Terry Reynolds First 1-250

.A maneuver that will result in tachycardia and a transient decrease in blood pressure is: A. Inhalation of amyl nitrate B. Squatting C. Standing to supine D. Straight leg raising

A

3) Left ventricular wall segements that are usually visualized in the apical fourchamber view include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Anterior wall of the left ventricle B. Apex C. Interventricular septumza D. Lateral wall of left ventricle

A

7) All of the following are considered atrioventricular valves EXCEPT: A. Aortic B. Mitral C. Bicuspid D. Tricuspid

A

Congestive heart failure in a patient with significant mitral regurgitation occurs because of increased pressure in the: A. Left atrium B. Right atrium C. Right ventricle D. Aorta

A

Excellent two-dimensional views for imaging the tricuspid valve include all the following EXCEPT: A. Parasternal long-axis view B. Parasternal short-axis view of the aortic valve C. Apical four-chamber view D. Subcostal four-chamber view

A

On M-mode, the abrupt downward motion of the pulmonary valve leaflet following atrial contraction is called the: A. "a" dip B. "b" dip C. "c" dip D. "d" dip

A

Possible pharmacologic treatments for hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy include: A. Propanolol B. Epinephrine C. Dobutamine D. Lasix

A

The Chiari network is found in the: A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Left ventricle

A

The Doppler control that eliminates low-level frequency shifts is: A. Filter B. Gain C. Output power D. Sample volume length

A

The E-F slope of the M-mode of the anterior mitral valve leaflet in mitral valve stenosis is: A. Decreased B. Increased C. Notched D. Unaffected

A

The Eustachian valve is found in the: A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Left ventricle

A

The anterior mitral valve leaflet E-F slope is decreased in: A. Left atrial myxoma B. Left ventricular volume overload C. Mitral valve prolapse D. Mitral valve vegetation

A

The control labeled Doppler sample volume depth: A. Sets the range gate location for pulsed-wave Doppler B. Does not affect the pulse repetition frequency C. Does not affect the maximum velocity that can be displayed without signal aliasing D. Is useful in continuous-wave Doppler

A

The control that sets the upper limit to which ultrasound information will be processed and displayed is: A. Depth B. Far gain C. Overall gain D. Reject

A

The control used when information from a precise point in the cardiac cycle is required is the: A. Electrocardiogram trigger B. Overall gain C. Reject D. Time gain compensation

A

The coronary artery that predominantly supplies blood to the right ventricle is the: A. Acute marginal branch B. Anterior descending coronary artery C. Circumflex coronary artery D. Left main coronary artery

A

The ellipsoid single-plane method for determining left ventricular volumes by two-dimensional echocardiography is also called: A. Area-length method B. Bullet method C. Length-diameter method D. Simpson's rule

A

The normal left atrium to right atrium ratio is: A. 1:1 B. 1.3:1 C. 2:1 D. 3:1

A

The normal range for the interventricular septum and the posterior wall of the left ventricle at end-diastole by M-mode is: A. 6 to 11 mm B. 6 to 11 cm C. 0.6 to .011 mm D. 60 to 110 mm

A

The normal volume of clear serous fluid in the pericardial sac is: A. 20 to 50 cc B. 20 to 50 L C. 200 to 500 cc D. 200 to 500 L

A

The preferred transducer frequency for imaging a barrel-chested patient is: A. 2.5 MHz B. 3.5 MHz C. 5.0 MHz D. 7.0 MHz

A

The pressure obtained by a pulmonary artery wedge reflects the pressure in the: E. Left atrium F. Pulmonary artery G. Right atrium H. Right ventricle

A

The recommended method for determining left ventricular volumes by twodimensional echocardiography is: A. Method of discs B. Single plane area-length C. Bullet method D. Prolate ellipse method

A

The section of the aorta that is located between the diaphragm and the iliac arteries is called the: A. Abdominal aorta B. Aortic isthmus C. Descending thoracic aorta D. Transverse aorta

A

The volume or pressure that exists in the ventricle at end-diastole is called: A. Preload B. Afterload C. No-load D. Sumload

A

.Amplification of received signals is controlled by: A. Output power B. Overall gain C. Pulser power D. Transmit power

B

A maneuver that will increase venous return is: A. Supine to standing B. Standing to walking C. Valsalva maneuver D. Quiet expiration

B

A quantitative measure of left ventricular systolic wall thickening is: A. DT - ST ÷ DT B. ST - DT ÷ DT x 100 C. DT + ST D. DT + ST ÷ DT

B

In general, and outside certain disease states, the greater the stretch of the muscle cell, the greater the force of contraction. This principle is called: A. Frank's law of the heart B. Frank-Starling law of the heart C. Force-velocity relationship D. Interval-length relationship

B

In patients with mitral regurgitation, cardiac catheterization measurements include all the following EXCEPT: A. Left ventricular systolic/diastolic pressure B. Mitral valve area C. Pulmonary artery pressures D. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

B

Structures of the mitral valve apparatus include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Mitral annulus B. Sinuses of Valsalva C. Left ventricular walls D. Papillary muscles

B

The E-F slope of the M-mode of the anterior mitral valve leaflet reflects the: A. Opening rate of the anterior mitral valve leaflet B. Rate of diastolic filling of the left ventricle C. Rate of left atrial emptying during diastasis D. Rate of systolic filling of the left ventricle

B

The __________ mitral valve leaflet is continuous with the _________ aortic root, while the _____________ is continuous with the __________ aortic root. A. Anterior, anterior, posterior mitral valve leaflet, posterior B. Anterior, posterior, interventricular septum, anterior C. Posterior, anterior, interventricular septum, posterior D. Posterior, posterior, anterior mitral valve leafleft, anterior

B

The anatomic landmark that demarcates the end section of the descending thoracic aorta and the beginning of the abdominal aorta is the: A. Aortic isthmus B. Diaphragm C. Ligamentum arteriosum D. Renal arteries

B

The coronary artery that has a branch called the circumflex artery is the: A. Left anterior descending coronary artery B. Left coronary artery C. Posterior descending coronary artery D. Right coronary artery

B

The effect inspiration has on venous return to the right atrium is: A. Decrease B. Increase C. Depends on the depth of inspiration D. No effect

B

The formula used for calculating stroke volume is: A. EDV + ESV B. EDV - ESV C. ESV - EDV D. (EDV - ESV) ÷ EDV

B

The geometric shape of the right ventricle is: A. Prolate ellipse B. Pyramid C. Rectangle D. Circle

B

The gold-standard two-dimensional echocardiographic view for diagnosing mitral valve prolapsed is the: A. Apical four-chamber view B. Parasternal long-axis view C. Parasternal short-axis view of the mitral valve D. Subcostal four-chamber

B

The left atrial cardiac catheterization pressure tracing in a patient with significant mitral regurgitation may demonstrate an increase in the: A. "a" wave B. "v" wave C. "x" wave D. "y" wave

B

The left atrial dimension is measured on M-mode during: A. Systole B. End-systole C. Diastole D. End-diastole

B

The mean velocity of circumferential fiber shortening (Vcfm) may be calculated by: A. EDD - ESD ÷ EDD B. EDD - ESD ÷ LVET x EDD C. EDV - ESV D. EDV - ESV ÷ EDV

B

The mitral valve M-mode points that denote the beginning and the end of diastole are: A. C to D B. D to C C. D to E D. E to F

B

The moderator band is found in the: A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Left ventricle

B

The most common location for beginning the adult echocardiographic examination is: A. Apical B. Left parasternal C. Right parasternal D. Subcostal

B

The normal fetal vascular channel that connects the descending thoracic aorta and the main pulmonary artery is the: A. Dustus venosus B. Ductus arteriosus C. Ligamentum venosus D. Ligamentum arteriosum

B

The pulmonic valve leadlet most commonly recorded by M-mode is the: A. Anterior B. Left C. Septal D. Right

B

The resistance to ejection of blood encountered by the contracting ventricle is called: A. Preload B. Afterload C. No-load D. Sumload

B

The three basic planes of a complete two-dimensional echocardiographic examination are: A. Long-axis, diagonal-axis, four-chamber B. Long-axis, short-axis, four-chamber C. Long-axis, short-axis, subcostal D. Long-axis, short-axis, two-chamber

B

The two-dimensional echocardiographic view that best visualizes the proximal segments of the coronary arteries is the: A. Parasternal long-axis view of the left ventricle B. Parasternal short-axis view of the aortic valve C. Parasternal short-axis view of the left ventricle of papillary muscles D. Subcostal four-chamber view

B

The two-dimensional view that may be used to directly visualize a patent ductus arteriosus is the: A. Parasternal long-axis view of the left ventricle B. Parasternal short-axis view at the base C. Apical five-chamber view D. Subcostal four-chamber view

B

When attempting to determine whether an inlet ventricular septal defect from the apical four-chamber view is present, the echocardiographer should tilt the probe: A. Anteriorly B. Posteriorly C. Medially D. Laterally

B

.A bright horizontal echo that gives the edge of an atrial or ventricular septal defect a broadened appearance is referred to as the: A. A sign B. Fo sign C. T sign D. W sig

C

2) Wall segments that are visualized in the parasternal short-axis view of the left ventricle at the level of the papillary muscles include all the following EXCEPT: A. Anterior septum B. Anterior wall C. Antero-inferior wall D. Antero-lateral wal

C

4) Wall segments and structures that may be visualized in the apical twochamber view include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Anterior wall of the left ventricle B. Coronary sinus C. Free wall of the right ventricle D. Inferior wall of the left ventricle

C

5) The boundaries of the functional left ventricular outflow tract are best described as extending from the: A. Anterior aortic valve annulus to the posterior aortic valve annulus B. Anteromedial position of the tricuspid valve annulus to the pulmonic valve annulus C. Free edge of the anterior mitral valve leaflet to the aortic valve annulus D. Tips of the left ventricular papillary muscles to the edge of the anterior mitral valve leaflet

C

A heart sound associated with significant chronic pure mitral regurgitation is: A. Loud S1 B. Fixed split S2 C. S3 D. S4

C

A maneuver that increases the obstruction in patients with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is: A. Leg raising B. Standing to supine C. Valsalva D. Inspiration

C

A maneuver that results in an acute increase in blood pressure is: A. Inhalation of amyl nitrate B. Supine to standing C. Isometric handgrip D. Inspiration

C

A maneuver that will increase venous return is: A. Expiration B. Squatting to standing C. Straight leg raising D. Supine to standing

C

A method used to compensate for the attenuation of signals as a function of time/depth along the ultrasound beam is: A. Overall gain B. Pulser power C. Time gain compensation D. Transmit power

C

A potential space behind the left atrium where pericardial effusion could accumulate is the: A. Sinus of Valsalva B. Pleural potential space C. Oblique sinus D. Coronary sinus

C

All of the following are names for pulmonic valve leaflets EXCEPT: A. Anterior B. Left C. Non-coronary D. Posterior

C

Diastolic mitral regurgitation is associated with: A. Flail mitral valve B. Mitral valve prolapse C. Severe aortic insufficiency D. Severe tricuspid regurgitation

C

Possible complications of chronic mitral regurgitation include all the following EXCEPT: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Congestive heart failure C. Increased risk of sudden death D. Pulmonary hypertension

C

The best two-dimensional view for determining mitral valve area is the: A. Apical four-chamber view B. Parasternal long-axis view C. Parasternal short-axis view D. Subcostal four-chamber view

C

The correct order for the branches of the aortic arch is: A. Left subclavian, right subclavian, left common carotid B. Right brachiocephalic, left brachiocephalic, left common carotid C. Right brachiocephalic, left common carotid, left subclavian D. Sinus of Valsalva, right innominate, left innominate

C

The echocardiographic examination that would be the first choice to delineate a suspected left atrial clot is: A. Stress echocardiogram B. Intracardiac echocardiogram C. Transesophageal echocardiogram D. Transthoracic echocardiogram

C

The hump or break occasionally seen on the M-mode of the mitral valve between the E and F points is designated: A. B notch B. f wave C. Fo D. h wave

C

The imaginary boundaries that define the mid-left ventricle are the: A. Mitral annulus to the tip of the papillary muscles B. Base of the papillary muscles to the cardiac apex C. Tip of the papillary muscles to the base of the papillary muscles D. Aortic annulus to the edge of the mitral valve

C

The method that would best allow visualization of shunt flow across an atrial septal defect is: A. M-mode echocardiography B. Two-dimensional echocardiography C. Contrast echocardiography D. Stress echocardiography

C

The normal mitral valve area is: A. 1 to 3 cm2 B. 3 to 5 cm2 C. 4 to 6 cm2 D. 7 to 9 cm2

C

The point at which the descending aorta and the aortic arch join is called the aortic: A. Bifurcation B. Bulb C. Isthmus D. Sinus

C

The smallest vegetation that transthoracic two-dimensional echocardiography can detect is: A. 1 mm B. 2 mm C. 3 mm D. 4 mm

C

The thickest layer of an aterial wall is the tunica: A. Adventitia B. Intima C. Media D. VasorumC

C

The two-dimensional echocardiographic views used to determine whether truncus arteriosus is present are the parasternal long-axis view and the: A. Apical five-chamber view B. Parasternal right ventricular inflow tract view C. Parasternal short-axis view of the aortic valve D. Parasternal short-axis view of the left ventricle

C

When attempting to determine the presence of a perimembranous ventricular septal defect in the parasternal long-axis view, the echocardiographer should tilt the probe: A. Anteriorly B. Posteriorly C. Medially D. Laterally

C

.The method used most often for calculating ejection fraction by M-mode echocardiography is: A. Ellipsoid biplane method B. Simpson's method of discs C. Single-plane area-length method D. Teichholtz regression

D

1) The parasternal long-axis view allows identification of all the following wall segments EXCEPT: A. Basal and mid-interventricular septum B. Basal and mid-posterior wall of the left ventricle C. Infero-lateral wall of the left ventricle D. Left ventricular apex

D

6) The landmarks used to identify the anatomic and functional right ventricular outflow tract are the: A. Anterior mitral valve leaflet to the left edge of the interventricular septum B. Aortic valve annulus to the tricuspid valve annulus C. Tricuspid valve annulus to the aortic valve annulus D. Tricuspid valve annulus to the pulmonary valve annulus

D

A maneuver that results in a decrease in venous return is: A. Inspiration B. Squatting C. Straight leg raising D. Valsalva

D

A pressure overload of the right ventricle may produce all the following echocardiographic findings EXCEPT: A. D-shaped left ventricle B. Right ventricular dilatation C. Right ventricular hypertrophy D. Small, protected right ventricle

D

A right ventricle volume overload pattern is associated with all the following echocardiographic findings EXCEPT: A. Abnormal interventricular septal motion B. Dilatation of the right ventricle C. Pancaking of the interventricular septum during ventricular diastole D. Pancaking of the interventricular septum during ventricular systole

D

A saline contrast injection to rule out atrial septal defect is performed. Contrast appears in the left atrium 4 to 8 cycles after the appearance of contrast in the right atrium. The best explanation is: A. Left-to-right atrial septal defect shunt B. Right-to-left atrial septal defect shunt C. Left ventricle-to-right atrium shunt D. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula

D

All the following are considered pulmonary vessels EXCEPT: A. Main pulmonary artery B. Pulmonary capillaries C. Pulmonary veins D. Vena cava

D

All the following events are considered to occur in late diastole EXCEPT: A. A-dip of the pulmonic valve leaflet on M-mode B. A-point of the anterior mitral valve leaflet on M-mode C. A-point of the mitral valve Doppler waveform D. E-point of the anterior mitral valve leaflet on M-modeD

D

Failed fusion of the superior and inferior endocardial cushions is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: A. Partial atrioventricular canal defect B. Complete atrioventricular canal defect C. Isolated inlet ventricular septal defect D. Isolated supracristal ventricular septal defect

D

In standard imaging (M-mode and two-dimensional echocardiography), the control that determines the amount of electrical energy transmitted to the transducer from the pulser is: A. Overall gain B. Radiofrequency gain C. Time gain compensation D. Transmit power

D

Maneuvers that will increase the duration and severity of mitral valve prolapsed include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Inhalation of amyl nitrate B. Valsalva maneuver C. Supine to standing D. Squatting

D

Normal pressure values in millimeters of mercury for the listed cardiac chambers or great vessels include all the following EXCEPT: A. Right atrial pressure: 0 to 5 mean B. Right ventricle: 25 systolic, 0 to 5 diastolic C. Pulmonary artery: 25 systolic, 10 to 15 diastolic D. Left ventricle: 120 systolic, 80 diastolic

D

The control that selects the minimum signal amplitude to be displayed is: A. Depth B. Far gain C. Output power D. Reject

D

The coronary sinus can be differentiated from the descending thoracic aorta with pulsed-wave Doppler because coronary sinus flow is predominantly diastolic, while aortic flow is: A. Equiphasic B. Phasic C. Predominantly diastolic D. Predominantly systolic

D

The formula used to calculate ejection fraction is: A. EDD-ESD B. EDV-ESV C. EDD-ESD ÷EDD x 100 D. EDV-ESV ÷ EVD x 100

D

The percentage of blood pumped out of the heart per beat is called: A. Stroke volume B. Cardiac output C. Cardiac index D. Ejection fraction

D

The recommended maneuver to use when performing a transesophageal contrast examination in a patient with a possible patent foramen ovale is: A. Inhalation of amyl nitrate B. Squatting C. Supine to standing D. Valsalva maneuver

D

The three branches that normally originate from the aortic arch include all the following EXCEPT: A. Brachiocephalic artery B. Left common carotid artery C. Left subclavian artery D. Right subclavian artery

D

The top normal left ventricular internal dimension at end diastole in an adult by M-mode is: A. 16 mm B. 26 mm C. 36 mm D. 56 mm

D

The two-dimensional echocardiographic view that is the best approach for ruling out coarctation of the aorta is: A. Parasternal long-axis view B. Parasternal short-axis view of the aortic valve C. Subcostal five-chamber view D. Suprasternal long-axis view of the aortic arch

D

The two-dimensional echocardiographic view that permits examination of the aortic arch is: A. Parasternal long axis B. Apical two chamber C. Subcostal four chamber D. Suprasternal long axis

D

The upper limit of normal for the aortic root diameter in adults as measured by M-mode echocardiography ranges from: A. 1.3 to 2.4 cm B. 2.2 to 2.5 cm C. 25 to 32 mm D. 33 to 37 mm

D