SWE EPME 2023 study guide
57. Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the Risk Management process is_________.
Continuous and adaptive
Which form of birth control is both reversible and can be used as emergency contraceptive?
Copper IUD
60. What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?
Crew endurance
In one survey, more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _________ at some point in their lives.
Episode of suicidal thinking
26. During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person, and that this will save his or her life?
Escort
27. During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional?
Escort
87. What term is defined as the act of evaluating an individual's or family's income and expenditures and recommending short and long-term actions to achieve financial goals and ensure individual, family and mission readiness?
Financial Planning and Counseling
Who is normally the appeal authority for an EER?
First Flag Officer in Chain of Command
What is considered binge drinking for men?
Five drinks for men in about two hours
6. The Harry W. Colmery Veterans Educational Assistance Act is also known as the
Forever GI Bill
49. What is the form number for the Personal Fitness Plan?
Form CG-6049
Which form is used to report accidents involving a government motor vehicle?
Form SF91
What is considered been drinking for women?
Four drinks for women in about two hours
55. What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?
GAR 2.0
74. What shall all units use to conduct a real-time risk assessment prior to engaging in operations or activities that expose personnel to hazards?
GAR 2.0
What deliberate risk assessment should units perform at the start of each day or watch?
GAR 2.0 Units should perform a deliberate assessment at the start of each workday or each watch using GAR 2.0 to consider PEACE and STAAR elements
Most people do not have any symptoms when they have which STD?
Genital herpes
If in a motor vehicle during the national anthem and the conditions permit, the senior person should _______.
Get out and salute.
SM1 Douglas Munro was in charge of 24 Higgins boats during an amphibious invasion at point Cruz, _______.
Guadalcanal
According to the national Institute on alcohol abuse, and alcoholism "NIAAA", as an individuals be a C increases, the risk of_______ increases.
Harm
What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the civil war?
Harriet Lane
Which statement reflects Coast Guard policy on tobacco use and abuse?
It is Coast Guard policy to discourage the use of all forms of tobacco products and to protect people from exposure to environmental tobacco smoke (ETS), unsanitary conditions, created by the use of spit tobacco, and the potential addiction to nicotine products. The use of any tobacco products in public tracks from a sharp military appearance, and is discouraged. Where conflicts arise between the rights of non-nicotine users and nicotine users, the rights of the non-user will prevail.
Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks of drinking alcohol
On average, women weigh less than men. Also, alcohol resides predominantly in body water, and pound for pound, women have less water in their bodies than men.
70. During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted __________, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong.
Operation Market Time
Which stress management, awareness and skills training for Munson understanding of stress, awareness of support resources and provides practical stress. Navigation tools to build resilience of sailors, families, and commands?
Operational stress control
72. Which models, when used in tandem, generate the necessary information to establish a shared mental model up and down the chain of command, assist in decision making, and encourage robust risk management?
PEACE and STAAR
73. Which models can also be applied to activities outside the workplace that are often spontaneous and dynamic?
PEACE and STAAR
Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?
PEACE and STAAR PEACE (Planning, event complexity, asset, communications, and environment) STAAR (Spread out, Transfer, avoid, accept, and reduce)
At a minimum, units must include all the elements of which model in their GAR 2.0?
PEACE model
What model is used to identify those elements considered essential to the safe and effective execution of an operation or activity?
PEACE(Planning, Event Complexity, Asset, Communications, and Environment
What are captured in GAR 2.0 to make warrantee risk decisions?
PEACE/STAAR analyses PEACE (Planning, Event Complexity, Asset, Communications, and Environment) STAAR (Spread out, Transfer, Avoid, Accept, and Reduce)
Where did coast guard port security units deploy in 1990-1991?
Persian Gulf
85. What term is defined as the process (or steps) involved in managing one's personal finances, including income, expenses, and investments, for an individual or family?
Personal Financial Management
86. The definition of which term includes prudent day-to-day management of personal finances?
Personal Financial Readiness
When are salutes rendered by persons in motor vehicles?
Persons operating moving motor vehicles should not render or return salutes. Passengers will render and return salutes.
Where did SM1 Douglas Munro aid a battalion of marines during landing and rescue?
Point Cruz, Guadalcanal
How can you overcome the common barriers to effective communication.
Practice active lists j f to overcome barriers to communication Active Listening: - Suspend judgment by practicing nonjudgmental listening. - Resist distractions; focus on the person. Make eye contact. - Wait before responding. Listen with an open mind before responding. - Ask open-ended questions. - Observe body language and voice tone. Deterrents: - Avoid assumptions; listen to the whole story. - Eliminate external and internal distractions. - Avoid push-button issues that you know have the potential to make the listener upset. - Avoid daydreaming. - Do not prepare your response while someone is talking.
Which of the following is considered prohibited substance abuse?
Prohibit substance abuse and limit use of substances to the lawful use of alcohol or medical provider-prescribed medication. This encompasses, but is not limited to, the inhalation, injection, consumption, or introduction to the body of any mood altering substance or compound, including: a. Controlled or synthetic substance analogues, for example, designer drugs invented or yet to have been composed, such as, products containing synthetic cannabinoids, Synthetic Marijuana, Spice, Fentanvi etc., that are not otherwise controlled substances b. Inhalants c. Propellants d. Solvents e. Household chemicals f. Substances used for huffing and prescription or over-the-counter medications in excess of prescribed dosage g. Any naturally occurring intoxicating substances, such as, Salvia divinorum or products containing Salvia divinorum 86. Which of the following constitutes a drug incident? 1. Intentional use of drugs for non-medical purposes; 2. Wrongful possession of drugs; 3. Trafficking of drugs-distributing, importing, exporting, or introducing to a military facility; 4. The intentional use of other substances, such as inhalants, glue, cleaning agents, or over-the-counter (OTC), or prescription medications to obtain a "high," contrary to their intended use; or 5. A civil or military conviction for wrongful use, possession, or trafficking of drugs, unless rebutted by other evidence (note the member need not he found suilt at court-martial
________ is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard.
RISK
56. When is Risk Management (RM) most effective?
RM is most effective when hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate and implemen mitigations and controls to reduce risk exposure.
The______ comprised of designated members who execute the enlisted evaluation report process for enlisted members.
Rating chain.
25. Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?
Ratings open to striking change based on Service need and will be announced by ALCOAST message as ratings are opened or closed for striking.
Which section of the payslip will show information unique to each member?
Remarks section
59. What are units encouraged to use to conduct "what can go wrong" analyses on an as-needed-basis, when new missions/activities are introduced to the unit?
Risk Assessment Matrix (RAM)
________ is defined as a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity.
Risk Management (RM)
If your personal readiness data in CGBI need corrections, select the ________ icon in the top-right corner of the "skills" tab.
Select the blue "get more information"
What term is defined as self inflicted, potentially dangerous behavior for which there is evidence, either in person, or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/her self?
Self harm
For reporting purposes within the suicide prevention program, self harm with no injuries reported as______.
Self harm level one
For reporting purposes, within the suicide prevention program, self harm resulting in death is reported as______.
Self harm level three
For reporting purposes within the suicide prevention program, so farm with injuries reported as______.
Self harm level two
The United States coast guard weee among the first to respond to the attack on the World Trade Center on_________.
September 11, 2001
75. The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following ________.
September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks
51. What is a critical human factor that will increase the potential for error-induced mishaps if not managed?
Seven critical human factors: Mission Analysis Leadership Adaptability and Flexibility Situational Awareness Decision Making, Communication Assertiveness
19. Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-3? .
Six months in pay grade E-2 or satisfactory completion of Class "A" course
Identify a signal of distress, which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.
Spiritual distress, physiological, behavioral, cognitive, emotional.
66. Which is an action taken during the first step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
Step 1 - Identify Hazards Action 1: mission/task analysis Action 2: what can go wrong analysis Action 3: List Causes ("Why" analysis)
Which type 1 PFD provides greater mobility when the use of law enforcement or other types of gear are required?
Stevens model I600 type I PFD or standard Navy PFD with collar
If in a motor vehicle during the national anthem, the driver shall_______.
Stop vehicle; remain seated at attention
Which term is defined as "the nonspecific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor"?
Stress
What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a persons personal stress load?
Stress map: a stress management tool used to measure a persons personal stress load.
What are stressors?
Stressors: the causes of stress,(transfers, deadlines, etc.)
What is the definition of substance abuse?
Substance-abuse, which includes the abuse or dependence on alcohol or drugs, is a brain disease. Substance abuse, and dependency are on a continuum or constellation of symptoms. Addiction and all of its forms, including gambling, affects not only the afflicted member, but also society, family, friends, coworkers, and commands.
5. What type of suicide-related communication is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide Plan Suicide Plan: proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behaviors; or, a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors.
What type of suicide-related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior.
Suicide Plan Suicide plan: proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behaviors; or a systematic formulation or a prof am or action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors.
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there's evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die
Suicide attempt
For reporting purposes within the suicide prevention program, suicide, attempt resulting in no injury is reported as_______
Suicide attempt level one
For for reporting purposes within the suicide prevention program, suicide attempt, resulting in injury is reported as
Suicide attempt level two
What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?
Suicide-Related Communications
What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide related behavior?
Suicide-Related Ideations
54. What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?
The RM Process
51. In 1838, Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency?
The Steamboat Inspection Service within the Treasury Department
9. The GI Bill Comparison Tool offers information based on which of the following GI Bill benefits?
Tuition and Housing Benefits
40. Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate- intensity aerobic activity per week?
Two hours and 30 minutes (150 minutes) of moderate-intensity aerobic activity
41. Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include muscle-strengthening activities for a minimum of how many days per week?
Two or more days a week for muscle-strengthening activities
The national terrorism advisory system consists of how many types of advisories?
Two types: bulletins and alerts
The United states coast guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the _________.
U.S. marine corps
Which information can be found in the tax data section of the pay-slip?
Under tax data, the marital status and allowances j dictate what tax options you selected, which may be different than your actual marital status.
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior intent is unknown?
Undetermined suicide related behavior
The _________ is the canton of the United States flag.
Union Jack
The __________ is flown in the jackstaff, and gush is located on the bow or a vessel.
Union Jack
75. Who determines whether a particular use of a government motor vehicle is for official purposes?
Unit commanders, commanding officers, and officers-in-charge
On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _____________.
United States Revenue Cutter Service
What will you need to do if your preferred email address is not listed as an option when signing up for email notifications CGBI?
Update your contact information in Direct Access to include your preferred email address.
The code of conduct is an ethical guide for members or the armed forces that has _________ articles.
VI (6)
5. Where can a link to the ASVAB ACT Waiver Request Guide be found?
Voluntary Education Service Portal Page > Bottom of page > Under Course Support and Testing Links
The national Institute of alcohol abuse and alcoholism "NIAAA" low risk guidelines suggest that "zero" drinks is a low risk option when_______.
When is driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medication's
During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?
care
An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in nova SCOTUS led congress to establish ________ duties for the United States coast guard.
coast guard captain of the port offices
Where can you find additional clarification on low risk drinking guidelines?
https://www.rethinkingdrinking.niaaa.nih.gov/
2. Which of the following is a factor type of
performance within the BES? There are four major categories of performance which are referred to as "factors": - Military. Measures a member's ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions. - Performance. Measures a member's willingness to acquire knowledge and the ability to use knowledge, skill, and direction to accomplish work. - Professional Qualities. Measures those qualities the Coast Guard values in its people. - Leadership. Measures a member's ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work.
1. Which of the following is a factor type of
performance within the EES? There are four major categories of performance which are referred to as "factors": - Military. Measures a member's ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions. -Performance. Measures a member's willingness to acquire knowledge and the ability to use knowledge, skill, and direction to accomplish work. - Professional Qualities. Measures those qualities the Coast Guard values in its people. - Leadership. Measures a member's ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work.
During world war I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain
six
Dismissing _____________ as "manipulation" is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.
suicidal ideations
Which term is defined as self inflicted death with evidence, either explicit, or implicit, or intent to die?
suicide
Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first ________.
Secretary of Treasury
10. What is a means to test understanding of a message for effective communication?
- Parroting (repeat back the same words you heard) - Paraphrasing (the idea in words you can understand; allows the sender to confirm the idea they sent) - Clarifying (ask open-ended questions)
What is the definition given in the recruit training master pamphlet for effective communication?
An effective communicator is successful in establishing an active two-way link with another individual or group.
What is a means to test understanding of a message for effecting communication?
- Parroting (repeat back the same words you heard) - Paraphrasing (the idea in words you can understand; allows the sender to confirm the idea they sent) - Clarifying (ask open-ended questions)
81. To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, commands must identify hazards and reduce risks when assigning long-distance driving duties to personnel who have been on-duty within the previous________ hours.
8
9. What is a means to test understanding of a message for effective communication?
- Parroting - repeat back the same words you heard. - Paraphrasing - the idea in words you can understand. This allows the sender to confirm the idea they sent. - Clarifying - ask open-ended questions.
A sign of alcohol poisoning is______.
- Passes out and cannot be awakened - Vomiting while passed out - Has cold, clammy, and/or pale skin - Breathing is slow and irregular
What is substance abuse prime for life training used for?
An evidence-based alcohol and drug program for members who show signs of misusing alcohol.
10. Veterans in their second 6 months of OTJ & Apprenticeship Training programs may use their GI Bill benefits to receive ________ of the applicable Monthly Housing Stipend.
80%
Using the BAC calculator, what would be the BAC percentage for a 150 pound male who consumed 3 ounces of 40% alcohol over one hour?
.05%.
Across United States, I recorded blood alcohol content "BAC" test of_____ or higher alcohol is proof of DUI without any other evidence.
.08%
Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher
0.08 or higher
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?
0.08. - 0.08: Slightly impaired, emotional changes, impaired thinking and delayed reaction times. - 0.16: "Sloppy" ' drunk, double vision, disorientation, staggering, and increased emotional changes, such as al or crying. - 0.30: Stupor or blackout, unable to walk or stand, vomiting, loss of bladder control and/or passing out. Can conscious or unconscious. - 0.40: Coma and risk of death.
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being"sloppy" drunk?
0.16
What BAC would be associated with the stage of taxation indicated by stupor or blackout
0.30.
What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by coma and risk of death
0.40
When was the United states coast guard transferred to the department of homeland security?
01 March 2003
How can you contact the employee assistance program?
1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778) or www.CGSUPRT.com
It is strongly recommended that the personal fitness plan include ________ minutes per week of cardio respiratory activity.
150 (150 cardio / 30 strength / 180 total
Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel who are diagnosed with pseudofilliculitis barbae (PFB)?
Commanding officers-in-charge
The United States coast guard is authorized a total of _______ battle streamers
43
During parades and ceremonies, the coast guard standard is adorned with ________.
43 battle streamers
42. All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outlined in their Personal Fitness Plan a ________minimum per week.
180 min (150 cardio / 30 strength / 180 total
29. If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?
(a) How? - Does he/she have a plan? Is the plan specific? Does he/she possess the means (pills, gun, etc.)? Are the means lethal? If there is a plan, does the person express or imply an intention to actually go through with it? (b) Situation? - Is he/she alone (if communication is by phone or e-mail)? Have they been drinking? (c) History? - Prior attempts? Hospitalizations? Any family history of suicidal behaviors?
Which block of the pay-slip contains a members basic pay?
"Earnings" block in the middle section.
"Good" stress is related to which stress management term?
"Good "stress, perceived as positive and associated with a sense of control.
82. Which of the following is required for self-referral for potential substance abuse?
(1) A request must be made to a Chaplain, Command, CDAR, SAPS, or health care provider. (2) There can be no credible evidence of involvement in an alcohol/drug incident. (3) Members may self-refer for drug abuse; however, self-referral may result in a drug incident determination and administrative actions in accordance with Reference (a). (4) A self-referral for alcohol related issues is not to be punitive. (5) A self-referral resulting in a diagnosis (e.g., current version of DSM of Mental Disorders) will result in administrative action if treatment is required and the member refuses, fails, or does not complete it. The member's refusal, failure, or incomplete treatment requires a copy of the referral, screening, and treatment plan be maintained in the member's health record. The health of the member takes priority over career and advancement. (6) A reservist not in an IDT or ADT status may self-refer. However, a Readiness Management Plan (RMP,) or next scheduled IDT or ADT, whichever occurs sooner, will be used to complete the initial meeting that may be required by the command. An additional RMP is allowed for the initial health support screening if it cannot be completed during the initial meeting with the commandy
Where are the steps of risk management (RM) described?
(See attachment: "Risk Management Steps & Actions" and "Risk Management Process")
17. What may be helpful to lead into the question "Are you thinking about killing yourself?" Lead into this question with a statement of your observations
(a) "You made a comment about ending your life that concerns me. Are you thinking about killing yourself?" (b) "I know you have been going through a lot recently. Often people going through what you are going through think about suicide. Are you thinking about killing yourself?"
13. What is a reason for feedback in effective communication?
- Achieve personal growth. Anytime someone tells you something in a constructive manner, you should consider it a gift and say thank you. - Receiver gains insight into something they may not have observed about themselves. - Feedback creates an open environment by allowing for the sharing of ideas and information. - It helps you prepare for the future by not dwelling on the past.
Which of the following is a national Institute of mental health recommend to manage stress?
- Be observant (recognize signs of your body's response to stress - ie difficulty sleeping) - Talk to your health care provider or a health professional (get proper health care/treatment) - Get regular exercise (ie 30 min a day of walking) - Try a relaxing activity (ie meditation) - Set goals and priorities (don't overload, learn to say no) - Stay connected (keep in touch with people who can provide emotional support & practical help) - Consider a clinical trial (volunteer for a research study)
14. For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for giving feedback? When you give feedback, you want to do it in a way that is positive and constructive. Basic rules to follow include:
- Be specific and to the point. Express exactly what happened. - Focus on behavior of the person and not on the person. - Direct feedback toward changeable behavior only. - Feedback must be solicited. When someone asks for help, that person is open to feedback. - Feedback must be timely. Do not wait to give it. - Check for understanding. Use active listening skill
77. Which of the following would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle? Official Purposes:
- Ceremonies (public, military, parades directly relating to official activities; military/civilian personnel officially participating) - Non-CG Employees in Official Capacity (if no additional cost is incurred by the Government) - Spouse and Dependents with Member (for official function in which member is officially participating) - Military Recruits (interviewing, processing and orientation) - Official Travel
72. Youth who drink alcohol are more likely to experience
- School problems, such as higher rates of absences or lower grades. - Social problems, such as fighting or lack of participation in youth activities. - Legal problems, such as arrest for driving or physically hurting someone while drunk. - Physical problems, such as hangovers or illnesses. - Unwanted, unplanned, and unprotected sexual activity. - Disruption of normal growth or sexual development. - Physical and sexual violence. - Increased risk of suicide and homicide. - Alcohol-related motor vehicle crashes and other unintentional injuries, such as burns, falls, or drowning. - Memory problems. - Misuse of other substances. -Changes in brain development that may have life-long effects. - Alcohol poisoning.
20. Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-4?
- Six months in pay grade E-3 - Completion of the Apprentice Leadership Program (ALP) is required prior to advancement to pay grade E-4. ALP may be completed as a portion of the member's Class "A" Course.
15. Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?
- Treat all firearms as if they are loaded - Always maintain proper muzzle control - Keep finger off the trigger until on target and ready to shoot - Know your target and what is beyond it
15. For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for receiving feedback?
- Try to be open minded and receptive. Don't be defensive. - Ask for relevant examples that they have seen. - Summarize to ensure understanding of the feedback. - Say "Thank you." Remember, feedback is a gift and you should treat it that way.
According to the national Institute of alcohol abuse, drinking too much overtime. Can raise your risk for________, cancer, liver disease, and other illnesses.
-Cardiomyopathy-stretching and drooping of heart muscle -Arrhythmias - irregular heartbeat -Stroke -High blood pressure Liver colon heavy, drinking, takes a toll on the liver, and can lead to a variety of problems and liver information including: -Steatosis, or fatty liver -Alcoholic hepatitis -Fibrosis -Cirrhosis Pancreas colon alcohol causes the pancreas to produce toxic substances that can eventually lead to pancreatitis, a dangerous information and swelling of the blood vessels in the pancreas that prevents proper digestion. Cancer: clear patterns have emerged between alcohol consumption an increased risks of certain types of cancer: Head and neck, cancer, including oral cavity, pharynx, larynx cancers. Esophageal cancer, particularly itself goals squamous cell carcinoma. In addition, people who inherit a deficiency in the enzyme that metabolizes alcohol have been found to have substantially increased risk of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma if they consume alcohol. -Liver cancer -Breast cancer -Colorectal cancer. Immune system: drinking too much can weaken your immune system, making your body a much easier target for disease, chronic drinkers are more liable to contract diseases, like pneumonia and tuberculosis. The people who do not drink too much.
Being able to quote hold your liquor" are having a high tolerance for alcohol is______
-Isn't protection from alcohol problems, but instead a reason for caution -An increased risk for developing alcohol use disorder
You must render salutes to which of the following?
-Officers of the armed forces of the United States -The national oceanic and atmospheric administration -the Public Health Service -foreign armed services
86. Which of the following constitutes a drug incident?
1. Intentional use of drugs for non-medical purposes; 2. Wrongful possession of drugs; 3. Trafficking of drugs--distributing, importing, exporting, or introducing to a military facility; 4. The intentional use of other substances, such as inhalants, glue, cleaning agents, or over-the-counter (OTC), or prescription medications to obtain a "high," contrary to their intended use; or 5. A civil or military conviction for wrongful use, possession, or trafficking of drugs, unless rebutted by other evidence (note the member need not be found guilty at court-martial, in civilian court, or be awarded non-judicial punishment for the conduct to be considered a drug incident). 6. However, if the conduct occurs without the member's knowledge, awareness, or reasonable suspicion or is medically authorized, it does not constitute a drug incident.
2023 EPME E2 Set 1 DOCK 50. Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?
1. Raise Awareness of Substance Abuse Issues. Help each member and command understand how to approach and handle substance misuse, abuse, and chemical dependence, which are referred to as SUDs. 2. Encourage, Teach, and Support Low-Risk Guidelines for Alcohol Use. The SAP Program adopted a risk management model for alcohol consumption. NIAAA established low-risk drinking guidelines. Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use as defined by Commandant (CG-1111) include the 0,1,2,3 model. These guidelines suggest: a. There are occasions where "zero" drinks is the low-risk option; such as, when one is driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications; b. Consuming no more than one "standard alcoholic beverage" per hour; c. Consuming two standard drinks per occasion and never to exceed three; Note: the CG is aware of the complexities, intricacies, and delicate nuances related to education, socioeconomic influences, gender, and ethnicity issues as they relate to drinking guidelines both nationally and internationally. Therefore, the CG uses a gender-neutral set of low-risk drinking guidelines: 0,1,2,3. Gender guidelines have been established by the NIAAA because males and females process alcohol differently. Citations are included in this section to clarify the physiological and absorption differences for males and females. For further clarification, please see: https://www.rethinkingdrinking.niaaa.nih.gov/. d. Check with a Health Care Provider (HCs) to ensure it is safe to consume alcohol with prescribed medication or diagnosed medical condition; and e. Avoid any activity requiring strict focus and attention or coordination and balance, such as, cleaning a weapon, climbing a ladder, or operating machinery when consuming any amount of alcohol. 3. Provide Periodic Prevention Training. Provide members, cadets, recruits, and commands with prevention training, early problem identification skills, and resources for screening and treatment. 4. Support Commands. Assist commands by providing the tools and procedures to address irresponsible alcohol use. 5. Outline Zero Tolerance for Drug/Substance Misuse and Abuse. Support zero tolerance for the intentional and wrongful use of illegal drugs and the wrongful misuse of prescription medication. This also pertains to the wrongful use of any non-controlled substance used with the intent to induce intoxication, excitement, or impairment of the central nervous system. This will also pertain to "substances" used for the purposes of obtaining a "high," which includes but is not limited to, herbals, gases, aerosols, and manufactured or yet-to-be manufactured designer drugs, such as, spice, bath salts, etc. 6. Support Mission Readiness. Ensure that members are aware of how SUDs interfere with CG mission readiness and a safe work environment. 7. Align with Other Policy. Administrative concerns are directed to Reference (a).
16. How do you access and view your payslip?
1. Select View My Payslips (AD/RSV) from the Employee pagelet 2. The View Payslips page will display. Select the Payment Date for the pay period you want to view. (Employee > View > View My Payslips (AD/RSV) > select specific date)
What is a standard drink for 80 proof Hard liquor.
1.5 ounces Beer:12 ounce Malt liquor:8 ounces Table wine:5 ounces 80 proof spirits, 1.5 ounces.
Because the effects of physical activity are cumulative, exercise sessions may vary in length, with a minimum of ______ minutes, in order to be beneficial.
10 minutes
What is the early withdraw penalty tax for the thrift saving plan?
10%
How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?
12 oz
The USCG celebrates its birthday on ________ of each year.
August 4th, 1790
To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, members must not exceed ________ hours of combined duty-hours and driving hours.
14
How many grams of pure alcohol is in a "standard" drink?
14 grams (about 0.6 fluid ounces or 1.2 tablespoons.)
The coast guard ensign consists of _______ perpendicular stripes, alternating red and white.
16
A member diagnosed within the first_______days of CG service as drugs/alcohol, abusive, or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment.
180
The first time that a federal agency was specifically tasked with looking for people in danger was in _________ when the revenue cutter gallatin was ordered to patrol the coast.
1831
The United States coast guard was formed when the revenue cutter service and life saving service were merged on what date?
1915
In which year did the United States coast guard conduct the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following hurricane Katrina?
2005
Commands with at least _______ personnel assigned, must have trained the command financial specialist (CFS)
25
How many times has the national ensign been changed since 1776?
26
71. During Vietnam, how many Point Class patrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations?
26 82-foot patrol boats
In general physical activity sessions should be spread out over at least how many days per week?
3
The compliance tab in the CGBI is broken down into ________ categories, based on level of compliance.
3 categories -action required -/attention recommended -informational
How many actions are there in the Assess Hazards step in the RM process?
3- Assess hazard severity, assess hazard probability, complete risk assessment
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____________ minutes per week of strength training.
30 minutes (150 cardio / 30 strength / 180 total)
8. The Montgomery GI Bill-active duty provides up to _____ months of education benefits
36
How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?
5 ounces
22. Class "A" Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an "UNSAT" conduct while attending a Class "A" Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?
6 Months
88. The Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) consists of how many elements?
7 Elements: (1) Education and Training (2) Counseling (3) Information and Referral (4) Command Financial Specialist (CFS) Program (5) Outreach (6) Collaboration and Coordination (7) CG SUPRT Personal Financial Wellness Program
76. In 2010, United States Coast Guard reserves were activated in response to the Deepwater Horizon oil rig explosion that forcefully pumped oil and gasses into Gulf waters for_______ days.
87
According to the national Institute on alcohol abuse, and alcoholism, more than______ people die from alcohol related causes of the United States each year
95,000
The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by ________ during world war 1.
A German torpedo
11. In which of the following cases is Tuition Assistance authorized for?
Authorized for courses leading to the first certificate, Associate, Bachelor, and Master's degree
18. What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
ACE: Ask - Care - Escort
The _____ and ASVAB tests are different version of the same battery of tests.
AFCT
A medical professional must perform an analysis and diagnosis for potential _____upon commission of an alcohol incident or referral
AUD (alcohol use disorder)
Which is the most reliable way to avoid STD infection?
Abstinence
What is one type of listening for effective communication?
Active and reflective listening The 4 types of listening are: - Inactive - This is the kind of listening you want to avoid. It is inefficient and unproductive. "In one ear and out the other." - Selective - This kind of listening is probably the most common. It's when you hear what you want to hear. - Active - Listening is a conscious effort to listen for the complete message. - Reflective - Listening to the whole message and reflecting back on what was said. Reflective is used to clarify what is being said.)
Who is eligible for the office of work-life stress management program
Active duty and dependents, reservists, civilian employees
Addition elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to _______.
Address unique operational realities
12. One purpose of the ______ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication and the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard.
Advanced Education
Which personnel are required to develop personal fitness plans?
All Coast Guard active duty and selected reserve members
79. Transportation of a member's dependent would be authorized in a CG owned motor vehicle in which case?
An official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited and the employee is participating i an official capacity (transport with employee, from workplace to official function)
When was the United States coast guard transferred to department of transportation?
April 1967
19. During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
Ask
________ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention
Ask (ask-care-escort)
If you ask a person "are you thinking about killing yourself?" And they make a joke of the question, what should you do?
Ask the question again, letting the person know you are serious.
Individual units may only display those __________ that they have earned.
Battle Streamers
What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present?
Battle Streamers
The national Institute of mental health in NIMH offers, which it as an example of a way to manage stress?
Be observant, recognize signs of your body's response to stress ~i.e. difficult sleeping Talk to your healthcare provider or a health, professional, get proper healthcare/treatment Get regular exercise i.e. 30 minutes a day of walking Try, relaxing activity, i.e. meditation Set goals and priorities, "don't overload learn to say no" Stay connected quote keep in touch of people who can provide emotional support and practical help" Consider a clinical trial "volunteer for a research study"
30. Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?
Below is a list of possibilities. Contact your Regional Work-Life Office for specific contact information. a. Coast Guard Employee Assistance Program Coordinator at HSWL FO Work-Life: 1-800-872- 4957 b. The National Suicide Prevention Lifeline - a national hotline 24/7 suicide prevention service available to all who are seeking help: 1-800-273-TALK (8255) c. Employee Assistance Program 24/7 Phone Center - for phone counseling, setting up face-to-face counseling, and obtaining other services: 1-800-222-0364 d. See http://www.uscg.mil/worklife/suicide_prevention.asp fo r a listing of helpful national web sites and other 24/7 hotlines. e. Local Coast Guard Medical Clinic f. Healthcare Provider g. Unit Independent Duty Health Services Technician h. Hospital emergency room i. Coast Guard Chaplain
21. Which information can be found in the bottom section of the payslip?
Bottom Section: All current and year to date (YTD) wages and taxes are shown that appear on a W2. A summary of lea is also shown and the Net Pay Distribution section shows Direct Deposit info and the amount that was actually deposited into your account.
39. Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?
Bravo - NORMAL - when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture - ALPHA - when there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity directed against units and personnel, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable, and the circumstances do not justify full implementation of the measures of FPCON BRAVO - BRAVO - when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists - CHARLIE - when an incident occurs or when intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action against units and personnel is imminent - DELTA - the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location is likely. - RANDOM ANTITERRORIST MEASURES (RAM'S) - the implementation of multiple security measures in a totally random fashion.
77. DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?
Bronze Star Medal (with combat "V»)
Which coast guard officer was awarded the navy cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had been in prisoners since d-day?
CAPT Quentin R. Walsh
Who was the first commandant of the United States coast guard?
CAPTAIN COMMADANT ELLSWORTH PRICE BERTHOLF
3. Which directive provides specific guidance on the Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program?
COMDTINST 1540.10 - COAST GUARD VOLUNTARY CREDENTIALING PROGRAM (VCP)
Personnel convicted of a serious moving violation while operating a GMV, must ______.
COMPLETE A DRIVER IMPROVEMENT COURSE
Only government employees that possess a _______ state, territorial or District of Columbia driver license are permitted to operate a motor vehicle.
CURRENT AND UNRESTRICTED
25. You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?
Care
During the _______ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.
Care
During which step of suicide prevention is active listening?
Care
During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?
Care
During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?
Care
81. The___________ is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizure of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S. laws.
Coast Guard Ensign
The ________ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters.
Coast Guard Ensign
The ________ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings.
Coast Guard Seal
The ________ is used on official documents and records of the coast guard.
Coast Guard Seal
Battle streamers are attached to the _________ replacing cords and tassels.
Coast Guard Standard
The ________ is the upper left corner of the coast guard ensign.
Coast Guard Standard
This flag is used during parades and ceremonies.
Coast Guard Standard
On 01 august 1799, secretary, Oliver Walcott, issued an order specifying the design of the _______.
Coast guard ensign
The ________ provided a symbol of authority on revenue cutters, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.
Coast guard ensign
The design of the ________ is obscure, but it may have evolved from and early jack.
Coast guard standard.
The pretense of _______ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.
Coast guards commissioning pennant
When in uniform at a parade, if the flag passes you, you shall_______.
Come to attention, face the flag, and salute
When in civilian attire at a parade, when the flag passes you shall_________.
Come to attention, remove hat if wearing one, place right hand over heart
Chi behaviors for low risk alcohol use include what model?
Commandant CG - 1111 include the zero, one, two, three model.
78. Who served as a boarding officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Irag when he was mortally wounded?
DC3 Nathan B. Bruckenthal
What would be the cause to report a self harm level three in the suicide prevention program?
Death
Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?
E3.1.1. Wear a uniform or use any Government property or facilities while participating.
Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?
E3.1.2. Allow such participation to interfere with or prejudice the member's performance of military duties
17. What dependent information in the payslip is important for eligibility to receive benefits?
Dependents' date of births
What information is found in the net pay distribution block of the payslip?
Direct Deposit info and the amount that was actually deposited into your account
27. Which stress management term is defined as "Bad" stress?
Distress: "Bad" stress, perceived as negative and associated with a sense of loss of control.
Who was awarded the Medal of Honor for evacuating a battalion of marines trapped by Japanese forces on September 27, 1942?
Douglas Munro
Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the armed forces?
E3.1.3. Engage in conduct that in any way may reasonably imply that the Military Department concerned or any component of such Department has taken an official position on, or is otherwise involved in, the local political campaign or issue
Which of the following would be an authorized political activity for a member of the armed forces?
E3.2.1. Give full time and attention to the performance of military duties during prescribed duty hours.
Which of the following would be an authorized political activity for a member of the armed forces?
E3.2.2. Avoid any outside activities that may be prejudicial to the performance of military duties or likely to bring discredit upon the Armed Forces. E3.2.3. Refrain from participating in any political activity while in military uniform, as proscribed by Reference (c), or using Government facilities or resources for furthering political activities.
7. Under the Post-9/11 GI Bill, a Veteran enrolled at more than one-half time can qualify for a monthly housing allowance based on DoD's Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) rate for an ____ with dependents.
E5
14. Who acts as subject matter expert to assist Coast Guard members with voluntary education programs?
ESO The Education Services Officer (ESO) is a key player in providing educational resources and assisting members in making critical decisions. Assisting members to continue their education provides the ladder for educational progress throughout their career. To "Honor Our Profession", we emphasize education, training, and professional growth for the workforce. Education and training are essential to enable USC personnel to meet the demands of the future. The commitment of the ESO can make or break the unit's education program. A dedicated ESO can instill motivation in those seeking assistance.
1. Where should Coast Guard voluntary education services inquiries related to tuition assistance be sent to
[email protected] - The SMB
Who was the coast guards first aviator?
Elmer Stone
The services provided by the ______ are available for professional assistance with stress management.
Employee Assistance Program Coordinator (EAPC)
26. Where are "A" school rating requirements listed?
Enclosure (3) to COMDTINST M1500.10C
Onboard ship salutes shall be dispensed with after the first daily meeting with what exception?
Except for those rendered to the commanding officer and officers senior to the commanding officer, to visiting officers, to officers making inspections, and to officers when addressing or being addressed by them
The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify, or warrant, the _________
Expected risk exposure.
What are the common barriers to effective communication?
External barriers: -physical / distance -ambient noise -distracting movement -language (dialect, accent) Perpetual Barriers: -past experience - can lead to assuming intentions or behaviors of individuals. -stereotypes - making large sweeping generalizations with different groups of people. -emotional blocking - fear or worry can cloud the thought process. -social status - people treat each other based on economic conditions.
Which FPCON requires that the implemented security measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely?
FPCON Alpha - NORMAL - when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture - ALPHA - when there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity directed against units and personnel, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable, and the circumstances do not justify full implementation of the measures of FPCON BRAVO - BRAVO - when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists - CHARLIE - when an incident occurs or when intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action against units and personnel is imminent - DELTA - the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location is likely. - RANDOM ANTITERRORIST MEASURES (RAM'S) - the implementation of multiple security measures in a totally random fashion.
Which FPCON requires the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?
FPCON Bravo - NORMAL - when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture - ALPHA - when there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity directed against units and personnel, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable, and the circumstances do not justify full implementation of the measures of FPCON BRAVO - BRAVO - when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists - CHARLIE - when an incident occurs or when intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action against units and personnel is imminent - DELTA - the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location is likely. - RANDOM ANTITERRORIST MEASURES (RAM'S) - the implementation of multiple security measures in a totally random fashion.
Which FPCON requires weapons to be issued to guards?
FPCON Charlie - NORMAL - when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture - ALPHA - when there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity directed against units and personnel, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable, and the circumstances do not justify full implementation of the measures of FPCON BRAVO - BRAVO - when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists - CHARLIE - when an incident occurs or when intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action against units and personnel is imminent - DELTA - the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location is likely. - RANDOM ANTITERRORIST MEASURES (RAM'S) - the implementation of multiple security measures in a totally random fashion.
10. Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior? IS PATH WARM?
I IDEATION S SUBSTANCE USE P PURPOSELESSNESS A ANXIETY T TRAPPED H HOPELESSNESS W WITHDRAWAL A ANGER R RECKLESSNESS M MOOD CHANGES
11. Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior? IS PATH WARM?
I IDEATION S SUBSTANCE USE P PURPOSELESSNESS A ANXIETY T TRAPPED H HOPELESSNESS W WITHDRAWAL A ANGER R RECKLESSNESS M MOOD CHANGES
12. Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior? IS PATH WARM?
I IDEATION S SUBSTANCE USE P PURPOSELESSNESS A ANXIETY T TRAPPED H HOPELESSNESS W WITHDRAWAL A ANGER R RECKLESSNESS M MOOD CHANGES
13. Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior? IS PATH WARM?
I IDEATION S SUBSTANCE USE P PURPOSELESSNESS A ANXIETY T TRAPPED H HOPELESSNESS W WITHDRAWAL A ANGER R RECKLESSNESS M MOOD CHANGES
15. Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior? IS PATH WARM?
I IDEATION S SUBSTANCE USE P PURPOSELESSNESS A ANXIETY T TRAPPED H HOPELESSNESS W WITHDRAWAL A ANGER R RECKLESSNESS M MOOD CHANGES
4. Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior? IS PATH WARM?
I IDEATION S SUBSTANCE USE P PURPOSELESSNESS A ANXIETY T TRAPPED H HOPELESSNESS W WITHDRAWAL A ANGER R RECKLESSNESS M MOOD CHANGES
7. Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior? IS PATH WARM?
I IDEATION S SUBSTANCE USE P PURPOSELESSNESS A ANXIETY T TRAPPED H HOPELESSNESS W WITHDRAWAL A ANGER R RECKLESSNESS M MOOD CHANGES
8. What is a mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior? IS PATH WARM?
I IDEATION S SUBSTANCE USE P PURPOSELESSNESS A ANXIETY T TRAPPED H HOPELESSNESS W WITHDRAWAL A ANGER R RECKLESSNESS M MOOD CHANGES
9. Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior? IS PATH WARM?
I IDEATION S SUBSTANCE USE P PURPOSELESSNESS A ANXIETY T TRAPPED H HOPELESSNESS W WITHDRAWAL A ANGER R RECKLESSNESS M MOOD CHANGES
6. Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated wi suicidal behavior?
IS PATH WARM I IDEATION S SUBSTANCE USE P PURPOSELESSNESS A ANXIETY T TRAPPED H HOPELESSNESS W WITHDRAWAL A ANGER R RECKLESSNESS M MOOD CHANGES
23. Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?
IV - Investigator Rating DV - Diver Rating
Which grooming standard applies to mustaches?
If worn, a moustache must be neatly groomed. · For the purpose of uniformity, Ceremonial Honor Guard members, Coast Guard Academy Cadets, Officer Candidates, and Coast Guard Training Center Cape May recruits will be clean-shaven. · Will not extend below the top of the upper lip or beyond the corners of the mouth
Which form of birth control is included in tier 1 for effectiveness?
Implant Vasectomy Tubal Occlusion IUD
When was your completed personal fitness plan to be submitted?
In April and October
Deliberate use of the risk management process________ by reducing member exposure to hazards.
Increase mission success
2. Registrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?
JST, CST, ACE - Degree Reporting, Joint Service Transcript
During World War II, which coast guard officer led a 16 member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in cheebourg, France?
Lieutenant commander (later captain) Quentin R. Walsh
The recommendation for advancement portion on the evaluation report _______.
MAY NOT BE APPEALED TO AN APPEAL AUTHORITY
78. Which of the following would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle?
Official Purposes: - Ceremonies (public, military, parades directly relating to official activities; military/civilian personnel officially participating) - Non-CG Employees in Official Capacity (if no additional cost is incurred by the Government) - Spouse and Dependents with Member (for official function in which member is officially participating) - Military Recruits (interviewing, processing and orientation) - Official Travel
Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a ________ level of intensity.
Medium to vigorous
The most current personal fitness plan must be kept on file or Lawtonka saved by_____ hey.
Member and supervisor
In which section of your pay-slip can you validate whether or not you are receiving the correct pay and/or allowances?
Middle section(under earnings)
48. According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level intensity?
Moderate-intensity
76. When are CG owned motor vehicles authorized to transport spouses and dependents?
Motor vehicles are authorized to transport an employee, spouse and dependents together from the workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited and the employee is participating in an official capacity.
Which FPCON applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but is warrants only routine security posture?
NORMAL - NORMAL - when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture - ALPHA - when there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity directed against units and personnel, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable, and the circumstances do not justify full implementation of the measures of FPCON BRAVO - BRAVO - when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists - CHARLIE - when an incident occurs or when intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action against units and personnel is imminent - DELTA - the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location is likely. - RANDOM ANTITERRORIST MEASURES (RAM'S) - the implementation of multiple security measures in a totally random fashion.
Which example would constitute unauthorized use of prescription drug?
No current prescription (within six months) or verified medical use explanation for a drug(s) that would account for the positive urinalysis result. Unauthorized use results in a drug incident finding
What model outlines potential strategies to mitigate and or control risk
STAAR
Your analysis is the procedure employed to obtain urine samples under controlled conditions, maintaining a chain of custody on each sample, and______.
Scientifically analyzing the samples to detect the presence of drugs.
The revenue cutter service began with _________ cutters at a cost of 1000$ each.
Ten
4. Where are tuition assistance waivers submitted for final review?
The ESO will forward the waiver package to ETQC for final review and approval.
96. Which of the functions is the evaluce's responsibility within the BES?
The evaluee must perform the following functions: a. Familiarization. Must become thoroughly familiar with the Instructions, competencies, and standards of the EES and understand rating chain expectations. b. Performance. Obtain sufficient feedback or counseling and using that information in adjusting, as necessary, to meet or exceed the standards. c. Evaluation Input. Provide a list of significant accomplishments, if required by the rating chain, to the rating chain not later than 14 days prior to the end of the marking period. d. Acknowledgement. Sign the member's signature block of the counseling sheet and retain this form as a receipt to indicate acknowledgment of: The counseling and review of their evaluation report; The impact of their evaluation report on their Good Conduct eligibility; The appeal time frame; and Their advancement potential and recommendation. e. Verification. Verifying through Direct Access self-service that their EER was properly recorded.
97. Which of the functions is the evaluce's responsibility within the BES?
The evaluee must perform the following functions: a. Familiarization. Must become thoroughly familiar with the Instructions, competencies, and standards of the EES and understand rating chain expectations. b. Performance. Obtain sufficient feedback or counseling and using that information in adjusting, as necessary, to meet or exceed the standards. c. Evaluation Input. Provide a list of significant accomplishments, if required by the rating chain, to the rating chain not later than 14 days prior to the end of the marking period. d. Acknowledgement. Sign the member's signature block of the counseling sheet and retain this form as a receipt to indicate acknowledgment of: The counseling and review of their evaluation report; The impact of their evaluation report on their Good Conduct eligibility; The appeal time frame; and Their advancement potential and recommendation. e. Verification. Verifying through Direct Access self-service that their EER was properly recorded.
Stress is defined within the Coast Guard stress management program as:
The nonspecific response of the body to any demands placed upon it, or what you feel after you encounter a stressor.
What is considered substance abuse?
The use of alcohol, prescription drugs, illicit drugs, over-the-counter compounds, or any substance that is used to change mood or induce a "high" that causes cognitive, behavioral or physiological impairment problems.
100. Which of the following is a factor type of performance within the EES?
There are four major categories of performance which are referred to as "factors": - Military. Measures a member's ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions. - Performance. Measures a member's willingness to acquire knowledge and the ability to use knowledge, skill, and direction to accomplish work. - Professional Qualities. Measures those qualities the Coast Guard values in its people. - Leadership. Measures a member's ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work.
99. Which of the following is a factor type of performance within the BES?
There are four major categories of performance which are referred to as "factors": - Military. Measures a member's ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions. - Performance. Measures a member's willingness to acquire knowledge and the ability to use knowledge, skill, and direction to accomplish work. - Professional Qualities. Measures those qualities the Coast Guard values in its people. - Leadership. Measures a member's ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work.
STDs can be passed from one person to another__________, though this is not very common.
Through intimate physical contact like heavy petting
All members of the armed forces of the United States are expected to measure up to the standards embodied in the code or conduct_______.
While in combat or in captivity
Captain of the port duties were assigned to the United States coast guard during with military conflict?
World war I
Who do you make a computer personal fitness going to?
Your supervisor
88. Which of the following would be the consequence of a drug incident?
a. Administrative Action. The command must process the military member for separation by reason of misconduct per Reference (b), Military Separations, COMDTINST M1000.4 (series), as appropriate. Cases requiring Administrative Discharge Boards because of the character of discharge contemplated or because the member has served eight or more total years, must also be processed per Military Separations, COMDTINST M1000.4 (series), as appropriate. b. Disciplinary Action. Military members who commit drug offenses are subject to disciplinary action under the UCMJ in addition to any required administrative discharge action. c. Medical Treatment Eligibility. Military members who are identified as drug-dependent or diagnosed with a "drug use disorder-severe," must be offered treatment prior to discharge. Reference (a), Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual, COMDTINST M6320.5 (series), outlines substance abuse medical referrals, screenings, and action policy. If it is determined that treatment is needed and accepted, the member must be discharged from the Service upon completion. Members who are diagnosed as drug/chemical dependent but refuse treatment are required to sign an Administrative Remarks, Form CG-3307, entry acknowledging that they may waive the right to benefits for chemical dependency treatment under the Department of Veterans Affairs.
55. What is one responsibility of a Command Drug and Alcohol Representative (CDAR)?
a. Contact the SAPS within 24 hours of Commanding Officer notification of a potential substance-related issue b. Collaborate with the SAPS to provide administrative support to the command regarding prevention strategies and treatment options c. Collaborate with the SAPS to prepare the appropriate Administrative Remarks, Form CG-3307; d. Schedule and document required unit substance abuse prevention training, as needed, and in accordance with directions provided by SAPS e. Prepare and prominently display prevention awareness materials f. Collaborate with the SAPS to initiate substance abuse screenings, referrals, treatment, aftercare, and support plans. NOTE: Never diagnose or infer a diagnosis; failure to comply will result in removal from position and may lead to further administrative action g. Ensure that all documentation is complete before arranging treatment or training via the SAPS h. Keep the command informed of the status of members undergoing treatment, including expected date of completion and/or return, prognosis, and personal needs (e.g., pay, orders, etc.) i. Collaborate with the SAPS to develop support and aftercare plans j. Monitor mandatory pre-treatment and aftercare plans with the Commanding Officer k. Provide updates to the SAPS for all members who are: (1) Assigned an aftercare plan (2) Transferred or separated from service while in aftercare 1. Provide copies of all documentation to the receiving command when members on an aftercare plan are transferring m. Complete annual HIPAA training related to substance abuse patient records n. Provide Substance Abuse Prevention Training minimally one time per year, especially during "Alcohol Awareness Month" o. Enact and annually review with the unit "Seven Steps to an Effective Command Prevention Program"
54. Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?
a. Provide direction, oversight, and supervision of SAPSs; b. Advise commands on the availability of education, treatment, rehabilitation resources, and procedures to obtain them; c. Process all requests self, command, and incident referrals for alcohol/drug rehabilitation; d. Approve selection of the medical screening provider; e. Oversee implementation and maintenance of support and aftercare plans; f. Liaison with unit commanding officers, other military services, state and federal programs, and local civilian treatment facilities, as appropriate; g. Establish, track, and maintain Personnel Qualification Standards (PQS) for SAPS; h. Complete annual Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) training related to substance abuse patient records; i. Ensure SAPSs complete annual HIPAA training; j. Participate in Headquarters-sponsored teleconferences, meetings, and workgroups related to the SAP Program; k. Assign each SAPS an area of responsibility (District) with oversight for CDARs assigned to that area of responsibility (AOR); 1. Supervise field operation of the electronic data collection system as designated by Commandant (CG-1111); m. Provide quality assurance standards and oversight to the SAPS to include accurate and timely documentation of cases in the electronic data collection system; n. Oversee SAPSs compliance with all applicable policies and procedures and related competencies; o. Establish and maintain collaborative and effective communication pathways with the SAPM, SAPS, and other field components; p. Inform the SAPM of all issues affecting program implementation and/or effectiveness that require Commandant (CG-1111) visibility, guidance, and/or intervention; q. Produce reports for Commandant (CG-1111), as directed; and r. Advocate for the needs of the SAPS and the SAP Program.
95. What is a purpose of the EES?
a. To set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of all enlisted members. b. To inform enlisted members of the performance standards they will be measured against. c. To provide a means by which enlisted members can receive feedback on how well they are measuring up to the standards. d. To capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members' performance so the Coast Guard may advance and assign members with a high degree of confidence. e. To provide the Coast Guard with a tool to support a wide variety of human resource decisions including discharges, reenlistments, conduct determination, advancement eligibility, assignments and reductions in rate. f. To provide members of boards and panels with the necessary information to make selections and decisions based on enlisted members observed performance and potential.
Only ________ may display a complete set of battle streamers.
major headquarters commands
5O. Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve_________
the acceptance of some level of risk.
A new period of eligibility for the good conduct award begins _________.
the day after the effective date of the EER in which an unsatisfactory conduct mark was awarded.
Boat characteristics include which two types of frames?
transverse and longitudinal
Members with a PFB waiver will trim facial hair as to not to exceed what length?
¼ inch