STS Practice Session 2
Portable wood ladder do not include this standard: A.) Portable ladders cannot be coated or painted B.) Portable ladders must be constructed of high density wood, free of sharp edges and splinters C.) Stepladders are limited to 20 feet in length D.) Single ladders cannot be longer than 30 feet
The best selection is answer A because: According to ANSI A14.1, Safety Requirements for Portable Wood Ladders, "Ladders may be coated with a suitable protective material." The theory is that any cracks, splits, chips, rot or compression failures can be spotted through an opaque or clear finish such as varnish, lacquer or shellac.
For what reason is it important that the immediate supervisor be the lead or part of the investigating team? A.) Immediate supervisors are usually the most knowledgeable about the work. B.) Immediate supervisors have limited responsibility in the safety of their workers and are, therefore, more objective investigators. C.) Immediate supervisors know the injured person's family best. D.) Immediate supervisors are usually not involved with correcting the problem.
The best selection is answer A because: Immediate supervisors are (normally) the most knowledgeable of the work and have a major responsibility in safety of their employees. Therefore, they should be the ones who are most concerned about correcting problems, thus, preventing other incidents, i.e., near misses, injuries, etc.
Once a chemical has been classified, the hazard(s) must be communicated to target audiences. The exhibited pictograms represents which hazard class? A.) Carcinogen B.) Irritant C.) Acute toxicity D.) Environmental Toxicity
The best selection is answer A because: The GHS symbols have been incorporated into pictograms for use on the GHS label. Pictograms include the harmonized hazard symbols plus other graphic elements, such as borders, background patterns or colors which are intended to convey specific information. For transport, pictograms will have the background, symbol and colors currently used in the UN Recommendations on the Transport of Dangerous Goods, Model Regulations. For other sectors, pictograms will have a black symbol on a white background with a red diamond frame. A black frame may be used for shipments within one country. Where a transport pictogram appears, the GHS pictogram for the same hazard should not appear.
Examples of unsafe ladder practices are described except? A.) Face the ladder when ascending or descending. B.) Hold on with one hand when climbing while carrying material. C.) Climb a ladder with muddy or greasy shoes. D.) Slide down a ladder.
The best selection is answer A because: Workers should always face the ladder and have three points of contact on the ladder.
During a periodic inspection of chains, supervisors should inspect the chain link-by-link, looking for all the following except: A.) Bent links B.) Painted links C.) Corrosion pits D.) Stretching caused by overloading
The best selection is answer B because: According to the National Safety Council, a link-by-link inspection should be made to detect the following: • Bent links • Cracks in weld areas, in shoulders or in any other section of link • Transverse nicks or gouges • Corrosion pits • Stretching caused by overloading
You discover a deserted chemical dumpsite on company property and observe leaking containers of perchloric acid, ether and other unidentified chemicals. What should you do? A.) Segregate chemicals by hand B.) Evacuate and call an experienced HAZMAT team C.) Bury it D.) Remove chemicals to safe storage
The best selection is answer B because: As you are dealing with some potentially unstable chemicals, you should call in experts.
Which of the following, in order of decreasing effectiveness, correctly indicates the order of corrective actions taken to prevent industrial dermatitis? A.) Gloves, barrier cream, hygiene B.) Substitution, gloves, barrier cream C.) Gloves, hygiene, barrier cream D.) Substitution, hygiene, barrier cream, gloves
The best selection is answer B because: It is generally accepted within the safety and health industry that substitution is the most effective control method for industrial dermatosis prevention. Substitution is followed by gloves and barrier cream. Good hygiene practice is, of course, required in all industrial settings.
If an employer is working over or near water, he/she must furnish all of the following except: A.) Coast Guard approved personal flotation devices B.) Ring buoys with 90 feet of rope C.) One lifesaving skiff D.) A qualified life guard attendant
The best selection is answer D because: 1926.106(a) Employees working over or near water, where the danger of drowning exists, shall be provided with U.S. Coast Guard-approved life jacket or buoyant work vests. 1926.106(b) Prior to and after each use, the buoyant work vests or life preservers shall be inspected for defects which would alter their strength or buoyancy. Defective units shall not be used. 1926.106(c) Ring buoys with at least 90 feet of line shall be provided and readily available for emergency rescue operations. Distance between ring buoys shall not exceed 200 feet. 1926.106(d) At least one lifesaving skiff shall be immediately available at locations where employees are working over or adjacent to water.
Level "B" Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is defined as? A.) Fully-encapsulated chemical-resistant suit with Self Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) or Supplied Air (SA) with escape provisions B.) Chemical-resistant suit with Self Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) or Supplied Air (SA) with escape provisions C.) Chemical-resistant suit with Air Purifying Respirator (APR) D.) No chemical protection and no respiratory protection
5) The best selection is answer B because:
If materials are dropped more than ___ feet to any point lying outside the exterior walls of the building, an enclosed chute (a slide, closed on all sides, through which material is moved from a high to low place) of wood, or equivalent material, shall be used. A.) 20 B.) 30 C.) 40 D.) Not required
The best selection is answer A because: 1926.252 Whenever materials are dropped more than 20 feet to any point lying outside the exterior walls of the building, an enclosed chute of wood, or equivalent material, shall be used. For the purpose of this paragraph, an enclosed chute is a slide, closed in on all sides, through which material is moved from a high place to a lower one. When debris is dropped through holes in the floor without the use of chutes, the area onto which the material is dropped shall be completely enclosed with barricades not less than 42 inches high and not less than 6 feet back from the projected edge of above opening. Signs warning of falling material hazards shall be posted at each level. Removal shall not be permitted in this lower area until debris handling ceases above. All scrap lumber, waste material, and rubbish shall be removed from the immediate work area as work progresses. Disposal of waste material or debris by burning shall comply with local fire regulations. All solvent waste, oily rags, and flammable liquids shall be kept in fire resistant covered containers until removed from worksite.
The primary reason for accident investigation for Safety and Health issues? A.) To determine facts surrounding the event B.) To establish who or what was at fault C.) To determine obvious cause factors D.) To establish a baseline for further analysis
The best selection is answer A because: According to the National Safety Council, accident investigation should be conducted to provide the facts. If fault-finding is attempted, the investigation may cause more harm than good. Mishap investigation is conducted to determine both obvious and hidden cause factors. It does tend to serve as the baseline for further analysis, but selection "A" is the primary reason for investigation.
Safety professionals perform accident investigation primarily to determine causal conditions. The person responsible for correcting the accident causes is the: A.) Supervisor B.) Safety Administrator C.) Senior Safety Engineer D.) Plant Manager
The best selection is answer A because: The cause factors discovered during accident investigations are normally corrected by the level of supervision that exercises control over the operation.
Throughout an OSHA inspection of a supervisor's work site, who determines what areas will be visited and for how long? A.) The OSHA Compliance Officer B.) The employee representative C.) A Certified Health & Safety Technician D.) The owner
The best selection is answer A because: The employer has the right to refuse entry to an OSHA Compliance Officer or to limit the scope of that inspection as a refusal of entry. However, assuming that the employer does not choose to restrict the OSHA Compliance Officer, the route, timing and scope of inspection is largely up to the inspector. Inspections are either comprehensive or partial. Comprehensive inspections would, of course, include virtually everything a wall-to-wall inspection. Partial inspections are limited to certain potentially hazardous areas, operations, conditions or practices at the site. These partial inspections can be expanded based on information gathered by the OSHA Compliance Officer during the inspection process.
Any employer cited by OSHA has a period of ______________ to contest the citation. The notice to contest is sent directly to the ______________. A.) 15 working days, OSHA Area Director B.) 10 working days, Occupation Safety & Health Review Commission C.) 15 working days, Occupation Safety & Health Review Commission D.) 15 working days, OSHA Regional Administrator
The best selection is answer A because: When OSHA provides a penalty for a citation, they do it by certified mail. From the time you receive the letter, you have 15 working days to contest the citation, the proposed assessment of penalty or both. You must notify the OSHA Area Director within this 15-day period, or both the citation and penalty become final. The OSHA Area Director then forwards your notice to the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission.
Who is responsible to ensure an employee's personal PPE is maintained? A.) Employee B.) Employer C.) Union Representative D.) Supervisor
The best selection is answer B because: 1910.132(b) Employee-owned equipment: Where employees provide their own protective equipment, the employer shall be responsible to assure its adequacy, including proper maintenance, and sanitation of such equipment.
According to OSHA, all guardrail systems shall be capable of withstanding, without failure, a force of at least ____ pounds applied within 2 inches (5.1 cm) of the top edge, in any outward or downward direction, at any point along the top edge. A.) 150 B.) 200 C.) 210 D.) 240
The best selection is answer B because: 1926.502(b) "Guardrail systems." Guardrail systems and their use shall comply with the following provisions: Top edge height of top rails, or equivalent guardrail system members, shall be 42 inches (1.1 m) plus or minus 3 inches (8 cm) above the walking/working level. When conditions warrant, the height of the top edge may exceed the 45-inch height, provided the guardrail system meets all other criteria of this paragraph. Note: When employees are using stilts, the top edge height of the top rail, or equivalent member, shall be increased an amount equal to the height of the stilts. Midrails, screens, mesh, intermediate vertical members, or equivalent intermediate structural members shall be installed between the top edge of the guardrail system and the walking/working surface when there is no wall or parapet wall at least 21 inches (53 cm) high. Midrails, when used, shall be installed at a height midway between the top edge of the guardrail system and the walking/working level. Screens and mesh, when used, shall extend from the top rail to the walking/working level and along the entire opening between top rail supports. Intermediate members (such as balusters), when used between posts, shall be not more than 19 inches (48 cm) apart. Other structural members (such as additional midrails and architectural panels) shall be installed such that there are no openings in the guardrail system that are more than 19 inches (0.5 m) wide. Guardrail systems shall be capable of withstanding, without failure, a force of at least 200 pounds (890 N) applied within 2 inches (5.1 cm) of the top edge, in any outward or downward direction, at any point along the top edge.
The lowest-risk safety item(s) is/are? A.) Chains, ropes, slings B.) Toolbox inventory C.) Electrical installations, floors D.) Fall Protection Systems
The best selection is answer B because: Conducting a toolbox or equipment inventory is important, but is the lowest safety risk item of answer choices.
During a heatstroke, which symptom would a person not likely experience? A.) Severe headache B.) Profuse sweating and cool moist skin C.) Loss of consciousness D.) Rapid temperature rise and hot dry skin
The best selection is answer B because: During heatstroke (sunstroke), the body temperature rises and reaches a point where the heat regulating mechanism breaks down completely. The body temperature then rises rapidly. The symptoms include hot dry skin, severe headache, visual disturbances, rapid temperature rise, and loss of consciousness.
The OSHAct Section 17 explains that: "a serious violation shall be deemed to exist in a place of employment if there is a substantial probability that death or serious physical harm could result from a condition which exists, or from one or more practices, means, methods, operations, or processes which have been adopted or are in use, in such place of employment unless the employer did not, and could not with the exercise of reasonable diligence, know of the presence of the violation." If a serious violation exists, and the CSHO finds that the supervisor had full knowledge of the hazard, does this constitute a serious violation? A.) No, the supervisor is considered an employee, not the employer. B.) Yes, the supervisor represents the employer and a supervisor's knowledge of the hazard amounts to employer knowledge. C.) No, the supervisor could have chosen not have told the owner. D.) Yes, the owner should have known if he/she would have been doing his/her job.
The best selection is answer B because: In determining if a hazard is serious or not, the question was "Whether the employer knew, or with the exercise of reasonable diligence, could have known of the presence of the hazardous condition. In this regard, the supervisor represents the employer and a supervisor's knowledge of the hazardous condition amounts to employer knowledge. In cases where the employer may contend that the supervisor's own conduct constitutes an isolated event of employee misconduct, the CSHO will attempt to determine the extent to which the supervisor was trained and supervised so as to prevent such conduct, and how the employer enforces the rule. If, after reasonable attempts to do so, it cannot be determined that the employer has actual knowledge of the hazardous condition, the knowledge requirement is met in the eyes of OSHA, if the CSHO is satisfied that the employer could have known through exercise of reasonable diligence. As a general rule, if the CSHO was able to discover a hazardous condition, and the condition was not transitory in nature, it can be presumed that the employer could have discovered the same condition through the exercise of reasonable diligence.
OSHA, in the Process Safety Management of Highly Hazardous Materials requires employers to establish a compliance audit capability. The standard calls for employers to certify that they have evaluated compliance with process safety requirements at least every _______ years. A.) Two years B.) Three years C.) Four years D.) Five years
The best selection is answer B because: OSHA requires employers to certify that they have evaluated compliance with process safety requirements at least every three years. Prompt response to audit findings and documentation that deficiencies are corrected is required. Employers must retain the two most recent audit reports. Additionally, 1910.119 requires each employer to have written operating procedures, to perform a process hazard analysis and to conduct training.
PPE (personal protective equipment) tends to increase worker efficiency and decrease personnel injury. A.) True for all industries B.) False C.) Only true for construction D.) Only false for fall protection because it hinders movement
The best selection is answer B because: Personal protective equipment does decrease injuries however, efficiency is almost always affected. Remember that a single PPE may not always provide adequate protection,. For example, you generally have to wear eye protection under a face shield. 1910.132 Application: Protective equipment, including personal protective equipment for eyes, face, head, and extremities, protective clothing, respiratory devices, and protective shields and barriers, shall be provided by the employer, It will be used, and maintained in a sanitary and reliable condition wherever it is necessary, by reason of hazards of processes or environment, chemical hazards, radiological hazards, or mechanical irritants encountered, in a manner capable of causing injury or impairment in the function of any body part through absorption, inhalation or physical contact. Employee-owned equipment: Where employees provide their own protective equipment, the employer shall be responsible to assure its adequacy, including proper maintenance, and sanitation of such equipment.
Personal protective equipment is crucial during welding and cutting operations. Which of the following statements is most correct concerning the proper shade of filter lens to use during welding & cutting operations? A.) Generally it is best to pick a #2 lens (dark) and work up, allows compensation for individual differences B.) Heavy gas cutting would require a number 6 to 8 shade lens C.) Heavy gas cutting would require a number 14 to 16 shade lens D.) It is usually best to start with a lens that gives a clear view of the weld zone and then move up
The best selection is answer B because: Proper eye protection is among the most important safety precautions welders and metal cutters can take. The proper shade protection is very important to guard against the damage caused by UV and IR radiation created during these operations. The table shown here was taken directly from the OSHA standards. Additional information is contained in ANSI/ASC Z49.1-88. OSHA 1926.102 Table E-2 Filter Lens Shade Numbers For Protection Against Radiant Energy
An OSHA Compliance Safety & Health Officer (CSHO) may do all of the following during a programmed inspection of a jobsite except? A.) The CSHO can provide assistance in determining how to abate violations. B.) The CSHO can order workers off a job if he/she uncovers an imminent danger situation. C.) The CSHO can conduct a second closing conference by telephone if they cannot complete it at the first one. D.) The CSHO can defer an inspection during a strike or labor dispute.
The best selection is answer B because: Selection "B" is not correct because the CSHO has no authority to order the closing of an operation or to direct employees to leave an area of imminent danger or the workplace. Selection "A" is true as the CSHO can provide guidance to the employer in developing acceptable abatement methods or provide guidance on seeking appropriate professional assistance. Selection "C" is also correct. If the CSHO does not have all pertinent information at the time of the first closing conference, a second closing conference may be held by telephone. Selection "D" is true. Although an inspection may be conducted regardless of the existence of a labor dispute involving work stoppage, strikes or picketing, generally, a programmed inspection will be deferred until a less troublesome time. The opposite is true of unprogrammed inspections (complaints, fatalities, etc.), which are usually performed even with active labor disputes ongoing.
Which of the following best explains the term BLEVE? A.) Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion B.) Burning Liquid & Expanding Vapor Explosion C.) Boiling Liquid Exacerbated Volume Expansion D.) Burning Liquid Elevated Volume Expansion
The best selection is answer B because: The term BLEVE is the acronym for a Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion, which is a major container rupture due to a form of pressure release explosion. This can be caused from external heating such as an adjacent container fire. For this reason, the fire attack scenario of a tank fire would include hose streams directed on adjacent containers as well as the burning tank.
An object that connects a piece of electrical equipment to earth or some conducting body that serves in place of earth is a_______. It also serves to complete the electrical circuit and prevent the hazard to electrical shock caused by defective equipment, possibly causing death or serious injury. A.) Bond B.) Ground C.) Metal frame D.) Double-insulation
The best selection is answer B because: This is the definition of a ground, according to the NSC.
Safety and health meetings are conducted primarily to? A.) Discuss the work of the day. B.) Motivate employees to take an interest and responsibility for safety and health. C.) Train employees in risk reduction techniques. D.) Allow employees to air their complaints.
The best selection is answer B because: To motivate employees to take an interest and responsibility for safety and Health is the best answer. The safety committee can have many different functions, but it primarily represents employee involvement.
The first thing to verify before rigging a sling to a load is to: A.) Load test the rope or sling at 150% B.) Check to see if the rated load capacity for the rope or sling is being exceeded C.) Inspect the rope or sling after use D.) Inspect the rope or sling weekly
The best selection is answer B because: Verify that the rated load capacity for the rope or sling is being exceeded.
The horizontal distance from base to vertical plane of support in straight ladder placement should be approximately __________ the ladder length between supports. A.) 1/3 B.) 1/4 C.) 1/2 D.) 1/8
The best selection is answer B because: When setting up a straight ladder, the base should be one-fourth the ladder length from the vertical plane of the top support.
A safety inspector observes the back of a rough terrain forklift tip as a heavy load is being lifted on a job site. Which of the following is the proper course of action? A.) Add extra counter weight to stabilize the operation. B.) Do not continue with this lift. C.) Add air to load side tires. D.) Tip mast back once load is lifted
The best selection is answer B because: A fork truck should never be operated with an overload. This condition removes weight from the steering wheels, which affects control of the machine. Never add counterweight because it can seriously overload the forks, tires, axles, chains etc.
OSHA requires that a standard railing shall consist of top rail, intermediate rail, and posts, and shall have a vertical height of ___ inches nominal from upper surface of top rail to floor, platform, runway, or ramp level. A.) 36 B.) 40 C.) 42 D.) 48
The best selection is answer C because: 29 CFR 1910.23(e)(1) A standard railing shall consist of top rail, intermediate rail, and posts, and shall have a vertical height of 42 inches nominal from upper surface of top rail to floor, platform, runway, or ramp level. The top rail shall be smooth-surfaced throughout the length of the railing. The intermediate rail shall be approximately halfway between the top rail and the floor, platform, runway, or ramp. The ends of the rails shall not overhang the terminal posts, except where such overhang does not constitute a projection hazard. 29 CFR 1910.23(e)(4) A standard toe board shall be 4 inches nominal in vertical height from its top edge to the level of the floor, platform, runway, or ramp. It shall be securely fastened in place and with not more than 1/4-inch clearance above floor level. It may be made of any substantial material, either solid or with openings, not over 1 inch in greatest dimension.
A modern management approach to the success of a long-term safety management system is known as? A.) Autonomous Management B.) Silos C.) Team-based D.) Empowered employees
The best selection is answer C because: A Team-based approach to safety management is a modern management model used to continuously improve a safety management system.
One invalid reason for accident (mishap) investigation is to? A.) Prevent reoccurrence of similar events B.) Establish casual factors C.) Provide vehicle for discipline D.) Provide data for trend analysis
The best selection is answer C because: Accident investigation has as its primary purpose the prevention of similar occurrences and the discovery of hazards. The intent is not to place blame or administer discipline, but rather to determine how responsibilities may be defined or clarified and to reduce error producing situations. Accident investigation should improve the safety of operations, if accident investigation is used for punitive measures, the tool has the reverse effect.
A bench grinder should have the tool rest adjusted to within ________ inch of the wheel, and the tongue guard should be adjusted to within ____________ inch of the wheel. A.) 1/2 inch - 1/2 inch B.) 1/4 inch - 1/8 inch C.) 1/8 inch - 1/4 inch D.) 1/16 inch - 1/4 inch
The best selection is answer C because: According to the National Safety Council's "Accident Prevention Manual for Industrial Operations", tool rests should be adjusted to not more than 1/8 inch from the grinding wheel tongue guards should be adjusted to 1/4 inch.
Which of the following are the two categories used to identify respiratory protection? A.) Particulate and Supplied Air B.) Self-cleaning and Non self-cleaning C.) Air-purifying and air-supplied D.) Gas Masks and Air Hoods
The best selection is answer C because: All respirators can be placed in two categories: air purifying or air supplying
Which type of radiation from welding operations is the most damaging to the eyes? A.) Light B.) Ultraviolet C.) Infrared D.) Visible light
The best selection is answer C because: Both Ultraviolet (UV) and Infrared radiation (IR) will cause damage to the eyes. However, IR is very penetrating and passes through the cornea to the retina of the eye causing permanent damage. Ultraviolet radiation will cause eye burn (Arc Eye) that is painful and disabling but, signs and symptoms usually disappear in 12 to 36 hours and, as stated earlier, are confined to the cornea.
50. The maximum storage temperature for a gas cylinder is exactly? A.) 100 F B.) 100 C C.) 130 F D.) 130 C
The best selection is answer C because: Cylinders are not designed for temperatures in excess of 130 degrees F or 54 degrees C.
The best way to control or eliminate a hazard is to? A.) Use PPE B.) Utilize administrative controls C.) Utilize engineering controls D.) Stop working
The best selection is answer C because: Engineering controls are the best method to eliminate hazards.
Enclosures for noise control are designed to: A.) Isolate individual from noise source B.) Reduce noise level at source C.) Reduce sound pressure D.) Increase distance between source and receiver
The best selection is answer C because: Generally, an enclosure is placed around a noise source to prevent noise from getting outside. Enclosures are normally lined with sound-absorption material to decrease internal sound pressure buildup.
Employers should perform safety inspections_____? A.) Once per a day B.) Once per a week C.) Frequently and regularly D.) As often as needed
The best selection is answer C because: If the occurrence of sound is greater than once per second, the sound is considered to be continuous and should be measured as continuous sound. Ref. OSHA 29 CFR 1910.95.
The best approach for reducing incidents involving human error is to? A.) Carefully screen job applicants B.) Furnish workers with PPE C.) Improve system design D.) Improve workplace conditions
The best selection is answer C because: Improving system design is the best solution for minimizing and eliminating human error.
All lanyards and vertical lifelines have a minimum breaking strength of _____pounds. A.) 1000 B.) 2000 C.) 5000 D.) 10,000
The best selection is answer C because: Lanyards and vertical lifelines shall have a minimum breaking strength of 5,000 pounds (22.2 kN).
According to OSHA at what depth must a trench be provided with means of egress such as a stairway, ladder, ramp etc.? A.) greater than 8 feet B.) 5 feet or more C.) 4 feet or more D.) 16 feet or more
The best selection is answer C because: Means of egress from trench excavations such as a stairway, ladder, ramp or other safe means of egress are required in trench excavations that are 4 feet or more in depth and located so as to require no more than 25 feet of lateral travel for workers. OSHA 1926.651.
It is important to provide new employee training and orientation in order that? A.) New employees are easier to train than employees who have been on the job longer. B.) New employees are less likely to have accidents at work. C.) New employees are inexperienced and not familiar with the hazards, procedures, facilities and safety rules. D.) New employees tend to break rules to test the system.
The best selection is answer C because: New employees are more likely to have accidents at work and may be inexperienced on the job site and not familiar with the hazards, safety procedure, facilities and safety rules and regulations.
In the case of an OSHA Compliance Safety & Health Officer (CSHO) inspecting a work site and encountering a supervisor who refuses to allow him/her to inspect a particular area, what action is recommended for the CSHO? A.) Stop the inspection immediately and obtain a federal warrant served by a federal marshal. B.) Continue the inspection; supervisors have the right to limit the inspection to any desired area of the site. C.) Continue the inspection and report the refusal to the area director. D.) Stop the inspection and issue the supervisor a citation for obstruction of a federal officer
The best selection is answer C because: OSHA provides the following instruction to OSHA Compliance Safety & Health Officers in the Field Inspection Reference Manual. If the employer refuses to allow an inspection of the establishment to proceed, the CSHO shall leave the premises and immediately report the refusal to the Assistant Area Director. The Area Director shall notify the Regional Solicitor. If the employer raises no objection to inspection of certain portions of the workplace but objects to inspection of other portions, this shall be documented. Normally, the CSHO shall continue the inspection, confining it only to those certain portions to which the employer has raised no objections. In either case, the CSHO shall advise the employer that the refusal will be reported to the Assistant Area Director and that the agency may take further action, which may include obtaining legal process."
During a worksite OSHA inspection, the union steward has requested from the OSHA Compliance Safety & Health Officer (CSHO), a separate in-briefing (opening conference) to discuss concerns without management representatives interfering. Will the CSHO conduct a separate opening conference for the union representatives? A.) No, this is strictly prohibited. B.) No, but the CSHO will allow them to write down any additional information they think he/she should know. C.) Yes, as per OSHA policy, the CSHO will conduct two opening conferences. D.) Yes, but the conference will not occur not until after the inspection is complete.
The best selection is answer C because: OSHA provides the following instruction to the OSHA Compliance Safety & Health Officers in the Field Inspection Reference Manual. OSHA encourages employers and employees to meet together in the spirit of open communication. The CSHO shall conduct a joint opening conference with employer and employee repre¬sentatives, unless either party objects. If there is objection to a joint conference, the CSHO shall conduct separate conferences with employer and employee representatives."
The best descriptor of the barrier cream function is that it? A.) Replaces lanolin in skin B.) Keeps hands clean C.) Inhibits contact of solvent with skin surface D.) Provides a cure for chapped, dry hands and feet
The best selection is answer C because: Protective creams, sometimes called "Barrier" creams, serve to inhibit contact with solvents in the work place. The use of protective creams is very controversial, however, most current Safety and Health literature indicates, when used properly, these creams are useful. The cream must be used correctly to be effective, which means it must be applied on clean skin at the beginning of the work shift, removed at lunch, reapplied after lunch, again in the afternoon, and removed at work shift end.
45. The 4 in the diagram indicates: A.) Health B.) Fire C.) Reactivity D.) Storage
The best selection is answer C because: The NFPA 704 System Hazard Diamond is a symbol system intended for use of fixed installations, such as chemical processing equipment, storage and warehousing rooms and laboratory entrances. It tells a fire fighter what he/she must do to protect him/herself from injury while fighting a fire in the area. In this diamond, the 4 is reactivity. According to the National Fire Protection Association Handbook, the NFPA 704, Identification of the Hazards of Materials is a symbol system intended for use on fixed installations or buildings. It tells the fire fighters what they must do to protect themselves. The system is based on the NFPA Standard 704 diamond that visually presents information on health, flammability, and the self-reactivity hazard of a material. NFPA 704 describes in great detail the hazards and hazard level which the various numbers indicate for the three hazards. Numbers from 0 through 4 are placed in the three upper diamonds to show the degree of hazard present. The 0 indicates the lowest degree of hazard, 4 indicates the highest. The five categories of health hazards are presented in the left diamond, which is colored blue. Fire hazards are presented in the top diamond, which is colored red. Reactivity (stability) hazards are presented in the right diamond, which is colored yellow. Additionally, special information is presented in the bottom diamond, which is colored white, to convey the dangers of high-risk materials. The five degrees of hazard shown above have the following general meaning to fire fighters: 4 Too dangerous to approach with standard firefighting equipment and procedures. Withdraw and obtain expert advice on how to handle. 3 Fire can be fought using methods intended for extremely hazardous situations, such as unmanned monitors or personal protective equipment, which prevents all bodily contact. 2 Can be fought with standard procedures, but hazards are present which require certain equipment or procedures to handle safety. 1 Nuisance hazards present, which require some care, but standard firefighting procedures can be used. 0 No special hazards, therefore no special measures.
Which of the following conditions would cause a supervisor the most concern? A.) Working in a 13 psia atmosphere B.) Working in a 120o F atmosphere C.) Heat load of 3500 BTU per hour D.) Airflow resulting in one air change every five minutes
The best selection is answer C because: Total heat load is a combination of the heat produced by the body and the environmental heat to which the body is exposed. Working in a 120 degree environment is certainly a situation that would cause concern, but is overshadowed by the heat load of 3500 BTU/hr (1000 kcal/hr). Extremely heavy work is approximately 2000 BTU/hr., so a load of 3500 BTU/hr is an obvious, severe hazard. An atmosphere of 13 psia could be encountered within a wide range of occupations and is not a major concern. Airflow of one air change every five minutes could be acceptable with no other information given. However, it should be noted that the number of air changes is a poor basis for ventilation when environmental control of hazards is required. Airflow measured in "changes per minute" is a concept easily understood, but this rapid understanding coupled with ease of application often allows the real problems (contamination control) to go unabated. When getting a new employ acclimatized to heat for a full workday, it usually takes about 5 days to get the body fully adapted.
Proper procedure for inspection of chains during a semi-annual inspection is to: A.) Check links with a caliper and compare at least 10 links B.) Check for cracks in end links C.) Compare twist on end sections D.) Perform a detailed link-by-link inspection of entire chain
The best selection is answer D because: Chain inspections should be done visually in an attempt to detect any elongation or other defect. This is best accomplished by a link-by-link inspection. Overall measurements or caliper readings of a section are often misleading because not all links will be affected or damaged.
Helmets (hardhats), according to the American National Standard Z89.1-1997, must protect the heads of industrial workers from impact and penetration by falling objects and from high voltage electrical shock. Which of the following classes offers low voltage protection? A.) A B.) C C.) E D.) G
The best selection is answer D because: Helmet Types • Class E (Electrical) helmets intended to reduce danger of exposure to high voltage electrical conductors, proof tested at 20,000 volts. Class E is tested for force transmission first, then tested at 20,000 volts for 3 minutes, with 9 milliamps maximum current leakage; then tested at 30,000 volts, with no burn-through permitted.(formerly Class B) Class G (General) helmets intended to reduce danger of exposure to low voltage electrical conductors, proof tested at 2,200 volts. Class G is tested at 2,200 volts for 1 minute, with 3 milliamps max. leakage. (formerly Class A) • Class C (Conductive) helmets not intended to provide protection from electrical conductors. Class C is not tested for electrical resistance. (no change in class designation) Definitions expanded; new test protocol section, including preparation, mounting, number, and sequence of test samples; summary of failure criteria. • Product tested within 3 inch circle on top of helmet in "as worn" position • 2.2 pound pointed steel penetrator, with 60º angle, dropped from a simulated free-fall height of 8 feet • Penetrator can't make contact w/ head form • Test apparatus includes electronic contact indicator, velocity indicator, & electronic recording equipment • No differentiation for helmet classes
Which of the following factors does not affect the load capacity of a mobile crane? A.) Boom length B.) Boom angle C.) Extension of outriggers D.) Installation of anti-two-blocking device
The best selection is answer D because: Installation of anti-two-blocking device does not affect the load capacity of a mobile crane.
The following are considered a major contributors to a successful safety management system except: A.) Hazard Recognition B.) Employee Involvement C.) Management Commitment D.) Workforce planning and staffing
The best selection is answer D because: Management commitment, employee involvement, worksite analysis, hazard recognition/control and safety training are the main components of a successful management system. Workforce planning and staffing is a good subsidiary contributor.
A skin cancer caused by sunlight exposure is called? A.) Mesothelioma B.) Sarcomas C.) Leukemia D.) Melanoma
The best selection is answer D because: Sunlight is the most common occupational cause of melanoma skin cancer.
The Safety Trained Supervisor Code of Ethics states which of the following? I STS will place safety and health of people as paramount. II STS will hold protection of environment as paramount. III STS will work to identify areas where their employer or client is violating safety and health rules, reporting information to appropriate authorities. IV STS will maintain the integrity of the safety practice. V STS will responsibly represent their employer or client, including defending the employer against citations and fines from regulatory agencies, regardless of the merit of the finding. A.) I., II., and IV B.) I., II., III., IV, and V C.) I, IV, and V D.) I, II, IV, and V
The best selection is answer D because: The Safety Trained Supervisor is required to follow the STS Code of Ethics. The Code includes that the: • STS will place the safety and health of people as paramount. • STS will hold protection of the environment as paramount (environmental protection and compliance is part of the safety professional practice) • STS will work to identify areas where their employer or client is violating safety and health rules and is responsible for advising the employer or client, then helping them to make corrections. Except in the most extreme situation, the STS's responsibility is to the employer or client and he/she must find a resolution to issues in the client's best interests) • STS maintains the integrity of safety practice. • STS responsibly represents their employer or client, including defending the employer against citations and fines from regulatory agencies, regardless of the merit of the finding. (The STS should work to minimize the impact of citations and fines on the employer or client while also working to immediately correct any safety compliance issues.)
Under provisions of the OSHAct, employers can be cited for repeated violations if that employer has been cited previously for a substantially similar condition. This becomes complicated, however, especially if an employer has multiple worksites. Is a citation considered a repeat if it happens in a different state a year later? Which of the following is the most correct concerning the repeat citation policy of OSHA? A.) Violations will be considered repeat if they occur within one year of each other. B.) Violations will be considered repeat if they occur within six months of each other. C.) Violations will be considered repeat if they occur within five years of each other. D.) Violations will be considered repeat if they occur within three years of each other.
The best selection is answer D because: The following information was extracted from the guidance OSHA provides to OSHA Compliance Safety & Health Officers in the Field Inspection Reference Manual: Repeated Violations. An employer may be cited for a repeated violation if that employer has been cited previously for a substantially similar condition and the citation has become a final order. Identical Standard. Generally, similar conditions can be demonstrated by showing that in both situations, the identical standard was violated. EXCEPTION: Previously a citation was issued for a violation of 29 CFR §1910.132(a) for not requiring the use of safety toe footwear for employees. A recent inspection of the same establishment revealed a violation of 29 CFR §1910.132(a) for not requiring the use of head protec¬tion (hard hats). Although the same standard was involved, the hazardous conditions found were not substantially similar, and therefore, a repeated violation would not be appropriate. Different Standards. In some circumstances, similar conditions can be demonstrated when different standards are violated. Although there may be different standards involved, the hazardous conditions found could be substantially similar, and therefore, a repeated violation would be appropriate. Time Limitations. Although there are no statutory limitations upon the length of time that a citation may serve as a basis for a repeated viola¬tion, the following policy shall be used in order to ensure uniformity. A citation will be issued as a repeated violation if: • The citation is issued within 3 years of the final order of the previous citation, or, • The citation is issued within 3 years of the final abatement date of that citation, whichever is later. • When a violation is found during an inspection, and a repeated citation has been issued for a substantially similar condition, which meets the above time limitations, the violation may be classified as a second instance repeated violation with a corresponding increase in penalty. • For any further repetition, the Area Director shall be consulted for guidance. Additionally, OSHA has the capability to obtain a national inspection history on employers who operate in several locations. That means they can find all of the citations a supervisor's company has ever been issued. If a citation has been issued anywhere within the 3 year time limit, you can be cited for a repeat. If OSHA does not go to the trouble to run a national inspection check, you will only be cited for a repeat if the second citation occurs within the same OSHA Area Office jurisdiction.
While taking noise measurements in a non-reverberant environment, instructions often call for placing the microphone in a workers' hearing zone. Which of the following best describes the hearing zone? A.) A area surrounding the body for a distance of 12 inches B.) A hemisphere 9-18 inches in radius and centered on the shoulder C.) A hemisphere 6-9 inches in radius and forward of the shoulders D.) A sphere 2 ft in diameter centered on the head
The best selection is answer D because: The general agreement within the safety and health community concerning placement of a sound recording instrument microphone is "the closer to the worker's ear, the better". However, the agreed upon definition of hearing zone is a sphere with a two foot diameter surrounding the head. Selection "C" is the preferred definition of Breathing Zone.
Recognized classes of protective footwear include all of the following except: A.) Conductive shoes/boots B.) Electrical Hazard shoes/boots C.) Safety-Toe Safety Shoes Class "75" D.) Non-ionizing, worker Safety Shoe Class "EX" radiation
The best selection is answer D because: There is not a category of protective footwear designed especially for non-ionizing radiation workers. Conductive footwear offering a resistance below 450k OHMs is available to allow for dissipation of static charges. Typical applications would include some types of munitions manufacturing, cleaning tanks that have contained flammable liquids, etc. The ANSI Std. Z41 "Safety-Toe Footwear" groups Safety Toe Footwear into three classes which indicates impact weight shoes are designed to withstand, while maintaining a 16/32 (15/32 for women) inch clearance inside the shoe. The classes are 75, 50 and 30. Electrical hazard shoes are designed to lessen the hazards of contact with electrical current. There are various special types of protective footwear that have extra protection from protruding nails, hot surfaces etc.
The action most likely to produce severe injuries or a high probability of accidents is? A.) Routine tasks B.) Volunteer tasks C.) Closely supervised actions D.) Unusual and non-routine tasks
The best selection is answer D because: Unusual and non-routine tasks are more likely to result in injuries than the other choices.
Which of the following is the least important role of front line supervision in a successful safety program? A.) Provide daily training. B.) Know the workplace and work. C.) Protect their employees from potential hazards. D.) Write safety procedures
The best selection is answer D because: Writing safety procedures is the least important role of those listed in the question.
One element not required in the OSHA-mandated respirator program is? A.) Training in respirator usage B.) All rescue respirators must be cleaned immediately after use C.) Respirators must be inspected at regular intervals D.) Respirators must not be used by more than one employee
The best selection is answer D because: Respirators may be used by more than one worker; however, they must be cleaned and disinfected before use by another employee. They cannot simply be passed from person to person on a job site. All other selections are correct. Respirator users must be trained in the use and limitations of the apparatus. Respirators must be inspected at regular intervals and rescue equipment must be cleaned immediately after use so that the equipment is available, should another emergency arise.
