "There is blood on my toothbrush!" c. "Look at the bruises on my arms!" d. "My arm is bleeding where my IV is!"
A
The nurse is providing care to a patient on fibrinolytic therapy. Which statement from the patient warrants further assessment and intervention by the critical care nurse? a. "My back is killing me!" b. "There is blood on my toothbrush!" c. "Look at the bruises on my arms!" d. "My arm is bleeding where my IV is!"
A
The patient has pulseless electrical activity (PEA). What action by the nurse takes priority? A. Begin high-quality CPR. B. Assist with chest tube placement. C. Prepare equipment for a pericardiocentesis. D. Attach the patient to a transcutaneous pacemaker.
A
The patient is admitted with a suspected acute myocardial infarction (AMI). In assessing the 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) changes, which findings would indicate to the nurse that the patient is in the process of an evolving Q wave myocardial infarction (MI)? a. ST-segment elevation on ECG and elevated CPK-MB or troponin levels b. Depressed ST-segment on ECG and elevated total CPK c. Depressed ST-segment on ECG and normal cardiac enzymes d. Q wave on ECG with normal enzymes and troponin levels
A
The patient is diagnosed with abrupt onset of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The nurse prepares which medication to administer to the patient? A. Adenosine B. Amiodarone C. Diltiazem D. Procainamide
A
The patient presents to the ED with severe chest discomfort. A cardiac catheterization and angiography shows an 80% occlusion of the left main coronary artery. Which procedure will be most likely performed on this patient? a. Coronary artery bypass graft surgery b. Intracoronary stent placement c. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) d. Transmyocardial revascularization
A
The patient's monitor shows bradycardia (heart rate of 40 beats/min) and frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) with a measured blood pressure of 85/50 mm Hg. The nurse anticipates the use of which drug? A. Atropine 0.5 to 1 mg intravenous push B. Dopamine drip—continuous infusion C. Lidocaine 1 mg/kg intravenous push D. Transcutaneous pacemaker
A
What is the major reason for using a treatment to lower body temperature after cardiac arrest to promote better neurological recovery? A. Hypothermia decreases the metabolic rate by 7% for each decrease of 1C. B. Lower body temperatures are beneficial in patients with low blood pressure. C. Temperatures of 40C may reduce neurological impairment. D. The lower body temperature leads to decreased oxygen delivery.
A
When doing manual ventilations during a code, the nurse would administer ventilations following which guideline? A. Approximately 8 to 10 breaths per minute B. During the fifth chest compression C. Every 3 seconds or 20 times per minute D. While compressions are stopped
A
A patient with a 10-year history of heart failure presents to the emergency department reporting severe shortness of breath. Assessment reveals crackles throughout the lung fields and labored breathing. The patient takes beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, and diuretics as directed. What treatment strategies does the nurse plan to implement for immediate short-term management? (Select all that apply.) a. Dobutamine b. Intraaortic balloon pump c. Nesiritide d. Ventricular assist device e. Biventricular pacemaker
A, B, C
Postresuscitation goals include which of the following? (Select all that apply) A. Control dysrhythmias B. Maintain airway C. Maintain blood pressure D. Wean off oxygen E. Early ambulation
A, B, C
The patient tells the nurse, "I didn't think I was having a heart attack because the pain was in my neck and back." The nurse explains: (Select all that apply.) a. "Pain can occur anywhere in the chest, neck, arms, or back. Don't hesitate to call the emergency medical services if you think it's a heart attack." b. "For many people chest pain from a heart attack occurs in the center of the chest, behind the breastbone." c. "The sooner the patient can get medical help, the less damage is likely to occur in case of a heart attack." d. "You need to make sure it's a heart attack before you call the emergency response personnel." e. "Often symptoms can be treated with nitroglycerin, so be sure to take several before calling 911."
A, B, C
A patient is admitted with an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). The nurse monitors for which potential complications? (Select all that apply.) a. Cardiac dysrhythmias b. Heart failure c. Pericarditis d. Ventricular rupture e. Chest pain
A, B, C, D
Which of the following are documented as part of the cardiopulmonary arrest record? (Select all that apply) A. Medication administration times B. Defibrillation times, joules, outcomes C. Rhythm strips of cardiac rhythm(s) noted D. Signatures of recorder and other personnel E. Model of defibrillator used.
A, B, C, D
Benefits of having the family present during resuscitation include which of the following? (Select all that apply) A. Facilitates the grief process B. Lets the family see that everything is being done C. Sustains patient-family relationships D. Allows the staff easy access to ask for organ transplant E. Provides a sense of closure
A, B, C, E
Identify the priority interventions for managing symptoms of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) in the ED. (Select all that apply.) a. Administration of morphine b. Administration of nitroglycerin (NTG) c. Dopamine infusion d. Oxygen therapy e. Transfusion of packed red blood cells
A, B, D
Which clinical manifestations are indicative of right ventricular failure? (Select all that apply.) a. Jugular venous distension b. Peripheral edema c. Crackles audible in the lungs d. Weak peripheral pulses e. Hepatomegaly
A, B, E
The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient and responds to a high inspiratory pressure alarm. Recognizing possible causes for the alarm, the nurse assesses for which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Coughing or attempting to talk B. Disconnection from the ventilator C. Kinks in the ventilator tubing D. Need for suctioning E. Spontaneous breathing
A, C, D
The nurse should call the rapid response team for which patients? (Select all that apply) A. 53-year-old with pneumonia and severe respiratory distress B. 17-year-old with apnea following a severe head injury C. 24-year-old experiencing a severe asthmatic attack with stridor D. 73-year-old patient with bradycardia of 40 beats per minute E. 52-year-old patient with no palpable pulse
A, C, D
Which of the following statements about defibrillation are correct? (Select all that apply) A. Early defibrillation (if warranted) is recommended before other actions. B. It is not necessary to ensure that personnel are clear of the patient if hands-off defibrillation is used. C. It is not necessary to synchronize the defibrillation shocks. D. Paddles/patches can be placed anteriorly and posteriorly on the chest. E. All models of defibrillators are the same for standardization.
A, C, D
Which statements are true regarding the symptoms of an AMI? (Select all that apply.) a. Dysrhythmias are common occurrences. b. Men have more atypical symptoms than women. c. Midsternal chest pain is a common presenting symptom. d. Some patients are asymptomatic. e. Patients may complain of jaw or back pain.
A, C, D, E
A patient is admitted to the critical care unit with bradycardia at a heart rate of 39 beats/min and frequent premature ventricular contractions. The nurse notes that the patient is lethargic and reports dizziness for the past 12 hours. Which of the following are acceptable initial treatments for this patient? (Select all that apply.) A. Atropine B. Epinephrine C. Lidocaine D. Transcutaneous pacemaker E. Magnesium sulfate infusion
A, D
The nurse is assisting with endotracheal intubation of the patient and recognizes that the procedure will be done in what order: _______________, _______________, _______________, _______________, _______________? A. Assess balloon on endotracheal tube for symmetry and leaks B. Assess lung fields for bilateral expansion C. Inflate balloon of endotracheal tube D. Insert endotracheal tube with laryngoscope and blade E. Suction oropharynx
A, E, D, C, B
Sinus bradycardia is a symptom of which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Calcium channel blocker medication b. Beta-blocker medication c. Athletic conditioning d. Hypothermia e. Hyperthyroidism
a. Calcium channel blocker medication b. Beta-blocker medication c. Athletic conditioning d. Hypothermia ANS: A, B, C, D Vasovagal response; medications such as digoxin or AV nodal blocking agents, including calcium channel blockers and beta-blockers; myocardial infarction; normal physiological variant in the athlete; disease of the sinus node; increased intracranial pressure; hypoxemia; and hypothermia may cause sinus bradycardia. Hyperthyroidism is a cause of sinus tachycardia.
A patient is admitted to the cardiac surgical intensive care unit after cardiac surgery with the following arterial blood gas (ABG) levels. What action by the nurse is best? pH: 7.4 PaCO2: 40 mm Hg Bicarbonate: 24 mEq/L PaO2: 95 mm Hg O2 saturation: 97% Respirations: 20 breaths/min A. Call the provider to request rapid intubation. B. Document the findings and continue to monitor. C. Request that another set of ABGs be drawn and run. D. Correlate the patient's O2 saturation with the ABGs.
B
A patient is admitted to the coronary care unit with an inferior wall myocardial infarction and develops symptomatic bradycardia with premature ventricular contractions every third beat (trigeminy). The nurse knows to prepare to administer which drug? A. Amiodarone B. Atropine C. Lidocaine D. Magnesium
B
A patient is admitted to the progressive care unit with a diagnosis of community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and diabetes. A set of arterial blood gases obtained on admission without supplemental oxygen shows pH 7.35; PaCO2 55 mm Hg; bicarbonate 30 mEq/L; PaO2 65 mm Hg. These blood gases reflect: A. Hypoxemia and compensated metabolic alkalosis. B. Hypoxemia and compensated respiratory acidosis. C. Normal oxygenation and partly compensated metabolic alkalosis. D. Normal oxygenation and uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
B
A patient is brought to the critical care unit after a motor vehicle crash. On admission, the patient reports dyspnea and chest pain. Upon examination, the nurse notes a lack of breath sounds on the left side and a tracheal shift. The patient suddenly experiences cardiac arrest. What assessment by the nurse takes priority? A. Heart tones B. Lung sounds C. Peripheral pulses D. Neurological status
B
A patient is having a stent and asks why it is necessary after having an angioplasty. Which response by the nurse is best? a. "The angioplasty was a failure, and so this procedure has to be done to fix the heart vessel." b. "The stent is inserted to enhance the results of the angioplasty, by helping to keep the vessel open and prevent it from closing again." c. "This procedure is being done instead of using clot-dissolving medication to help keep the heart vessel open." d. "The stent will remove any clots that are in the vessel and protect the heart muscle from damage."
B
A patient is having difficulty weaning from mechanical ventilation. The nurse assesses the patient for which potential cause of this difficult weaning? A. Cardiac output of 6 L/min. B. Hemoglobin of 8 g/dL. C. Negative sputum culture and sensitivity. D. White blood cell count of 8000.
B
A patient was admitted in terminal heart failure and is not eligible for transplant. The family wants everything possible done to maintain life. Which procedure might be offered to the patient for this condition to increase the patient's quality of life? a. Intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) b. Left ventricular assist device (LVAD) c. Nothing, because the patient is in terminal heart failure d. Nothing additional; medical management is the only option
B
An essential aspect of teaching that may prevent recurrence of heart failure is a. notifying the provider if a 2-lb weight gain occurs in 24 hours. b. compliance with diuretic therapy. c. taking nitroglycerin if chest pain occurs. d. assessment of an apical pulse.
B
During cardioversion, the nurse would synchronize the electrical charge to coincide with which wave of the ECG complex? A. P B. R C. S D. T
B
It is determined that the patient needs a transcutaneous pacemaker until a transvenous pacemaker can be inserted. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention? A. Apply conductive gel to the skin. B. Provide adequate sedation and analgesia. C. Recheck leads to make sure that the rhythm is asystole. D. Set the milliamperes to 2 mA below the capture level.
B
One of the early signs of hypoxemia on the nervous system is A. Cyanosis. B. Restlessness. C. Agitation. D. Tachypnea.
B
One of the functions of the atrioventricular (AV) node is to a. pace the heart if the ventricles fail. b. slow the impulse arriving from the SA node. c. send the impulse to the SA node. d. allow for ventricular filling during systole.
B
Oxygen saturation (SaO2) represents A. Alveolar oxygen tension. B. Oxygen that is chemically combined with hemoglobin. C. Oxygen that is physically dissolved in plasma. D. Total oxygen consumption.
B
The monitor technician notifies the nurse "stat" that the patient has a rapid, chaotic rhythm that looks like ventricular tachycardia. What is the nurse's first action? A. Call a code overhead. B. Check the patient immediately. C. Go to the nurses' station and look at the rhythm strip. D. Take the crash cart to the room.
B
The nurse knows that in advanced cardiac life support, the secondary survey includes steps A-B-C-D, in which "D" refers to: A. Defibrillate. B. Differential diagnosis. C. Diltiazem intravenous push. D. Do not resuscitate.
B
The patient has undergone open chest surgery for coronary artery bypass grafting. One of the nurse's responsibilities is to monitor the patient for which common postoperative dysrhythmia? a. Second-degree heart block b. Atrial fibrillation or flutter c. Ventricular ectopy d. Premature junctional contractions
B
The patient is admitted with an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Three days later the nurse is concerned that the patient may have a papillary muscle rupture. Which assessment data may indicate a papillary muscle rupture? a. Gallop rhythm b. New murmur c. S1 heart sound d. S3 heart sound
B
The patient's spouse is feeling overwhelmed about cooking different dinners for the patient and the rest of the family to satisfy a cholesterol-reducing diet. Which response by the nurse is best? a. "It will be worth it to have a healthy spouse, won't it?" b. "The low-cholesterol diet is one from which everyone can benefit." c. "As long as you change at least a few things in the diet, it will be okay." d. "You can go on the diet with him, and then let the children eat whatever they want."
B
Which comment by the patient indicates a good understanding of a diagnosis of coronary heart disease? a. "I had a heart attack because I work too hard, and it puts too much strain on my heart." b. "The pain in my chest gets worse each time it happens. I think that there is more damage to my heart vessels as time goes on." c. "If I change my diet and exercise more, I should get over this and be healthy." d. "What kind of pills can you give me to get me over this and back to my lifestyle?"
B
Which of the following cardiac diagnostic tests would include monitoring the gag reflex before giving the patient anything to eat or drink? a. Barium swallow b. Transesophageal echocardiogram c. MUGA scan d. Stress test
B
Which nursing interventions would be appropriate after angioplasty? (Select all that apply.) a. Elevate the head of the bed by 45 degrees for 6 hours. b. Assess pedal pulses on the involved limb every 15 minutes for 1 to 2 hours. c. Monitor the vascular hemostatic device for signs of bleeding. d. Instruct the patient to bend his or her knee every 15 minutes while the sheath is in place. e. Maintain NPO status for 12 hours.
B, C
The nurse is assisting with endotracheal intubation and understands that correct placement of the endotracheal tube in the trachea would be identified by which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Auscultation of air over the epigastrium B. Equal bilateral breath sounds upon auscultation C. Position above the carina verified by chest x-ray D. Positive detection of carbon dioxide (CO2) through CO2 detector devices E. Fogging of the endotracheal tube
B, C, D
Which code drugs can be given safely through an endotracheal tube? (Select all that apply) A. Adenosine B. Atropine C. Epinephrine D. Vasopressin E. Amiodarone
B, C, D
A patient has been successfully converted from ventricular tachycardia with a pulse to a sinus rhythm. Upon further assessment, it is noted that the patient is hypotensive. The appropriate treatment for her hypotension may include (Select all that apply) A. Adenosine. B. Dopamine infusion. C. Magnesium. D. Normal saline infusion. E. Sodium bicarbonate.
B, D
Select all of the factors that may predispose the patient to respiratory acidosis. (Select all that apply.) A. Anxiety and fear B. Central nervous system depression C. Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Nasogastric suctioning E. Overdose of sedatives
B, E
Electrocardiogram (ECG) paper contains a standardized grid where the horizontal axis measures time and the vertical axis measures voltage or amplitude. The nurse must understand that each horizontal box indicates: a. 200 milliseconds or 0.20 seconds duration. b. 40 milliseconds or 0.04 seconds duration. c. 3 seconds duration. d. millivolts of amplitude.
b. 40 milliseconds or 0.04 seconds duration. ANS: BECG paper contains a standardized grid where the horizontal axis measures time and the vertical axis measures voltage or amplitude. Horizontally, the smaller boxes denote 0.04 seconds each or 40 milliseconds; the larger box contains five smaller boxes and thus equals 0.20 seconds or 200 milliseconds.
A 72-year-old woman is brought to the ED by her family. The family states that she's "just not herself." Her respirations are slightly labored, and her heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia (rate 110 beats/min) with frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). She denies any chest pain, jaw pain, back discomfort, or nausea. Her troponin levels are elevated, and her 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) shows elevated ST segments in leads II, III, and aVF. The nurse knows that these symptoms are most likely associated with which diagnosis? a. Hypokalemia b. Non-Q wave MI c. Silent myocardial infarction d. Unstable angina
C
A patient develops frequent ventricular ectopy. The nurse prepares to administer which drug? A. Adenosine B. Atropine C. Lidocaine D. Magnesium
C
A patient is admitted with an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). The nurse knows that an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor should be started within 24 hours to reduce the incidence of which process? a. Myocardial stunning b. Hibernating myocardium c. Myocardial remodeling d. Tachycardia
C
A patient is admitted with angina. The nurse anticipates which drug regimen to be initiated? a. ACE inhibitors and diuretics b. Morphine sulfate and oxygen c. Nitroglycerin, oxygen, and beta blockers d. Statins, bile acid, and nicotinic acid
C
A patient is admitted with the diagnosis of unstable angina. The nurse knows that the physiological mechanism present is most likely which of the following? a. Complete occlusion of a coronary artery b. Fatty streak within the intima of a coronary artery c. Partial occlusion of a coronary artery with a thrombus d. Vasospasm of a coronary artery
C
A patient is being mechanically ventilated in the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation mode at a rate of 4 breaths/min. His spontaneous respirations are 12 breaths/min. He receives a dose of morphine sulfate, and his spontaneous respirations decrease to 4 breaths/min. Which acid-base disturbance will likely occur? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis
C
A patient is having a cardiac evaluation to assess for possible valvular disease. Which study best identifies valvular function and measures the size of the cardiac chambers? a. 12-lead electrocardiogram b. Cardiac catheterization c. Echocardiogram d. Electrophysiology study
C
During a code, the nurse would place paddles for anterior defibrillation in what locations? A. Second intercostal space, left sternal border and fourth intercostal space, left midclavicular line B. Second intercostal space, right sternal border and fourth intercostal space, left midaxillary line C. Second intercostal space, right sternal border and fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line D. Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border and fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line
C
The cardiologist has told the patient and family that the diagnosis is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Later they ask the nurse what the patient did wrong to cause this condition. The nurse explains: a. "This is a result of a high-cholesterol diet and poor exercise habits." b. "The heart has not been getting enough aerobic exercise and has developed this condition. In cardiac rehabilitation they will work with the patient to strengthen his heart through special exercises." c. "This is an inherited condition. You should give serious consideration to having family members screened for it." d. "This is a result of clot formation in the blood vessels in the heart. We will need to use medications to reduce the risk of further clotting."
C
The code team has just defibrillated a patient in ventricular fibrillation. Following CPR for 2 minutes, what is the next action to take? A. Administer amiodarone. B. Administer lidocaine. C. Assess rhythm and pulse. D. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing.
C
The nurse is assessing a patient with left-sided heart failure. Which symptom would the nurse expect to find? a. Dependent edema b. Distended neck veins c. Dyspnea and crackles d. Nausea and vomiting
C
The nurse is caring for a patient with an endotracheal tube. The nurse understands that endotracheal suctioning is needed to facilitate removal of secretions and that the procedure A. Decreases intracranial pressure. B. Depresses the cough reflex. C. Is done as indicated by patient assessment. D. Is more effective if preceded by saline instillation.
C
The nurse notes that the patient's arterial blood gas levels indicate hypoxemia. The patient is not intubated and has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min. The nurse's first intervention to relieve hypoxemia is to: A. Call the provider for an emergency intubation procedure. B. Obtain an order for bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP). C. Notify the provider of values and obtain a prescription for oxygen. D. Suction secretions from the oropharynx.
C
The patient has a transcutaneous pacemaker in place. Pacemaker spikes followed by QRS complexes are noted on the cardiac rhythm strip. To determine if the pacemaker is working, the nurse must do which of the following? A. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). B. Call for a pacemaker interrogation. C. Palpate the pulse. D. Run a 2-minute monitor strip for analysis.
C
The patient has been admitted to a critical care unit with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. Suddenly the monitor alarms and the screen shows a flat line. What action should the nurse take first? A. Administer epinephrine by intravenous push. B. Begin chest compressions. C. Check patient for unresponsiveness. D. Defibrillate at 360 J.
C
The patient is admitted with recurrent supraventricular tachycardia that the cardiologist believes to be related to an accessory conduction pathway or a reentry pathway. The nurse anticipates which procedure to be planned for this patient? a. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator placement b. Permanent pacemaker insertion c. Radiofrequency catheter ablation d. Temporary transvenous pacemaker placement
C
The patient presents to the ED with sudden, severe sharp chest discomfort, radiating to the back and down both arms, as well as numbness in the left arm. While taking the patient's vital signs, the nurse notices a 30-point discrepancy in systolic blood pressure between the right and left arm. Based on these findings, the nurse should: a. contact the physician and report the cardiac enzyme results. b. contact the physician and prepare the patient for thrombolytic therapy. c. contact the physician immediately and begin prepping the patient for surgery. d. give the patient aspirin and heparin.
C
The patient's wife asks the nurse if the angioplasty will remove all the buildup in the vessel walls so that the patient will be healthy again. The nurse explains: a. "The operation will remove all of the plaque, and if your husband exercises and diets he will be free of cardiac problems." b. "The surgery will remove all the buildup, but it will reaccumulate and he will probably need this surgery again this time next year." c. "The best outcome will be if 20% to 50% of the diameter of the vessel can be restored. Your husband will need to diet and exercise carefully to avoid further cardiac risk." d. "The surgeon will only be able to get 5% to 10% of the plaque, but this will bring about marked relief of your husband's symptoms."
C
The primary mode of action of neuromuscular blocking agents is A. Analgesia. B. Anticonvulsant. C. Paralysis. D. Sedation.
C
The provider prescribes a pharmacological stress test for a patient with activity intolerance. The nurse would anticipate that the drug of choice would be a. dopamine. b. dobutamine. c. adenosine. d. atropine.
C
When assessing the patient for hypoxemia, the nurse recognizes that an early sign of the effect of hypoxemia on the cardiovascular system is A. Heart block. B. Restlessness. C. Tachycardia. D. Tachypnea.
C
Which rhythm would be an emergency indication for the application of a transcutaneous pacemaker? A. Asystole B. Bradycardia (heart rate 40 beats/min), normotensive and alert C. Bradycardia (heart rate 50 beats/min) with hypotension and syncope D. Supraventricular tachycardia (heart rate 150 beats/min), hypotensive
C
While instructing a patient on what occurs with a myocardial infarction, the nurse plans to explain which process? a. Coronary artery spasm. b. Decreased blood flow (ischemia). c. Death of cardiac muscle from lack of oxygen (tissue necrosis). d. Sporadic decrease in oxygen to the heart (transient oxygen imbalance).
C
The normal rate for the SA node when the patient is at rest is: a. 40 to 60 beats per minute. b. 60 to 100 beats per minute. c. 20 to 40 beats per minute. d. more than100 beats per minute.
b. 60 to 100 beats per minute. ANS: B The sinus node reaches threshold at a rate of 60 to 100 times per minute. Because this is the fastest pacemaker in the heart, the SA node is the dominant pacemaker of the heart. The AV node has an inherent rate of 40 to 60 beats per minute and the His-Purkinje system can fire at a rate of 20 to 40 beats per minute. Sinus tachycardia results when the SA node fires faster than 100 beats per minute.
The nurse is calculating the rate for a regular rhythm. There are 20 small boxes between each P wave and 20 small boxes between each R wave. What is the ventricular rate? a. 50 beats/min b. 75 beats/min c. 85 beats/min d. 100 beats/min
b. 75 beats/min ANS: BThe rule of 1500 is used to calculate the exact rate of a regular rhythm. The number of small boxes between the highest points of two consecutive R waves is counted, and that number of small boxes is divided into 1500 to determine the ventricular rate. 1500/20 = 75 beats/min. This method is accurate only if the rhythm is regular.
The nurse understands that in a third-degree AV block: a. every P wave is conducted to the ventricles. b. some P waves are conducted to the ventricles. c. none of the P waves are conducted to the ventricles. d. the PR interval is prolonged.
c. none of the P waves are conducted to the ventricles. ANS: C In first-degree AV block, a P wave precedes every QRS complex, which is followed by a T wave indicating complete conduction. It is represented on the ECG as a prolonged PR interval. Second-degree heart block refers to AV conduction that is intermittently blocked. Therefore, some P waves are conducted and some are not. Third-degree block is often called complete heart block because no atrial impulses are conducted through the AV node to the ventricles.
The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient and is charting outside the patient's room when the ventilator alarm sounds. What is the priority order for the nurse to complete these actions: _______________, _______________, _______________, _______________? A. Check quickly for possible causes of the alarm that can be fixed B. After troubleshooting, connect back to mechanical ventilator and reassess patient C. Go to patient's bedside D. Manually ventilate the patient while getting a respiratory therapist
C, A, D, B
Acute myocardial infarction (AMI) can be classified as which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Angina b. Nonischemic c. Non-Q wave d. Q wave e. Frequent PVCs
C, D
Ventricular fibrillation should initially be treated by which of the following? (Select all that apply) A. Administration of amiodarone, followed by defibrillation at 360 J B. Atropine 1 mg, followed by defibrillation at 200 J C. Defibrillation at 200 J with biphasic defibrillation D. Defibrillation at 360 J with monophasic defibrillation E. Dopamine continuous infusion.
C, D
A nursing home patient is admitted to the critical care unit with a severe case of pneumonia. No living will or designation of health care surrogate is noted on the chart. In the event this patient needs intubation and/or cardiopulmonary resuscitation, what should be the nurse's action? A. Activate the code team, but initiate a "slow" code. B. Call the nursing home to determine the patient's or family's wishes. C. Code the patient for 5 minutes and then cease efforts. D. Initiate intubation and/or cardiopulmonary resuscitation efforts.
D
A patient has coronary artery bypass graft surgery and is transported to the surgical intensive care unit at noon and is placed on mechanical ventilation. Interpret the initial arterial blood gas levels pH: 7.31 PaCO2: 48 mm Hg Bicarbonate: 22 mEq/L PaO2: 115 mm Hg O2 saturation: 99% A. Normal arterial blood gas levels with a high oxygen level B. Partly compensated respiratory acidosis; normal oxygen C. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis with high oxygen levels D. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis; hyperoxygenated
D
A patient has elevated blood lipids. The nurse anticipates which classification of drugs to be prescribed for the patient? a. Bile acid resins b. Nicotinic acid c. Nitroglycerin d. Statins
D
A patient is having an emergent coronary intervention, and the nurse is starting an infusion of abciximab. The patient asks what the purpose of this drug is. What response by the nurse is best? a. "This will help prevent chest pain until the intervention is complete." b. "This medication dries oral and respiratory secretions during the procedure." c. "This is a mild sedative and amnesic agent, so you'll be very relaxed." d. "This drug helps prevent blood clotting and is often used for this procedure."
D
A patient presents to the emergency department demonstrating agitation and complaining of numbness and tingling in his fingers. His arterial blood gas levels reveal the following: pH 7.51, PaCO2 25, HCO3 25. The nurse interprets these blood gas values as: A. Compensated metabolic alkalosis. B. Normal values. C. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis. D. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis.
D
Current guidelines recommend the oral route for endotracheal intubation. The rationale for this recommendation is that nasotracheal intubation is associated with a greater risk for A. Basilar skull fracture. B. Cervical hyperextension. C. Impaired ability to "mouth" words. D. Sinusitis and infection.
D
During a code situation, the nurse would prepare to use which preferred intravenous fluid? A. 5% dextrose in 0.45% normal saline B. 5% dextrose in water C. Dopamine infusion D. Normal saline
D
Percutaneous coronary intervention is contraindicated for patients with lesions in which coronary artery? a. Right coronary artery b. Left coronary artery c. Circumflex d. Left main coronary artery
D
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mode of ventilatory assistance that produces the following condition: A. Each time the patient initiates a breath, the ventilator delivers a full preset tidal volume. B. For each spontaneous breath taken by the patient, the tidal volume is determined by the patient's ability to generate negative pressure. C. The patient must have a respiratory drive, or no breaths will be delivered. D. There is pressure remaining in the lungs at the end of expiration that is measured in cm H2O.
D
Pulse oximetry measures A. Arterial blood gases. B. Hemoglobin values. C. Oxygen consumption. D. Oxygen saturation.
D
The amount of effort needed to maintain a given level of ventilation is termed A. Compliance. B. Resistance. C. Tidal volume. D. Work of breathing.
D
The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient and notes the high pressure alarm sounding. The nurse cannot quickly identify the cause of the alarm and notes the patient's oxygen saturation is decreasing and heart rate and respiratory rate are increasing. The nurse's priority action is to A. Ask the respiratory therapist to get a new ventilator. B. Call the rapid response team to assess the patient. C. Continue to find the cause of the alarm and fix it. D. Manually ventilate the patient while calling for a respiratory therapist.
D
The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient. The providers are considering performing a tracheostomy because the patient is having difficulty weaning from mechanical ventilation. Related to tracheostomy, the nurse understands which of the following? A. Patient outcomes are better if the tracheostomy is done within a week of intubation. B. Percutaneous tracheostomy can be done safely at the bedside by the respiratory therapist. C. Procedures performed in the operating room are associated with fewer complications. D. The greatest risk after a percutaneous tracheostomy is accidental decannulation.
D
The nurse is caring for a patient whose ventilator settings include 15 cm H2O of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). What complication does the nurse assess the patient for? A. Fluid overload secondary to decreased venous return B. High cardiac index secondary to more efficient ventricular function C. Hypoxemia secondary to prolonged positive pressure at expiration D. Low cardiac output secondary to increased intrathoracic pressure
D
The nurse needs to evaluate arterial blood gases before the administration of which drug? A. Calcium chloride B. Magnesium sulfate C. Potassium D. Sodium bicarbonate
D
The provider orders the following mechanical ventilation settings for a patient who weighs 75 kg. The patient's spontaneous respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min. Which arterial blood gas abnormality may occur if the patient continues to be tachypneic at these ventilator settings? Settings: Tidal volume: 600 mL (8 mL per kg) FiO2: 0.5 Respiratory rate: 14 breaths/min Mode assist/control Positive end-expiratory pressure: 10 cm H2O A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis
D
When assessing the 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) or a rhythm strip, it is helpful to understand that the electrical activity is viewed in relation to the positive electrode of that particular lead. When an electrical signal is aimed directly at the positive electrode, the inflection will be: a. negative. b. upside down. c. upright. d. equally positive and negative.
c. upright. ANS: CWhen an electrical signal is aimed directly at the positive electrode, an upright inflection is visualized. If the impulse is going away from the positive electrode, a negative deflection is seen; and if the signal is perpendicular to the imaginary line between the positive and negative poles of the lead, the tracing is equiphasic, with equally positive and negative deflection.
The nurse is working on the night shift when she notices sinus bradycardia on the patient's cardiac monitor. The nurse should: a. give atropine to increase heart rate. b. begin transcutaneous pacing of the patient. c. start a dopamine infusion to stimulate heart function. d. assess for hemodynamic instability.
d. assess for hemodynamic instability. ANS: DSinus bradycardia may be a normal heart rhythm for some individuals such as athletes, or it may occur during sleep. Assess for hemodynamic instability related to the bradycardia. If the patient is symptomatic, interventions include administration of atropine. If atropine is not effective in increasing heart rate, then transcutaneous pacing, dopamine infusion, or epinephrine infusion may be administered. Atropine is avoided for treatment of bradycardia associated with hypothermia.
The nurse is talking with the patient when the monitor alarms and shows a wavy baseline without a PQRST complex. The nurse should: a. defibrillate the patient immediately. b. initiate basic life support. c. initiate advanced life support. d. assess the patient and the electrical leads.
d. assess the patient and the electrical leads. ANS: D Ventricular fibrillation (VF) is a chaotic rhythm characterized by a quivering of the ventricles, which results in total loss of cardiac output and pulse. VF is a life-threatening emergency, and the more immediate the treatment is, the better the survival will be. VF produces a wavy baseline without a PQRST complex. Because a loose lead or electrical interference can produce a waveform similar to VF, it is always important to immediately assess the patient for pulse and consciousness.
The patient is admitted with a condition that requires cardiac rhythm monitoring. To apply the monitoring electrodes, the nurse must first: a. apply a moist gel to the chest. b. make certain that the electrode gel is dry. c. avoid soaps to avoid skin irritation. d. clip chest hair if needed.
d. clip chest hair if needed. ANS: DAdequate skin preparation of electrode sites requires clipping the hair, cleansing the skin, and drying vigorously (moisture gels are not applied). Cleansing includes washing with soap and water, or alcohol, to remove skin debris and oils. Before application, the electrodes are checked to ensure that the gel is moist. It is difficult for electrodes to adhere to the chest in the presence of chest hair. Clipping, not shaving, is recommended since shaving may create small nicks that can become a portal for infection.
A PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg is associated with A. Hyperventilation. B. Hypoventilation. C. Increased absorption of O2. D. Increased excretion of HCO3.
B
The normal width of the QRS complex is which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. 0.06 to 0.10 seconds. b. 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. c. 1.5 to 2.5 small boxes. d. 3.0 to 5.0 small boxes. e. 0.04 seconds or greater.
a. 0.06 to 0.10 seconds. c. 1.5 to 2.5 small boxes. ANS: A, C The waveform that initiates the QRS complex (whether it is a Q wave or an R wave) marks the beginning of the interval. The normal width of the QRS complex is 0.06 to 0.10 seconds. This width equals 1.5 to 2.5 small boxes. The normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.20 seconds, three to five small boxes wide; not the QRS interval. A pathological Q wave has a width of 0.04 seconds and a depth that is greater than one fourth of the R wave amplitude; therefore, the QRS complex would be wider than that.
The patient is in chronic junctional escape rhythm with no atrial activity noted. Studies have demonstrated normal AV node function. This patient may be a candidate for which type of pacing? a. Atrial pacing b. Ventricular pacing c. Dual-chamber pacing d. Transcutaneous pacing
a. Atrial pacing ANS: A Pacemakers may be used to stimulate the atrium, ventricle, or both chambers (dual-chamber pacemakers). Atrial pacing is used to mimic normal conduction and to produce atrial contraction, thus providing atrial kick. This is the case in the scenario provided. Ventricular pacing stimulates ventricular depolarization and is commonly used in emergency situations or when pacing is required infrequently. Dual-chamber pacing allows for stimulation of both atria and ventricles as needed to synchronize the chambers and mimic the normal cardiac cycle. However, with this patient, ventricular and AV function are normal.
Which of the following are common causes of sinus tachycardia? (Select all that apply.) a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypovolemia c. Hypothyroidism d. Heart Failure e. Sleep
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypovolemia d. Heart Failure ANS: A, B, D Common causes of sinus tachycardia include hyperthyroidism, hypovolemia, heart failure, anemia, exercise, use of stimulants, fever, and sympathetic response to fear or pain and anxiety. Hypothyroidism and sleep tend to slow the heart rate.
Because of the location of the AV node, the possible P waveforms that are associated with junctional rhythms include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. No P wave b. Inverted P wave c. Shortened PR interval d. P wave after the QRS complex e. Normal P wave and PR interval
a. No P wave b. Inverted P wave c. Shortened PR interval d. P wave after the QRS complex ANS: A, B, C, D Because of the location of the AV nodein the center of the heartimpulses generated may be conducted forward, backward, or both. With the potential of forward, backward, or bidirectional impulse conduction, three different P waveforms may be associated with junctional rhythms:When the AV node impulse moves forward, P waves may be absent because the impulse enters the ventricle first. The atria receives the wave of depolarization at the same time as the ventricles; thus, because of the larger muscle mass of the ventricles, there is no P wave. When the AV node impulse is conducted backward, the impulse enters the atria first. When depolarization occurs backward, an inverted P wave is created. Once the atria have been depolarized, the impulse moves down the bundle of His and depolarizes both ventricles normally. A short PR interval (<0.12 second) is noted. When the impulse is conducted both forward and backward, P waves may be present after the QRS complex.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has atrial fibrillation. Sequelae that place the patient at greater risk for mortality/morbidity include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Stroke b. Ashman beats c. Pulmonary emboli d. Prolonged PR interval e. Decreased cardiac output
a. Stroke c. Pulmonary emboli e. Decreased cardiac output ANS: A, C, E One complication of atrial fibrillation is thromboembolism. The blood that collects in the atria is agitated by fibrillation, and normal clotting is accelerated. Small thrombi, called mural thrombi, begin to form along the walls of the atria. These clots may dislodge, resulting in pulmonary embolism or stroke. The ineffectual contraction of the atria results in loss of atrial kick. If too many impulses conduct to the ventricles, atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response may result and compromise cardiac output. Ashman beats are not clinically significant. No recognizable or discernible P waves are present; therefore, PR interval is absent.
Which of the following is true about a patient diagnosed with sinus arrhythmia? a. The heart rate varies, dependent on vagal tone and respiratory pattern. b. Immediate treatment is essential to prevent death. c. Sinus arrhythmia is not well tolerated by most patients. d. PR and QRS interval measurements are prolonged.
a. The heart rate varies, dependent on vagal tone and respiratory pattern. ANS: ASinus arrhythmia is a cyclical change in heart rate that is associated with respiration. The heart rate increases slightly during inspiration and slows slightly during exhalation because of changes in vagal tone. The ECG tracing demonstrates an alternating pattern of faster and slower heart rate that changes with the respiratory cycle. Interval measurements are normal. This rhythm is tolerated well, and no treatment is required.
The nurse is reading the cardiac monitor and notes that the patient's heart rhythm is extremely irregular and there are no discernible P waves. The ventricular rate is 90 beats per minute, and the patient is hemodynamically stable. The nurse realizes that the patient's rhythm is: a. atrial fibrillation. b. atrial flutter. c. atrial flutter with rapid ventricular response. d. junctional escape rhythm.
a. atrial fibrillation. ANS: A Atrial fibrillation arises from multiple ectopic foci in the atria, causing chaotic quivering of the atria and ineffectual atrial contraction. The AV node is bombarded with hundreds of atrial impulses and conducts these impulses in an unpredictable manner to the ventricles. The atrial rate may be as high 700 and no discernible P waves can be identified, resulting in a wavy baseline and an extremely irregular ventricular response. Atrial flutter arises from a single irritable focus in the atria. The atrial focus fires at an extremely rapid, regular rate, between 240 and 320 beats per minute. The P waves are called flutter waves and may have a sawtooth appearance. The ventricular response may be regular or irregular based on how many flutter waves are conducted through the AV node. Atrial flutter with rapid ventricular response occurs when atrial impulses cause a ventricular response greater than 100 beats per minute. A junctional escape rhythm is a ventricular rate between 40 and 60 beats per minute with a regular rhythm. P waves may be absent, inverted, or follow the QRS complex. If a P wave is present before the QRS complex, the PR interval is shortened less than 0.12 milliseconds. QRS complex is normal.
The patient has an irregular heart rhythm. To determine an accurate heart rate, the nurse first: a. identifies the markers on the ECG paper that indicate a 6-second strip. b. counts the number of large boxes between two consecutive P waves. c. counts the number of small boxes between two consecutive QRS complexes. d. divides the number of complexes in a 6-second strip by 10.
a. identifies the markers on the ECG paper that indicate a 6-second strip. ANS: A Six-second method: A quick and easy estimate of heart rate can be accomplished by counting the number of P waves or QRS waves within a 6-second strip to obtain atrial and ventricular heart rates per minute. This is the optimal method for irregular rhythms. Identify the lines above the ECG paper that represent 6 seconds, and count the number of P waves within the lines; then add a zero (multiply by 10) to identify the atrial heart rate estimate for 1 minute. Next, identify the number of QRS waves in the 6-second strip and again add a zero to identify the ventricular rate. Large box method: In this method, two consecutive P and QRS waves are located. The number of large boxes between the highest points of two consecutive P waves is counted, and that number of large boxes is divided into 300 to determine the atrial rate in beats per minute. The number of large boxes between the highest points of two consecutive QRS waves is counted, and that number of large boxes is divided into 300 to determine the ventricular rate. This method is accurate only if the rhythm is regular.Small box method: The small box method is used to calculate the exact rate of a regular rhythm. In this method, two consecutive P and QRS waves are located. The number of small boxes between the highest points of these consecutive P waves is counted, and that number is divided into 1500 to determine the atrial rate in beats per minute. The number of small boxes between the highest points of two consecutive QRS waves is counted, and that number is divided into 1500 to determine the ventricular rate. This method is accurate only if the rhythm is regular.
The patient's heart rhythm shows an inverted P wave with a PR interval of 0.06 seconds. The heart rate is 54 beats per minute. The nurse recognizes the rhythm as a junctional escape rhythm, and understands that the rhythm is due to the: a. loss of sinus node activity. b. increased rate of the AV node. c. increased rate of the SA node. d. decreased rate of the AV node.
a. loss of sinus node activity. ANS: A Junctional escape rhythm occurs when the dominant pacemaker, the SA node, fails to fire. The normal heart rate of the AV node is 40 to 60 beats per minute, so the AV node rate has neither increased nor decreased. An increased SA node rate would override the AV node.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is on a cardiac monitor. The nurse realizes that the sinus node is the pacemaker of the heart because it is: a. the fastest pacemaker cell in the heart. b. the only pacemaker cell in the heart. c. the only cell that does not affect the cardiac cycle. d. located in the left side of the heart.
a. the fastest pacemaker cell in the heart. ANS: A The cardiac cycle begins with an impulse that is generated from a small concentrated area of pacemaker cells high in the right atria called the sinoatrial node (sinus node or SA node). The SA node has the fastest rate of discharge and thus is the dominant pacemaker of the heart. The AV node has pacemaker properties and can discharge an impulse if the SA node fails. The ventricles have pacemaker capabilities if the sinus node or the AV node ceases to generate impulses.
The patient has a permanent pacemaker inserted. The provider has set the pacemaker to the demand mode at a rate of 60 beats per minute. The nurse realizes that: a. the pacemaker will pace only if the patient's intrinsic heart rate is less than 60 beats per minute. b. the demand mode often competes with the patient's own rhythm. c. the demand mode places the patient at risk for the R-on-T phenomenon. d. the fixed rate mode is safer and is the mode of choice.
a. the pacemaker will pace only if the patient's intrinsic heart rate is less than 60 beats per minute. ANS: A Pacemakers can be operated in a demand mode or a fixed rate (asynchronous) mode. The demand mode paces the heart when no intrinsic or native beat is sensed. For example, if the rate control is set at 60 beats per minute, the pacemaker will only pace if the patients heart rate drops to less than 60. The fixed rate mode paces the heart at a set rate, independent of any activity the patients heart generates. The fixed rate mode may compete with the patients own rhythm and deliver an impulse on the T wave (R-on-T phenomenon), with the potential for producing ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. The demand mode is safer and is the mode of choice.
The patient is having premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). The nurse's greatest concern should be: a. the proximity of the R wave of the PVC to the T wave of a normal beat. b. the fact that PVCs are occurring, because they are so rare. c. if the number of PVCs are decreasing. d. if the PVCs are wider than 0.12 seconds.
a. the proximity of the R wave of the PVC to the T wave of a normal beat. ANS: A The peak of the T wave through the downslope of the T wave is considered the vulnerable period, which coincides with partial repolarization of the ventricles. If a PVC occurs during the T wave, ventricular tachycardia may occur. When the R wave of PVC falls on the T wave of a normal beat, it is referred to as the R-on-T phenomenon. PVCs may occur in healthy individuals and usually do not require treatment. The nurse must determine if PVCs are increasing in number by evaluating the trend. If PVCs are increasing, the nurse should evaluate for potential causes such as electrolyte imbalances, myocardial ischemia or injury, and hypoxemia. Runs of nonsustained ventricular tachycardia may be a precursor to development of sustained ventricular tachycardia. Because the stimulus depolarizes the ventricles in a slower, abnormal way, the QRS complex appears widened and has a bizarre shape. The QRS complex is wider than 0.12 seconds and often wider than 0.16 seconds.
The patient is in third-degree heart block (complete heart block) and is symptomatic. The treatment for this patient is which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. transcutaneous pacemaker. b. atropine IV. c. temporary transvenous pacemaker. d. permanent pacemaker. e. amiodarone IV.
a. transcutaneous pacemaker. c. temporary transvenous pacemaker. d. permanent pacemaker. ANS: A, C, D Treatments include transcutaneous or transvenous pacing and implanting a permanent pacemaker. Atropine reduces vagal tone, but that is not a cause of complete heart block and will produce more P waves, but the P waves will still not be associated with the QRS complexes. It is important to note that the only treatment is pacing. Amiodarone IV is used to suppress ventricular dysrhythmia and is not used to treat third-degree heart block.
The patient's heart rate is 70 beats per minute, but the P waves come after the QRS complex. The nurse correctly determines that the patient's heart rhythm is: a. a normal junctional rhythm. b. an accelerated junctional rhythm. c. a junctional tachycardia. d. atrial fibrillation.
b. an accelerated junctional rhythm. ANS: B The normal intrinsic rate for the AV node and junctional tissue is 40 to 60 beats per minute, but rates can accelerate. An accelerated junctional rhythm has a rate between 60 and 100 beats per minute, and the rate for junctional tachycardia is greater than 100 beats per minute. If P wave precedes QRS, it is inverted or upside down; the P wave may not be visible, or it may follow the QRS. If a P wave is present before the QRS, the PR interval is shortened less than 0.12 milliseconds. Atrial fibrillation arises from multiple ectopic foci in the atria, causing chaotic quivering of the atria and ineffectual atrial contraction. The AV node is bombarded with hundreds of atrial impulses and conducts these impulses in an unpredictable manner to the ventricles.
The nurse notices ventricular tachycardia on the heart monitor. When the patient is assessed, the patient is found to be unresponsive with no pulse. The nurse should: a. treat with intravenous amiodarone or lidocaine. b. begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation and advanced life support. c. provide electrical cardioversion. d. ignore the rhythm since it is benign.
b. begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation and advanced life support. ANS: B Ventricular tachycardia (VT) is a rapid, life-threatening dysrhythmia originating from a single ectopic focus in the ventricles. Determine whether the patient has a pulse. If no pulse is present, provide emergent basic and advanced life-support interventions, including defibrillation. If a pulse is present and the blood pressure is stable, the patient can be treated with intravenous amiodarone or lidocaine. Cardioversion is used as an emergency measure in patients who become hemodynamically unstable but continue to have a pulse. It also may be used in nonemergency situations, such as when a patient has asymptomatic VT.
The rhythm on the cardiac monitor is showing numerous pacemaker spikes, but no P waves or QRS complexes following the spikes. The nurse realizes this as: a. normal pacemaker function. b. failure to capture. c. failure to pace. d. failure to sense.
b. failure to capture. ANS: B When the pacemaker generates an electrical impulse (pacer spike) and no depolarization is noted, it is described a failure to capture. On the ECG, a pacer spike is noted, but it is not followed by a P wave (atrial pacemaker) or a QRS complex (ventricular pacemaker). Common causes of failure to capture include output (milliamperes) set too low, or displacement of the pacing lead wire from the myocardium (transvenous or epicardial leads). Other causes of failure to capture include battery failure, fracture of the pacemaker wire, or increased pacing threshold as a result of medication or electrolyte imbalance. This is not normal pacemaker function. Failure to pace or fire occurs when the pacemaker fails to initiate an electrical stimulus when it should fire. The problem is noted by absence of pacer spikes on the rhythm strip. Causes of failure to pace include battery or pulse generator failure, fracture or displacement of a pacemaker wire, or loose connections. When the pacemaker does not sense the patients own cardiac rhythm and initiates an electrical impulse, it is called failure to sense. Failure to sense manifests as pacer spikes that fall too closely to the patients own rhythm, earlier than the programmed rate. The most common cause is displacement of the pacemaker electrode wire.
The nurse is examining the patient's cardiac rhythm strip in lead II and notices that all of the P waves are upright and look the same except one that has a different shape and is inverted. The nurse realizes that the P wave with the abnormal shape is probably: a. from the SA node since all P waves come from the SA node. b. from some area in the atria other than the SA node. c. indicative of ventricular depolarization. d. normal even though it is inverted in lead II.
b. from some area in the atria other than the SA node. ANS: BNormally a P wave indicates that the SA node initiated the impulse that depolarized the atrium. However, a change in the shape of the P wave may indicate that the impulse arose from a site in the atria other than the SA node. The P wave represents atrial depolarization. It is usually upright in leads I and II and has a rounded, symmetrical shape. The amplitude of the P wave is measured at the center of the waveform and normally does not exceed three boxes, or 3 millimeters, in height.
One of the functions of the atrioventricular (AV) node is to: a. pace the heart if the ventricles fail. b. slow the impulse arriving from the SA node. c. send the impulse to the SA node. d. allow for ventricular filling during systole.
b. slow the impulse arriving from the SA node. ANS: B The impulse from the SA node quickly reaches the atrioventricular (AV) node located in the area called the AV junction, between the atria and the ventricles. Here the impulse is slowed to allow time for ventricular filling during relaxation or ventricular diastole. The AV node has pacemaker properties and can discharge an impulse if the SA node (not the ventricle) fails. The electrical impulse is then rapidly conducted through the bundle of His to the ventricles (not the SA node) via the left and right bundle branches.
The patient is admitted with a fever and rapid heart rate. The patient's temperature is 103° F (39.4° C).The nurse places the patient on a cardiac monitor and finds the patient's atrial and ventricular rates are above 105 beats per minute. P waves are clearly seen and appear normal in configuration. QRS complexes are normal in appearance and 0.08 seconds wide. The rhythm is regular, and blood pressure is normal. The nurse should focus on providing: a. medications to lower heart rate. b. treatment to lower temperature. c. treatment to lower cardiac output. d. treatment to reduce heart rate.
b. treatment to lower temperature. ANS: B Sinus tachycardia results when the SA node fires faster than 100 beats per minute. Sinus tachycardia is a normal response to stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system. Sinus tachycardia is also a normal finding in children younger than 6 years. Both atrial and ventricular rates are greater than 100 beats per minute, up to 160 beats per minute, but may be as high as 180 beats per minute. Sinus tachycardia is regular or essentially regular. PR interval is 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. QRS interval is 0.06 to 0.10 seconds. P and QRS waves are consistent in shape. P waves are small and rounded. A P wave precedes every QRS complex, which is then followed by a T wave. The fast heart rhythm may cause a decrease in cardiac output because of the shorter filling time for the ventricles. Lowering cardiac out further may complicate the situation. The dysrhythmia itself is not treated, but the cause is identified and treated appropriately. For example, if the patient has a fever or is in pain, the infection or pain is treated appropriately.
The patient is scheduled to have a permanent pacemaker implanted. The patient asks the nurse, "How long will the battery in this thing last?" The nurse should answer, a. "Life expectancy is about 1 year. Then it will need to be replaced." b. "Pacemaker batteries can last up to 25 years with constant use." c. "Battery life varies depending on usage, but it can last up to 10 years." d. "Pacemakers are used to treat temporary problems so the batteries don't last long."
c. "Battery life varies depending on usage, but it can last up to 10 years." ANS: C Implanted permanent pacemakers are used to treat chronic conditions. These devices have a battery life of up to 10 years, which varies based on the manufacturers recommendations.
The patient is asymptomatic but is diagnosed with second-degree heart block Mobitz I. The patient is on digitalis medication at home. The nurse should expect that: a. the patient has had an anterior wall myocardial infarction. b. the physician will order the digitalis to be continued in the hospital. c. a digitalis level would be ordered upon admission. d. the patient will require a transcutaneous pacemaker.
c. a digitalis level would be ordered upon admission. ANS: C Digitalis toxicity is a major cause of this rhythm, and further digitalis doses should not be given until a digitalis level is obtained. Other causes of Mobitz I include AV nodal blocking drugs, acute inferior wall myocardial infarction or right ventricular infarction, ischemic heart disease, and excess vagal response. This type of block is usually well tolerated and no treatment is indicated unless the dropped beats occur frequently.
The patient is admitted with sinus pauses causing periods of loss of consciousness. The patient is asymptomatic, awake and alert, but fatigued. He answers questions appropriately. When admitting this patient, the nurse should first: a. prepare the patient for temporary pacemaker insertion. b. prepare the patient for permanent pacemaker insertion. c. assess the patient's medication profile. d. apply transcutaneous pacemaker paddles.
c. assess the patient's medication profile. ANS: C AV nodal blocking medications (such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin) and increased vagal tone may cause sinus exit block. Causes are explored, and prescribed medications may need to be adjusted or discontinued. If patients are symptomatic, significant numbers of pauses may require treatment, including temporary (including transcutaneous) and permanent implantation of a pacemaker.
The patient has a permanent pacemaker in place with a demand rate set at 60 beats/min. The cardiac monitor is showing a heart rate of 44 beats/min with no pacemaker spikes. The nurse realizes this as: a. normal pacemaker function. b. failure to capture. c. failure to pace. d. failure to sense.
c. failure to pace. ANS: C Failure to pace or fire occurs when the pacemaker fails to initiate an electrical stimulus when it should fire. The problem is noted by absence of pacer spikes on the rhythm strip. Causes of failure to pace include battery or pulse generator failure, fracture or displacement of a pacemaker wire, or loose connections. This is not normal pacemaker function. When the pacemaker generates an electrical impulse (pacer spike) and no depolarization is noted, it is described a failure to capture. On the ECG, a pacer spike is noted, but it is not followed by a P wave (atrial pacemaker) or a QRS complex (ventricular pacemaker). Common causes of failure to capture include output (milliamperes) set too low, or displacement of the pacing lead wire from the myocardium (transvenous or epicardial leads). Other causes of failure to capture include battery failure, fracture of the pacemaker wire, or increased pacing threshold as a result of medication or electrolyte imbalance. When the pacemaker does not sense the patients own cardiac rhythm and initiates an electrical impulse, it is called failure to sense. Failure to sense manifests as pacer spikes that fall too closely to the patients own rhythm, earlier than the programmed rate. The most common cause is displacement of the pacemaker electrode wire.
The QT interval is the total time taken for ventricular depolarization and repolarization. Prolongation of the QT interval: a. decreases the risk of lethal dysrhythmias. b. usually occurs when heart rate increases. c. increases the risk of lethal dysrhythmias. d. can only be measured with irregular rhythms.
c. increases the risk of lethal dysrhythmias. ANS: CThe QT interval is measured from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. This interval measures the total time taken for ventricular depolarization and repolarization. Abnormal prolongation of the QT interval increases vulnerability to lethal dysrhythmias, such as ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation. Normally, the QT interval becomes longer with slower heart rates and shortens with faster heart rates, thus requiring a correction of the value (QTc). Generally, the QT interval is less than half the RR interval. QTc accuracy is based on a regular rhythm. In irregular rhythms such as atrial fibrillation, an average QTc may be necessary because the QT varies from beat to beat.
The nurse notices that the patient has a first-degree AV block. Everything else about the rhythm is normal. The nurse should: a. prepare to place the patient on a transcutaneous pacemaker. b. give the patient atropine to shorten the PR interval. c. monitor the rhythm and patient's condition. d. give the patient an antiarrhythmic medication.
c. monitor the rhythm and patient's condition. ANS: C First-degree AV block is a common dysrhythmia in the elderly and in patients with cardiac disease. As the normal conduction pathway ages or becomes diseased, impulse conduction becomes slower than normal. It is well tolerated. No treatment is required. Continue to monitor the patient and the rhythm.
The patient's heart rate is 165 beats per minute. His cardiac monitor shows a rapid rate with narrow QRS complexes. The P waves cannot be seen, but the rhythm is regular. The patient's blood pressure has dropped from 124/62 to 78/30. His skin is cold and diaphoretic and he is complaining of nausea. The nurse prepares the patient for: a. administration of beta-blockers. b. administration of atropine. c. transcutaneous pacemaker insertion. d. emergent cardioversion.
d. emergent cardioversion. ANS: DIf an abnormal P wave cannot be visualized on the ECG but the QRS complex is narrow, the term supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is often used. This is a generic term that describes any tachycardia that is not ventricular in origin; it is also used when the source above the ventricles cannot be identified, usually because the rate is too fast. Treatment is directed at assessing the patients tolerance of the tachycardia. If the rate is higher than 150 beats per minute and the patient is symptomatic, emergent cardioversion is considered. Cardioversion is the delivery of a synchronized electrical shock to the heart by an external defibrillator. Beta-blockers are a possibility if the patient is not symptomatic. Atropine is used in the treatment of bradycardia. If atropine is not effective in increasing heart rate, then transcutaneous pacing is implemented.
