SPM-7-12-Multiple choice
9. The ____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling. a. quality planning c. quality assurance b. quality certification d. quality control
quality control
17. People with a high need for ____ seek to excel and tend to avoid both low-risk and high-risk situations to improve their chances for achieving something worthwhile. a. affiliation c. power b. money d. achievement
achievement
19. People who need personal ____ want to direct others and can be seen as bossy. a. affiliation c. power b. advancement d. achievement
achievement
18. People with a high need for ____ desire harmonious relationships with other people and need to feel accepted by others. a. affiliation c. power b. money d. achievement
affiliation
27. An important tool used in the ____ phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram. a. define c. analyze b. measure d. improve
analyze
6. KLCI Research Groups 2001 survey revealed that the most frequently cited benefit from software risk management practices is to ____. a. prevent surprises c. meet customer commitments b. improve ability to negotiate d. anticipate/avoid problems
anticipate/avoid problems
24. According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the legitimate hierarchical right to issue orders. a. authority c. expertise b. assignment d. promotion
authority
29. With the ____, project managers use a give-and-take approach to resolving conflicts. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. compromise mode d. forcing mode
compromise mode
6. The communications management plan can be part of the team ____. a. WBS c. plan b. contract d. guidelines
contract
27. A ____ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance. a. budget baseline c. cost baseline b. ledger d. cost line
cost baseline
3. The ____ ultimately decides if quality is acceptable. a. project team c. project manager b. CEO d. customer
customer
30. A(n) ____ is a diagramming analysis technique used to help select the best course of action in situations in which future outcomes are uncertain. a. decision tree c. Monte Carlo analysis b. EMV d. watch list
decision tree
20. A ____ is used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate
definitive estimate
25. If the cost estimate will be the basis for contract awards and performance reporting, it should be a ____ and as accurate as possible. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate
definitive estimate
36. According to the guideline governing ____, many meetings are most effective with the minimum number of participants possible. a. determining if a meeting can be avoided b. determining who should attend the meeting c. defining the purpose and intended outcome of the meeting d. running the meeting professionally
determining who should attend the meeting
5. The main outputs of ____ process are team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factors update. a. managing the project team c. developing the project team b. acquiring the project team d. human resource planning
developing the project team
12. Project managers should focus on ____, since they can control them. a. sunk costs c. direct costs b. indirect costs d. intangible costs
direct costs
9. Since organizations depend on reliable information technology, there are also huge costs associated with ____. a. work time c. uptime b. technical planning d. downtime
downtime
15. According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only method that is excellent for encouraging creative thinking. a. phone call c. meeting b. e-mail d. Web Site
22. Project sponsors can usually rank scope, time, and cost goals in order of importance in a(n) ____. a. expectations management matrix c. issue log b. responsibility assignment matrix d. priority matrix
expectations management matrix
17. Many users prefer ____ to learn how to use a new system. a. phone conversations c. e-mail conversations b. face-to-face meetings d. reading user guides
face-to-face meetings
32. The first step in the framework for defining and assigning work is ____. a. defining how the work will be accomplished b. breaking down the work into manageable elements c. finalizing the project requirements d. assigning work responsibilities
finalizing the project requirements
1. It took only ____ years for 50 million people to use the Internet compared to 25 years for 50 million people to use telephones. a. three c. seven b. five d. nine
five
31. When using the ____, project managers exert their viewpoint at the potential expense of another viewpoint. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. compromise mode d. forcing mode
forcing mode
1. Human resource management includes ____ processes. a. three c. five b. four d. six
four
1. There are ____ main processes in project communications management. a. two c. four b. three d. five
four
24. Tom DeMarco, a well-known author on software development, suggests ____ reasons for the inaccuracies of many information technology project cost estimates and some ways to overcome them. a. three c. five b. four d. six
four
7. There are ____ main processes of project procurement management. a. three c. five b. four d. six
four
13. The highest level of needs in Maslows structure is referred to as a ____ need. a. deficiency c. safety b. growth d. physiological
growth
10. Often, many non-technical professionalsfrom colleagues to managersprefer to ____ about project information to try to find pertinent information. a. read detailed reports c. read Web pages b. read e-mails d. have a two-way conversation
have a two-way conversation
18. As the number of people involved in a project ____, the complexity of communications ____. a. increases, decreases c. increases, stays constant b. decreases, increases d. increases, increases
increases, increases
35. It takes ____ to help improve communication. a. timing c. leadership b. highly skilled employees d. outside consultants
leadership
39. Some items discussed in a(n) ____ include reflections on whether project goals were met, whether the project was successful or not, the causes of variances on the project, the reasoning behind corrective actions chosen, the use of different project management tools and techniques, and personal words of wisdom based on team members experiences. a. final project report c. audit report b. design document d. lessons-learned report
lessons-learned report
35. Jurans final step to quality improvement is ____. a. organize to reach the goals (establish a quality council, identify problems, select projects, appoint teams, designate facilitators) b. keep score c. report progress d. maintain momentum by making annual improvement part of the regular systems and processes of the company
maintain momentum by making annual improvement part of the regular systems and processes of the company
16. According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the most appropriate method for giving complex instructions. a. phone call c. meeting b. e-mail d. Web Site
meeting
28. A ____ is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed). a. skewed distribution c. polynomial distribution b. normal distribution d. symmetrical distribution
normal distribution
19. Two people have ____ communications channel(s). a. zero c. two b. one d. three
one
13. For many projects, properly ____ some information technology functions can be a great investment. a. outsourcing c. increasing b. scaling d. planning
outsourcing
14. ____ contracts involve a fixed total price for a well-defined product or service. a. CPFF c. Cost-reimbursable b. Lump sum d. Time and material
outsourcing
23. A(n) ____ might provide an estimate of $50 per line of code for a software development project based on the programming language the project is using, the level of expertise of the programmers, the size and complexity of the data involved, and so on. a. analogous cost estimate c. bottom-up estimate b. parametric model d. reserve analysis
parametric model
37. In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs when the emphasis is on reaching the team goals, rather than working on team process. a. performing c. forming b. norming d. storming
performing
10. At the bottom of Maslows structure are ____ needs. a. esteem c. physiological b. self-actualization d. social
physiological
3. The output of the ____ process is a communications management plan. a. reporting performance c. managing stakeholder expectations b. distributing information d. planning communications
planning communications
28. A project manager can chart the probability and impact of risks on a ____. a. risk ranking chart c. probability/impact matrix b. risk probability table d. risk assessment matrix
probability/impact matrix
25. According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the ability to improve a workers position. a. authority c. expertise b. assignment d. promotion
promotion
33. A(n) ____ is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to a project over time. a. responsibility assignment matrix c. RACI charts b. resource histogram d. organizational breakdown structure
resource histogram
7. Utility rises at a decreasing rate for a ____ person. a. risk-seeking c. risk-neutral b. risk-averse d. risk-indifferent
risk-averse
8. Those who are ____ have a higher tolerance for risk, and their satisfaction increases when more payoff is at stake. a. risk-seeking c. risk-neutral b. risk-averse d. risk-indifferent
risk-seeking
37. According to the guideline governing ____, designate someone to take minutes and send the minutes out soon after the meeting. a. running the meeting professionally b. providing an agenda to participants before the meeting c. determining who should attend the meeting d. building relationships
running the meeting professionally
21. Many organizations use ____ and templates to generate SOWs. a. details c. plans b. outlines d. samples
samples
21. Many practitioners define project success as ____. a. meeting project scope goals c. satisfying the customer/sponsor b. meeting time goals d. meeting cost goals
satisfying the customer/sponsor
20. The ____ states that if seven data points in a row are all below the mean, above the mean, or are all increasing or decreasing, then the process needs to be examined for non-random problems. a. ten run rule c. seven run rule b. six 9s of quality rule d. Six Sigma rule
seven run rule
13. Since information technology projects often require a lot of coordination, it is a good idea to have ____ meetings. a. long, frequent c. short, frequent b. short, infrequent d. long, infrequent
short, frequent
20. Four people have ____ communications channel(s). a. one c. six b. four d. eight
six
30. When using the ____, the project manager deemphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas of agreement. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. withdrawal mode d. forcing mode
smoothing mode
9. The ____ serves as a good starting point for information distribution. a. stakeholder communications analysis c. communications management plan b. WBS d. status report
stakeholder communications analysis
7. Having ____ review and approve all stakeholder communications analysis will ensure that the information is correct and useful. a. stakeholders c. top management b. project team members d. customers
stakeholders
36. In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs as team members have different opinions as to how the team should operate. a. performing c. forming b. norming d. storming
storming
38. The ____ line for any e-mail messages you write should clearly state the intention of the e-mail. a. to c. subject b. from d. cc
subject
24. Buyers typically develop a short list of the top ____ suppliers to reduce the work involved in selecting a source. a. one to two c. eight to ten b. three to five d. twelve to fifteen
three to five
19. According to the Standish Groups success potential scoring sheet, ____ has the highest relative importance. a. executive management support c. proper planning b. clear statement of requirements d. user involvement
user involvement
32. When using the ____, project managers retreat or withdraw from an actual or potential disagreement. a. confrontation mode c. smoothing mode b. withdrawal mode d. forcing mode
withdrawal mode
8. Information regarding the content of essential project communications comes from the ____. a. organizational chart c. work breakdown structure (WBS) b. communications management plan d. expectations management matrix
work breakdown structure (WBS)
25. Six Sigmas target for perfection is the achievement of no more than ____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities. a. 1.34 c. 34 b. 3.4 d. 340
3.4
4. KLCI Research Groups 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent identified anticipating and avoiding problems as the primary benefit of risk management. a. 60 c. 89 b. 80 d. 99
80
40. Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and people-oriented. a. Expressives c. Analyticals b. Drivers d. Amiables
Amiables
17. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a fixed fee payment usually based on a percentage of estimated costs. a. CPFF c. CPPC b. CPIF d. CPPF
CPFF
26. ____ involves using punishment, threats, or other negative approaches to get people to do things they do not want to do. a. Legitimate power c. Reward power b. Coercive power d. Referent power
Coercive power
14. According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only inappropriate method for expressing support/appreciation. a. phone call c. meeting b. e-mail d. Web site
Web site
23. In a risk breakdown structure, competitors, suppliers, and cash flow are categories that fall under ____ risk. a. business c. organizational b. technical d. project management
business
28. The ____ mode is also called the problem-solving mode. a. confrontation c. smoothing b. compromise d. forcing
confrontation
33. Research indicates that project managers favor using ____ for conflict resolution over the other four modes. a. compromise c. confrontation b. smoothing d. forcing
confrontation
19. A ____ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time. a. statistical sampling chart c. Six Sigma chart b. Pareto chart d. control chart
control chart
27. A(n) ____ represents decision problems by displaying essential elements, including decisions, uncertainties, causality, and objectives, and how they influence each other. a. risk breakdown structure c. process flow chart b. influence diagram d. system flow chart
influence diagram
1. William Ibbs and Young H. Kwaks study revealed that the ____ industry had the lowest level of project management maturity in the area of risk management. a. engineering/construction c. information systems b. telecommunications d. high-tech manufacturing
information systems
2. William Ibbs and Young H. Kwaks study revealed that the ____ industry had the lowest level of project management maturity in the area of quality management. a. engineering/construction c. information systems b. telecommunications d. high-tech manufacturing
information systems
2. An October 2005 Information Technology Association of America (ITAA)sponsored report stated that total savings from offshore resources during the 2005-2010 period are estimated to grow from $8.7 billion to ____. a. $10.2 billion c. $50.4 billion b. $20.4 billion d. $107.9 billion
$20.4 billion
10. There are ____ major processes involved in risk management. a. three c. five b. four d. six
six
40. Using simplified percentage complete amounts for a one-year project with weekly reporting and an average task or work packet size of one week, you can expect about a(n) ____ percent error rate. a. 1 c. 11 b. 5 d. 15
1
8. Abraham Maslow, a highly respected psychologist, rejected the dehumanizing negativism of psychology in the ____. a. 1940s c. 1960s b. 1950s d. 1970s
1950s
1. An October 2005 Information Technology Association of America (ITAA)sponsored report stated that spending for global sources of computer software and services is expected to grow at a compound annual rate of about ____ percent. a. 10 c. 30 b. 20 d. 40
20
2. Three separate surveys of software project cost overruns found that the average cost overrun for all of the projects in their survey samples (not just unsuccessful projects) were ____ percent. a. 1314 c. 3334 b. 2324 d. 4344
3334
1. The Standish Groups CHAOS studies reported an average cost overrun for unsuccessful IT projects ranged from 180 percent in 1994 to ____ percent in 2004. a. 28 c. 56 b. 43 d. 73
56
12. Many people cite research that says in a face-to-face interaction, ____ percent of communication is through body language. a. 10 c. 58 b. 25 d. 85
58
5. KLCI Research Groups 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the organizations surveyed had a Project Management Office. a. 64 c. 85 b. 75 d. 94
64
23. A certainty factor of 1.960 is used for ____ percent desired certainty. a. 75 c. 96 b. 95 d. 99
95
3. KLCI Research Groups 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the participants said they had procedures in place to identify and assess risk. a. 75 c. 97 b. 87 d. 99
97
29. In any normal distribution, ____ percent of the population is within three standard deviations of the mean. a. 95.5 c. 99.7 b. 99.0 d. 99.9
99.7
5. ____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance. a. Determining the budget c. Controlling costs b. Consolidation of costs d. Estimating costs
A
33. The ____ is the total direct and indirect costs incurred in accomplishing work on an activity during a given period. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV
AC
5. Organizations can gain access to specific skills and technologies when they are required by using outside resources. refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Provide flexibility c. Access skills and technologies d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business
Access skills and technologies
11. ____ involves managing relationships with sellers, monitoring contract performance, and making changes as needed. a. Closing procurements c. Requesting seller responses b. Selecting sellers d. Administering procurements
Administering procurements
4. Most organizations are not in business to provide information technology services, yet many have spent valuable time and resources on information technology functions when they should have focused on core competencies such as marketing, customer service, and new product design. refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Provide flexibility c. Access skills and technologies d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business
Allow the client organization to focus on its core business
39. Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and task-oriented. a. Expressives c. Analyticals b. Drivers d. Amiables
Analyticals
32. What is the first step in a Monte Carlo analysis? a. Determine the probability distribution of each variable. b. For each variable, such as the time estimate for a task, select a random value based on the probability distribution for the occurrence of the variable. c. Assess the range for the variables being considered. d. Run a deterministic analysis or one pass through the model using the combination of values selected for each one of the variables.
Assess the range for the variables being considered.
15. ____ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization. a. Design of experiments c. Testing b. Quality auditing d. Benchmarking
Benchmarking
22. ____ involve estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total. a. Actual estimates c. Bottom-up estimates b. Parametric estimates d. Analogous estimates
Bottom-up estimates
37. The ____ is the ratio of earned value to actual cost and can be used to estimate the projected cost of completing the project. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI
C
38. The ____ is the ratio of earned value to planned value and can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI
CPI
16. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined fee and an incentive bonus. a. CPFF c. CPPC b. CPIF d. CPPF
CPIF
18. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined percentage based on total costs. a. CPFF c. CPPC b. CPIF d. CPPF
CPPC
19. From the suppliers perspective, there is the least risk with a(n) ____ contract. a. CPFF c. CPPC b. FFP d. CPFF
CPPC
35. ____ is the earned value minus the actual cost. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI
CV
12. ____ involves completion and settlement of each contract, including resolution of any open items. a. Exiting procurements c. Closing procurements b. Closing out accounts d. Ending procurements
Closing procurements
10. Outputs to the ____ process include selected sellers, procurement contract awards, resource calendars, change requests, and updates to the project management plan and other project documents. a. Closing the contract c. Requesting seller responses b. Conducting procurements d. Administering the contract
Conducting procurements
9. ____ involves obtaining seller responses, selecting sellers, and awarding contracts. a. Conducting procurements c. Requesting seller responses b. Selecting sellers d. Planning purchases and acquisitions
Conducting procurements
2. ____ means the projects processes and products meet written specifications. a. Conformance to requirements c. Quality conformance b. Fitness for use d. Documentation matching
Conformance to requirements
25. ____ change orders are oral or written acts or omissions by someone with actual or apparent authority that can be construed to have the same effect as a written change order. a. Direct c. Destructive b. Constructive d. Instructive
Constructive
17. ____ are predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs. a. Fallback plans c. Contingency plans b. Contingency reserves d. Contingency allowances
Contingency plans
15. ____ involve payment to the supplier for direct and indirect actual costs. a. CPFF contracts c. Cost-reimbursable contracts b. Lump sum contracts d. Time and material contracts
Cost-reimbursable contracts
36. ____ wrote Quality Is Free in 1979 and is best known for suggesting that organizations strive for zero defects. a. Juran c. Crosby b. Ishikawa d. Deming
Crosby
16. ____ proposed that an individuals specific needs are acquired or learned over time and shaped by life experiences. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor
David McClelland
31. ____ fill in for project managers in their absence and assist them as needed. a. Deputy project managers c. Assistant project managers b. Subproject managers d. Second-tier project managers
Deputy project managers
7. ____ involves identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team
Developing the human resource plan
4. ____ involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner. a. Reporting performance c. Managing stakeholder expectations b. Distributing information d. Planning communications
Distributing information
21. ____ is best known for developing Theory X and Theory Y. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor
Douglas McGregor
9. A ____ person achieves a balance between risk and payoff. a. risk-seeking c. risk-fearing b. risk-averse d. risk-neutral
Drisk-neutral
29. ____ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope, time, and cost data. a. Cost baseline c. Constructive cost modeling b. Earned value management d. Parametric modeling
Earned value management
4. ____ involves developing an approximation or estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete a project. a. Determining the budget c. Controlling costs b. Consolidation of costs d. Estimating costs
Estimating costs
18. ____ are developed for risks that have a high impact on meeting project objectives, and are put into effect if attempts to reduce the risk are not effective. a. Fallback plans c. Contingency plans b. Contingency reserves d. Contingency allowances
Fallback plans
21. Will the project meet NPV, ROI, and payback estimates? applies to which risk category? a. Financial risk c. Structure/process risk b. Technology risk d. Market risk
Financial risk
25. ____ predict future project status and progress based on past information and trends. a. Progress reports c. Forecasts b. Status reports d. Updates
Forecasts
14. ____ is best known for distinguishing between motivational factors and hygiene factors when considering motivation in work settings. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor
Frederick Herzberg
15. ____ found that people were motivated to work mostly by feelings of personal achievement and recognition. a. Maslow c. McClelland b. McGregor d. Herzberg
Herzberg
24. Poor conflict management, poor project organization and definition of responsibilities, and absence of leadership are risk conditions associated with the ____ project management knowledge area. a. Integration c. Time b. Quality d. Human Resources
Human Resources
12. ____ involves determining which risks are likely to affect a project and documenting the characteristics of each. a. Identifying risks c. Performing qualitative risk analysis b. Planning risk management d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
Identifying risks
34. ____ employees are also more likely to enroll voluntarily in classes on the latest technology than those on developing their soft skills. a. Individual c. Groups of b. Service d. Team
Individual
26. ____ is a fact-finding technique for collecting information in face-to-face, phone, e-mail, or instant-messaging discussions. a. Brainstorming c. The Delphi technique b. SWOT analysis d. Interviewing
Interviewing
34. One of ____ ten steps states that an organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement. a. Demings c. Jurans b. Crosbys d. Ishikawas
Jurans
6. ____ involves tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance project performance. a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team
Managing the project team
20. If the information technology project is to produce a new product or service, will it be useful to the organization or marketable to others? applies to which risk category? a. Financial risk c. Structure/process risk b. Technology risk d. Market risk
Market risk
30. ____ is matching certain behaviors of the other person. a. Empathic listening c. Synergy b. Rapport d. Mirroring
Mirroring
16. ____ involves monitoring identified and residual risks, identifying new risks, carrying out risk response plans, and evaluating the effectiveness of risk strategies throughout the life of the project. a. Performing quantitative risk analysis c. Monitoring and controlling risk b. Planning risk responses d. Performing qualitative risk analysis
Monitoring and controlling risk
31. ____ analysis simulates a models outcome many times to provide a statistical distribution of the calculated results. a. Decision tree c. Monte Carlo b. EMV d. Watch list
Monte Carlo
30. The ____ is that portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spent on an activity during a given period. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV
PV
21. ____ help(s) you identify the vital few contributors that account for most quality problems in a system. a. Statistical sampling c. Six Sigma b. Pareto charts d. Quality control charts
Pareto charts
22. Is there a project champion? applies to which risk category? a. Financial risk c. Structure/process risk b. Technology risk d. People risk
People risk
13. ____ involves prioritizing risks based on their probability and impact of occurrence. a. Performing qualitative risk analysis c. Planning risk responses b. Planning risk management d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
Performing qualitative risk analysis
8. ____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality. a. Performing quality assurance c. Checking quality b. Performing quality control d. Planning quality
Performing quality control
14. ____ involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives. a. Performing qualitative risk analysis c. Planning risk management b. Planning risk responses d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
Performing quantitative risk analysis
2. ____ involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders. a. Reporting performance c. Managing stakeholder expectations b. Distributing information d. Planning communications
Planning communications
8. ____ involves determining what to procure, when, and how. a. Planning contracting c. Conducting procurements b. Administrating procurements d. Planning procurements
Planning procurements
11. ____ involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project. a. Identifying risks c. Performing qualitative risk analysis b. Planning risk management d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
Planning risk management
15. ____ involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives. a. Performing quantitative risk analysis c. Monitoring and controlling risk b. Planning risk responses d. Performing qualitative risk analysis
Planning risk responses
18. ____ correct(s) or prevent(s) further quality problems based on quality control measurements. a. Process adjustments c. Acceptance decisions b. Rework d. Auditing
Process adjustments
25. Unenforceable conditions or contract clauses, and adversarial relations are risk conditions associated with the ____ project management knowledge area. a. Integration c. Procurement b. Quality d. Human Resources
Procurement
24. ____ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period. a. Progress reports c. Forecasts b. Status reports d. Updates
Progress reports
40. ____ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project. a. Project archives c. Project databases b. Project backups d. Project notes
Project archives
6. Outsourcing to provide extra staff during periods of peak workloads can be much more economical than trying to staff entire projects with internal resources. refers to the ____ benefit. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Provide flexibility c. Access skills and technologies d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business
Provide flexibility
22. A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit proposals from prospective suppliers. a. RFQ c. COW b. RFP d. SOW
RFP
23. A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit quotes or bids from prospective suppliers. a. RFQ c. COW b. RFP d. SOW
RFQ
31. The ____ is the ratio of actual work completed to the percentage of work planned to have been completed at any given time during the life of the project or activity. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV
RP
3. Outsourcing suppliers are often able to use economies of scale that may not be available to the client alone, especially for hardware and software. refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business c. Access skills and technologies d. Provide flexibility
Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs
28. ____ is based on an individuals personal charisma. a. Legitimate power c. Reward power b. Coercive power d. Referent power
Referent power
13. ____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality
Reliability
5. ____ involves collecting and disseminating performance information, including status reports, progress measurement, and forecasting. a. Reporting performance c. Managing stakeholder expectations b. Distributing information d. Planning communications
Reporting performance
35. ____ is a technique for resolving resource conflicts by delaying tasks. a. Resource loading c. Resource allocation b. Resource leveling d. Resource requesting
Resource leveling
34. ____ refers to the amount of individual resources an existing schedule requires during specific time periods. a. Resource loading c. Resource allocation b. Resource leveling d. Resource requesting
Resource loading
27. ____ involves using incentives to induce people to do things. a. Legitimate power c. Reward power b. Coercive power d. Referent power
Reward power
17. ____ is action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations. a. A process adjustment c. An acceptance decision b. Rework d. Auditing
Rework
39. ____ applies to positive risks when the project team cannot or chooses not to take any actions toward a risk. a. Risk enhancement c. Risk sharing b. Risk acceptance d. Risk exploitation
Risk acceptance
33. ____ involves eliminating a specific threat, usually by eliminating its causes. a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation
Risk avoidance
38. ____ involves changing the size of the opportunity by identifying and maximizing key drivers of the positive risk. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance
Risk enhancement
36. ____ involves doing whatever you can to make sure the positive risk happens. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance
Risk exploitation
35. ____ involves reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence. a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation
Risk mitigation
37. ____ involves allocating ownership of the risk to another party. a. Risk exploitation c. Risk enhancement b. Risk sharing d. Risk acceptance
Risk sharing
34. ____ involves shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party. a. Risk avoidance c. Risk transference b. Risk acceptance d. Risk mitigation
Risk transference
20. The ____ is a description of the work required for the procurement. a. RFQ c. COW b. RFP d. SOW
SOW
36. ____ is the earned value minus the planned value. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI
SV
27. ____ issues cause the most conflicts over the project life cycle. a. Project priority c. Cost b. Staffing d. Schedule
Schedule
40. ____ risks are a direct result of implementing a risk response. a. Tertiary c. Residual b. Primary d. Secondary
Secondary
29. Which of Coveys habits does Douglas Ross suggest differentiates good project managers from average or poor project managers? a. Think win/win b. Seek first to understand, then to be understood c. Begin with the end in mind d. Synergize
Seek first to understand, then to be understood
38. In the MBTI, the ____ dimension relates to the manner in which you gather information. a. Extrovert/Introvert c. Judgment/Perception b. Thinking/Feeling d. Sensation/Intuition
Sensation/Intuition
11. ____ are often more effective particularly for sensitive information. a. Electronic communications c. Telephone conversations b. Short face-to-face meetings d. Long face-to-face meetings
Short face-to-face meetings
24. ____ is a comprehensive and flexible system for achieving, sustaining and maximizing business success. a. Statistical sampling c. Six Sigma b. Pareto analysis d. Quality control charting
Six Sigma
22. ____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection. a. Statistical sampling c. Six Sigma b. Pareto analysis d. Quality control charting
Statistical sampling
23. ____ describe where the project stands at a specific point in time. a. Progress reports c. Forecasts b. Status reports d. Updates
Status reports
26. ____ are a good way to highlight information provided in important project documents, empower people to be accountable for their work, and have face-to-face discussions about important project issues. a. Information retreats c. Information review meetings b. Status planning meetings d. Status review meetings
Status review meetings
14. ____ should be forgotten. a. Sunk costs c. Direct costs b. Indirect costs d. Intangible costs
Sunk costs
11. ____ are those costs that an organization can easily measure in dollars. a. Intangible costs c. Tangible costs b. Direct costs d. Indirect costs
Tangible costs
22. People who believe in ____ assume that the average worker wants to be directed and prefers to avoid responsibility. a. Theory W c. Theory Y b. Theory X d. Theory Z
Theory X
23. ____ emphasizes things such as job rotation, broadening of skills, generalization versus specialization, and the need for continuous training of workers. a. Theory W c. Theory Y b. Theory X d. Theory Z
Theory Z
29. ____ are/is a qualitative risk analysis tool, and in addition to identifying risks, it maintains an awareness of risks throughout the life of a project. a. Risk factor analysis c. Risk registering b. Probability/impact matrices or charts d. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking
Top Ten Risk Item Tracking
9. ____ is best known for developing a hierarchy of needs. a. Frederick Herzberg c. Abraham Maslow b. David McClelland d. Douglas McGregor
Abraham Maslow
16. ____determine(s) if the products or services produced as part of the project will be accepted or rejected. a. Process adjustments c. Acceptance decisions b. Rework d. Auditing
Acceptance decisions
2. ____ involves getting the needed personnel assigned to and working on the project. a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team
Acquiring the project team
21. ____ use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. a. Actual estimates c. Bottom-up estimates b. Parametric estimates d. Analogous estimates
Analogous estimates
38. ____ is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range. a. Prevention cost c. Internal failure cost b. Appraisal cost d. External failure cost
Appraisal cost
40. ____ helps integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes. a. SQFD c. SQMMI b. CMM d. CMMI
CMMI
10. ____ is a method for determining the estimated annual costs and benefits for a project and the resulting annual cash flow. a. Life cycle costing c. Cost estimating b. Profit margin analysis d. Cash flow analysis
Cash flow analysis
15. ____ allow for future situations that may be partially planned for. a. Contingency reserves c. Unknown unknowns b. Management reserves d. Direct reserves
Contingency reserves
33. One of ____ 14 Points for Management states that an organization should cease dependence on inspection to achieve quality. a. Demings c. Crosbys b. Jurans d. Ishikawas
Demings
4. ____ involves building individual and group skills to enhance project performance. a. Developing the human resource plan c. Acquiring the project team b. Developing the project team d. Managing the project team
Developing the project team
39. The ____ is an estimate of what it will cost to complete the project based on performance to date. a. CPI c. EAC b. SV d. SPI
EAC
32. The ____ is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV
EV
34. Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost or planned value from ____. a. EV c. PV b. AC d. RP
EV
39. ____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer. a. Prevention cost c. Internal failure cost b. Appraisal cost d. External failure cost
External failure cost
11. ____ are the systems special characteristics that appeal to users. a. Features c. Properties b. System outputs d. Functions
Features
10. ____ is the degree to which a system performs its intended function. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality
Functionality
37. ____, a quality system standard developed by the ISO, is a three-part, continuous cycle of planning, controlling, and documenting quality in an organization. a. IEEE 15504 c. IEEE 9000 b. ISO 9000 d. ISO 15504
ISO 9000
13. ____ are costs that are not directly related to the products or services of the project, but are indirectly related to performing the project. a. Intangible costs c. Direct costs b. Tangible costs d. Indirect costs
Indirect costs
7. ____ helps you develop an accurate projection of a projects financial costs and benefits. a. Profit cycle costing c. Life cycle costing b. Financial costing d. Profit margin costing
Life cycle costing
14. ____ addresses the ease of performing maintenance on a product. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality
Maintainability
16. ____ allow for future situations that are unpredictable. a. Contingency reserves c. Known unknowns b. Management reserves d. Indirect reserves
Management reserves
12. ____ addresses how well a product or service performs the customers intended use. a. Reliability c. Maintainability b. Performance d. Functionality
Performance
7. ____ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards. a. Performing quality assurance c. Checking quality b. Performing quality control d. Planning quality
Performing quality assurance
5. ____ includes identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and how to satisfy those standards. a. Performing quality assurance c. Checking quality b. Performing quality control d. Planning quality
Planning quality
6. ____ is the ratio of revenues to profits. a. Profit c. Cost structure b. Profit margin d. Cost margin
Profit margin
3. ____ includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget. a. Cost budgeting c. Cost control b. Cost estimating d. Project cost management
Project cost management
8. ____, with assistance from financial experts in their organizations, should create estimates of the costs and benefits of the project for its entire life cycle. a. Financial mangers c. Budget managers b. Project managers d. System managers
Project managers
3. Key outputs of ____ process are project staff assignments, resource calendars, and project management plan updates. a. managing the project team c. developing the project team b. acquiring the project team d. developing the human resource plan
acquiring the project team
28. The project management plan, project funding requirements, work performance data, and organizational process assets are inputs for the process of ____. a. controlling costs c. consolidating costs b. budgeting costs d. estimating costs
controlling costs
26. The main goal of the ____ process is to produce a cost baseline for measuring project performance and project funding requirements. a. cost budgeting c. cost control b. cost consolidation d. cost estimating
cost budgeting
30. A(n) ____ is any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements. a. defect c. error b. failure d. recall
defect
26. Important tools used in the ____ phase of the DMAIC process include a project charter, a description of customer requirements, process maps, and Voice of the Customer (VOC) data. a. define c. analyze b. measure d. improve
define
11. ____ is at the top of Maslows structure. a. Esteem c. Physiological b. Self-actualization d. Social
Self-actualization
32. ____ is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system. a. Integration testing c. User acceptance testing b. Unit testing d. System testing
User acceptance testing
19. A ____ is used to allocate money into an organizations budget. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate
budgetary estimate
12. The bottom four needs in Maslows structure are referred to as ____ needs. a. self-actualization c. safety b. deficiency d. growth
deficiency
4. Project quality management involves ____ main processes. a. two c. four b. three d. five
three
20. The ____ presents subjects with a series of ambiguous pictures and asks them to develop a spontaneous story for each picture, assuming they will project their own needs into the story. a. RAM c. TAT b. MBTI d. RACI
TAT
6. The main outputs of ____ are a quality management plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, a process improvement plan, and project document updates. a. quality control c. quality assurance b. quality planning d. quality certification
quality planning
17. A ____ provides an estimate of what a project will cost. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate
rough order of magnitude estimate
18. A ____ is done very early in a project or even before a project is officially started. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate
rough order of magnitude estimate
31. A(n) ____ is done to test each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible. a. integration test c. user acceptance test b. unit test d. system test
unit test
