Spring 2019 Unit 3 (Metabolism) Iggy Chapters 60, 61, & 64; Perry Chapter 47 (46 in 5th Ed.-Endocrine Dysfunction); Adams Chapter 45 (ch.44 in 4th edition)

2. A client wants to lose 1.5 pounds a week. After reviewing a diet history, the nurse determines the client typically eats 2450 calories a day. What should the clients calorie goal be to achieve this weight loss? (Record your answer using a whole number.) __ calories/day

ANS: 1700 calories/day To encourage a weight loss of 1 pound (2.2 kg) a week, 500 calories per day would be subtracted. To encourage a weight loss of 2 pounds (4.4 kg) a week, 1000 calories each day are subtracted. In this scenario, to lose 1.5 pounds a week the client needs to cut 750 calories per day from the diet: 2450 750 = 1700 calories.

3. A client is receiving continuous tube feeding at 70 mL/hr. When the bag is empty, how much formula does the nurse add? (Record your answer using a whole number.) _____ mL

ANS: 280 mL The nurse never adds more than 4 hours worth of formula to a hanging bag of enteral feedings. 70 mL/hr 4 hr = 280 mL.

1. A client weighs 228 pounds (103.6 kg) and is 53 (160 cm) tall. What is this clients body mass index (BMI)? (Record your answer using a decimal rounded up to the nearest tenth.) _____

ANS: 40.4

26.A preoperative nurse assesses a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus prior to a surgical procedure. The clients blood glucose level is 160 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse take? a. Document the finding in the clients chart. b. Administer a bolus of regular insulin IV. c. Call the surgeon to cancel the procedure. d. Draw blood gases to assess the metabolic state.

ANS: A Clients who have type 1 diabetes and are having surgery have been found to have fewer complications, lower rates of infection, and better wound healing if blood glucose levels are maintained at between 140 and 180 mg/dL throughout the perioperative period. The nurse should document the finding and proceed with other operative care. The need for a bolus of insulin, canceling the procedure, or drawing arterial blood gases is not required.

2. A nursing student is studying nutritional problems and learns that kwashiorkor is distinguished from marasmus with which finding? a. Deficit of calories b. Lack of all nutrients c. Specific lack of protein d. Unknown cause of malnutrition

ANS: C Kwashiorkor is a lack of protein when total calories are adequate. Marasmus is a caloric malnutrition.

6.A nurse teaches a client who is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients plan of care to delay the onset of microvascular and macrovascular complications? a. Maintain tight glycemic control and prevent hyperglycemia. b. Restrict your fluid intake to no more than 2 liters a day. c. Prevent hypoglycemia by eating a bedtime snack. d. Limit your intake of protein to prevent ketoacidosis.

ANS: A Hyperglycemia is a critical factor in the pathogenesis of long-term diabetic complications. Maintaining tight glycemic control will help delay the onset of complications. Restricting fluid intake is not part of the treatment plan for clients with diabetes. Preventing hypoglycemia and ketosis, although important, are not as important as maintaining daily glycemic control.

24.After teaching a client who is recovering from pancreas transplantation, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional education? a. If I develop an infection, I should stop taking my corticosteroid. b. If I have pain over the transplant site, I will call the surgeon immediately. c. I should avoid people who are ill or who have an infection. d. I should take my cyclosporine exactly the way I was taught.

ANS: A Immunosuppressive agents should not be stopped without the consultation of the transplantation physician, even if an infection is present. Stopping immunosuppressive therapy endangers the transplanted organ. The other statements are correct. Pain over the graft site may indicate rejection. Anti-rejection drugs cause immunosuppression, and the client should avoid crowds and people who are ill. Changing the routine of anti-rejection medications may cause them to not work optimally.

2. A child with growth hormone (GH) deficiency is receiving GH therapy. The best time for the GH to be administered is: a. At bedtime. c. Before meals. b. After meals. d. On arising in the morning.

ANS: A Injections are best given at bedtime to more closely approximate the physiologic release of GH. Before or after meals and on arising in the morning are times that do not mimic the physiologic release of the hormone.

42.A nurse prepares to administer insulin to a client at 1800. The clients medication administration record contains the following information: Insulin glargine: 12 units daily at 1800 Regular insulin: 6 units QID at 0600, 1200, 1800, 2400 Based on the clients medication administration record, which action should the nurse take? a. Draw up and inject the insulin glargine first, and then draw up and inject the regular insulin. b. Draw up and inject the insulin glargine first, wait 20 minutes, and then draw up and inject the regular insulin. c. First draw up the dose of regular insulin, then draw up the dose of insulin glargine in the same syringe, mix, and inject the two insulins together. d. First draw up the dose of insulin glargine, then draw up the dose of regular insulin in the same syringe, mix, and inject the two insulins together.

ANS: A Insulin glargine must not be diluted or mixed with any other insulin or solution. Mixing results in an unpredictable alteration in the onset of action and time to peak action. The correct instruction is to draw up and inject first the glargine and then the regular insulin right afterward.

15.A nurse cares for a client with diabetes mellitus who is visually impaired. The client asks, Can I ask my niece to prefill my syringes and then store them for later use when I need them? How should the nurse respond? a. Yes. Prefilled syringes can be stored for 3 weeks in the refrigerator in a vertical position with the needle pointing up. b. Yes. Syringes can be filled with insulin and stored for a month in a location that is protected from light. c. Insulin reacts with plastic, so prefilled syringes are okay, but you will need to use glass syringes. d. No. Insulin syringes cannot be prefilled and stored for any length of time outside of the container.

ANS: A Insulin is relatively stable when stored in a cool, dry place away from light. When refrigerated, prefilled plastic syringes are stable for up to 3 weeks. They should be stored in the refrigerator in the vertical position with the needle pointing up to prevent suspended insulin particles from clogging the needle.

18.An emergency department nurse assesses a client with ketoacidosis. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse correlate with this condition? a. Increased rate and depth of respiration b. Extremity tremors followed by seizure activity c. Oral temperature of 102 F (38.9 C) d. Severe orthostatic hypotension

ANS: A Ketoacidosis decreases the pH of the blood, stimulating the respiratory control areas of the brain to buffer the effects of increasing acidosis. The rate and depth of respiration are increased (Kussmaul respirations) in an attempt to excrete more acids by exhalation. Tremors, elevated temperature, and orthostatic hypotension are not associated with ketoacidosis.

5.A nurse cares for a client who has a family history of diabetes mellitus. The client states, My father has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Will I develop this disease as well? How should the nurse respond? a. Your risk of diabetes is higher than the general population, but it may not occur. b. No genetic risk is associated with the development of type 1 diabetes mellitus. c. The risk for becoming a diabetic is 50% because of how it is inherited. d. Female children do not inherit diabetes mellitus, but male children will.

ANS: A Risk for type 1 diabetes is determined by inheritance of genes coding for HLA-DR and HLA-DQ tissue types. Clients who have one parent with type 1 diabetes are at increased risk for its development. Diabetes (type 1) seems to require interaction between inherited risk and environmental factors, so not everyone with these genes develops diabetes. The other statements are not accurate.

13.After teaching a client with diabetes mellitus to inject insulin, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. The lower abdomen is the best location because it is closest to the pancreas. b. I can reach my thigh the best, so I will use the different areas of my thighs. c. By rotating the sites in one area, my chance of having a reaction is decreased. d. Changing injection sites from the thigh to the arm will change absorption rates.

ANS: A The abdominal site has the fastest rate of absorption because of blood vessels in the area, not because of its proximity to the pancreas. The other statements are accurate assessments of insulin administration.

14.A nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus and notes the client only responds to a sternal rub by moaning, has capillary blood glucose of 33 g/dL, and has an intravenous line that is infiltrated with 0.45% normal saline. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Administer 1 mg of intramuscular glucagon. b. Encourage the client to drink orange juice. c. Insert a new intravenous access line. d. Administer 25 mL dextrose 50% (D50) IV push.

ANS: A The clients blood glucose level is dangerously low. The nurse needs to administer glucagon IM immediately to increase the clients blood glucose level. The nurse should insert a new IV after administering the glucagon and can use the new IV site for future doses of D50 if the clients blood glucose level does not rise. Once the client is awake, orange juice may be administered orally along with a form of protein such as a peanut butter.

31.A nurse assesses a client who has diabetes mellitus and notes the client is awake and alert, but shaky, diaphoretic, and weak. Five minutes after administering a half-cup of orange juice, the clients clinical manifestations have not changed. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Administer another half-cup of orange juice. b. Administer a half-ampule of dextrose 50% intravenously. c. Administer 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously. d. Administer 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly.

ANS: A This client is experiencing mild hypoglycemia. For mild hypoglycemic manifestations, the nurse should administer oral glucose in the form of orange juice. If the symptoms do not resolve immediately, the treatment should be repeated. The client does not need intravenous dextrose, insulin, or glucagon.

2. A nurse cares for a client with a deficiency of aldosterone. Which assessment finding should the nurse correlate with this deficiency? a. Increased urine output b. Vasoconstriction c. Blood glucose of 98 mg/dL d. Serum sodium of 144 mEq/L

ANS: A Aldosterone, the major mineralocorticoid, maintains extracellular fluid volume. It promotes sodium and water reabsorption and potassium excretion in the kidney tubules. A client with an aldosterone deficiency will have increased urine output. Vasoconstriction is not related. These sodium and glucose levels are normal; in aldosterone deficiency, the client would have hyponatremia and hyperkalemia.

8. A nurse and a registered dietitian are assessing clients for partial parenteral nutrition (PPN). For which client would the nurse suggest another route of providing nutrition? a. Client with congestive heart failure b. Older client with dementia c. Client who has multiorgan failure d. Client who is post gastric resection

ANS: A Clients receiving PPN typically get large amounts of fluid volume, making the client with heart failure a poor candidate. The other candidates are appropriate for this type of nutritional support.

10. A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed a 24-hour urine collection. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that, while pouring urine into the collection container, some urine splashed his hand. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Ask the UAP if he washed his hands afterward. b. Have the UAP fill out an incident report. c. Ask the laboratory if the container has preservative in it. d. Send the UAP to Employee Health right away.

ANS: A For safety, the nurse should find out if the UAP washed his or her hands. The UAP should do this for two reasons. First, it is part of Standard Precautions to wash hands after client care. Second, if the container did have preservative in it, this would wash it away. The preservative may be caustic to the skin. The nurse can call the laboratory while the UAP is washing hands, if needed. The UAP would then need to fill out an incident or exposure report and may or may not need to go to Employee Health. The UAP also needs further education on Standard Precautions, which include wearing gloves.

6. A nurse is caring for a client receiving enteral feedings through a Dobhoff tube. What action by the nurse is best to prevent hyperosmolarity? a. Administer free-water boluses. b. Change the clients formula. c. Dilute the clients formula. d. Slow the rate of infusion.

ANS: A Proteins and sugar molecules in the enteral feeding product contribute to dehydration due to increased osmolarity. The nurse can administer free-water boluses after consulting with the provider on the appropriate amount and timing of the boluses, or per protocol. The client may not be able to switch formulas. Diluting the formula is not appropriate. Slowing the rate of the infusion will not address the problem.

8. A nurse teaches a client who has been prescribed a 24-hour urine collection to measure excreted hormones. The client asks, Why do I need to collect urine for 24 hours instead of providing a random specimen? How should the nurse respond? a. This test will assess for a hormone secreted on a circadian rhythm. b. The hormone is diluted in urine; therefore, we need a large volume. c. We are assessing when the hormone is secreted in large amounts. d. To collect the correct hormone, you need to urinate multiple times.

ANS: A Some hormones are secreted in a pulsatile, or circadian, cycle. When testing for these substances, a collection that occurs over 24 hours will most accurately reflect hormone secretion. Dilution of hormones in urine, secretion of hormone amounts, and ability to collect the correct hormone are not reasons to complete a 24-hour urine test.

4. A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed a medication that stimulates beta 1 receptors. Which assessment finding should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. Heart rate of 50 beats/min b. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min c. Oxygenation saturation of 92% d. Blood pressure of 144/69 mm Hg

ANS: A Stimulation of beta1 receptor sites in the heart has positive chronotropic and inotropic actions. The nurse expects an increase in heart rate and increased cardiac output. The client with a heart rate of 50 beats/min would be cause for concern because this would indicate that the client was not responding to the medication. The other vital signs are within normal limits and do not indicate a negative response to the medication.

6. A nurse collaborates with an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to provide care for a client who is prescribed a 24-hour urine specimen collection. Which statement should the nurse include when delegating this activity to the UAP? a. Note the time of the clients first void and collect urine for 24 hours. b. Add the preservative to the container at the end of the test. c. Start the collection by saving the first urine of the morning. d. It is okay if one urine sample during the 24 hours is not collected.

ANS: A The collection of a 24-hour urine specimen is often delegated to a UAP. The nurse must ensure that the UAP understands the proper process for collecting the urine. The 24-hour urine collection specimen is started after the clients first urination. The first urine specimen is discarded because there is no way to know how long it has been in the bladder, but the time of the clients first void is noted. The client adds all urine voided after that first discarded specimen during the next 24 hours. When the 24-hour mark is reached, the client voids one last time and adds this specimen to the collection. The preservative, if used, must be added to the container at the beginning of the collection. All urine samples need to be collected for the test results to be accurate.

13. A nurse assesses a client diagnosed with adrenal hypofunction. Which client statement should the nurse correlate with this diagnosis? a. I have a terrible craving for potato chips. b. I cannot seem to drink enough water. c. I no longer have an appetite for anything. d. I get hungry even after eating a meal.

ANS: A The nurse correlates a clients salt craving with adrenal hypofunction. Excessive thirst is related to diabetes insipidus or diabetes mellitus. Clients who have hypothyroidism often have a decrease in appetite. Excessive hunger is associated with diabetes mellitus.

14. A client is in the bariatric clinic 1 month after having gastric bypass surgery. The client is crying and says I didnt know it would be this hard to live like this. What response by the nurse is best? a. Assess the clients coping and support systems. b. Inform the client that things will get easier. c. Re-educate the client on needed dietary changes. d. Tell the client lifestyle changes are always hard.

ANS: A The nurse should assess this clients coping styles and support systems in order to provide holistic care. The other options do not address the clients distress.

9. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). On assessment, the nurse notes the clients pulse is 128 beats/min, blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg, and skin turgor is dry. What action should the nurse perform next? a. Assess the 24-hour fluid balance. b. Assess the clients oral cavity. c. Prepare to hang a normal saline bolus. d. Turn up the infusion rate of the TPN.

ANS: A This client has clinical indicators of dehydration, so the nurse calculates the clients 24-hour intake, output, and fluid balance. This information is then reported to the provider. The clients oral cavity assessment may or may not be consistent with dehydration. The nurse may need to give the client a fluid bolus, but not as an independent action. The clients dehydration is most likely due to fluid shifts from the TPN, so turning up the infusion rate would make the problem worse, and is not done as an independent action.

Chapter 60: Care of Patients with Malnutrition: Undernutrition and Obesity Ignatavicius: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 8th Edition 1. A client is in the family practice clinic. Today the client weighs 186.4 pounds (84.7 kg). Six months ago the client weighed 211.8 pounds (96.2 kg). What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask the client if the weight loss was intentional. b. Determine if there are food allergies or intolerances. c. Perform a comprehensive nutritional assessment. d. Perform a rapid bedside blood glucose test.

ANS: A This client has had a 12% weight loss. The nurse first determines if the weight loss was intentional. If not, then the nurse proceeds to a comprehensive nutritional assessment. Food intolerances are part of this assessment. Depending on risk factors and other findings, a blood glucose test may be warranted.

15. A client has been prescribed lorcaserin (Belviq). What teaching is most appropriate? a. Increase the fiber and water in your diet. b. Reduce fat to less than 30% each day. c. Report dry mouth and decreased sweating. d. Lorcaserin may cause loose stools for a few days.

ANS: A This drug can cause constipation, so the client should increase fiber and water in the diet to prevent this from occurring. Reducing fat in the diet is important with orlistat. Lorcaserin can cause dry mouth but not decreased sweating. Loose stools are common with orlistat.

3. A nurse assesses clients who have endocrine disorders. Which assessment findings are paired correctly with the endocrine disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Excessive thyroid-stimulating hormone Increased bone formation b. Excessive melanocyte-stimulating hormone Darkening of the skin c. Excessive parathyroid hormone Synthesis and release of corticosteroids d. Excessive antidiuretic hormone Increased urinary output e. Excessive adrenocorticotropic hormone Increased bone resorption

ANS: A, B Thyroid-stimulating hormone targets thyroid tissue and stimulates the formation of bone. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone stimulates melanocytes and promotes pigmentation or the darkening of the skin. Parathyroid hormone stimulates bone resorption. Antidiuretic hormone targets the kidney and promotes water reabsorption, causing a decrease in urinary output. Adrenocorticotropic hormone targets the adrenal cortex and stimulates the synthesis and release of corticosteroids.

4.A nurse provides diabetic education at a public health fair. Which disorders should the nurse include as complications of diabetes mellitus? (Select all that apply.) a. Stroke b. Kidney failure c. Blindness d. Respiratory failure e. Cirrhosis

ANS: A, B, C Complications of diabetes mellitus are caused by macrovascular and microvascular changes. Macrovascular complications include coronary artery disease, cerebrovascular disease, and peripheral vascular disease. Microvascular complications include nephropathy, retinopathy, and neuropathy. Respiratory failure and cirrhosis are not complications of diabetes mellitus.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. A nurse cares for clients with hormone disorders. Which are common key features of hormones? (Select all that apply.) a. Hormones may travel long distances to get to their target tissues. b. Continued hormone activity requires continued production and secretion. c. Control of hormone activity is caused by negative feedback mechanisms. d. Most hormones are stored in the target tissues for use later. e. Most hormones cause target tissues to change activities by changing gene activity.

ANS: A, B, C Hormones are secreted by endocrine glands and travel through the body to reach their target tissues. Hormone activity can increase or decrease according to the bodys needs, and continued hormone activity requires continued production and secretion. Control is maintained via negative feedback. Hormones are not stored for later use, and they do not alter genetic activity.

5. When working with older adults to promote good nutrition, what actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow uninterrupted time for eating. b. Assess dentures for appropriate fit. c. Ensure the client has glasses on when eating. d. Provide salty foods that the client can taste. e. Serve high-calorie, high-protein snacks.

ANS: A, B, C, E Older adults need unhurried and uninterrupted time for eating. Dentures should fit appropriately and glasses, if used, should be on. High-calorie, high-protein snacks are a good choice. Salty snacks are not recommended because all adults should limit sodium in their diets.

5.A nurse collaborates with the interdisciplinary team to develop a plan of care for a client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which team members should the nurse include in this interdisciplinary team meeting? (Select all that apply.) a. Registered dietitian b. Clinical pharmacist c. Occupational therapist d. Health care provider e. Speech-language pathologist

ANS: A, B, D When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, the nurse should collaborate with a registered dietitian, clinical pharmacist, and health care provider. The focus of treatment for a newly diagnosed client would be nutrition, medication therapy, and education. The nurse could also consult with a diabetic educator. There is no need for occupational therapy or speech therapy at this time.

3.A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus about foot care. Which statements should the nurse include in this clients teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Do not walk around barefoot. b. Soak your feet in a tub each evening. c. Trim toenails straight across with a nail clipper. d. Treat any blisters or sores with Epsom salts. e. Wash your feet every other day.

ANS: A, C Clients who have diabetes mellitus are at high risk for wounds on the feet secondary to peripheral neuropathy and poor arterial circulation. The client should be instructed to not walk around barefoot or wear sandals with open toes. These actions place the client at higher risk for skin breakdown of the feet. The client should be instructed to trim toenails straight across with a nail clipper. Feet should be washed daily with lukewarm water and soap, but feet should not be soaked in the tub. The client should contact the provider immediately if blisters or sores appear and should not use home remedies to treat these wounds.

1. The nurse understands that malnutrition can occur in hospitalized clients for several reasons. Which are possible reasons for this to occur? (Select all that apply.) a. Cultural food preferences b. Family bringing snacks c. Increased need for nutrition d. Need for NPO status e. Staff shortages

ANS: A, C, D, E Many factors increase the hospitalized clients risk for nutritional deficits. Cultural food preferences may make hospital food unpalatable. Ill clients have increased nutritional needs but may be NPO for testing or treatment, or have a loss of appetite from their illness. Staff shortages impact clients who need to be fed or assisted with meals. The family may bring snacks that are either healthy or unhealthy, so without further information, the nurse cannot assume the snacks are leading to malnutrition.

2.A nurse assesses a client who is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). For which manifestations should the nurse monitor the client? (Select all that apply.) a. Deep and fast respirations b. Decreased urine output c. Tachycardia d. Dependent pulmonary crackles e. Orthostatic hypotension

ANS: A, C, E DKA leads to dehydration, which is manifested by tachycardia and orthostatic hypotension. Usually clients have Kussmaul respirations, which are fast and deep. Increased urinary output (polyuria) is severe. Because of diuresis and dehydration, peripheral edema and crackles do not occur.

2. A nurse cares for a client with a hypofunctioning anterior pituitary gland. Which hormones should the nurse expect to be affected by this condition? (Select all that apply.) a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone b. Vasopressin c. Follicle-stimulating hormone d. Calcitonin e. Growth hormone

ANS: A, C, E Thyroid-stimulating hormone, follicle-stimulating hormone, and growth hormone all are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. Vasopressin is secreted from the posterior pituitary gland. Calcitonin is secreted from the thyroid gland.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1.A nurse assesses clients at a health fair. Which clients should the nurse counsel to be tested for diabetes? (Select all that apply.) a. 56-year-old African-American male b. Female with a 30-pound weight gain during pregnancy c. Male with a history of pancreatic trauma d. 48-year-old woman with a sedentary lifestyle e. Male with a body mass index greater than 25 kg/m2 f. 28-year-old female who gave birth to a baby weighing 9.2 pounds

ANS: A, D, E, F Risk factors for type 2 diabetes include certain ethnic/racial groups (African Americans, American Indians, Hispanics), obesity and physical inactivity, and giving birth to large babies. Pancreatic trauma and a 30-pound gestational weight gain are not risk factors.

43.A nurse prepares to administer prescribed regular and NPH insulin. Place the nurses actions in the correct order to administer these medications. 1. Inspect bottles for expiration dates. 2. Gently roll the bottle of NPH between the hands. 3. Wash your hands. 4. Inject air into the regular insulin. 5. Withdraw the NPH insulin. 6. Withdraw the regular insulin. 7. Inject air into the NPH bottle. 8. Clean rubber stoppers with an alcohol swab. a. 1, 3, 8, 2, 4, 6, 7, 5 b. 3, 1, 2, 8, 7, 4, 6, 5 c. 8, 1, 3, 2, 4, 6, 7, 5 d. 2, 3, 1, 8, 7, 5, 4, 6

ANS: B After washing hands, it is important to inspect the bottles and then to roll the NPH to mix the insulin. Rubber stoppers should be cleaned with alcohol after rolling the NPH and before sticking a needle into either bottle. It is important to inject air into the NPH bottle before placing the needle in a regular insulin bottle to avoid mixing of regular and NPH insulin. The shorter-acting insulin is always drawn up first.

19. A client is awaiting bariatric surgery in the morning. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Answering questions the client has about surgery b. Beginning venous thromboembolism prophylaxis c. Informing the client that he or she will be out of bed tomorrow d. Teaching the client about needed dietary changes

ANS: B Morbidly obese clients are at high risk of venous thromboembolism and should be started on a regimen to prevent this from occurring as a priority. Answering questions about the surgery is done by the surgeon. Teaching is important, but safety comes first.

23.A nurse cares for a client who is diagnosed with acute rejection 2 months after receiving a simultaneous pancreas-kidney transplant. The client states, I was doing so well with my new organs, and the thought of having to go back to living on hemodialysis and taking insulin is so depressing. How should the nurse respond? a. Following the drug regimen more closely would have prevented this. b. One acute rejection episode does not mean that you will lose the new organs. c. Dialysis is a viable treatment option for you and may save your life. d. Since you are on the national registry, you can receive a second transplantation.

ANS: B An episode of acute rejection does not automatically mean that the client will lose the transplant. Pharmacologic manipulation of host immune responses at this time can limit damage to the organ and allow the graft to be maintained. The other statements either belittle the client or downplay his or her concerns. The client may not be a candidate for additional organ transplantation.

Chapter 64: Care of Patients with Diabetes Mellitus Ignatavicius: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 8th Edition 1.A nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus who asks, Why is it necessary to maintain my blood glucose levels no lower than about 60 mg/dL? How should the nurse respond? a. Glucose is the only fuel used by the body to produce the energy that it needs. b. Your brain needs a constant supply of glucose because it cannot store it. c. Without a minimum level of glucose, your body does not make red blood cells. d. Glucose in the blood prevents the formation of lactic acid and prevents acidosis.

ANS: B Because the brain cannot synthesize or store significant amounts of glucose, a continuous supply from the bodys circulation is needed to meet the fuel demands of the central nervous system. The nurse would want to educate the client to prevent hypoglycemia. The body can use other sources of fuel, including fat and protein, and glucose is not involved in the production of red blood cells. Glucose in the blood will encourage glucose metabolism but is not directly responsible for lactic acid formation.

36.After teaching a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. I need to have an annual appointment even if my glucose levels are in good control. b. Since my diabetes is controlled with diet and exercise, I must be seen only if I am sick. c. I can still develop complications even though I do not have to take insulin at this time. d. If I have surgery or get very ill, I may have to receive insulin injections for a short time.

ANS: B Clients with diabetes need to be seen at least annually to monitor for long-term complications, including visual changes, microalbuminuria, and lipid analysis. The client may develop complications and may need insulin in the future.

28.A nurse reviews the medication list of a client with a 20-year history of diabetes mellitus. The client holds up the bottle of prescribed duloxetine (Cymbalta) and states, My cousin has depression and is taking this drug. Do you think Im depressed? How should the nurse respond? a. Many people with long-term diabetes become depressed after a while. b. Its for peripheral neuropathy. Do you have burning pain in your feet or hands? c. This antidepressant also has anti-inflammatory properties for diabetic pain. d. No. Many medications can be used for several different disorders.

ANS: B Damage along nerves causes peripheral neuropathy and leads to burning pain along the nerves. Many drugs, including duloxetine (Cymbalta), can be used to treat peripheral neuropathy. The nurse should assess the client for this condition and then should provide an explanation of why this drug is being used. This medication, although it is used for depression, is not being used for that reason in this case. Duloxetine does not have anti-inflammatory properties. Telling the client that many medications are used for different disorders does not provide the client with enough information to be useful.

12.A nurse cares for a client with diabetes mellitus who asks, Why do I need to administer more than one injection of insulin each day? How should the nurse respond? a. You need to start with multiple injections until you become more proficient at self-injection. b. A single dose of insulin each day would not match your blood insulin levels and your food intake patterns. c. A regimen of a single dose of insulin injected each day would require that you eat fewer carbohydrates. d. A single dose of insulin would be too large to be absorbed, predictably putting you at risk for insulin shock.

ANS: B Even when a single injection of insulin contains a combined dose of different-acting insulin types, the timing of the actions and the timing of food intake may not match well enough to prevent wide variations in blood glucose levels. One dose of insulin would not be appropriate even if the client decreased carbohydrate intake. Additional injections are not required to allow the client practice with injections, nor will one dose increase the clients risk of insulin shock.

9.A nurse teaches a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is prescribed glipizide (Glucotrol). Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Change positions slowly when you get out of bed. b. Avoid taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). c. If you miss a dose of this drug, you can double the next dose. d. Discontinue the medication if you develop a urinary infection.

ANS: B NSAIDs potentiate the hypoglycemic effects of sulfonylurea agents. Glipizide is a sulfonylurea. The other statements are not applicable to glipizide.

35.A nurse cares for a client who has diabetes mellitus. The nurse administers 6 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin at 0700. At which time should the nurse assess the client for potential problems related to the NPH insulin? a. 0800 b. 1600 c. 2000 d. 2300

ANS: B Neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) is an intermediate-acting insulin with an onset of 1.5 hours, peak of 4 to 12 hours, and duration of action of 22 hours. Checking the client at 0800 would be too soon. Checking the client at 2000 and 2300 would be too late. The nurse should check the client at 1600.

29.A nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus. Which clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to decreased kidney function in this client? a. Urine specific gravity of 1.033 b. Presence of protein in the urine c. Elevated capillary blood glucose level d. Presence of ketone bodies in the urine

ANS: B Renal dysfunction often occurs in the client with diabetes. Proteinuria is a result of renal dysfunction. Specific gravity is elevated with dehydration. Elevated capillary blood glucose levels and ketones in the urine are consistent with diabetes mellitus but are not specific to renal function.

30.A nurse develops a dietary plan for a client with diabetes mellitus and new-onset microalbuminuria. Which component of the clients diet should the nurse decrease? a. Carbohydrates b. Proteins c. Fats d. Total calories

ANS: B Restriction of dietary protein to 0.8 g/kg of body weight per day is recommended for clients with microalbuminuria to delay progression to renal failure. The clients diet does not need to be decreased in carbohydrates, fats, or total calories.

8.A nurse teaches a client about self-monitoring of blood glucose levels. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching to prevent bloodborne infections? a. Wash your hands after completing each test. b. Do not share your monitoring equipment. c. Blot excess blood from the strip with a cotton ball. d. Use gloves when monitoring your blood glucose.

ANS: B Small particles of blood can adhere to the monitoring device, and infection can be transported from one user to another. Hepatitis B in particular can survive in a dried state for about a week. The client should be taught to avoid sharing any equipment, including the lancet holder. The client should be taught to wash his or her hands before testing. The client would not need to blot excess blood away from the strip or wear gloves.

12. A client just returned to the surgical unit after a gastric bypass. What action by the nurse is the priority? a. Assess the clients pain. b. Check the surgical incision. c. Ensure an adequate airway. d. Program the morphine pump.

ANS: C All actions are appropriate care measures for this client; however, airway is always the priority. Bariatric clients tend to have short, thick necks that complicate airway management.

44.A nurse reviews the chart and new prescriptions for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis: Vital Signs and Assessment- Blood pressure: 90/62 mm Hg Pulse: 120 beats/min Respiratory rate: 28 breaths/min Urine output: 20 mL/hr via catheter Laboratory Results- Serum potassium: 2.6 mEq/L Medications- Potassium chloride 40 mEq IV bolus STAT Increase IV fluid to 100 mL/hr Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer the potassium and then consult with the provider about the fluid order. b. Increase the intravenous rate and then consult with the provider about the potassium prescription. c. Administer the potassium first before increasing the infusion flow rate. d. Increase the intravenous flow rate before administering the potassium.

ANS: B The client is acutely ill and is severely dehydrated and hypokalemic. The client requires more IV fluids and potassium. However, potassium should not be infused unless the urine output is at least 30 mL/hr. The nurse should first increase the IV rate and then consult with the provider about the potassium.

41.A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with diabetes mellitus who is prescribed an intensified insulin regimen: Fasting blood glucose: 75 mg/dL Postprandial blood glucose: 200 mg/dL Hemoglobin A1c level: 5.5% How should the nurse interpret these laboratory findings? a. Increased risk for developing ketoacidosis b. Good control of blood glucose c. Increased risk for developing hyperglycemia d. Signs of insulin resistance

ANS: B The client is maintaining blood glucose levels within the defined ranges for goals in an intensified regimen. Because the clients glycemic control is good, he or she is not at higher risk for ketoacidosis or hyperglycemia and is not showing signs of insulin resistance.

11.A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed pioglitazone (Actos). After 6 months of therapy, the client reports that his urine has become darker since starting the medication. Which action should the nurse take? a. Assess for pain or burning with urination. b. Review the clients liver function study results. c. Instruct the client to increase water intake. d. Test a sample of urine for occult blood.

ANS: B Thiazolidinediones (including pioglitazone) can affect liver function; liver function should be assessed at the start of therapy and at regular intervals while the client continues to take these drugs. Dark urine is one indicator of liver impairment because bilirubin is increased in the blood and is excreted in the urine. The nurse should check the clients most recent liver function studies. The nurse does not need to assess for pain or burning with urination and does not need to check the urine for occult blood. The client does not need to be told to increase water intake.

33.A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus about sick day management. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. When ill, avoid eating or drinking to reduce vomiting and diarrhea. b. Monitor your blood glucose levels at least every 4 hours while sick. c. If vomiting, do not use insulin or take your oral antidiabetic agent. d. Try to continue your prescribed exercise regimen even if you are sick.

ANS: B When ill, the client should monitor his or her blood glucose at least every 4 hours. The client should continue taking the medication regimen while ill. The client should continue to eat and drink as tolerated but should not exercise while sick.

19.A nurse assesses a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which arterial blood gas values should the nurse identify as potential ketoacidosis in this client? a. pH 7.38, HCO3 22 mEq/L, PCO2 38 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg b. pH 7.28, HCO3 18 mEq/L, PCO2 28 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg c. pH 7.48, HCO3 28 mEq/L, PCO2 38 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg d. pH 7.32, HCO3 22 mEq/L, PCO2 58 mm Hg, PO2 88 mm Hg

ANS: B When the lungs can no longer offset acidosis, the pH decreases to below normal. A client who has diabetic ketoacidosis would present with arterial blood gas values that show primary metabolic acidosis with decreased bicarbonate levels and a compensatory respiratory alkalosis with decreased carbon dioxide levels.

3. A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for several clients. Which value causes the nurse to conduct nutritional assessments as a priority? a. Albumin: 3.5 g/dL b. Cholesterol: 142 mg/dL c. Hemoglobin: 9.8 mg/dL d. Prealbumin: 28 mg/dL

ANS: B A cholesterol level below 160 mg/dL is a possible indicator of malnutrition, so this client would be at highest priority for a nutritional assessment. The albumin and prealbumin levels are normal. The low hemoglobin could be from several problems, including dietary deficiencies, hemodilution, and bleeding.

9. A nurse plans care for an older adult who is admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. The client has no known drug allergies and no significant health history. Which action should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? a. Initiate Airborne Precautions. b. Offer fluids every hour or two. c. Place an indwelling urinary catheter. d. Palpate the clients thyroid gland.

ANS: B A normal age-related endocrine change is decreased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production. This results in a more diluted urine output, which can lead to dehydration. If no contraindications are known, the nurse should offer (or delegate) the client something to drink at least every 2 hours. A client with simple pneumonia would not require Airborne Precautions. Indwelling urinary catheterization is not necessary for this client and would increase the clients risk for infection. The nurse should plan a toileting schedule and assist the client to the bathroom if needed. Palpating the clients thyroid gland is a part of a comprehensive examination but is not specifically related to this client.

18. A nurse is caring for a morbidly obese client. What comfort measure is most important for the nurse to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Designating quiet time so the client can rest b. Ensuring siderails are not causing excess pressure c. Providing oral care before and after meals and snacks d. Relaying any reports of pain to the registered nurse

ANS: B All actions are good for client comfort, but when dealing with an obese client, the staff should take extra precautions, such as ensuring the siderails are not putting pressure on the clients tissues. The other options are appropriate for any client, and are not specific to obese clients.

14. A nurse teaches an older adult with a decreased production of estrogen. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching to decrease injury? a. Drink at least 2 liters of fluids each day. b. Walk around the neighborhood for daily exercise. c. Bathe your perineal area twice a day. d. You should check your blood glucose before meals.

ANS: B An older adult client with decreased production of estrogen is at risk for decreased bone density and fractures. The nurse should encourage the client to participate in weight-bearing exercises such as walking. Drinking fluids and performing perineal care will decrease vaginal drying but not decrease injury. Older adults often have a decreased glucose tolerance, but this is not related to a decrease in estrogen.

12. A nurse cares for a client who has excessive catecholamine release. Which assessment finding should the nurse correlate with this condition? a. Decreased blood pressure b. Increased pulse c. Decreased respiratory rate d. Increased urine output

ANS: B Catecholamines are responsible for the fight-or-flight stress response. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system can be correlated with tachycardia. Catecholamines do not decrease blood pressure or respiratory rate, nor do they increase urine output.

16. Several nurses have just helped a morbidly obese client get out of bed. One nurse accesses the clients record because I just have to know how much she weighs! What action by the clients nurse is most appropriate? a. Make an anonymous report to the charge nurse. b. State That is a violation of client confidentiality. c. Tell the nurse Dont look; Ill tell you her weight. d. Walk away and ignore the other nurses behavior.

ANS: B Ethical practice requires the nurse to speak up and tell the other nurse that he or she is violating client confidentiality rules. The other responses do not address this concern.

4. A client is receiving bolus feedings through a Dobhoff tube. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Auscultate lung sounds after each feeding. b. Check tube placement before each feeding. c. Check tube placement every 8 hours. d. Weigh the client daily on the same scale.

ANS: B For bolus feedings, the nurse checks placement of the tube per institutional policy prior to each feeding, which is more often than every 8 hours during the day. Auscultating lung sounds is also important, but this will indicate a complication that has already occurred. Weighing the client is important to determine if nutritional goals are being met.

7. A nurse assesses a female client who presents with hirsutism. Which question should the nurse ask when assessing this client? a. How do you plan to pay for your treatments? b. How do you feel about yourself? c. What medications are you prescribed? d. What are you doing to prevent this from happening?

ANS: B Hirsutism, or excessive hair growth on the face and body, can result from endocrine disorders. This may cause a disruption in body image, especially for female clients. The nurse should inquire into the clients body image and self-perception. Asking about the clients financial status or current medications does not address the clients immediate problem. The client is not doing anything to herself to cause the problem, nor can the client prevent it from happening.

Chapter 61: Assessment of the Endocrine System Ignatavicius: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 8th Edition 1. A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed a drug that blocks a hormones receptor site. Which therapeutic effect should the nurse expect? a. Greater hormone metabolism b. Decreased hormone activity c. Increased hormone activity d. Unchanged hormone response

ANS: B Hormones cause activity in the target tissues by binding with their specific cellular receptor sites, thereby changing the activity of the cell. When receptor sites are occupied by other substances that block hormone binding, the cells response is the same as when the level of the hormone is decreased.

13. A morbidly obese client is admitted to a community hospital that does not typically care for bariatric-sized clients. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Assess the clients readiness to make lifestyle changes. b. Ensure adequate staff when moving the client. c. Leave siderails down to prevent pressure ulcers. d. Reinforce the need to be sensitive to the client.

ANS: B Many hospitals that see bariatric-sized clients have appropriate equipment for this population. A hospital that does not typically see these clients is less likely to have appropriate equipment, putting staff and client safety at risk. The nurse ensures enough staffing is available to help with all aspects of mobility. It may or may not be appropriate to assess the clients willingness to make lifestyle changes. Leaving the siderails down may present a safety hazard. The staff should be sensitive to this clients situation, but safety takes priority.

11. A nurse evaluates laboratory results for a male client who reports fluid secretion from his breasts. Which hormone value should the nurse assess first? a. Posterior pituitary hormones b. Adrenal medulla hormones c. Anterior pituitary hormones d. Parathyroid hormone

ANS: C Breast fluid and milk production are induced by the presence of prolactin, secreted from the anterior pituitary gland. The other hormones would not cause fluid secretion from the clients breast.

4. A clients small-bore feeding tube has become occluded after the nurse administered medications. What actions by the nurse are best? (Select all that apply.) a. Attempt to dissolve the clog by instilling a cola product. b. Determine if any of the medications come in liquid form. c. Flush the tube before and after administering medications. d. Mix all medications in the formula and use a feeding pump. e. Try to flush the tube with 30 mL of water and gentle pressure.

ANS: B, C, E If the tube is obstructed, use a 50-mL syringe and gentle pressure to attempt to open the tube. Cola products should not be used unless water is not effective. To prevent future problems, determine if any of the medications can be dispensed in liquid form and flush the tube with water before and after medication administration. Do not mix medications with the formula.

3. A nurse is designing a community education program to meet the Healthy People 2020 objectives for nutrition and weight status. What information about these goals does the nurse use to plan this event? (Select all that apply.) a. Decrease the amount of fruit to 1.1 cups/1000 calories. b. Increase the amount of vegetables to 1.1 cups/1000 calories. c. Increase the number of adults at a healthy weight by 25%. d. Reduce the number of adults who are obese by 10%. e. Reduce the consumption of saturated fat by nearly 10%.

ANS: B, D, E Some of the goals in this initiative include increasing fruit consumption to 0.9 cups/1000 calories, increasing vegetable intake to 1.1 cups/1000 calories, increasing the number of people at a healthy weight by 10%, decreasing the number of adults who are obese by 10%, and reducing the consumption of saturated fats by 9.5%.

34.A nurse assesses a client who is being treated for hyperglycemic-hyperosmolar state (HHS). Which clinical manifestation indicates to the nurse that the therapy needs to be adjusted? a. Serum potassium level has increased. b. Blood osmolarity has decreased. c. Glasgow Coma Scale score is unchanged. d. Urine remains negative for ketone bodies.

ANS: C A slow but steady improvement in central nervous system functioning is the best indicator of therapy effectiveness for HHS. Lack of improvement in the level of consciousness may indicate inadequate rates of fluid replacement. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses the clients state of consciousness against criteria of a scale including best eye, verbal, and motor responses. An increase in serum potassium, decreased blood osmolality, and urine negative for ketone bodies do not indicate adequacy of treatment.

4.A nurse assesses a client who has a 15-year history of diabetes and notes decreased tactile sensation in both feet. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the finding in the clients chart. b. Assess tactile sensation in the clients hands. c. Examine the clients feet for signs of injury. d. Notify the health care provider.

ANS: C Diabetic neuropathy is common when the disease is of long duration. The client is at great risk for injury in any area with decreased sensation because he or she is less able to feel injurious events. Feet are common locations for neuropathy and injury, so the nurse should inspect them for any signs of injury. After assessment, the nurse should document findings in the clients chart. Testing sensory perception in the hands may or may not be needed. The health care provider can be notified after assessment and documentation have been completed.

Chapter 46(47): Endocrine Dysfunction 1. Which statement best describes hypopituitarism? a. Growth is normal during the first 3 years of life. b. Weight is usually more retarded than height. c. Skeletal proportions are normal for age. d. Most of these children have subnormal intelligence.

ANS: C In children with hypopituitarism, the skeletal proportions are normal. Growth is within normal limits for the first year of life. Height is usually more delayed than weight. Intelligence is not affected by hypopituitarism.

3. What is the priority nursing goal for a 14-year-old with Graves disease? a. Relieving constipation b. Allowing the adolescent to make decisions about whether or not to take medication c. Verbalizing the importance of adherence to the medication regimen d. Developing alternative educational goals

ANS: C In order to adhere to the medication schedule, children need to understand that the medication must be taken two or three times per day. The adolescent with Graves disease is not likely to be constipated. Adherence to the medication schedule is important to ensure optimal health and wellness. Medications should not be skipped and dose regimens should not be tapered by the child without consultation with the childs medical provider. The management of Graves disease does not interfere with school attendance and does not require alternative educational plans.

40.After teaching a client who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. I should increase my intake of vegetables with higher amounts of dietary fiber. b. My intake of saturated fats should be no more than 10% of my total calorie intake. c. I should decrease my intake of protein and eliminate carbohydrates from my diet. d. My intake of water is not restricted by my treatment plan or medication regimen.

ANS: C The client should not completely eliminate carbohydrates from the diet, and should reduce protein if microalbuminuria is present. The client should increase dietary intake of complex carbohydrates, including vegetables, and decrease intake of fat. Water does not need to be restricted unless kidney failure is present.

45.At 4:45 p.m., a nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus who is recovering from an abdominal hysterectomy 2 days ago. The nurse notes that the client is confused and diaphoretic. The nurse reviews the assessment data provided in the chart below: Capillary Blood Glucose Testing (AC/HS)= At 0630: 95 At 1130: 70 At 1630: 47 Dietary Intake= Breakfast: 10% eaten client states she is not hungry Lunch: 5% eaten client is nauseous; vomits once After reviewing the clients assessment data, which action is appropriate at this time? a. Assess the clients oxygen saturation level and administer oxygen. b. Reorient the client and apply a cool washcloth to the clients forehead. c. Administer dextrose 50% intravenously and reassess the client. d. Provide a glass of orange juice and encourage the client to eat dinner.

ANS: C The clients symptoms are related to hypoglycemia. Since the client has not been tolerating food, the nurse should administer dextrose intravenously. The clients oxygen level could be checked, but based on the information provided, this is not the priority. The client will not be reoriented until the glucose level rises.

25.A nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus 3 hours after a surgical procedure and notes the clients breath has a fruity odor. Which action should the nurse take? a. Encourage the client to use an incentive spirometer. b. Increase the clients intravenous fluid flow rate. c. Consult the provider to test for ketoacidosis. d. Perform meticulous pulmonary hygiene care.

ANS: C The stress of surgery increases the action of counterregulatory hormones and suppresses the action of insulin, predisposing the client to ketoacidosis and metabolic acidosis. One manifestation of ketoacidosis is a fruity odor to the breath. Documentation should occur after all assessments have been completed. Using an incentive spirometer, increasing IV fluids, and performing pulmonary hygiene will not address this clients problem.

15. A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed a serum catecholamine test. Which action should the nurse take when obtaining the sample? a. Discard the first sample and then begin the collection. b. Draw the blood sample after the client eats breakfast. c. Place the sample on ice and send to the laboratory immediately. d. Add preservatives before sending the sample to the laboratory.

ANS: C A blood sample for catecholamine must be placed on ice and taken to the laboratory immediately. This sample is not urine, and therefore the first sample should not be discarded nor should preservatives be added to the sample. The nurse should use the appropriate tube and obtain the sample based on which drugs are administered, not dietary schedules.

3. A nurse cares for a client with excessive production of thyrocalcitonin (calcitonin). For which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse assess? a. Potassium b. Sodium c. Calcium d. Magnesium

ANS: C Parafollicular cells produce thyrocalcitonin (calcitonin), which regulates serum calcium levels. Calcitonin has no impact on potassium, sodium, or magnesium balances.

17. A nurse attempted to assist a morbidly obese client back to bed and had immediate pain in the lower back. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Ask another nurse to help next time. b. Demand better equipment to use. c. Fill out and file a variance report. d. Refuse to assist the client again.

ANS: C The nurse should complete a variance report per agency policy. Asking another nurse to help and requesting better equipment are both good ideas, but the nurse may have an injury that needs care. It would be unethical to refuse to care for this client again.

5. A client having a tube feeding begins vomiting. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Administer an antiemetic. b. Check the clients gastric residual. c. Hold the feeding until the nausea subsides. d. Reduce the rate of the tube feeding by half.

ANS: C The nurse should hold the feeding until the nausea and vomiting have subsided and consult with the provider on the rate at which to restart the feeding. Giving an antiemetic is not appropriate. After vomiting, a gastric residual will not be accurate. The nurse should not continue to feed the client while he or she is vomiting.

7. A nurse is caring for four clients receiving enteral tube feedings. Which client should the nurse see first? a. Client with a blood glucose level of 138 mg/dL b. Client with foul-smelling diarrhea c. Client with a potassium level of 2.6 mEq/L d. Client with a sodium level of 138 mEq/L

ANS: C The potassium is critically low, perhaps due to hyperglycemia-induced hyperosmolarity. The nurse should see this client first. The blood glucose reading is high, but not extreme. The sodium is normal. The client with the diarrhea should be seen last to avoid cross-contamination.

10. A client tells the nurse about losing weight and regaining it multiple times. Besides eating and exercising habits, for what additional data should the nurse assess as the priority? a. Economic ability to join a gym b. Food allergies and intolerances c. Psychosocial influences on weight d. Reasons for wanting to lose weight

ANS: C While all topics might be important to assess, people who lose and gain weight in cycles often are depressed or have poor self-esteem, which has a negative effect on weight-loss efforts. The nurse assesses the clients psychosocial status as the priority.

2. A nurse has delegated feeding a client to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). What actions does the nurse include in the directions to the UAP? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow 30 minutes for eating so food doesnt get spoiled. b. Assess the clients mouth while providing premeal oral care. c. Ensure warm and cold items stay at appropriate temperatures. d. Remove bedpans, soiled linens, and other unpleasant items. e. Sit with the client, making the atmosphere more relaxed.

ANS: C, D, E The UAP should make sure food items remain at the appropriate temperatures for maximum palatability. Removing items such as bedpans, urinals, or soiled linens helps make the atmosphere more conducive to eating. The UAP should sit, not stand, next to the client to promote a relaxing experience. The client, especially older clients who tend to eat more slowly, should not be rushed. Assessment is done by the nurse.

27.A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus who is experiencing numbness and reduced sensation. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching to prevent injury? a. Examine your feet using a mirror every day. b. Rotate your insulin injection sites every week. c. Check your blood glucose level before each meal. d. Use a bath thermometer to test the water temperature.

ANS: D Clients with diminished sensory perception can easily experience a burn injury when bathwater is too hot. Instead of checking the temperature of the water by feeling it, they should use a thermometer. Examining the feet daily does not prevent injury, although daily foot examinations are important to find problems so they can be addressed. Rotating insulin and checking blood glucose levels will not prevent injury.

16.A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed an insulin pump. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients discharge education? a. Test your urine daily for ketones. b. Use only buffered insulin in your pump. c. Store the insulin in the freezer until you need it. d. Change the needle every 3 days.

ANS: D Having the same needle remain in place through the skin for longer than 3 days drastically increases the risk for infection in or through the delivery system. Having an insulin pump does not require the client to test for ketones in the urine. Insulin should not be frozen. Insulin is not buffered.

37.When teaching a client recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus, the client states, I will never be able to stick myself with a needle. How should the nurse respond? a. I can give your injections to you while you are here in the hospital. b. Everyone gets used to giving themselves injections. It really does not hurt. c. Your disease will not be managed properly if you refuse to administer the shots. d. Tell me what it is about the injections that are concerning you.

ANS: D Devote as much teaching time as possible to insulin injection and blood glucose monitoring. Clients with newly diagnosed diabetes are often fearful of giving themselves injections. If the client is worried about giving the injections, it is best to try to find out what specifically is causing the concern, so it can be addressed. Giving the injections for the client does not promote self-care ability. Telling the client that others give themselves injections may cause the client to feel bad. Stating that you dont know another way to manage the disease is dismissive of the clients concerns.

7.A nurse assesses clients who are at risk for diabetes mellitus. Which client is at greatest risk? a. A 29-year-old Caucasian b. A 32-year-old African-American c. A 44-year-old Asian d. A 48-year-old American Indian

ANS: D Diabetes is a particular problem among African Americans, Hispanics, and American Indians. The incidence of diabetes increases in all races and ethnic groups with age. Being both an American Indian and middle-aged places this client at highest

3.After teaching a young adult client who is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the need for eye examinations? a. At my age, I should continue seeing the ophthalmologist as I usually do. b. I will see the eye doctor when I have a vision problem and yearly after age 40. c. My vision will change quickly. I should see the ophthalmologist twice a year. d. Diabetes can cause blindness, so I should see the ophthalmologist yearly.

ANS: D Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness in North America. All clients with diabetes, regardless of age, should be examined by an ophthalmologist (rather than an optometrist or optician) at diagnosis and at least yearly thereafter.

17.After teaching a client who has diabetes mellitus and proliferative retinopathy, nephropathy, and peripheral neuropathy, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. I have so many complications; exercising is not recommended. b. I will exercise more frequently because I have so many complications. c. I used to run for exercise; I will start training for a marathon. d. I should look into swimming or water aerobics to get my exercise.

ANS: D Exercise is not contraindicated for this client, although modifications based on existing pathology are necessary to prevent further injury. Swimming or water aerobics will give the client exercise without the worry of having the correct shoes or developing a foot injury. The client should not exercise too vigorously.

39.A nurse reviews the medication list of a client recovering from a computed tomography (CT) scan with IV contrast to rule out small bowel obstruction. Which medication should alert the nurse to contact the provider and withhold the prescribed dose? a. Pioglitazone (Actos) b. Glimepiride (Amaryl) c. Glipizide (Glucotrol) d. Metformin (Glucophage)

ANS: D Glucophage should not be administered when the kidneys are attempting to excrete IV contrast from the body. This combination would place the client at high risk for kidney failure. The nurse should hold the metformin dose and contact the provider. The other medications are safe to administer after receiving IV contrast.

2.A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with diabetes mellitus who presents with polyuria, lethargy, and a blood glucose of 560 mg/dL. Which laboratory result should the nurse correlate with the clients polyuria? a. Serum sodium: 163 mEq/L b. Serum creatinine: 1.6 mg/dL c. Presence of urine ketone bodies d. Serum osmolarity: 375 mOsm/kg

ANS: D Hyperglycemia causes hyperosmolarity of extracellular fluid. This leads to polyuria from an osmotic diuresis. The clients serum osmolarity is high. The clients sodium would be expected to be high owing to dehydration. Serum creatinine and urine ketone bodies are not related to the polyuria.

32.A nurse reviews the laboratory results of a client who is receiving intravenous insulin. Which should alert the nurse to intervene immediately? a. Serum chloride level of 98 mmol/L b. Serum calcium level of 8.8 mg/dL c. Serum sodium level of 132 mmol/L d. Serum potassium level of 2.5 mmol/L

ANS: D Insulin activates the sodium-potassium ATPase pump, increasing the movement of potassium from the extracellular fluid into the intracellular fluid, resulting in hypokalemia. In hyperglycemia, hypokalemia can also result from excessive urine loss of potassium. The chloride level is normal. The calcium and sodium levels are slightly low, but this would not be related to hyperglycemia and insulin administration.

22.A nurse teaches a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching to decrease the clients insulin needs? a. Limit your fluid intake to 2 liters a day. b. Animal organ meat is high in insulin. c. Limit your carbohydrate intake to 80 grams a day. d. Walk at a moderate pace for 1 mile daily.

ANS: D Moderate exercise such as walking helps regulate blood glucose levels on a daily basis and results in lowered insulin requirements for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Restricting fluids and eating organ meats will not reduce insulin needs. People with diabetes need at least 130 grams of carbohydrates each day.

10.After teaching a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is prescribed nateglinide (Starlix), the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the prescribed therapy? a. Ill take this medicine during each of my meals. b. I must take this medicine in the morning when I wake. c. I will take this medicine before I go to bed. d. I will take this medicine immediately before I eat.

ANS: D Nateglinide is an insulin secretagogue that is designed to increase meal-related insulin secretion. It should be taken immediately before each meal. The medication should not be taken without eating as it will decrease the clients blood glucose levels. The medication should be taken before meals instead of during meals.

38.A nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus who self-administers subcutaneous insulin. The nurse notes a spongy, swelling area at the site the client uses most frequently for insulin injection. Which action should the nurse take? a. Apply ice to the site to reduce inflammation. b. Consult the provider for a new administration route. c. Assess the client for other signs of cellulitis. d. Instruct the client to rotate sites for insulin injection.

ANS: D The clients tissue has been damaged from continuous use of the same site. The client should be educated to rotate sites. The damaged tissue is not caused by cellulitis or any type infection, and applying ice may cause more damage to the tissue. Insulin can only be administered subcutaneously and intravenously. It would not be appropriate or practical to change the administration route.

20.A nurse cares for a client experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis who presents with Kussmaul respirations. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administration of oxygen via face mask b. Intravenous administration of 10% glucose c. Implementation of seizure precautions d. Administration of intravenous insulin

ANS: D The rapid, deep respiratory efforts of Kussmaul respirations are the bodys attempt to reduce the acids produced by using fat rather than glucose for fuel. Only the administration of insulin will reduce this type of respiration by assisting glucose to move into cells and to be used for fuel instead of fat. The client who is in ketoacidosis may not experience any respiratory impairment and therefore does not need additional oxygen. Giving the client glucose would be contraindicated. The client does not require seizure precautions.

21.A nurse cares for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client asks, Is it okay for me to have an occasional glass of wine? How should the nurse respond? a. Drinking any wine or alcohol will increase your insulin requirements. b. Because of poor kidney function, people with diabetes should avoid alcohol. c. You should not drink alcohol because it will make you hungry and overeat. d. One glass of wine is okay with a meal and is counted as two fat exchanges.

ANS: D Under normal circumstances, blood glucose levels will not be affected by moderate use of alcohol when diabetes is well controlled. Because alcohol can induce hypoglycemia, it should be ingested with or shortly after a meal. One alcoholic beverage is substituted for two fat exchanges when caloric intake is calculated. Kidney function is not impacted by alcohol intake. Alcohol is not associated with increased hunger or overeating.

21. A nurse is weighing and measuring a client with severe kyphosis. What is the best method to obtain this clients height? a. Add the trunk and leg measurements. b. Ask the client how tall he or she is. c. Estimate by measuring clothing. d. Use knee-height calipers.

ANS: D A sliding blade knee-height caliper is used to obtain the height of a client who cannot stand upright, such as those with kyphosis or lower extremity contractures. The other methods will not yield accurate data.

20. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assessing blood glucose as directed b. Changing the IV dressing each day c. Checking the TPN with another nurse d. Performing appropriate hand hygiene

ANS: D Clients on TPN are at high risk for infection. The nurse performs appropriate hand hygiene as a priority intervention. Checking blood glucose is also an important measure, but preventing infection takes priority. The IV dressing is changed every 48 to 72 hours. TPN does not need to be double-checked with another nurse.

5. A nurse prepares to palpate a clients thyroid gland. Which action should the nurse take when performing this assessment? a. Stand in front of the client instead of behind the client. b. Ask the client to swallow after palpating the thyroid. c. Palpate the right lobe with the nurses left hand. d. Place the client in a sitting position with the chin tucked down.

ANS: D The client should be in a sitting position with the chin tucked down as the examiner stands behind the client. The nurse feels for the thyroid isthmus while the client swallows and turns the head to the right, and the nurse palpates the right lobe with the right hand. The technique is repeated in the opposite fashion for the left lobe.

11. A client asks the nurse about drugs for weight loss. What response by the nurse is best? a. All weight-loss drugs can cause suicidal ideation. b. No drugs are currently available for weight loss. c. Only over-the-counter medications are available. d. There are three drugs currently approved for this.

ANS: D There are three drugs available by prescription for weight loss, including orlistat (Xenical), lorcaserin (Belviq), and phentermine-topiramate (Qsymia). Suicidal thoughts are possible with lorcaserin and phentermine-topiramate. Orlistat is also available in a reduced-dose over-the-counter formulation.