Unit 4 Qbank, Microbiology

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All of the following are required for tooth decay except: A) Sucrose. B) Glucose. C) Capsule-forming bacteria. D) Acid-producing bacteria. E) None of the above.

- glucose

The causative agent of diphtheria is a virus, not a bacterium. The antibiotic would have no effect. T/F

False Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a pleomorphic, non-motile, non-spore forming G+ rod that is a lysogen.

New cases of tuberculosis are frequently the result of reactivation of old dormant infections. T/F

True

All of the following are true of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) except: A.Most destructive of the periodontal diseases B.Involves Treponema spirochete and other anaerobic bacteria C.Very communicable D.Associated with severe pain, bleeding, abscessed gums, and necrosis E.Due to poor oral hygiene, altered host defenses, or prior gum disease

C. Very communicable

Mycobacterium leprae is only grown in living cells. T/F

True

chapter quiz - second try

one wrong, noted, all rest correct.

"Rubella, rubeola, and varicella-zoster are all only acquired via the gastrointestinal route. blood transfusions. the respiratory route. wounds. arthropods, "

the respiratory route

With which of the following substrates can Streptococcus mutans make a capsule? a. Sucrose b. Xylitol c. Mannitol d. Glucose e. All of the above

- sucrose

In rabies, the virus multiplies in one kind of cell then binds to receptors in the spinal cord. neuromuscular region. brain. respiratory area. cerebrospinal fluid.

neuromuscular region.

After being bitten by an infected tick, transfer of the rickettsial organism occurs: A) within 5 minutes. B) within 20 minutes. C) within 4-10 hours. D) immediately. E) after 7 days.

- within 4-10 hours Transmitted by tick bite - 4-10 hours of feeding

Treatment of HIV attempts to -block reverse transcriptase activity -block attachment to host cells -block viral integrate -block viral protease activity -All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

What is true of leukocidins? - they bind to Fc regions of antibodies - they kill neutrophils - they are superantigens - they make holes in host cell membranes

- they kill neutrophils - First is protein A and protein G - last one is alpha-toxin

The toxin implicated in C. perfringens toxicity is: - tetanospasmin. - exoenzyme S. - alpha-toxin. - endoenzyme T.

-alpha-toxin slide 34 Releases α-toxin, an enzyme that destroys lecithin in host cell membranes, resulting in cell lysis

Vocab quiz - don't even know where some of these came from.

20/20

HIV typically attaches to: protein A. C3b. C5a. CD4.

CD4 CD4 cells - T helper cells, macrophages, dendritic cells - means they can be targeted by HIV.

Only females should receive the 9vHPV vaccine. T/F

False no cure but the symptoms can be treated - Gardasil 9 - boys and girls ages 9-12 - 2 doses and up to age 26 in women, 21 in men - 3 doses for age 15 and older..

Characteristic inclusion bodies formed by cells of organisms infected with rabies are called: A. Negri bodies. B. metachromatic bodies. C. polyphasic bodies. D. Koplik spots.

Negri bodies Koplik spots is measles (rubeola)

Which of the signs and symptoms of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is not typical of other diseases that manifest in a similar way? Muscle pain Fever Joint pain Headache Rash

Rash

CMV is a member of the herpes family of viruses and produces a latent infection. T or F

True, HHV5

A localized collection of pus in a wound is termed a(n) leukocyte. dead tissue. scab. abscess. granulation mound.

abscess.

Most colds are probably caused by varicella. S. aureus. Pseudomonas sp. E. coli. rhinovirus.

rhinovirus.

Sucrose is one of the major contributors to the development of dental caries. T/F

True

The poliomyelitis virus appears to selectively destroy autonomic nerve cells. mixed nerve cells. muscle cells. motor nerve cells. sensory nerve cells.

motor nerve cells

Which characteristic(s) is/are NOT common to C. tetani and C. perfringens?

got this right! further up i put it

Herpes simplex, like other ulcerating genital diseases,: promotes the spread of AIDS. inhibits the spread of AIDS. inhibits the growth of other viral disease. is easily cured with antibiotics.

promotes the spread of AIDS

Why is Legionella pneumophila detected using immunofluorescence? It stains poorly with conventional dyes. It is an acid-fast bacterium. It is Gram-non-reactive. It is a virus. It lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall.

It stains poorly with conventional dyes.

Viral gastroenteritis in infants and children is most commonly caused by: A. herpes. B. hepatitis B. C. Norwalk virus. D. rotavirus.

- Rotavirus p.648 - most cases of viral gastroenteritis in infants and children around the world are caused by rotaviruses.

Most cases of Salmonella gastroenteritis have a(n): A. water source. B. human source. C. plant source. D. animal source.

- animal source

A single exposure to HPV results in infection _______ of the time. A. 10% B. 30% C. 60% D. 100%

60% Not in my textbook...

How does F. tularensis avoid the immune system? By escaping from the macrophage phagolysosome AND by producing streptokinases. By having altered surface components AND by destroying lymphocytes. By synthesizing a large polysaccharide capsule AND by escaping the macrophage phagolysosome. By having altered surface components AND by escaping the macrophage phagolysosome. By synthesizing a large polysaccharide capsule AND by degrading complement component C3b.

By having altered surface components AND by escaping the macrophage phagolysosome. p.676 Correct

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent: A.Plague B.Tularemia C.Brucellosis D.Mononucleosis E.Endocarditis

C. Brucellosis

The bubo of bubonic plague is due to: A. septicemia resulting in disseminated intravascular coagulation and hemorrhaging B. fluid build-up from pneumonia C.erythrogenic toxin D. toxic shock syndrome toxin E. bacteria carried via lymph resulting in inflammation and necrosis of the lymph node

E. bacteria carried via lymph resulting in inflammation and necrosis of the lymph node

If a person infected with L. monocytogenes develops meningitis, which of the following signs and symptoms would they experience? Nausea and diarrhea Fever and muscle aches Headache, stiff neck, and vomiting Widespread tissue abscesses All of these

Headache, stiff neck, and vomiting

What is the target of anthrax protective antigen (PA), edema factor, and lethal factor? A. Endothelial cells lining the capillaries B. Cells lining the alveoli in the lungs C. Neurons D. Macrophages

Macrophages

Your brother asks whether he will be given penicillin for his infection. What do you tell him? No—G. lamblia is a virus. Yes—G. lamblia has a peptidoglycan cell wall. No—G. lamblia is a protozoan. Yes—G. lamblia has 70S ribosomes. No—G. lamblia has a protective LPS layer.

No—G. lamblia is a protozoan.

The scientist who developed a system of identifying the variety of strains of Streptococci was: - Hans Zimmer. - Donald Sutherland. - O. T. Avery. - Rebecca Lancefield. - Louis Pasteur.

Rebecca Lancefield

Which of the following is an obligate intracellular parasite? A) Micrococcus luteus B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Rickettsia rickettsii D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa E) Staphylococcus epidermidis

Rickettsia rickettsii Rickettsia rickettsii: tiny Gram-negative non-motile coccobacilli that are OBLIGATE INTRACELLULAR BACTERIA - Difficult to grow in culture.

Rat bite fever, characterized by fever, rash, and muscle aches, is caused by Bartonella henselae. Pasteurella multocida. Afipia felis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Streptobacillus moniliformis.

Streptobacillus moniliformis.

Which of the following is NOT true about diphtheroids? They are part of the normal microbiota of the skin. They are responsible for body odor. They include Malassezia species. They include Cutibacterium acnes. These are all true.

They include Malassezia species.

Toxoplasmosis

a parasite which is most commonly transmitted from animals to humans by contact with contaminated feces

A frequent complication of untreated gonorrhea in women is: pelvic inflammatory disease. syphilis. dysuria. vaginal discharge.

inflammatory pelvic disease p.741 - In women, the infection can progress upward through the reproductive tract, casing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) - N. gonorrhoeae is not motile so perhaps carried to fallopian tubes on swimmers.

An infection of the membranes covering the brain is called: A. encephalitis. B. meningitis. C. arachnitis. D. ventriculitis.

meningitis - inflammation of brain itself = encephalitis - if both meninges and brain are infected = meningoencephalitis.

The common name for tularemia is Bang's disease. rabbit fever. Hansen's disease. Chagas' disease.

rabbit fever. Tularemia is a zoonotic disease that occurs among wild animals. Winter months people get it from skinning rabbits. Also called deer fly fever - from bites of infected ticks and deer flies in summer. Can also contract tularemia from eating contaminated meat or from dust arising from mowing or from rodent-infested buildings.

The exotoxin produced by C. tetani is exotetanus. paraloxin. endospasmin. tetanospasmin. Tetanoxin.

tetanospasmin.

The polio viruses usually enter the body through: A. the oral route. B. contaminated blood. C. cuts in the skin. D. the respiratory route.

the oral route Poliovirus is transmitted by the fecal-oral route. It enters the body orally, infects cells that line the throat and intestinal tract, and then invades the bloodstream. Rarely does the virus enter the CNS (motor neurons).

The preferred host of Ixodes scapularis is the moose. wood rat. ground squirrel. white-footed mouse. human.

white-footed mouse.

The MMR vaccine is used to protect against measles, mange, and rubella. T/F

False MMR = Measles, Mumps, Rubella.

Borrelia burgdorferi is a microaerophilic spirochete. T/F

True

Muscles aid the flow of venous blood. T/F

True

The oily secretion that lubricates the hair follicles of the skin is acnus. eczema. suder. sebum. mucus

sebum

An important diagnostic sign of measles is Koplik's spots. giant cells. fever. swollen lymph nodes. red weepy eyes

. Koplik's spots

The cyclic bout of fever and chills in malaria are caused by: A.liver cell lysis B.white blood cell lysis C.red blood cell lysis D.neurological involvement E.None of the choices is correct

C. red blood cell lysis

Corneal implants have been implicated in a few cases of: A.botulism. B. trypanosomiasis. C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob. D. scrapie.

Creutzfeldt-Jakob prion disease, a type of Transmissible Spongiform Encephalophathy. Most cases occur as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). - occurs in people over 45, median age 28 - has been transmitted from human to human through corneal transplants, contaminated surgical instruments and injections of human hormone replacements.

In S. pyogenes, which of the following interferes with phagocytosis? Collagen Pilin Protein A M protein Peptidoglycan

M protein

Which of the signs and symptoms of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is not typical of other diseases that manifest in a similar way? A) Fever B) Rash C) Headache D) Joint pain E)Muscle pain

Rash RMSF rash starts on palms, soles and moves up extremities to the trunk. Opposite more other rashes.

The diarrhea of cholera has been described as a viscous fluid. small in volume. somewhat watery. dysentery. a rice water stool.

a rice water stool.

Both S. pneumoniae and K. pneumoniae use this as a virulence factor. A) Pili B) Flagella C) Capsules D) Cilia E) Toxins

capsule

The main vector(s) of Rocky Mountain spotted fever in the western United States is/are ________. mosquitoes AND ticks bats AND humans fleas AND mites humans ticks

ticks

The preferred host of Ixodes scapularis is the: A. wood rat. B. white-footed mouse. C. moose. D. human.

- white-footed mouse

The most common urinary tract infection is bacterial vaginosis. toxic shock syndrome. vulvovaginal candidiasis. bacterial cystitis. leptospirosis.

bacterial cystitis.

The antimicrobial aspect(s) of the skin is/are: A. dead layers. B. saltiness. C. acidity. D. antimicrobial peptides. E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

The secretions of the sweat and sebaceous glands provide ________ to the microbiota. water, amino acids, AND lipids sebum OR amino acids lipids AND amino acids water amino acids OR water

water, amino acids, AND lipids

The causative agent of Lyme disease is: A. Ixodes scapularis B.Bordetella pertussis C.Brucella melitensis D.Borrelia burgdorferi E.Aedes aegypti

D. Borrelia burgdorferi

Varicella is a member of the herpes family of viruses and produces a latent infection. T/F

True • Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) of herpesvirus family: enveloped, double-stranded DNA virus

The cavities inside the brain are termed: A. sinuses. B. ventricles. C. cavities. D. sulci.

ventricles - 4 ventricles, where cerebrospinal fluid is made, exits a base of brain and bathes brain/spinal cord CSF cushions and supports the brain and transports nutrients and other materials throughout the CNS.

In rare cases, the rubeola virus leads to rapid breathing, shortness of breath, and dusky skin color; these are signs and symptoms of viral pneumonia. strep throat. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. viral meningitis. otitis media.

viral pneumonia.

Of infectious diseases, pneumonia is a major killer in the general population. T/F

True

Plasmodium falciparum causes the most serious form of malaria. T/F

True

T/F: Diseases caused by fungi are called mycoses.

True

T/F: Of infectious diseases, pneumonia is a major killer in the general population.

True

The PPSV23 vaccine may protect against pneumococcal pneumonia, pneumococcal meningitis, and otitis media. True False

True

The mumps virus initially infects the respiratory tract. T/F

True

The most commonly identified waterborne illness in the United States is: A. amoebiasis. B. cryptosporidiosis. C. balantidiasis. D. giardiasis.

giardiasis.

Which characteristic(s) is/are not common to c. tetani and c. perfringens...

The reservoir of T. pallidum is the: guinea. pig. fox. bat. human.

human

The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is: A. Water and electrolyte replacement B. Antimicrobials C. Antitoxin D. Surgery E. None of the choices is correct

A. Water and electrolyte replacement

T/F: The MMR vaccine is used to protect against measles, mange, and rubella.

False

Which of the following viruses maintains a latent state in nerve cells? Rotavirus. Varicella zoster virus. Herpes simplex virus AND varicella zoster virus. Hepatitis A virus. Herpes simplex virus.

Herpes simplex virus AND varicella zoster virus.

"The varicella-zoster virus is a member of which virus family? Papillomaviridae Herpesviridae Retroviridae Paramyxoviridae Togaviridae, "

Herpesviridae

The varicella-zoster virus is a member of which virus family? A) Paramyxoviridae B) Herpesviridae C) Togaviridae D) Papillomaviridae E) Retroviridae

Herpesviridae

A common viral rash of childhood with the popular name chickenpox is also known as: A) bariola. B) rubella. C) rubeola. D) varicella-zoster. E) salmonella.

varicella-zoster. When/if it reactivates from latency as shingles it is then called herpes-zoster.

The natural host(s) for Borrelia burgdorferi is/are _________. A. mosquitoes B. birds C. ticks D. deer and field mice

deer and field mice - Ticks of the genus Ixodes transmit B. burgdorferi between hosts and are the only natural agents through which humans have been shown to become infected

Subacute bacterial endocarditis is usually caused by bacteria: - trapped in thin blood clots on a deformed heart valve and multiplying very rapidly. - trapped in thin blood clots on a deformed heart valve and multiplying slowly. - attaching to and colonizing the walls of the atria of the heart, multiplying very rapidly. - attaching to and colonizing the ventricles of the heart, multiplying slowly.

trapped in thin blood clots on a deformed heart valve and multiplying slowly. Slowly - subacute happens more gradually. Acute - happens rapidly.

All of the following infections can result from drinking contaminated water EXCEPT A) Cyclospora infection. B) giardiasis. C) trichinellosis. D) cholera. E) cryptosporidiosis

trichinellosis

Enlargement of lymph nodes or spleen is often associated with tularemia. brucellosis. plague. gastritis. tularemia, brucellosis AND plague.

tularemia, brucellosis AND plague. p.669 - plague - characteristically develop significantly enlarged and tender lymph nodes called BUBOES. p.675 - tularemia - regional lymph nodes enlarge p.676 - brucellosis - patients complain of mild fever, sweating, weakness, aches and pains, enlarged lymph nodes...

What are A/E lesions, produced by some strains of E. coli? Inflammatory patches caused by the attachment of the bacteria to the intestinal lining by small suction appendages. Appendages used by E. coli strains to avoid phagocytosis and enter M cells of the intestinal epithelium. Intestinal damage characterized by pedestals that form under bacterial cells as a result of induced actin rearrangement in the intestinal cell. Cytoplasmic extensions induced in intestinal epithelial cells by the injection of superantigens via type III secretion systems. Intestinal abscesses that form after the bacteria have entered M cells, destroying them and causing bloody diarrhea.

Intestinal damage characterized by pedestals that form under bacterial cells as a result of induced actin rearrangement in the intestinal cell.

Which of the following statements about Mycoplasma genitalium is not true?

It has a wide array of regulatory genes, many of which other bacteria lack. Has a tiny genome actually. p.744

Choose the one FALSE statement about Pseudomonas aeruginosa. It is a Gram-positive, spore-forming encapsulated rod. Some strains can grow in nutrient-poor environments, including distilled water. It secretes pigments that together produce a green color. Under certain circumstances, it can grow anaerobically. It is widespread in nature, commonly found in plants.

It is a Gram-positive, spore-forming encapsulated rod.

Which of the following drug(s) is(are) used to treat tuberculosis? - Isoniazid - Ethambutol - Pyrazinamide - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following is considered a function of skin? A) Regulation of body temperature B) Prevention of fluid loss C) Synthesis of vitamin D D) Production of cytokines E) All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct. A and B definitely, C I think so and at that point it has to be ALL.

Which of the following is prevented by the DTaP vaccine? - Diphtheria - Whooping cough - Tetanus - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct. D- diphtheria - toxoid T - Tetnus - toxoid aP - acellular (subunit) Pertussis

Adenoviruses - Prevention/Tx:

- As with colds, no specific tx for adenoviruses, most patients recover on their own - if secondary bacterial infections occur ->antibiotics - available is an orally given attenuated vaccine against 2 serotypes most likely to cause severe disease but only given to Military recruits

All of the following are eukaryotic organisms that cause diarrheal disease EXCEPT: A) Cryptosporidium. B) Cyclospora. C) Entamoeba. D) Giardia. E) Campylobacter

- Campylobacter Campylobacter is a spirally curved, Gram-negative rod that needs be grown under microaerophilic conditions.

A mysterious sequel to Campylobacter jejuni infections is: A. Reye's syndrome. B. Tourette's syndrome. C. Pasteur's syndrome. D. Guillain-Barré syndrome.

- Guillain-Barre syndrome. Begins about 10 days after the onset of diarrhea, with tingling in the feet followed by progressive paralysis of the legs, arms and rest of the body. Most need to be hospitalized but recover completely - about 5% die even with treatment.

The most common bacterial pathogen(s) involved with sinusitis, otitis media, and conjunctivitis is/are: - S. aureus AND H. influenzae. - H. influenzae AND S. pneumoniae. - H. influenzae AND S. epidermidis. - S. pneumoniae AND S. aureus. - S. epidermidis AND S. pneumoniae.

- H. influenzae AND S. pneumoniae. Many people carry strains w/o effect. Haemophilus influenzae is a tiny, G- rod. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a G+ diplococcus with a capsule (virulence factor) and is just called pneumoccocus. Strains that infect the conjunctiva have ADHESINS to attach firmly to the conjunctiva.

The foodborne form of rat bite fever is called: - rat bite fever. - Haverhill fever. - cat scratch fever. - Lyme fever.

- Haverhill fever.

Which of the following causes inflammation of the liver? A) Salmonella enterica B) Shigella spp. C) hepatitis A virus D) Vibrio cholerae E) Escherichia coli

- Hepatitis A Virus All the hepatitis viruses

Which of the following are considered diseases of the lower respiratory tract? A) Diphtheria and pneumonia B) Influenza and diphtheria C) Tuberculosis and pneumonia D) Common cold and tuberculosis E) Influenza and tuberculosis

- Tuberculosis and pneumonia TB is in lungs and so is pneumonia. Upper is head and neck, lower is chest.

The principal species of Staphylococcus found on the skin is: A. aureus. B. acnes. C. pyogenes. D. epidermidis.

- epidermidis

Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the: A) mouth. B) stomach. C) stomach and small intestine. D) small intestine and large intestine. E) accessory structures

- small intestine and large intestine

Hepatitis A spreads via: the respiratory route. blood transfusion. body fluids. the fecal-oral route.

- the fecal-oral route Body fluids is Hepatitis B Blood transfusion is Hepatitis C. - Hepatitis C is the most chronic blood borne infection in the US.

Rocky Mountain spotted fever is an example of a(n): A) animalosis. B) tickonosis. C) plantonosis. D) zoonosis. E) aviosis.

- zoonosis Zoonosis maintained in various species of ticks, mammals - Humans are accidental host

How does Legionella pneumophila survive adverse conditions? It produces cysts. It is an intracellular parasite in fish. It forms endospores when in dry or hot environments. It survives in protozoa that can withstand adverse conditions. It is acid-fast and resists dehydration.

It survives in protozoa that can withstand adverse conditions.

E. coli O157:H7 characteristics include all the following except: A. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals B. it is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger C. it has a reservoir of cattle intestines D. it causes a bloody diarrhea E. some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure

A. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals

Cryptosporidium parvum may infect pigs. humans. dogs. cattle. All of the choices are correct.

All are correct p.657 - Cryptosporidium parvum is difficult to control because it has a wide host range, infecting domestic animals such as dogs, pigs and cattle. Feces from these animals, a well as from humans, can contaminate food and drinking water.

The animal(s) often associated with Salmonella strains is/are: turtles. ducks. baby chickens. iguanas. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct p.644 Correct

Why is it important to continue vaccinating children in the United States against measles, even though it is now a rare disease in the Western Hemisphere? Encephalitis is a rare but serious complication of measles that sometimes results in permanent brain damage, with mental disability, deafness, and epilepsy. Occasionally, the measles virus causes viral pneumonia, with rapid breathing, shortness of breath, and dusky skin color from lack of adequate O2 in the blood. A rare complication of measles is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) that is characterized by progressive brain degeneration, and generally results in death within 2 years. Measles that occurs during pregnancy increases the risk of miscarriage, premature labor, and low-birth-weight babies. All of these complications are reasons that the measles vaccine should be continued in the United States.

All of these complications are reasons that the measles vaccine should be continued in the United States.

The causative agent of whooping cough is S. aureus. B. pertussis. parvovirus. W. pertussis. M. pneumoniae.

B. pertussis.

Brucellosis may also be known as Bang's disease. undulent fever. Hansen's disease. rabbit fever. Bang's disease AND undulent fever.

Bang's disease AND undulent fever. p. 676 - Because Bang discovered the cause of cattle brucellosis and the fevers are rucurrent over weeks or months.

The causative agent of Lyme disease is: a. Rickettsia rickettsi. b. Rickettsia prowazeki. c. Borrelia burgdorferi. d. Dermacentor andersoni.

Borrelia burgdorferi. Borrelia burgdorferi: large, Gram-negative, microaerophilic spirochete with multiple copies of linear chromosome - Also contains numerous circular and linear plasmids with genes usually found on bacterial chromosomes

Which of the following mimics the infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhea? C. trachomatis M. pneumonia T. pallidum E. coli

C. trachomatis Chlamydial infections are the most common bacterial STIs. Mostly asymptomatic, signs and symptoms similar, infertility, PID, neonatal conjunctivitis/pneumonia - just like with gonorrhea.

You review what the PA has told you about bartonellosis with your sister. She tells you that one statement made by the PA is incorrect. Identify that statement. It is a common cause of chronic lymph node enlargement in children. It can cause serious illness in immunocompromised people such as those with AIDS. Bartonellosis does not spread from person to person. It can affect the brain or heart valves in a small number of cases. Cat scratches are the only mode of transmission to humans.

Cat scratches are the only mode of transmission to humans.

What is the most likely reason why smokers are more at risk for respiratory system infections? Cigarette smoke is carcinogenic (cancer-causing), leading to a much higher incidence of lung cancer. Smokers take in microbes from their hands into their lungs as they handle cigarettes and inhale the smoke. Chemicals in cigarette smoke can impair the mucociliary escalator, preventing natural cleansing of the respiratory tract. Tobacco contains viruses that are inhaled when a person smokes; these cause respiratory infections. They aren't; this is just a rumor used to get people to stop smoking.

Chemicals in cigarette smoke can impair the mucociliary escalator, preventing natural cleansing of the respiratory tract.

Which of the following is/are treatment(s) for advanced periodontal disease? Cleaning out gingival crevices, minor gum surgery, AND antibiotic therapy. Cleaning out gingival crevices AND removing plaque and tartar. Removing plaque and tartar. Brushing and flossing, filling cavities with amalgam, AND antibiotic therapy. Removing plaque and tartar AND minor gum surgery.

Cleaning out gingival crevices, minor gum surgery, AND antibiotic therapy.

Giardia intestinalis is found worldwide and is one of the most common intestinal parasites in the U.S. Which of the following factors contributes to the high incidence of infection, particularly in urban and suburban settings in the U.S? Contamination of fruits and vegetables Ability to infect a wide range of mammals Extremely resistant cysts Contamination of public drinking water sources

Contamination of public drinking water sources?? Giardia does have cysts that survive stomach acid... Contamination of fruits and veggies is Cyclosporiasis. wide host range is Cryptospiridium.

Beta-hemolytic group A streptococci are responsible for _________. A. rheumatic fever B. necrotizing fasciitis C. pharyngitis D. All of the choices are correct.

D. All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following hepatitis viruses are transmitted by the fecal-oral route?

Hepatitis A and E

Which of the following type of hepatitis is/are associated with liver cancer or cirrhosis? Hepatitis A Hepatitis B Hepatitis C Hepatitis B AND hepatitis C Hepatitis A AND hepatitis B

Hepatitis B AND hepatitis C The table on p.651

Which genus does not include skin-invading molds? A) Epidermophyton. B) Microsporum. C) Trichophyton. D) Ixodes. E) These are all skin molds.

Ixodes. - this is in the lyme disease section. The most important vector of Lyme disease in the eastern U.S. is: Ixodes scapularis.

The process used for identifying different carbohydrates of streptococci: - Lancefield grouping. - CHO typing. - peptidoglycan typing. - fermentation testing. - NAAT typing.

Lancefield Grouping - Better predictor of pathogenic potential then hemolysis (beta or alpha on blood agar plate)

About 60% of the bacterial pneumonias that require hospitalization of adults are caused by: A) S. pyogenes. B) S. pneumoniae. C) S. aureus. D) K. pneumoniae. E) M. pneumoniae.

S. pneumoniae - G+ diplococci, with capsule

The most frequent genus causing wound infections in healthy people is Pseudomonas. Pasteurella. Staphylococcus. Rochalimea. Escherichia.

Staphylococcus.

Which statement about S. pyogenes and strep throat pathogenesis is FALSE? Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins are A-B toxins that bind to host cells using the B portion. Streptolysins O and S produced by S. pyogenes destroy blood cells by making holes in their cell membranes. S. pyogenes strains that produce streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins are lysogens. The hyaluronic acid capsule of S. pyogenes helps it avoid the innate immune defenses. Spread of S. pyogenes is aided by streptokinase, an enzyme that breaks down blot clots.

Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins are A-B toxins that bind to host cells using the B portion.

HIV attacks a variety of cell types but the most critical are: red blood cells. nerve cells. platelets. T helper cells.

T helper cells p.755 - HIV can infect a variety of human cell types, but the most significant is T helper cells. - CD4 T cells.

Why might the Yersinia pestis from a patient with pneumonic plague be more dangerous than the same organism from fleas? The organism acquired this way is already fully virulent, so is especially dangerous. The organism mutates in a person with pneumonic plague, so is more dangerous. The organism involved in pneumonic plague is resistant to multiple antibiotics. Y. pestis in the lungs has a polysaccharide capsule while that in fleas does not. These are all true.

The organism acquired this way is already fully virulent, so is especially dangerous. p.670 Correct

Why is debridement and/or amputation often needed to treat necrotizing fascitiis? -These procedures remove infected tissue and thus the source of damaging bacterial toxins. -These procedures remove the source of nutrients for multiplying bacteria AND these procedures prevent the causative agent from releasing damaging toxins and enzymes. -S. pyogenes multiplies in dead tissue, using the breakdown products as nutrients. -These procedures remove infected tissue and thus the source of damaging bacterial toxins AND the procedures remove the source of nutrients for multiplying bacteria. -These procedures remove the toxins released by the causative organisms.

These procedures remove infected tissue and thus the source of damaging bacterial toxins AND the procedures remove the source of nutrients for multiplying bacteria.

Why would you expect acyclovir to be ineffective against latent HSV infections? A. This is an antibacterial drug, and HSV is a virus. B. This is an antifungal drug, and HSV is a virus. C. This drug directly inhibits DNA polymerase activity-cells that are latently infected with HSV have no DNA polymerase activity. D. This drug is a nucleoside analogue-it becomes activated by a viral enzyme that is produced only when the virus is replicating. As such, if the virus is latent, the enzyme to activate the drug is not present (and the drug is ineffective).

This drug is a nucleoside analogue-it becomes activated by a viral enzyme that is produced only when the virus is replicating. As such, if the virus is latent, the enzyme to activate the drug is not present (and the drug is ineffective). Drugs ending in -vir are antiviral.

The main vector(s) of Rocky Mountain spotted fever in the western United States is/are ________. A) ticks B) bats AND humans C) humans D) mosquitoes AND ticks E) fleas AND mites

Ticks

Adenoviruses may cause eye infections as well as upper respiratory tract infections. T/F

True

The most notorious typhoid carrier was: A. Typhoid Tilly. B. Typhoid Tom. C. Typhoid Mary. D. Typhoid Mark.

Typhoid Mary

Which of the following gastrointestinal pathogens produce A-B toxins? Vibrio cholerae AND some strains of Shigella dysenteriae Helicobacter pylori AND Vibrio cholerae Vibrio cholerae Helicobacter pylori AND some strains of Shigella dysenteriae Some strains of Shigella dysenteriae

Vibrio cholerae AND some strains of Shigella dysenteriae

In many people, the growth of C. acnes within hair follicles leads to acne. carbuncles. boils. eczema. all of these.

acne.

Shigella moves from cell to cell using actin tails. pili. cilia. flagella AND pili. flagella.

actin tails p.640 Correct

The toxin implicated in C. perfringens toxicity is tetanospasmin. endoenzyme T. beta toxin. exoenzyme S. alpha toxin.

alpha toxin.

Leprosy is also known as Hansen's disease. a disease of the blood. an infectious disease caused by a virus. acquired by droplet transmission. always fatal.

also known as Hansen's disease. Caused by Mycobacterium leprae bacteria acquired person to person or through nasal secretions not always fatal, nope disease of the nervous system (likes PNS)

The most common mode of HAV transmission is: A) contamination of food during preparation. B) contamination of food before it reaches a food service establishment. C) blood transfusion. D) contaminated hypodermic needles. E) airborne.

contamination of food during preparation.

Typically, pathogenic Neisseria gonorrhoeae destroys IgM. secretes exotoxin A. is very immunogenic. secretes transferrin. destroys IgA.

destroys IgA.

The unique characteristic of Lyme disease is erythema migrans. induration. rash on palms. carbuncle. furuncle.

erythema migrans Bull's eye rash caused by the spreading of LPS and causing an inflammatory response. Borrelia burgdorferi - bacteria- Gram negative, microaerophilic spirochete with many plamsids and a chromosome that is linear and present in multiple copies

The Rickettsial disease that killed Howard Ricketts and Stanislaus Prowazek was bubonic plague. yellow fever. louse-borne typhus. tick-borne typhus. Unidentified.

louse-borne typhus.

Although sepsis affects many organs, the organ most seriously and irreversibly affected is the heart. lung. kidney. spleen.

lung.

The growth stage of the vector that is mainly responsible for transmitting Lyme disease is the mouse. egg. adult. moulter. nymph stage.

nymph stage Correct

Most colds are probably caused by: A) rhinovirus. B) S. aureus. C) Pseudomonas sp. D) E. coli. E) varicella.

rhinovirus. More than 100 types of human rhinoviruses.

The T. pallidum of syphilis can be transmitted by: sexual or oral contact. contact with contaminated objects. clothing. the fecal-oral route.

sexual or oral contact. Syphilis is usually transmitted by sexual intercourse. However, infections can occur from kissing a person with secondary syphilis, or by contact with a primary ulcer infected with Treponema pallidum.

Compared to the first big syphilis epidemic several hundred years ago in Europe, the strains of Treponema pallidum that cause syphilis today: tend to be more virulent. tend to be less virulent. are about equally virulent. cannot be compared.

tend to be less virulent

The infectious agent(s) that may arise in a wound from a human bite is/are: A. Escherichia coli. B. Bacteroides. C. Actinomyces israelii. D. Staphylococcus aureus. E. Bacteroides AND Staphylococcus aureus.

- Bacteroides AND Staphylococcus aureus Human Bites slide 40, p.615 Causative Agents • Aerobic and anaerobic members of normal microbiota including streptococci, fusiforms, spirochetes, Bacteroides species, often in association with Staphylococcus aureus (on my chapter quiz - correct)

Which of these bacteria require a special medium and microaerophilic conditions? Escherichia coli Pseudomonas aeruginosa Campylobacter jejuni Salmonella enterica Staphylococcus aureus

- Campylobacter jejuni p.646 Correct

Which is used in the vaccination for C. diphtheriae? - Protein A - M protein - Lipopolysaccharide - Intact bacteria - Exotoxin

- Exotoxin It is an inactivated toxoid vaccine - doesn't replicate in the host, is exotoxin treated with formalin - Toxoid vaccines use a toxin (harmful product) made by the germ that causes a disease. They create immunity to the parts of the germ that cause a disease instead of the germ itself. That means the immune response is targeted to the toxin instead of the whole germ. DTap - diphtheria, tetnus, pertussis - need a booster every 10 years as immunity decreases after childhood.

- Freshwater streams AND cooling towers.

You are an RN working in the emergency department (ED) at a major hospital in New York City. During one shift, you see two patients who are exhibiting coughing with blood-containing sputum, and shortness of breath. Both patients report that they have experienced headaches, muscle aches, high fever, confusion, and shaking chills in the days preceding their ED visit. One of the patients also has some digestive tract symptoms including diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. You discover that the patients live in the same apartment building, although they do not know each other. You suspect that they have a type of pneumonia, and given the circumstances, think it may be legionellosis. You read up on this disease to refresh your memory about it. What is the likely source of the L. pneumophila in this case? A) The cooling water tower providing feeding air conditioners in the patient's offices. B) The showers or faucets at the local gym where both patients regularly worked out. C) The produce section at the grocery store where vegetables are sprayed with water for freshness. D) The water tank in the patient's building that provides hot water to apartments. E) Further investigation by an agency such as the CDC would be needed to determine this.

- Further investigation by an agency such as the CDC would be needed to determine this. - why this instead of the water at their apartment - I realized that if it was any of these sources then it wouldn't just be the two of them. There are a lot of places they could have been exposed and the CDC should investigate.

Mycoplasmal Pneumonia = Walking Pneumonia

- Leading pneumonia of college students, common among military recruits, children and young adults; generally mild - does not show the severe signs/symptoms of most other pneumonias so is called Atypical Pneumonia Signs/Symptoms: - 2-3 wk incubation (all others were just a couple of days) - onset is gradual; initial symptoms are fever, headache, muscle pain, fatigue. Dry cough after several days; mucoid sputum may be produced later - otitis media in ~15% of cases Causative Agent: - Mycoplasma pneumonia - small bacterium with no cell walls that makes 'fried egg' colonies - grows slowly and is aerobic Pathogenesis: - only a few inhaled cells can start infection - cells use adhesion proteins to attach to respiratory epithelium - Interfere with ciliary action, cause cells to slough off - Inflammatory response with accumulation of lymphocytes and macrophages thickens walls of bronchial tubes and alveoli - damage to mucociliary escalator means more vulnerable to secondary bacterial infections Epidemiology: - s spread by aerosolized droplets shed from about 1 week before symptoms begin to many weeks afterward • Accounts for ~1/5 of bacterial pneumonias • Immunity following recovery not permanent; repeat attacks have occurred within 5 years Tx/Prevention: - Mycoplasma pneumoniae lacks cell walls so antibiotics like beta lactams aren't going to work. - • Tetracycline, erythromycin shorten illness if given early, but they are only bacteriostatic • No preventative measures exist except avoiding overcrowding in schools, military facilities

Which of the following bacterial pathogens is found in aquatic environments and is commonly present in air conditioning systems and cooling towers? - Klebsiella pneumoniae - Enterobacter aerogenes - Vibrio cholera - Legionella pneumophila

- Legionella pneumophila - found in natural waters, water system - L. pneumophila is protected from chlorine inside amoebas. (freshwater ones)

Which of the following proteins produced by B. anthracis function together to kill phagocytes? A) Local factor, protective antigen, AND edema factor. B) Lethal factor, protective antigen, AND edema factor. C) Local factor, protective antibody, AND edema factor. D) Lethal factor, protective antigen, AND endotoxin. E) Lethal factor, protective antibody, AND endotoxin.

- Lethal factor, protective antigen, AND edema factor.

In S. pyogenes, which of the following interferes with phagocytosis? A) M protein B) Protein A C) Collagen D) Pilin E) Peptidoglycan

- M protein

Mycobacterial infections in AIDS patients are mostly likely to be caused by ________. - Mycobacterium avium complex - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Mycobacterium bovis - Mycobacterium africanum

- Mycobacterium avium complex

Which of the following is included in GALT? A) thymus B) Peyer's patches C) tonsils D) liver E) salivary glands

- Peyer's Patches GALT - Gut Associated Lymphatic Tissue

Which of the following is specifically associated with diphtheria? - Pseudomembrane in throat - General malaise - Fever and sore throat - Microhemorrhages - Widespread rash

- Pseudomembrane in throat Signs and symptoms: 2-6 days after infection, mild sore throat, slight fever, extreme fatigue and malaise (general discomfort). Neck swells dramatically, pseudomembrane on tonsils/throat or in nasal cavity, heart/kidney failure and paralysis can happen later. - pseudomembrane - dead epithelial cells, clotted blood, fibrin and WBCs from inflammatory response to bacteria. Can become loose, obstruct airway - pt can suffocate.

Which step(s) of phagocytosis are avoided by Streptococcus pyogenes? - Recruitment of phagocytes AND phagolysosome formation - Phototaxis AND recognition and attachment - Recruitment of phagocytes AND recognition and attachment - Phagolysosome formation - Phagolysosome formation AND lysis

- Recruitment of phagocytes AND recognition and attachment Recruitment of phagocytes - makes C5a peptidase Recognition and attachment - capsules, M protein, Protein G = Fc receptors

Poultry products are a likely source of infection by: A) Helicobacter pylori. B) Salmonella enterica. C) Vibrio cholerae. D) Shigella spp. E) Clostridium perfringens

- Salmonella enterica

Disease-causing exotoxins are produced by all of the following organisms EXCEPT: A) Clostridium perfringens. B) Vibrio cholerae. C) Shigella dysenteriae. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Clostridium botulinum

- Shigella dysenteriae S. dysenteriae strains can make Shiga toxin - an CYTOTOXIN, a chromosomally encoded A-B toxin that interacts with ribosomes in kidney cells, stopping protein synthesis which leads to cell death. Shiga toxin is responsible for HUS - hemolytic uremic synfrom where RBCs lyse in the tiny blood vessels, resulting in anemia and kidney failure. Clostridium perfringins makes the exotoxin alpha toxin that is a pore-forming protein; it causes potassium and fluid leakage from cells, is responsible for gas gangrene and myonecrosis in infected tissues. Vibrio cholerae makes cholera toxin, an enterotoxin, bacteriophage A-B toxin that activates ion transport channels so electrolytes and water leave the cells. Staphylococcus aureus makes the exotoxin exfoliatin - Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome. Clostridium botulinum makes the exotoxin botulinum toxin.

The most frequent genus causing wound infections in healthy people is: - Pseudomonas. - Staphylococcus. - Pasteurella. - Rochalimea.

- Staphylococcus. Correct

Pneumococcal pneumona - causative agent:

- Steptococcus pneumoniae - a G+ diplococcus with a thick polysaccharide capsule (remember of sinusitis, otitis media and conjuntivitis slides) - virulence factor - cells are elongated with tapered end = lancet-shaped - strains with no capsule do not cause invasive disease

Which of the following statements regarding resistance in Klebsiella species is FALSE? A) β-lactamase confers resistance to β-lactam antibiotics such as penicillin. B) Extended-spectrum β-lactamase (ESBL) confers resistance to many of the cephalosporins. C) Carbapenemase confers resistance to carbapenems as well as other β-lactam drugs. D) There are few effective treatments available for carbapenem-resistant K. pneumoniae infections. E) Strains of Klebsiella that produce β-lactamase are resistant to penicillin but will respond to all cephalosporins.

- Strains of Klebsiella that produce β-lactamase are resistant to penicillin but will respond to all cephalosporins.

Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE? A) It is a bacterial infection. B) Severity of disease depends on number of organisms ingested. C) A healthy carrier state exists. D) The mortality rate is high. E) It is often associated with poultry products

- The mortality rate is high. It is bacterial: Salmonella enterica - G- rod, member of Enterobacteriaceae. Often short-lived and mild depending on strain, dose MILD AND MOST PEOPLE RECOVER W/O ANTIMICROBIAL TREATMENT Poultry, eggs often contaminated; many other products (e.g., tomatoes, alfalfa sprouts) have started outbreaks.

The existence of extensive scalded skin syndrome does not indicate that Staphylococcus is growing in all the affected areas. Why not? Scalded skin occurs when a person eats exfoliatin-contaminated food, not by an infection. This condition isn't caused by Staphylococcus at all. This condition is caused by an endotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself. This microbe grows in the blood; endotoxins it releases are transported to the skin, where it causes the observed effect. This condition is caused by an exotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself.

- This condition is caused by an exotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself.

Diphtheria is treated with: - antitoxin and antibiotics. - anti-inflammatory drugs and antibiotics. - DPT vaccine. - diuretic drugs and antibiotics.

- antitoxin and antibiotics. Antibiotics to kill the bacteria and antitoxin to stop the toxin.

The RADT and throat culture are both negative for Streptococcus pyogenes, the causative agent of strep throat. The doctor tells you that your son likely has an adenoviral respiratory tract infection. Adenoviruses are resistant to destruction by detergents and alcohol solutions. This indicates that these viruses A) are double-stranded RNA viruses. B) are non-enveloped viruses. C) are enveloped viruses. D) are endospore-formers. E) are also resistant to multiple antibiotics.

- are non-enveloped viruses. Naked viruses are resistant to more things that will inactivate an enveloped one. Adenovirus - nakes, dsDNA and humans are their only reservoir.

Diphtheroids: A. are part of the normal flora of the skin. B. are responsible for body odor. C. include P. acnes. D. include Malassezia spp. E. are part of the normal flora of the skin, are responsible for body odor AND include P. acnes.

- are part of the normal flora of the skin, are responsible for body odor AND include P. acnes. Normal skin flora, 3 groups: diphtheroids, staphylococcus (G+), Malassezia yeasts - Acne vulgaris - Cutibacterium (Proprionibacteria) acnes is a diphtheroid.

Adenovirus

- attach to and infect epithelial cells, genome transported to host cell nucleus, virus multiplies - Mechanisms for avoiding host defenses: - delaying apoptosis - blocking interferon function - interfering with antigen presentation by MHC class I molecules MHC class 1 - can be made by any cell, intracellular antigens, present to CD8 Tc lymphocytes. - after replication complete, a virally encoded "death protein" is pruduced ->cell lysis - severe infection = extensive cell destruction/inflammation - different serotypes of adenoviruses affect different tissues.

The most serious consequence of rubella is: A) encephalitis. B) birth defects. C) meningitis. D) deafness. E) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

- birth defects.

Factor(s) not found in abscesses is/are: A. pus. B. dead leukocytes. C. tissue remnants. D. blood vessels.

- blood vessels Localized collection of pus surrounded by inflamed tissue. • Pus: thick, yellowish fluid composed of living and dead leukocytes, tissue debris, and proteins

What do hepatitis A and hepatitis B have in common? Both often result in a mild disease. Both can be prevented by a vaccine. Both can result in a carrier state. Both are transmitted via the fecal-oral route.

- both can be prevented by a vaccine No carrier state in HepA, fecal-oral is only HepA and HepB ranges from asymptomatic to severe.

Gas gangrene is so named due to the formation of: A. carbon dioxide. B. oxygen. C. hydrogen. D. carbon monoxide. E. carbon dioxide AND hydrogen.

- carbon dioxide AND hydrogen. • Severe pain, swelling, and thin bloody or brownish fluid leaks from wound; may look frothy (gas bubbles) slide 35 - Organisms multiply using tissue breakdown products, release HYDROGEN AND CARBON DIOXIDE, which accumulate

Which is deemed the most serious staphylococcal skin infection? A. tinea versicolor B. folliculitis C. furuncles D. carbuncles

- carbuncles Folliculitis (pimples) -> Furuncle (boils) -> Carbuncle - May worsen to form carbuncle, a large area of redness, swelling, pain, draining pus Staphylococcus aureus caused folliculitis.

Epidemics related to bacterial infection of the digestive system are typically caused by: A) biological vectors. B) contaminated food and water. C) unpasteurized milk. D) the respiratory route. E) exposure to contaminated soil

- contaminated food and water

Which of the following is true about protein A? - it binds to the Fc region of antibody - it hides bacteria from phagocytes - it enhances the binding of phagocytes - it digests antibodies - it binds to the Fc region of antibody AND it hides bacteria from phagocytes

- it binds to the Fc region of antibody AND it hides bacteria from phagocytes

Adenovirus Respiratory Tract infections - Causative Agent

- more than 50 antigenic types of adenoviruses infect humans - naked, dsDNA - can remain infectious in the environment for long period of time, are resistant to destruction by detergents and alcohol solns BUT are easily inactivated by heat (56C), enough chlorine and various other disinfectants.

The preferred habitat of S. aureus is the: A. throat. B. urethra. C. nasal chamber. D. bladder.

- nasal chamber. S. aureus found in NOSTRILS of nearly everyone - 20% (text says 30%) of healthy adults carry continuously for year or more; 60% will be colonized during a given year

The preferred habitat of S. aureus is the: - throat. - urethra. - bladder. - nasal chamber.

- nasal chamber. slide 10 - 20% of healthy people carry Staphylococcus aureus - potential pathogen that is common in the nostrils

Approximately 90% of S. aureus strains are resistant to: A. methicillin. B. tetracyclin. C. polymyxin B. D. penicillin.

- penicilliin

The digestive tract is essentially one long tube. The order of the structures, beginning with the mouth, is: A) pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine. B) esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine. C) pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine. D) esophagus, stomach, pharynx, small intestine, large intestine. E) pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine

- pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine.

The initial attachment required for establishment of an intestinal infection is by: - flagella. - cilia. - pseudopodia. - pili.

- pili flagella is movement cilia is eukaryotic cells pseudopodia is for engulfing things pili are for attachment

Which of the following correctly lists the stages of tooth decay? A) plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp B) decay in dentin, plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in tooth pulp C) plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, decay in tooth pulp, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin D) destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, plaque accumulation, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp E) destruction of enamel, plaque accumulation, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp

- plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp

Helicobacter pylori can grow in the stomach because it: A) hides in macrophages. B) makes a capsule. C) possesses an enzyme that neutralizes HCl. D) makes HCl. E) invades epithelial cells

- possesses an enzyme that neutralizes HCl.

Effective preventive methods for avoiding the common cold include all of the following EXCEPT: A) hand washing. B) avoiding crowds. C) not touching one's face. D) avoiding close contact with people with colds. E) prophylactic antibiotics.

- prophylactic antibiotics.

The protein produced by S. aureus that interferes with phagocytosis is: A. protein M. B. collagen. C. protein A. D. capsular protein.

- protein A. S. aureus strains have many different virulence factors • Nearly all have cell wall component protein A; many synthesize polysaccharide capsule; Both interfere with phagocytosis - Protein A binds the Fc portion of antibodies Protein M is S. pyogenes - strep throat Collagen is part of connective tissue - gives the skin elasticity.

The disease most feared to develop after an animal bite is: - tetanus. - rabies. - gas gangrene. - actinomycosis

- rabies (on my chapter quiz - correct)

An important feature of many wounds that may lead to more serious problems is that they are: - well aerated. - relatively anaerobic - well fed. - sterile.

- relatively anaerobic. Reasons for this include: - crush injury - presence of dirt/foreign matter in wound - aerobes using up available oxygen Many wounds RELATIVELY ANAEROBIC, allow growth of obligate anaerobes such as Clostridium tetani • Wounds with extensive tissue damage, contaminated with dirt, or small but deep punctures • Multiple species may also produce anaerobic conditions as facultative anaerobes use up available oxygen Correct

The primary treatment for cholera is A. the administration of antibiotics. B. vaccination. C. by blood transfusion. D. simply rehydration. E. vaccination AND by blood transfusion.

- simply rehydration

The exotoxin produced by C. tetani is: - tetanoxin. - exotetanus. - tetanospasmin. - endospasmin.

- tetanospasmin slide 28/29 Exotoxin tetanospasmin released from cells - A-B toxin - Plasmid-encoded Exotoxin tetanospasmin is an A-B toxin - B portion attaches to receptors on motor neurons - A portion taken up by endocytosis, is carried to neuron cell body in spinal cord - Prevents release of neurotransmitter from inhibitory neurons, so muscles contract without control Correct

The key virulence factor of S. pneumoniae interferes with: A) the action of C3. B) the action of C3b. C) the action of C5a. D) interferon. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

- the action of C3b. 2 Virulence factors mess with the action of C3b - capsule = resistant to phagocytosis - interferes with the opsonin C3b - pneumococcal surface protein (PsaA) interferes with C3b too

A sharp reduction in the incidence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b infections is principally due to: - the discovery of new antibiotics. - the development of an effective vaccine - the elimination of the natural reservoir of H. influenzae. - improvements in sanitary conditions in meat processing plants.

- the development of an effective vaccine

A sharp reduction in the incidence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b infections is principally due to: A. the discovery of new antibiotics. B. the development of an effective vaccine. C. the elimination of the natural reservoir of H. influenzae. D. improvements in sanitary conditions in meat processing plants.

- the development of an effective vaccine.

The common cold - Signs/Symptoms:

- the most frequent infectious disease in humans, - accounts for >50% of upper respiratory tract infections each year. - 1-2 days after infection - malaise, then runny nose, sneezing, coughing, mildly sore throat and hoarseness. Snot is copious and water, may thicken and get cloudy. - NO FEVER unless secondary bacterial infection. - 1 wk, mild cough for a bit longer.

Antigenic shifts may be the result of: A) two different viruses infecting a cell at the same time. B) the lysogenic conversion of two viruses. C) conjugation of two viruses. D) blending of a bacterial and a viral genome. E) the lysogenic conversion of two viruses AND blending of a bacterial and viral genome.

- two different viruses infecting a cell at the same time. How flu changes: - Antigenic DRIFT: minor mutations in HA and NA genes, often of a single amino acid; responsible for seasonal influenza - Immunity developed from previous year less effective - Antigenic SHIFT: uncommon; concurrent infection allows mixture of 8 RNA segments; causes pandemic influenza - Human strain can gain novel HA and/or NA antigens - Animal strain can gain ability to infect humans

Pneumococcal Pneumonia - Epidemiology:

- up to 30% of healthy people carry encapsulated pneumococci in throat - bacteria seldom reach lungs because mucociliary escalator removes them - impair the escalator, risk of this pneumonia rises dramatically. - alcohol, narcotic use, viral respiratory infections - increased risk in people over 50, heart or lung disease, diabetes cancer.

Otitis media probably develops from an infection that spread: - from the outer ear to the middle ear. - from the sensory neurons of the middle ear. - upward through the Eustachian tube. - through the tympanic membrane. - via the meninges.

- upward through the Eustachian tube. Middle ear connects to nasopharynx by the Eustachian tube - equalized the pressue and drain any fluid away.

Why are older people (over 65) more likely to lose teeth than to develop cavities?

... -dry mouth - less saliva -waning immunity -don't take a good care of their teeth as before -chronic illnesses let microorganisms grow

The early symptoms of rabies generally begin: A. 1 day after viral entry. B. 1-2 months after viral entry. C. 6 months after viral entry. D. 1 year after viral entry.

1-2 months after viral entry Rabies is a classic zoonotic disease. Symptoms appear 1-2 months after infection and progress rapidly.

Place the steps of the disease pathway provided in the correct order to test your understanding of the pathogenesis of syphilis.

1. Treponema pallidum enters the body through tiny abrasions or mucous membranes; a chancre appears at site of infection. 2. Bacteria multiply locally, then enter the bloodstream and spread throughout the body. 3. Secondary symptoms appear, including skin rashes and infectious mucous patches; fetus may become infected, developing congenital syphilis. 4. Latent, asymptomatic period occurs; bacteria disappear from blood, skin, and mucous membranes. 5. Tertiary symptoms may appear, including heart and blood vessel defects, gummas, strokes, and neurological symptoms and mental illness.

Mycobacterium leprae has a generation time of: A. 20 minutes. B. 1 hour .C. 6 hours. D. 12 days.

12 days

Identify the meninges from closest to the brain to furthest away: 1. dura mater 2. pia mater 3. arachnoid mater 2, 3, 1 3, 2, 1 3, 1, 2, 3 1, 3, 3, 1 1, 2, 3

2, 3, 1 pia is on the brain, then arachnoid, and dura is outmost.

Why might an individual with an STD need to be checked for other STDs, even though he/she has no symptoms of any others? A. Several STD-causing pathogens are known to 'piggy back' on each other, being carried into the genital tract together. B. A diagnosis of an STD implies that the individual engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse. Several STDs are largely asymptomatic, so it is wise to test for a variety of typical STDs when the patient admits to or shows signs of engaging in such risky behavior. C. They don't need to be tested-all STDs are highly obviously symptomatic, so there is no need to test for other diseases than the one currently manifesting itself in the patient. D. It's a public health issue-it's best to know who is positive for what in the population of sexually-active individuals. This lets healthcare professionals act to best safeguard the population as a whole from the range of STDs.

A diagnosis of an STD implies that the individual engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse. Several STDs are largely asymptomatic, so it is wise to test for a variety of typical STDs when the patient admits to or shows signs of engaging in such risky behavior.

A. The outermost layer of skin. B. In Lyme disease the nervous system signs and symptoms appear 2-8 weeks post-infection. C. A boil; a localized skin infection that penetrates into the subcutaneous tissue, usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus. D. Mucus-secreting epithelial cell. E. A bacterial toxin that causes sloughing of the outer epidermis. F. A localized collection of pus within a tissue. G. A common skin condition in which pores on the face, neck, chest, or back become plugged and the surrounding skin becomes inflamed. H. Fungus that lives on the skin and can be responsible for disease of the hair, nails, and skin. I. Plasma-clotting virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus that serves as an identifying characteristic. J. Slight changes in a viral surface antigen render antibodies made against the previous version only partially protective. K. A protein in the cell wall of Group A streptococci that is associated with virulence. L. Lesions of the oral cavity caused by measles virus that resemble a grain of salt on a red base. M. Multidrug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis. N. An nflammation of the lungs accompanied by filling of the air sacs with fluids such as pus and blood. O. A worldwide epidemic. P. A post-streptococcal sequela thought to be due to circulating immune complexes. Q. Condition resulting from the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. R. Test for tuberculosis involving the intracutaneous injection of 0.1 mL of PPD into the forearm; relies on a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction triggered by past infection, significant exposure to tuberculosis. S. A tough layer of dead cells and debris accumulated on an epithelial surface. T. Caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

A. epidermis B. Early disseminated infection C. Furuncle D. goblet cell E. exfoliatin F. abscess G. acne H. dermatophyte I. coagulase J. antigenic drift K. M protein L. Koplik spots M. Multidrug-resistant TB, MDR-TB N. pneumonia O. Pandemic P. Rhuematic fever Q. Shingles R. Tuberculin skin test, TST S. pseudomembrane T. walking pneumonia

Newborn infants can be infected with Group _______ streptococcus during birth.

Epstein-Barr virus may become latent in red blood cells. T cells. nerve cells. B cells.

B cells. p.678 - infects mouth/throat (pharyngitis), carried to lymph nodes and infects B cells (mononuclear cells) - infection can be Productive (virus replicates and kills the B cell) or Non-Productive (latent infection as provirus or plasmid).

Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably belong to the genus A) Campylobacter. B) Escherichia. C) Salmonella. D) Shigella. E) Vibrio.

Campylobactor - spirals!

Which of the following pertains to typhoid fever? A) It is acquired via ingestion of contaminated meat. B) Enterotoxin spreads via the blood. C) It is caused by several different species of Salmonella. D) Causative microorganism multiplies in patient phagocytes. E) It is also called bacillary dysentery

Causative microorganism multiplies in patient phagocytes. - colonize the intestines, cross the mucus membrane via M cells, MULTIPLIES INSIDE MACROPHAGES and then are carried in the bloodstream to locations body-wide.

The resistance of the tubercle bacillus to various factors is probably due to its: A) cell wall. B) capsule. C) larger ribosomes. D) ability to adhere tightly.

Cell Wall Mycobacterium tuberculosis - slender, acid-fast, rod-shaped bacterium, aerobe with a generation time of over 16 hours. - cell wall contains mycolic acids, cells resist drying, disinfectants, strong acids and alkalis, responsible for acid-fast staining. - easily killed by PASTURIZATION

Why can an infection in the brain's ventricles usually be detected in spinal fluid obtained from the lower back (lumbar region)? A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) originates in the ventricles, but percolates over and around the brain and spinal cord. B. There is a high degree of vascularity that exists, allowing easy transfer of bacteria in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and the blood. C. There is a set of lymph nodes specifically in place to drain the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ventricles. They are housed in the lumbar region of the spinal column, adjacent to the spinal cord. D. This is an incorrect statement. Since the central nervous system (CNS) is a protected site due to the blood-brain barrier, there can never BE an infection in the ventricles.

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) originates in the ventricles, but percolates over and around the brain and spinal cord.

The enzyme associated with the release of influenza virions from the infected cell is: A. Catalase B.Kinase C.Reverse transcriptase D.Neuraminidase E.Hyaluronidase

D. Neuraminidase

The major vector of Rocky Mountain spotted fever in the western U.S. is: a. Rickettsia rickettsi. b. Rickettsia prowazeki. c. Borrelia burgdorferi. d. Dermacentor andersoni.

Dermacentor andersoni. A is the bacteria that causes RMSF B is the cause of louse-borne typhus C is the cause of lyme disease D is the type of tick that carries the bacteria - the vector. Table 22.7 a zoonosis transmitted by the bite of an infected tick, usually Dermacentor species.

Which of the following statements about gonorrhea is false? a) The incubation period is less than a week. b) Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) is almost invariably preceded by prominent urogenital symptoms. c) DGI can result in arthritis of the knee. d) Phase and antigenic variation helps the causative organism evade the immune response. e) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is common in untreated women.

Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) is almost invariably preceded by prominent urogenital symptoms. p.742 - certain strains of N. gonorrhoeae can produce disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI). This systmeic infection is characterized by fever rash and arthritis caused by growth of the pathogen within the joint spaces. It can also lead to infective endocarditis and meningitis. DGI is not usually preceded by urogential symptoms.

Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except: A. Scarlet fever B. Rheumatic fever C. Otitis media D. Glomerulonephritis E. Pneumococcal pneumonia

E. Pneumococcal pneumonia The others are due to Streptococcus pyogenes but Pneumococcal pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae - a gram-positive diplococcus known as pneumococcus.

Amoebic dysentery and bacillary dysentery differ in the A) Mode of transmission. B) Appearance of the patientʹs stools .C) Etiologic agent. D) All of the above. E) None of the above.

Etiologic agent

Which statement regarding Staphyloccocus aureus is FALSE? MRSA strains are resistant to nearly all β-lactam antibiotics except ceftaroline, a new cephalosporin. Evidence proves that CA-MRSA strains are more virulent than HA-MRSA because they produce leukocidin. CA-MRSA strains have a group of genes that codes for a leukocyte-destroying leukocidin. MRSA strains that can be traced to hospitals and clinics are referred to as HA-MRSA (hospital-acquired MRSA). Some hospitals screen patients for MRSA when they are discharged so they do not take a MRSA strain home with them.

Evidence proves that CA-MRSA strains are more virulent than HA-MRSA because they produce leukocidin.

Approximately 30 percent of the body's immune system is located in the intestinal tract. T/F

False

Cyclosporiasis is transmissible from person to person. T/F

False

Cyclosporiosis is transmissable from person to person. T/F

False

Gram-positive organisms are more likely to cause fatal septicemias than other infectious agents. T/F

False

Diphtheria is a contagious disease that spreads from person to person mainly by the fecal-oral route. T/F

False - Spread by AIR, acquired via inhalation or from fomites. Cutaneous diphtheria with chronic ulcers - may be a source is a person comes into contact with them.

All cases of paralytic polio acquired in the U.S. between 1980 and 1999 were caused by Salk's polio vaccine. True False

False - from Sabin vaccine

Corynebacterium diphtheriae is an invasive, toxin-producing, pleomorphic spore-forming bacterium that aggressively enters tissues and the bloodstream. T/F

False Bacterium stays in the throat - is non-motile = Non-invasive non-spore forming It's the A-B exotoxin it produces (lysogenic conversion) that enters the blood stream and moves throughout the body (toxemia).

Coagulase is an enzyme. T/F

False But online resources say it is a protein enzyme. Maybe here it is counting it as a virulence factor instead?

Once the initial case has occurred, Legionnaires' disease spreads as a propagated epidemic. T/F

False Common Source, I'd think.

Clostridium tetani is a highly invasive pathogen that causes tetanus, characterized by spastic paralysis. T/F

False Is localized, not invasive.

All Staphylococci are coagulase positive. T/F

False Most, including Staphylococcus epidermiditis are coag-negative. Correct

EHEC is a major cause of diarrhea in developing countries and may result in the death of small children. T/F

False There is no EHEC. There is STEC, ETEC, EIEC, EPEC, EAEC, DAEC.

Genital herpes may be cured with the use of acyclovir or famciclovir. T/F

False p.750 - there is no cure for genital herpes. Anti-HSV medications such as acyclovir and famciclovir can decrease the severity of the first attack and the incidence of recurrences.

What leads to organ failure in sepsis? Helper T cells and dendritic cells undergo apoptosis, causing immunosuppression that results in organ rejection. Uncontrolled inflammation that leads to neutrohpils releasing damaging toxins and lysosomal enzymes. Formation of small clots in capillaries, impairing blood flow to organs and causing hypoxia and cell death. Accumulation of endotoxins released from Gram-negative bacteria in the organs, causing tissue damage and cell death. Organisms from an infected site generate biofilms that break apart, leading to emboli and organ destruction.

Formation of small clots in capillaries, impairing blood flow to organs and causing hypoxia and cell death. p.668 Correct

How do neonates acquire group B streptococcus? From the mother's genital tract shortly before or during birth. By ingestion of contaminated colostrum shortly after birth. Via placental transfer of the pathogen from the mother. Through minor skin wounds such as scratches. By inhalation of contaminated aerosol droplets after birth.

From the mother's genital tract shortly before or during birth.

Please select the definition regarding aspects of the digestive system that is INCORRECT. Dysentery—diarrhea characterized by fecal pus and blood. Cirrhosis—liver scarring that interferes with function. Gingivitis—inflammation of the teeth and gums. Dysbiosis—imbalance of the intestinal normal microbiota. Cariogenic—causing dental caries.

Gingivitis—inflammation of the teeth and gums. gingivitis is swelling and redness of the gums

Which of the following is more likely to cause fatal septicemias? Gram-positive bacteria Gram-negative bacteria negative stained bacteria acid-fast stained bacteria

Gram-negative bacteria Systemic infection by any microorganism can cause sepsis- more than 50% of cases are caused by Gram-positives but most fatal cases involve Gram-negatives because of the LPS (endotoxin) in their outer membrane.

Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for periodontal disease? A) Gram-positive cocci B) Gram-positive rods C) Gram-negative cocci D) Gram-negative

Gram-positive rods CHECK THIS ONE OUT

Which of the following hepatitis viruses are transmitted by the fecal-oral route? HAV and HBV HAV and HCV HAV and HEV HAV, HBV, and HCV All hepatitis viruses

HAV and HEV Chart on p.651 Correct

Which of the following antigens are useful markers for hepatitis B infection?

HBsAg

What underlying infection should a physician immediately suspect when confronted with a patient with confirmedcryptococcal meningoencephalitis caused by Cryptococcus neoformans, and why? A. Influenza infection. The 2 viruses are often transmitted together in respiratory droplets. B. HIV infection. People with normal immune systems generally fend off this fungal infection before it becomes clinically symptomatic. C. Varicella zoster virus (chicken pox). During the incubation period for chicken pox, and during its latency, C. neoformans has an increased ability to colonize the respiratory tract. D. Syphilis. This sexually-transmitted illness depletes CD4+ helper T cells that are necessary to directly attack the fungal infection of C. neoformans.

HIV infection. People with normal immune systems generally fend off this fungal infection before it becomes clinically symptomatic.

Which of the following is a small Gram-negative rod requiring X-factor for growth? Escherichia coli. Treponema pallidum. Neisseria gonorrheae. Haemophilus ducreyi.

Haemophilus ducreyi Chancroid, bacterial STI = Haemophilus ducreyi - tastidious, pleomorphic, Gram-negative coccobacillus (short rod) that can be cultivated only on a rich medium such as chocolate agar.

Which one of the following statements about bacterial vaginosis is false? a) It is the most common vaginal disease in women of childbearing age. b) In pregnant women, it is associated with premature delivery. c) Inflammation of the vagina is a constant feature of the disease. d) The vaginal microbiota shows a significant decrease in lactobacilli and a marked increase in anaerobic bacteria. e) The cause is unknown.

Inflammation of the vagina is a constant feature of the disease. Not true because p.735 - about half of BV cases are asymptomatic.

Pick the one false statement about vulvovaginal candidiasis. a) It often involves the external genitalia. b) It is readily transmitted by sexual intercourse. c) It is caused by a yeast present among the normal vaginal microbiota in about one-third of healthy women. d) It is associated with prolonged antibiotic use. e) It involves increased risk late in pregnancy.

It is readily transmitted by sexual intercourse. p.736 - fungal infection. Like BV, it seems to occur after a disruption of the normal microbiota. Associated with many sexual partners or a new partner, but can occur in the absence of sexual intercourse.

The researcher who did much of the early work on Clostridium tetani was: A. von Behring. B. Koch. C. Kitasato. D. Pasteur.

Kitasato • Studied tetanus (lockjaw) in Robert Koch's laboratory • Spores of Clostridium tetani found in soil and dust • Kitasato determined that C. tetani is obligate anaerobe, devised method of cultivating • Discovered animals injected with C. tetani developed tetanus, but no cells found elsewhere in body • Showed bacterial toxin responsible for disease Correct

The bacterial lung infection acquired by inhalation of aerosols of contaminated water is:

Legionnaires' Disease

Which of the following genitourinary tract infections is a zoonosis?

Leptospirosis

Which S. aureus virulence factor is not correctly matched with its function? Capsule—avoiding phagocytosis. α-Toxin—makes holes in host cell membranes. Leukocidin—kills erythrocytes. Protein A—interferes with opsonization. Hyaluronidase—facilitates spread in tissues.

Leukocidin—kills erythrocytes.

Lumbar puncture; antibiotics

In S. pyogenes, which of the following interferes with phagocytosis? - M protein - protein A - collagen - pilin

M protein Table 21.1 literally says, "interferes with phagocytosis" M protein in S. pyogenes is an important adhesin that functions in attachment to the host cell - the antibodies that attach to M protein prevent infection. M protein also interferes with phagocytosis by inactivating the opsonin C3b from compliment, prevents complement activation too. More than 80 antigenic types of M protein exist! - Different S. pyogenes strains with in GAS are distinguished by variations in the virulence factor M protein on their surface.

The only known human pathogen that preferentially attacks the peripheral nerves is: A. N. meningitidis. B. polio virus. C. E. coli. D. M. leprae.

M. leprae p.720 - Mycobacterium leprae is the only known human pathogen that preferentially infects peripheral nerves.

Select the statement about plague that is TRUE. DIC causes the dusky color of skin and mucous membranes characteristic of bubonic plague. When Yersinia pestis infects the lungs, septicemic plague always develops. The causative agent of plague is a facultatively anaerobic, Gram-positive rod. Bubonic plague is transmitted by the bite of infected mosquitoes that have also bitten rats. Bubonic plague is almost always fatal.

Maybe the first one. - that's septic plague - not always - facultative anaerobe, G-, not + - bite of infected fleas - 50-80% fatal is not treated... but it is treatable so NOPE (tried, it was wrong)

The childhood disease that damages the body defenses and is frequently complicated by secondary infections involving mostly Gram-positive cocci is shingles. German measles. chickenpox. mumps. Measles.

Measles

The childhood disease that damages the body defenses and is frequently complicated by secondary infections involving mostly Gram-positive cocci is: A) German measles. B) measles. C) mumps. D) chickenpox. E) shingles.

Measles Measles = rubeola German measles = rubella

Which of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route? A) staphylococcal enterotoxicosis B) mumps C) Vibrio gastroenteritis D) bacillary dysentery E) traveler's diarrhea

Mumps Virus INHALED via saliva droplets, spreads via bloodstream

Are people infected with M. tuberculosis always highly infectious to everyone around them? Yes. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is shed in all body secretions as well as in respiratory droplets, so is very easily spread. Yes. The infected person is constantly shedding bacteria to the environment around them in high numbers, facilitating transmission. No. While in the early stages of the illness, the infected person does not have the cough required to spread the organism in respiratory droplets very easily. Yes. As the mode of transmission of M. tuberculosis is direct contact, anyone or anything the infected person touches can be infected. No. TB has a very high infectious dose. In the early stages of the disease, the patients aren't producing enough bacteria in their respiratory secretions to be infectious.

No. While in the early stages of the illness, the infected person does not have the cough required to spread the organism in respiratory droplets very easily.

Adenoviral pharyngitis is effectively treated with: A) antibiotics. B) lysozyme. C) proteases. D) nucleotide analogs. E) None of the choices is correct.

None of the choices is correct.

The Gram-negative opportunistic rod that can grow in a wide variety of environments, including disinfectants and soaps, is: E. coli. S. aureus. S. pyogenes. P. aeruginosa.

P. aeruginosa slide 24 Pseudomonas aeruginosa widespread in nature, grows in most places that have moisture - Soaps, ointments, eyedrops, contact lens solutions, cosmetics, disinfectants, swimming pools, hot tubs, even distilled water - Introduced into hospitals on ornamental plants, flowers, produce; also found on hospital equipment, inner soles of shoes, illegal injectable drugs

A patient presents with a wound that contains green pus. This suggests to you that the wound is infected with P. aeruginosa, which multiplies in photosynthetic biofilms that are green. S. epidermidis, which produces the water-soluble pigments pyoverdin and pyocyanin. S. pyogenes, which produces a water-soluble blue-green capsule. P. aeruginosa, which produces the water-soluble pigments pyoverdin and pyocyanin. either S. epidermidis or S. aureus, both of which produce pigment soluble coagulase

P. aeruginosa, which produces the water-soluble pigments pyoverdin and pyocyanin. yellow and blue make green pyocyanin - sidiophore to steal host cell iron Correct

The PA goes on to explain that cat bite infections and bartonellosis (cat scratch disease) differ in that - the virulence factors of P. multicoda are as yet unknown while B. henselae has an antiphagocytic capsule. - P. multicoda is a Gram-positive organism while B. henselae is a Gram-negative organism. - cat bite infections can be prevented with prophylactic antibiotics while bartonellosis may be prevented with an attenuated vaccine. - P. multicoda is transmitted by cat bites, while B. henselae may be transmitted by bites or scratches. - P. multicoda may be transmitted from person-to-person while B. henselae can only be transmitted by cat bites.

P. multicoda is transmitted by cat bites, while B. henselae may be transmitted by bites or scratches.

The virulence factor of Yersinia pestis that is a protease that destroys C3b and C5a is Yops. PLA. F1. protein A.

PLA. Table 25.3/p.670 - Pla (protease) activates plasminogen, destroys C3b, C5a and clots (allows bacteria to spread) - Once Y. pestis enters via a flea bite, it releases a protein-degrading protease (Pla) that clears the lymphatics and capillaries of clots and inactivates certain complement system components, allowing the organism to spread - goes to lymph nodes, gets taken up by macrophages.

Which antibiotics may be completely ineffective in treating a mycoplasmal infection? A) Penicillin AND tetracycline B) Penicillin AND cephalosporin C) Tetracycline AND cephalosporin D) Cephalosporin AND erythromycin E) Erythromycin AND tetracycline

Penicillin AND cephalosporin Both work against the cell wall, mycoplasma has no cell wall.

Why does removal of plaque reduce the chance of forming cavities?Plaque causes a significant drop in oral pH. The more acidic condition causes tooth decay. Plaque is a polysaccharide covering on tooth enamel. It contains tiny acid-soaked sponges that decay teeth. Plaque is a biofilm; it contains cariogenic bacteria, the metabolic byproducts of which facilitate tooth decay. Removing plaque involves brushing. A coincidental side benefit of brushing is removal all oral bacteria. Removing plaque actually does not impact the development of cavities. Cavities have a genetic component and cannot be prevented.

Plaque is a biofilm; it contains cariogenic bacteria, the metabolic byproducts of which facilitate tooth decay.

People who contract M. genitalium infections are also at risk of acquiring other STIs. T/F

Probably true Seem to pick it up the same way and it causes the same signs/symptoms as other STIs...

How does H. pylori survive the acidic conditions of the stomach? Producing urease, an enzyme that converts ammonia to urea, thereby creating an alkaline microenvironment. Burrowing within the layer of mucus that coats the stomach lining. Producing urease, an enzyme that converts urea to ammonia, thereby creating an alkaline microenvironment AND burrowing within the stomach mucus layer. Producing urease, an enzyme that converts ammonia to urea, thereby creating an alkaline microenvironment AND covering its flagella with protective sheaths. Producing urease, an enzyme that converts urea to ammonia, thereby creating an alkaline microenvironment.

Producing urease, an enzyme that converts urea to ammonia, thereby creating an alkaline microenvironment AND burrowing within the stomach mucus layer.

A frequent complication of scalded skin syndrome is a secondary infection caused by: A. M. luteus. B. S. pyogenes. C. Pseudomonas spp. D. S. epidermidis.

Pseudomonas spp.

Rebecca Lancefield - demonstrated that streptococci can be classified according to their cell wall carbohydrates. - this system : Lancefield grouping Before Lancefield streptococcal classification was based on the type of hemolysis displayed when organism were grown on blood agar. - beta hemolysis = clear spots on blood agar - alpha hemolysis = greenish partial clearing on blood agar

Rebecca Lancefield • divided streptococci into groups based on surface antigens instead of blood agar hemolysis • α-hemolytic streptococci • classified β-hemolytic streptococci according to cell wall carbohydrates • System now known as "Lancefield grouping" • Strains from human infections have same cell wall carbohydrate ("A"), different from other sources • Better predictor of pathogenic potential then hemolysis

The more severe form of African sleeping sickness is called the: A. Gambian form. B. Rhodesian form. C. Guyanan form. D. Brazilian form.

Rhodesian form - causes acute disease that can progress rapidly and person dies from heart failure in 6 months. Gambian form is chronic and death is from secondary infection years later.

How is Staphylococcus aureus distinguished from Staphylococcus epidermidis? It is an opportunistic pathogen. S. aureus produces coagulase. It is spherical in shape. It is Gram-positive. It does not produce coagulase.

S. aureus produces coagulase.

How is Staphylococcus aureus distinguished from Staphylococcus epidermidis? It is spherical in shape. It is Gram-positive. S. aureus produces coagulase. It is an opportunistic pathogen. It does not produce coagulase.

S. aureus produces coagulase. Staphylococcus aureus is coag-positive Staphylococcus apedermidis is coag-negative just as all other Staphylococcus species other than S. aureus are. Correct

Which of the following statements regarding S. aureus and S. pyogenes is FALSE? S. aureus appears as clusters of spherical cells while S. pyogenes appears as chains of spherical cells. The Fc receptor of S. aureus is protein A while the Fc receptor of S. pyogenes is protein G. S. aureus stains purple with the Gram stain while S. pyogenes stains pink with this procedure. S. aureus is a facultative anaerobe while S. pyogenes is an obligate fermenter. S. aureus is catalase positive and coagulase positive while S. pyogenes is catalase negative and coagulase negative

S. aureus stains purple with the Gram stain while S. pyogenes stains pink with this procedure.

In addition to S. aureus, impetigo may also involve: A) M. luteus. B) S. pyogenes. C) S. epidermidis. D) Pseudomonas species. E) Cutibacterium species

S. pyogenes. Causes pus-tonsiled strep throat too. Pyogenes - generation of pus.

Which of the following media would you use to cultivate Vibrio cholerae?Selective—containing HCl and with acidic pH. Differential—containing NaCl and with basic pH. V. cholerae cannot be cultured in the laboratory. Differential—containing HCl and with acidic pH. Selective—containing NaCl and with basic pH.

Selective—containing NaCl and with basic pH.

Formation of biofilms attached to fibronectin and fibrinogen coating plastic devices like catheters and heart valves is a virulence mechanism of Escherichia. Staphylococcus. Streptococcus. Clostridium. Pseudomonas.

Staphylococcus.

Neonatal meningitis

Streptococcus agalactiae - Group B strep enter into infant's blood stream during delivery and is often associated with sepsis in mother and infant as well Encapsulated strains of E. coli from Mom's gut Listeria monocytogenes from bloodstream of infected mom.

Which statement regarding the treatment of tetanus is FALSE? TIG neutralizes tetanospasmin that is already attached to nerve tissue, preventing damage to that nerve. The person is given tetanus vaccine that results in the production of anti-tetanospasmin antibodies. TIG antibodies bind to circulating toxin molecules, neutralizing their effects and providing passive immunity. The patient is given muscle relaxants and supportive care, including being placed on a ventilator if needed. An antibacterial medication such as metronidazole is given to kill any actively multiplying bacterial cells.

TIG neutralizes tetanospasmin that is already attached to nerve tissue, preventing damage to that nerve. Hint - it doesn't. Correct

Which statement is would NOT apply to CSF taken from a person you suspect has bacterial meningitis? The CSF would be bloody and opaque rather than pale yellow and cloudy. The CSF would be cloudy and opaque rather than pale yellow and clear. The CSF would have low glucose levels compared with blood. The CSF would contain neutrophils. The CSF would have high protein levels compared with blood.

The CSF would be bloody and opaque rather than pale yellow and cloudy.

Why is it that the tongue and cheek epithelium doesn't provide a sufficient anaerobic environment for plaque anaerobes to grow, but the surface of teeth might? A. The epithelium is supplied with oxygen by capillary beds. This makes it a relatively aerobic environment and hostile to anaerobes. B. The tooth enamel is supplied with oxygen by capillary beds. This makes it a relatively anaerobic environment and hostile to aerobes. C. The surface of the tongue and cheek are constantly scraped by the action of consuming food. Layers of bacterial growth that might help to supply an anaerobic environment are scraped away, exposing lower levels to oxygen-rich air. D. The surface of teeth (especially the molars) have many pits and crevices that can serve as 'pockets' for layers of bacteria to grow in. Once the layers get deep enough, the bottom portions are anaerobic. This isn't possible on the very smooth surface of the tongue and cheek epithelium.

The epithelium is supplied with oxygen by capillary beds. This makes it a relatively aerobic environment and hostile to anaerobes.

How may lung damage or pneumonia occur in a person with tetanus? -Tetanospasmin causes the release of degradative enzymes in the lungs. -C. tetani releases alpha-toxin that causes the alveoli of the lungs to collapse. -Tetanospasmin is an A-B toxin that binds to lung epithelial cells, killing them -The person may inhale regurgitated (vomited) stomach contents. -Spasms of major chest muscles may be so severe that the lungs are damaged.

The person may inhale regurgitated (vomited) stomach contents.

Why are such a high percentage of infant botulism cases associated with ingestion of honey? A. Bees cultivate C. botulinum bacteria within their hives as a food source, so it gets mixed in with the honey. B. The infant digestive tract is far more susceptible to the effects of botulism toxin (found in the honey in relatively high levels) than the adult digestive tract. C. The spores of C. botulinum produce a strong endotoxin. This endotoxin has little effect on adults due to their overall size. Infants, however, are significantly smaller (and therefore far more susceptible) than adults. D. There can be endospores from C. botulinum in honey. They may germinate in the intestines of infants following consumption of honey, leading to colonization and pathogenesis as the bacteria begin forming botulism toxin. Adults' normal intestinal microbiota will out-compete the new microbes, but very young infants may not yet have this normal flora established.

There can be endospores from C. botulinum in honey. They may germinate in the intestines of infants following consumption of honey, leading to colonization and pathogenesis as the bacteria begin forming botulism toxin. Adults' normal intestinal microbiota will out-compete the new microbes, but very young infants may not yet have this normal flora established.

Your patient had abdominal surgery three days ago. She seemed to be doing well after the surgery, but today the skin around the surgical incision is red and swollen. In addition, your patient has a high fever and is complaining of muscle aches. She also has a rash and has diarrhea. You realize that her wound has become infected, despite your best efforts as a nurse, and you are concerned that she has developed toxic shock syndrome. You explain the details of this type of infection to the patient's family.You are extremely concerned, because the laboratory reports that the organism cultured from your patient's wound is capable of digesting collagen and fibronectin. Why are you worried about this? This would indicate that the bacterium is a lysogen, containing viral DNA conferring new characteristics on the organism. Bacteriophages pose an additional health risk to your patient. These are structural components of tissue. Their digestion means that not only could the organisms spread easily, but also important structures such as tendons could be destroyed. This would indicate that the organism is capable of forming biofilms and it is very difficult to eliminate biofilms once they have developed, because of resistance. These are structural components specifically of the heart. Their digestion means that the patient is at risk of heart failure, which will prove fatal. This would indicate that the pathogen has the ability to break down activated complement proteins, thereby avoiding the innate immune defenses and allowing it to persist.

These are structural components of tissue. Their digestion means that not only could the organisms spread easily, but also important structures such as tendons could be destroyed. Correct

What is the significance of immune complex formation in infective endocarditis? They lead to the formation of biofilms that are difficult to eliminate. They cause disseminated intravascular coagulation. They result in the enzymatic destruction of neutrophils and macrophages. They lead to the development of autoimmunity. They can be deposited in tissues and organs, causing damage.

They can be deposited in tissues and organs, causing damage. p.667 Correct

Which is true about prions? A. They cause a degenerative brain condition. B. They are naked pieces of RNA. C. They are made of DNA and protein. D. They are a normal brain protein that has folded differently. E. They cause a degenerative brain condition AND they are a normal brain protein that has folded differently.

They cause a degenerative brain condition AND they are a normal brain protein that has folded differently.

Which is true of MRSA? A. It stands for moxicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus. B. They have R plasmids. C. They may be sensitive to Synercid. D. All MRSA strains remain sensitive to vancomycin. E. They have R plasmids AND they may be sensitive to Synercid

They have R plasmids AND they may be sensitive to Synercid - saw this one, a little different. MRSA - methacillin resistant staphylococcus aureus.

Which is true of leukocidins? They are superantigens. They make holes in host cell membranes. They destroy erythrocytes. They bind to Fc regions of antibodies. They kill neutrophils

They kill neutrophils

Which characteristic(s) is NOT common to C. tetani and C. perfringens? They produce A-B toxins. They are spore-formers. They are rod-shaped. They are obligate anaerobes. They are Gram-positive bacteria.

They produce A-B toxins.

The stage of Lyme disease that is characterized by arthritis is the: A. primary. B. third. C. second. D. fourth.

Third Three stages; individual patients may be asymptomatic in one or more - early localized, early disseminated and late disseminated. Early localized disease: At this point, the infection has not yet spread throughout the body. Lyme is the easiest to cure at this stage. Early disseminated: Bacteria are beginning to spread throughout the body Late disseminated: The Lyme bacteria have spread throughout the body and many patients develop chronic ARTHRITIS as well as an increase in neurological and cardiac symptoms.

The existence of extensive scalded skin syndrome does not indicate that Staphylococcus is growing in all the affected areas. Why not? A) This condition is caused by an exotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself. B) This condition is caused by an endotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself. C) This condition isn't caused by Staphylococcus at all. D) This microbe grows in the blood; endotoxins it releases are transported to the skin, where it causes the observed effect. E) Scalded skin occurs when a person eats exfoliatin-contaminated food, not by an infection.

This condition is caused by an exotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself. Exotoxin (Staphylococcus is gram positive) S. aureus strains that produce toxin called exfoliatin • Only about 5% of strains produce this toxin • One type coded by a plasmid, one chromosomal

Why is it not surprising that Staphylococci are the leading cause of wound infections? Staphylococci acquire antibiotic resistance very readily, making them hard to eliminate by pre-surgical antibacterial soaps. As such, they commonly infect surgical wound sites. This genus is readily present as a part of the normal microbiota on most people's skin, so it could easily enter wounds. Staphylococci form endospores, so even with appropriate control measures, there is a high risk that spores will enter a wound and cause infection. Members of this genus are all particularly virulent and highly capable of causing numerous infections. Staphylococci cannot be eradicated from the skin due to multidrug resistance in most members of the genus. Drugs simply don't kill them.

This genus is readily present as a part of the normal microbiota on most people's skin, so it could easily enter wounds.

Why would a non-immune pregnant woman not be given the MMRV vaccine? Babies of women vaccinated during pregnancy frequently develop the complication of pneumonia. This is an attenuated vaccine so there is a slight risk that her fetus might develop congenital rubella syndrome. The MMRV vaccine is attenuated and a pregnant woman is at great risk of developing a reaction to it. The adjuvant of the MMRV vaccine is highly toxic and damaging to a developing fetus. The MMRV vaccine always affects stem fetal cells causing severe and life-threatening birth defects.

This is an attenuated vaccine, so there is a slight risk that her fetus might develop congenital rubella syndrome.

For what is a lumbar puncture used? To examine the spinal cord for inflammation. To release pressure in the meninges caused by viral infection. To obtain a sample of the cerebrospinal fluid for examination. To prevent movement of pathogens from CSF to the meninges. To obtain small pieces of meninges for biopsy.

To obtain a sample of the cerebrospinal fluid for examination.

Clostridium difficile produces toxins that are involved in the pathogenesis of CDI. Which toxins are associated with ALL strains of this organism? CagA and toxin A CagA and vacA Toxin A and toxin B Binary toxin and VacA Toxin A, toxin B, and binary toxin

Toxin A and toxin B

The causative agent of syphilis is: papilloma virus. Neisseria gonorrheae. Chlamydia trachomatis. Treponema pallidum.

Treponema pallidum

Which one of the following is NOT transmitted by water? A) Salmonella B) Cyclospora C) Trichinella D) Cryptosporidium E) Hepatitis A virus

Trichinella

Which of the following can only be identified using PCR after valve surgery? Escherichia coli Staphylococcus aureus Tropheryma whippelii Staphylococcus epidermidis

Tropheryma whippelii The other 3 are able to be cultivated in vitro. Apparently it causes a systemic disease called Whipple's disease...

A variety of free-living amoebae and ciliated protozoa are thought to provide a natural reservoir for survival and growth of Legionella spp. in nature. T/F

True

An outbreak of viral gastroenteritis occurs in a pediatrics ward. Rotavirus is the most likely causative agent. T/F

True

Borrelia burgdorferi is a spirochete with a number of axial filaments. T/F

True

Both Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium parvum are resistant to chlorine. T/F

True

Chickenpox and measles are both acquired by the respiratory route. T/F

True

Clumping factor, coagulase and protein A serve to coat Staphylococcus with host proteins. T/F

True

Coagulase-positive S. aureus is often involved in disease. T/F

True

Cyclospora cayetanensis has, so far, not been identified with an animal source. T/F

True

Diphtheria exotoxin is made only by strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that carry a prophage containing the tox gene.T/F

True

Diphtheroids are responsible for body odor. T/F

True

Helicobacter pylori appears connected to stomach cancer and ulcers. T/F

True

Klebsiella easily acquire and are a source of R factors. T/F

True Resistance transfer factor (shortened as R-factor or RTF) is an old name for a plasmid that codes for antibiotic resistance.

When a person becomes infected with the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), a member of the herpesvirus family, they are infected for life. They may occasionally suffer reactivation events that may make them infectious to other individuals once again. T/F

True p.679 - EBV is present in saliva for up to 18 months after infectious mononucleosis and then intermittently for LIFE.

All cases of paralytic polio acquired in the U.S. between 1980 and 1999 were caused by Sabin's polio vaccine. T/F

True p.708 Figure 26.9 - Wild poliovirus was eliminated from the United States by 1980...polio cases acquired in the United States after 1980 were caused by vaccine-derived poliovirus (VDPV) - which can result from the Sabin (OPV) vaccine.

Death from botulism is usually due to respiratory paralysis. T/F

True p.721 - progressive paralysis generally involves all voluntary muscles, respiratory paralysis is the most common cause of death.

Most strains of gonococcus do not survive long outside the body. T/F

True p.742 - Neisseria gonorrheae (gonococcus, GC) is well adapted to grow within the human host. Like other STI agents, it is a human-specific antigen that survives poorly in the environment. p.743 - N. gonorrhoeae infects only humans, living mainly on the mucus membranes...most strains are susceptible to UV light, cold, desiccation and do not survive well outside the host.

Which statement regarding CagA and VacA of H. pylori is INCORRECT? VacA is an A-B toxin that increases urea flow into the stomach. CagA interferes with cell signaling and promotes inflammation. VacA interferes with the function of T cells. CagA is delivered into host cells by a secretion system. Strains of H. pylori that produce CagA are associated with stomach cancer.

VacA is an A-B toxin that increases urea flow into the stomach. It's a membrane-damaging toxin

Most gastrointestinal infections are treated with: A) Antitoxin. B) Penicillin. C) Water and electrolytes. D) Quinacrine. E) Thorough cooking.

Water and electrolytes

Why might it be more difficult to prepare a vaccine against noroviruses than against rotaviruses? A) We haven't been able to culture noroviruses in a lab setting yet. Without a starting culture, we can't create a vaccine. B) Noroviruses are RNA viruses, where rotaviruses are DNA viruses. RNA viruses mutate far more easily than DNA viruses, so we COULD make a vaccine, but it would be rendered useless fairly quickly as the virus mutates. C) We lack a proper culturing method for large-scale production of target cells for norovirus, whereas we have such a system for the target cells of rotaviruses. Without a system to get large numbers of target cells, we can't produce a vaccine. D) Norovirus is much more infectious than rotavirus. As such, it's much harder to work with safety. This makes production of a vaccine too dangerous and unpredictable.

We haven't been able to culture noroviruses in a lab setting yet. Without a starting culture, we can't create a vaccine.

Why is the immunization for rubella important for both boys and girls? A) As this is a sexually-transmitted disease, vaccinating girls AND boys early in their lives prevents the spread of the disease in adulthood. B) We want to achieve herd immunity, and there's no reason why only girls would be infected by this virus. By vaccinating the entire population, we achieve a higher degree of herd immunity than is possible by vaccinating only girls. C) Only boys get this disease, and one of the common complications of it is sterility, so they should be vaccinated against this virus. D) While this disease is quite very symptomatic in girls, it is completely asymptomatic in boys. Boys can be carriers and transmit it easily to girls without realizing it. This can lead to large-scale and dangerous outbreaks in the female population. E) Although boys get this disease, it doesn't cause any health problems for them, so they do not need vaccination. If girls get the disease, it almost always leads to encephalitis, so they should be protected by vaccination.

We want to achieve herd immunity, and there's no reason why only girls would be infected by this virus. By vaccinating the entire population, we achieve a higher degree of herd immunity than is possible by vaccinating only girls. Weird question.

In rare cases, people with leptospirosis develop ______________ disease, which affects the liver and kidneys.

Weil's - jaundice, liver and kidney failure, hemorrhage in many organs and meningitis.

Which symptom is least likely to occur as a result of tertiary syphilis? a) Gummas b) White patches on mucous membranes c) Emotional instability d) Stroke e) Blindness

White patches on mucus membranes. That is Secondary syphilis - picture on patchy tongue on p.746

Would babies need to be immunized against lockjaw (tetanus) if their mother had been immunized against the disease? Why or why not? -No, because the mother's IgG antibodies would be passed along through the placenta before birth, protecting the baby from the infection. -Yes, because the maternal response to the tetanus vaccine is to produce IgE antibodies, and IgD antibodies are the predominant type in breast milk. Therefore, even if the baby is breast-fed, it won't receive the mother's protective antibodies. -Yes, because although the mother will make IgG antibodies in response to the vaccine, these antibodies cannot cross the placenta, so the baby is not protected at all. -No, because maternal IgG antibodies would be passed along in the breast milk, protecting the baby from infection. -Yes, because even though maternal IgG antibodies might be passed along through the placenta, they will not last forever. The baby will need to create its own antibody response to be protected against future tetanus.

Yes, because even though maternal IgG antibodies might be passed along through the placenta, they will not last forever. The baby will need to create its own antibody response to be protected against future tetanus.

Would babies need to be immunizedagainst lockjaw (tetanus) if their mother had been immunized against the disease? Why or why not? No-because the mother's IgG antibodies would be passed along through the placenta before birth, protecting the baby from the infection. Yes-because even though maternal IgG antibodies might be passed along through the placenta, they will not last forever. The baby will need to create its own antibody response to be protected against future tetanus. No-because maternal IgG antibodies would be passed along in the breast milk, protecting the baby from infection. Yes-because the maternal response to the tetanus vaccine is to produce IgE antibodies, and IgD antibodies are the predominant type in breast milk. And what if the baby isn't breast-fed? Therefore, even if the baby is breast-fed, it won't receive the mother's protective antibodies.

Yes-because even though maternal IgG antibodies might be passed along through the placenta, they will not last forever. The baby will need to create its own antibody response to be protected against future tetanus. Correct

Human papillomavirus is A. a small, non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus. B. a small, enveloped double-stranded DNA virus. C. a large, enveloped double-stranded RNA virus. D. a small, non-enveloped single-stranded DNA virus

a small, non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus. p752 - Human papillomaviruses are naked, dsDNA viruses of the Papillomamiridae family. More than 100 types of HPVs and the different types are tissue and species specific. Had to look online: Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a small, non-enveloped deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) virus that infects skin or mucosal cells. The circular, double-stranded viral genome is approximately 8-kb in length.

Food contaminated with Clostridium botulinum often: A. looks odd. B. smells bad. C. tastes bad. D. appears normal.

appears normal Foodborne botulism - eat toxin Intestinal botulism - ingest endospore - happens more in kids = infant botulism Wound botulism - endospore in wound

Urinary tract infections:

are the most common nosocomial infections AND are not considered STIs

children 5-15 who have chickenpox and take _____ are at greater risk for developing Reye's syndrome.

aspirin Reye's syndrome is a rare but serious disease that causes swelling in the liver and brain. It can affect people of any age, but it is most often seen in children and teenagers recovering from a virus such as the flu or chickenpox. - teenagers recovering from viral infections should avoid taking aspirin

Prevention of toxoplasmosis involves vaccination of domestic animals. prophylactic antibiotics for cat owners. vaccination of people and their pets. filtering and chlorinating water. avoiding inadequately cooked meat.

avoiding inadequately cooked meat.

Treatment of HIV attempts to do all of the following EXCEPT block reverse transcriptase activity. block attachment to host cells. block viral polymerase. block viral protease activity. block viral integrase.

block viral polymerase.

HIV may be present in: blood. semen. tears. vaginal secretions. blood, semen AND vaginal secretions.

blood, semen AND vaginal secretions.

HIV may be present in tears, sweat, AND colostrum. vaginal secretions, colostrum, AND sweat. blood, semen, AND tears. blood, semen, AND vaginal secretions. semen, vaginal secretions, AND tears.

blood, semen, AND vaginal secretions.

The spleen, in part, functions to cleanse the lymph. interstitial fluid. cytoplasm. blood.

blood. p.666 - Spleen, left side, behind stomach. Red and white pulp. The red pulp cleans the BLOOD by filtration. Red pulp is also a reserve of monocytes and produces new blood cells in rare situations where the bone marrow is unable to make enough. White pulp - contains B/T lymphocytes - provides an active immune response to microbial invaders.

The chief source of central nervous system (CNS) infections is through the: A. bloodstream. B. genitourinary system. C. skin. D. nerves.

bloodstream p.697 - the bloodstream is the primary source of CNS infection - think about that. The bloodstream is the primary source of CNS infections is why we have the blood-brain barrier.

The central nervous system is made up of: A. brain and spinal cord. B. spinal cord and spinal nerves. C. sympathetic and parasympathetic system. D. brain and endocrine organs.

brain and spinal cord

HPV: can integrate into the host's chromosome. may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types. infections always lead to cancer. cannot infect newborns at birth. can integrate into the host's chromosome AND may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.

can integrate into the host's chromosome AND may be split into cancer-associated and wart-causing types.

Gas gangrene is so named due to the formation of oxygen AND carbon monoxide. carbon dioxide AND hydrogen. hydrogen AND oxygen. carbon monoxide AND hydrogen. carbon dioxide AND oxygen.

carbon dioxide AND hydrogen.

The most common cause of chronic lymph node enlargement at a localized body site in young children is: A. rat bite fever. B. dead bat fever. C. cat scratch fever. D. mouse itch fever.

cat scratch fever. Bartonellosis (Cat Scratch Disease) slide 46 -In the US, cat scratch disease is the most common cause of chronic, localized lymph node enlargement in young children

To determine the causative agent of a central nervous system (CNS) infection, a sample is taken from the: A. cerebrospinal fluid. B. arterial blood. C. venous blood. D. urine.

cerebrospinal fluid A needle is inserted at the lumbar vertebrae where the spinal cord narrows into a tail, into the subarachnoid space to get a sample of the CSF = Spinal Tap/lumbar puncture

Which animal is used as an early warning system for viral encephalitis? chickens hawks armadillos mice foxes

chickens

Bacterial STIs include

chlamydia, gonorrhea, Mycoplasma genitalium infections, syphilis

Two relatively widespread North American lung mycoses are A) candidiasis and coccidioidomycosis. B) candidiasis and aspergillosis. C) aspergillosis and Reyes syndrome. D) coccidioidomycosis and histoplasmosis. E) None of the choices is correct.

coccidioidomycosis and histoplasmosis

In order to culture the organism responsible for tularemia, the growth media must contain charcoal. glucose. cysteine. NAD.

cysteine Francisella tularensis -bacteria- non-motile, aerobic Gram negative rod that needs added cysteine to grow in vitro.

A frequent complication of scalded skin syndrome is: A) a bacterial secondary infection. B) secondary viral infections. C) dehydration. D) dehydration and a secondary bacterial infection. E) toxemia.

dehydration and a secondary bacterial infection.

The transmission of leprosy is by: A. direct human-to-human contact. B. the fecal-oral route. C. contact with infected blood products. D. contact with infected nasal secretions. E. direct human-to-human contact AND contact with infected nasal secretions.

direct human-to-human contact AND contact with infected nasal secretions. Most of the human population is not susceptible to the disease. WHO provides free multidrug tx.

The food products most commonly contaminated with Salmonella strains are: milk and cheese. fruit and vegetables. meat and seafood. eggs and poultry. eggs and fruit.

eggs and poultry. p.644 Correct

The infectious form of Chlamydia trachomatis is a(n): reticulate body. elementary body. primary element. core body.

elementary body p.740 Figure 27.7 Elementary body is infectious and is outside host. Elementary body attaches to target cell with pili and injects (G-) effector protein to get engulfed, endosome turns into INCLUSION where elementary body forms reticulate body that multiples by binary fission before all the progeny reorganize into elementary bodies and the cell bursts or they get extruded in vesicles back to the outside.

The material released from bacteria that may lead to shock and death in septicemia is exotoxin. protein A. endotoxin. interferon.

endotoxin. = LPS in outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria.

Which of the following E. coli serovars produces a toxin somewhat similar to that produced by Shigella dysenteriae? A. enterotoxigenic B. enteroinvasive C. enteropathogenic D. enterohemorrhagic E. All of the choices are correct.

enterohemorrhagic p.642 - STEC - Shiga toxin-producing E. coli - these strains, also referred to as EHEC or enterohemorrhagic E. coli, produce shiga toxins, a family of functionally identical toxins that includes the toxin of Shigella dysenteriae. In STEC is encoded for by lycogenic conversion.

The human immunodeficiency virus is a(n): A. non-enveloped double-stranded DNA virus. B. enveloped double-stranded DNA virus. C. enveloped single-stranded RNA virus. D. non-enveloped single-stranded DNA virus.

enveloped single-stranded RNA virus Most AIDS cases are caused by HIV-1.

Wound healing can be slowed by the presence of sweat AND normal microbiota. sweat. normal microbiota. antiseptic ointments. foreign matter.

foreign matter.

Streptobacillus moniliformis is unusual in that it has a cell wall. forms spores. is unicellular. forms L-forms. is anaerobic.

forms L-forms

Leptospirosis is often contracted: by eating infected animals. by eating contaminated vegetables. from contaminated animal urine. by the respiratory route.

from contaminated animal urine p.732 - Leptospira interrogans - slender, aerobic G- spirochete with hooked ends and more than 250 antigenic types Bacteria are excreted in an animal's urine and urine spots on the ground remain infectious while moist - contaminated urine is the main mode of transmission to other hosts. - Humans contract leptospirosis from water, soil or food contaminated with infected animal urine. Person-to-person transmission does not seem to occur. - gets into mucus membrane or wounds - not by respiratory route.

In which of these organs does a carrier of typhoid bacilli maintain the bacteria? Gallbladder Liver Colon Peyer's patches Liver AND Peyer's patches

gallbladder Correct

The inflammatory effect of immune complexes lodged in the kidney is called renal phritis. glomerulonephritis. endophritis. rendema. urethritis.

glomerulonephritis.

The inflammatory effects of immune complexes lodged in the kidney is called renal phritis. rendema. glomerulonephritis. urethritis.

glomerulonephritis. Correct

Which of the following viruses maintains a latent state in nerve cells? herpes virus. hepatitis A virus. Norwalk virus. rotavirus.

herpes virus p.750 - most of the time, the viral DNA exists within nerve cells in a circular, non-infectious form, causing no symptoms.

The reservoir of Treponema pallidum is the birds. fox. guinea pig. bat. human.

human.

Most North American outbreaks of Cyclospora cayetanensis have been associated with: A. cattle. B. iguanas. C. imported leafy vegetables and berries, especially raspberries. D. chickens.

imported leafy vegetables and berries, especially raspberries.

Rhinoviruses need to be grown in living cells AND at 39°C. in synthetic media AND at 39°C. in living cells AND at 33°C. in live animals or plants. on blood agar AND at 33°C.

in living cells AND at 33°C

Tetanus vaccine contains inactivated lipopolysaccharide. inactivated bacteria. live bacteria. inactivated spores. inactivated tetanospasmin.

inactivated tetanospasmin.

The condition that develops on a previously damaged heart valve is called acute bacterial endocarditis. myocarditis. an aneurysm. infective endocarditis. effective endocarditis.

infective endocarditis Correct

The fluid which bathes and nourishes the tissue cells is the cytoplasm. interstitial fluid. lymph. blood.

interstitial fluid.

Rickettsia rickettsii is an obligate intracellular pathogen. This means that it cannot grow in the presence of oxygen. it is a virus. it can only grow within host cells. it is non-motile. it needs oxygen for growth.

it can only grow within host cells.

Rickettsia rickettsii is an obligate intracellular pathogen. This means that: A) it is a virus. B) it needs oxygen for growth. C) it cannot grow in the presence of oxygen. D) it can only grow within host cells. E) it is non-motile.

it can only grow within host cells. Rickettsia rickettsii: tiny Gram-negative non-motile coccobacilli that are OBLIGATE INTRACELLULAR BACTERIA - Difficult to grow in culture.

Vibrio cholerae and most salmonellae are: a. killed by acid conditions. b. stimulated by acid conditions. c. killed by low concentrations of salt. d. killed by neutral conditions.

killed by acid conditions. - neither is very resistant to stomach acid and so need more to be infective. I know Salmonella needs 10^11 cells.

Trichomonas vaginalis is an unusual eukaryote in that it: has chloroplasts. lacks mitochondria. has flagella. lacks a nuclear membrane.

lacks mitochondria

The small bean-shaped bodies into which the lymphatic vessels drain are the lymph nodes. adrenals. subclavian veins. valves.

lymph nodes.

HIV adversely affects: red blood cells. nerve cells. macrophages. T helper cells. macrophages AND T helper cells.

macrophages AND T helper cells.

The urinary tract above the bladder usually shows: E. coli. S. aureus. P. vulgaris. no bacteria. E. coli AND S. aureus.

no bacteria p.729 - the urine and the urinary tract above the urethra are generally free of microorganisms in both men and women.

Which is true of the poliomyelitis virus? A. non-enveloped B. single-stranded DNA C. double-stranded RNA D. single-stranded RNA E. non-enveloped AND single-stranded RNA

non-enveloped AND single-stranded RNA Poliomyelitis virus - naked, ssRNA virus is a member of the enterovirus subgroup of the family Picornaviridae. - poliomyelitis is caused by 3 serotypes of poliovirus (1,2,3) but type 1 is the only one still circulating today.

The most common agent(s) causing subacute bacterial endocarditis is/are Streptococcus pyogenes. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. normal skin or mouth flora. Escherichia coli.

normal skin or mouth flora. p.666 - Staphylococcus aureau, Staphylococcus epidermidis, enterococci, variety of Streptococcus species including viridans streptococci from mouth - bacteria Correct

Which of the following is NOT true? Microorganisms in abscesses often are not killed by antimicrobial agents because of the high level of oxygenation. the microorganisms stop dividing. of the chemical nature of the pus. of innate resistance in the microbes. of the lack of blood vessels.

of the high level of oxygenation. There is no oxygen reaching an abscess. Correct

Symptoms of plague appear in two to three months. one to two years. three to six hours. one to six days.

one to six days. p.669 - signs/symptoms depend on how the disease is acquired - through tick bite = bubonic plague - through inhaling respiratory droplets = pneumonic plague - when the causative organisms spreads via bloodstream = septicemic plague

The sudden, violent, uncontrollable cough of pertussis is described as: A) productive. B) contagious. C) infective. D) paroxysmal. E) catastrophic.

paroxysmal. Occurs during paroxysmal stage - 3 stages for pertussis Catarrhal stage - inflammation of mucus membranes Paroxysmal stage - repeated sudden attacks - the cough and the whoop Convalescent stage - not contagious, recovery

Although unusually resistant to many control factors, the tubercle bacillus is easily killed by: A) strong acids. B) disinfectants. C) pasteurization. D) strong alkalis. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

pasteurization. Mycobacterium tuberculosis - slender, acid-fast, rod-shaped bacterium, aerobe with a generation time of over 16 hours. - cell wall contains mycolic acids, cells resist drying, disinfectants, strong acids and alkalis, responsible for acid-fast staining. - easily killed by PASTURIZATION

Which of the following may lead to infertility? Vaginosis Cystitis Pelvic inflammatory disease Pyelonephritis All of these

pelvic inflammatory disease Correct

chapter quiz - first time

perfect score - all correct

With poliomyelitis, we worry about

post-polio syndrome - muscle pain, increased weakness and muscle degeneration 15-50 years after surviving acute paralytic poliomyelitis. It is a secondary effect of the initial damage. The nerves that took over for the ones killed finally give out and die. Salk (IPV) and Sabin (OPV) vaccines

Which of the following has been involved in causing small epidemics in the U.S.? tineasis candidiasis trichomoniasis sporotrichosis

sporotrichosis Fungal wound infection - more serious than skin mycoses. slide 49 Sporotrichosis (Rose Gardener's Disease)

The bacteria that appear to maintain balance between the members of the normal microbiota and play a vital role in limiting colonization by pathogens are diphtheroids. Malassezia spp. Candida spp. staphylococci. Streptococci.

staphylococci.

In which disease is a gumma formed? primary syphilis secondary gonorrhea tertiary syphilis diphtheria

tertiary syphilis In gummatous syphilis, localized areas of tissue damage develop as a result of prolonged inflammatory responses. These lesions, called gummas, are granulomas similar to the tubercles of TB. Chronic and may occur anywhere on the body. p.746

The disease that involves the muscles and often manifests itself first with spasms of the jaw muscles is: - polio. - rabies. - tetanus. - gastritis.

tetanus

High levels of antibodies in patients with infectious endocarditis cause inflammation because they may form clots that lead to life-threatening emboli. the surface antigens change rapidly and become unrecognizable. they may form immune complexes that get trapped in skin and eyes. the antibodies initiate type I, type II, or type III hypersensitivities. the antibodies degrade quickly and debris gets trapped in these organs.

they may form immune complexes that get trapped in skin and eyes. p.667 Correct

During which stage of syphilis is the patient non-infectious? first second third fifth

third Tertiary - non-infectious syphilis causes so many signs and symptoms that it is easily confused with other diseases and is often called "the great imitator", its symptoms occur in defined clinical stages.

Cytokine(s) released from macrophages in response to exposure to endotoxin is/are tumor necrosis factor. interleukin-1. protein A. alpha-toxin. tumor necrosis factor AND interleukin-1.

tumor necrosis factor AND interleukin-1.

Rocky Mountain spotted fever is an example of a(n) plantonosis. aviosis. animalosis. tickonosis. zoonosis.

zoonosis.

Which of the following may be added to normal media to make it more selective for staphylococci? A. 0.5% HCl B. 7.5% salt C. 1.0% glucose D. 5.0% mannose

- 7.5% salt Staphylococci: SALT-TOLERANT, use nutrients and produce antimicrobial substances active against other Gram positive bacteria

Why don't medications such as acyclovir cure oral herpes simplex infections?

- Do not affect latent virus and so cannot cure.

Which of the following organisms feeds on red blood cells? A) Giardia lamblia B) Escherichia coli C) Taenia spp. D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus E) Entamoeba histolytica

- Entamoeba histolytica "E. histolytica is also capable of phagocytizing red blood cells."

In tuberculosis, when a caseous lesion calcifies, it is called a _________. - tubercle - Ghon complex - tuberculous cavity - All of the choices are correct.

- Ghon complex

Which of the following has been associated with the flesh-eating organism? - H. lechter - Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Streptococcus pyogenes - Staphylococcus aureus

- Streptococcus pyogenes - some Streptococcus pyrogenic exotoxin SPE-producing stains of Steptococcus pyogrenes cause toxic shock and necrotizing fasciitis.

The cause of strep throat is: - Staphylococcus aureus. - Streptococcus pyogenes—beta-hemolytic, group A. - Staphylococcus pyogenes—alpha-hemolytic, group B. - Streptococcus pneumoniae. - Staphylococcus aureus—beta-hemolytic, group A.

- Streptococcus pyogenes—beta-hemolytic, group A. Streptococcal pharyngitis (Strep Throat) G+ chains of beta-hemolytic GAS

Why would it be reasonable to treat strep throat but not diphtheria with antibacterial antibiotics? - The signs and symptoms of diphtheria are mostly caused by the exotoxin produced by the causative agent. An antibiotic won't affect the exotoxin. - The signs and symptoms of strep throat are mostly from the exotoxin produced by the causative agent. An antibiotic effectively eliminates these exotoxins. - The causative agent of diphtheria is a virus, not a bacterium. The drug would have no effect against this infectious agent. - There are no antibiotics that have proven effective against the bacterium that causes diphtheria. - The causative agent of diphtheria is pleomorphic and does not have a cell wall. There are thus no antibiotics that would be effective against this organism.

- The signs and symptoms of diphtheria are mostly caused by the exotoxin produced by the causative agent. An antibiotic won't affect the exotoxin. - strep throat - signs/symptoms due to virulence factors of S. pyogenes. - causative agent of diphtheria is Corynebacterium diphtheriae - a pleamorphic, non-motile, non-spore forming, G+ rod with irregularly staining metachormatic granules towards the ends. - both penicillin and erythromycin are effective against C. diphtheriae but can't do anything against absorbed toxin - penicillin is beta-lactam, erythromycin is macrolide - primarily bacteriostatic and works against protein synthesis

The characteristic virulence factor of S. pneumoniae is: A) a capsule. B) flagella. C) pili. D) cilia. E) A-B toxin.

- capsule polysaccharide capsule that stops the opsonin C3b to avoid phagocytosis.

- detecting Koplik spots on the oral mucosa. Rubeola is measles. KOPLIK SPOTS of mucous membranes are identifying feature.

Pneumococcal pneumonia - Tx/Prevention:

- early in illness? Penicillin, erythromycin (G+ diplococci with capsule, remember?) - strains resistant to antibiotics more common - PCV13 vaccine - Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, 13 serotypes - for under 2, over 65 and people at high risk due to health conditions - contains capsular polysaccharides from 13 serotypes attached to bacterial proteins to create T-dependent antigens - polysaccharides are T-independent antigens and w/o the protein added wouldn't be enough alone to cause a large enough immune response in a child under 2. - PPSV23 vaccine - pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine, 23 serotypes - dive at least 1 yr after getting the PCV13 - contains capsule polysaccharides from the 23 most common serotypes - recommended for all adults over 65 plus some high risk people.

Gums bleeding while brushing one's teeth is most commonly associated with: A) halitosis. B) cavities. C) gingivitis. D) periodontitis. E) trench mouth

- gingivitis Red, inflamed gums, brush them and they bleed easily.

Both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes: - are rod shaped - cause necrotizing fasciitis -- have fibronectin binding proteins - have exotoxin A

- have fibronectin binding proteins Correct

The incubation period of leprosy is 1 week. 3 or more years. 3 months. over 10 years. 3 weeks.

3 or more years.

You are looking after you sister's cat Singa. While playing one evening, Singa accidentally bites you instead of the toy mouse that you are holding. The bite wound is very small but is in the fleshy part...

5 of these...

Which of the following does not usually result from a wound infection?

? Infected wounds can have serious consequences • Delayed healing • Formation of abscesses • Spread of bacteria or toxins elsewhere in body

Protective features of the skin include all of the following except: A.High pH B.High salt content C.Keratinized surface D.Resident biota E.Lysozyme

A. High pH the skin is acidic

The scientist responsible for the development of the first anti-plague vaccine in 1866 was Alexandre Yersin. Robert Koch. Louis Pasteur. Josef Marburg.

Alexandre Yersin p.664 - Yersin studies plague - reported discovery of a bacillus (rod) always present in swollen lymph nodes of plague victims. Could be cultivated, made rats sick and they made other rats sick. Yersin's plague bacillus was named Yersinia pestis, used to make a VACCINE and then an antiserum - led to first successful treatment of a plague victim.

Viral central nervous system infections may result in: A. meningitis. B. encephalitis. C. poliomyelitis. D. rabies. E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the above can be caused by viruses.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of meningococcus? A. Antigenic variation prevents the development of a vaccine. B. It uses pili for attachment to mucosal epithelium. C. It is a diplococcus. D. It is an encapsulated bacterium. E. It can vary its surface antigens.

Antigenic variation prevents the development of a vaccine. WRONG - I checked the PP and the textbook and it has to be A. Neisseria miningitidis - Gram negative encapsulated diplococcus - most serious infections are due to serotypes A, B, C, W and Y - inhaled in airborne droplets attach by pili to mucus membranes and then multiply. Like N. gonorrheae, N. meningitidis can vary some of its antigens. Hello, there are 2 vaccines p.700

The reservoir of the common cold is the: A) family pet. B) human. C) infected fomite. D) fruit. E) rhinovirus.

B) human.

The best defense against arboviruses is: A.Prophylactic rifampin B.Vector control C.Vaccination D.Prompt treatment with acyclovir E.All of the choices are correct

B.Vector control

Next is Genital System Diseases

Bacterial Vaginosis (BV) - bacterial Vulvovaginal Candidiasis (VVC) fungal Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome (bacterial - toxin)

Which of the following about bacterial cystitis is false? a) About one-third of all women will have it at some time during their life. b) Catheterization of the bladder markedly increases the risk of contracting the disease. c) Individuals who have a bladder catheter in place indefinitely risk bladder infections with multiple species of intestinal bacteria at the same time. d) Bladder infections occur as often in men as they do in women.

Bladder infections occur as often in men as they do in women. SO MUCH more common in women.

Match the infection with its associated characteristic: A. Rubivirus (rubella) B. Poliovirus (poliomyelitis) C. Haemophilus ducreyi D. Campylobacter jejuni E. Streptococcus mutans 1. soft chancre 2. teratogenic (disturbs fetal growth) 3. Guillain-Barré syndrome 4. neurotropic 5. production of glucan

C. Haemophilus ducreyi -- soft chancre A. Rubivirus (rubella) -- teratogenic (disturbs fetal growth) D. Campylobacter jejuni -- Guillain-Barré syndrome B. Poliovirus (poliomyelitis) -- neurotropic E. Streptococcus mutans -- production of glucan

Diaper rash (dermititis) can be caused by a number of factors. A common microbial cause is the fungus ________. Malassezia furfur Candida albicans Streptococcus pyogenes Cutibacterium acnes Microsporum gypseum

Candida albicans

The animal(s) frequently associated with Campylobacter jejuni is/are: A. turtles. B. iguanas. C. chickens. D. ducks. E. All of the choices are correct.

Chickens

All of the following are gram-negative rods that cause gastroenteritis EXCEPT: A) Clostridium perfringens. B) Escherichia coli. C) Salmonella typhi. D) Shigella spp. E) Yersinia enterocolitica

Clostridium perfringens. Clostridium perfringens is a Gram-positive, rod-shaped, anaerobic, spore-forming pathogenic bacterium of the genus Clostridium.

Which of the following may aid Staphylococcus in resisting phagocytosis? A. leukocidin B. coagulase C. granulation enzyme D. hemolysin

Coagulase

Why did it take so long to understand that L. pneumophila is the cause of a respiratory tract infection? A) It stains poorly and is difficult to detect. B) It has fastidious growth requirements and is difficult to culture. C) It is extremely rare in nature and is seldom present in a population. D) It has fastidious growth requirements and is difficult to culture AND it stains poorly and is difficult to detect. E) It is extremely small and can only be detected using electron microscopy AND it is extremely rare in nature and is seldom present in a population.

D) It has fastidious growth requirements and is difficult to culture AND it stains poorly and is difficult to detect. -rare in nature and seldom present in a population.

Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A. does not cause pneumonia despite its name. B. causes pneumonia more often than Streptococcus pneumoniae. C. causes pneumonia only in conjunction with viral activity. D. is one of the causes of atypical pneumonia.

D. is one of the causes of atypical pneumonia.

What is eschar (a sign of cutaneous anthrax)? A) A small, red, fluid-filled vesicle B) An ulcer surrounded by swelling C) A large black scar D) Dead tissue resembling a flat scab E) Swelling with trapped gas

Dead tissue resembling a flat scab Yes, the pic in the book shows black tissue but don't be misled! An eschar (/ˈɛskɑːr/; Greek: eschara) is a slough or piece of DEAD TISSUE that is cast off from the surface of the skin, particularly after a burn injury, but also seen in gangrene, ulcer, fungal infections, necrotizing spider bite wounds, tick bites associated with spotted fevers, and exposure to cutaneous anthrax.

Which is true of hantavirus? A) It is a zoonosis involving mice. B) It has three segments of single-stranded RNA. C) The primary effect is to flood the lungs with fluid. D) Shock and death occur in 30% of the cases. E) All of the choices are correct.

E) All of the choices are correct. Caused by hantaviruses of bunyavirus family • Enveloped; ssRNA genome in three segments • Each type infects rodent species; harmless to them • Inflammatory response to viral antigen causes capillaries to leak plasma into lungs, suffocating patient, causing blood pressure to fall • Shock and death occur in more than 40% of cases (text = 30%)

Virulence factors of S. pyogenes include: A. Polysaccharides on the cell wall B. Lipoteichoic acid C. Spiky M-proteins D. Capsule to provide adherence E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

What features of the respiratory system protect us from infection? A.Nasal hairs B.Cilia C.Mucus D.Macrophages E.All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is: A.Myeloma B.Leukemia C.Melanoma D.Hodgkin's lymphoma E.Kaposi's sarcoma

E. Kaposi's sarcoma

The cause of infectious mononucleosis is varicella virus. Staphylococcus aureus. Epstein-Barr virus. Francisella tularensis.

Epstein-Barr virus. - enveloped, dsDNA virus of family Herpesviridae, no relation.

Sepsis is only caused by Gram-negative bacteria. T/F

False

T/F - "Flesh-eating" Streptococcus pyogenes is considered a newly emerging disease.

False

T/F: "Flesh-eating" Streptococcus pyogenes is considered a newly emerging disease.

False

T/F: Clostridium tetani is a highly invasive pathogen that causes tetanus, characterized by spastic paralysis.

False

The most common chronic blood-borne infection in the U.S. is: A. hepatitis A B. hepatitis B C. hepatitis C D. hepatitis D

Hepatitis C

Please select the TRUE statement regarding impetigo. A) Signs and symptoms of impetigo result from inflammation in the keratinized outer epidermal layer. B) The causative organism of impetigo is Cutibacterium acnes. C) Patients with impetigo experience fever, pain, and malaise. D) Impetigo is an example of a pyoderma—a superficial skin disease characterized by pus production. E) Treatment of impetigo requires administering at least two different antibiotics.

Impetigo is an example of a pyoderma—a superficial skin disease characterized by pus production. "Most common type of PYODERMA, skin infection characterized by PUS production resulting from infection of insect bite, burn, scrape, or other wound" Streptococcal Impetigo is caused by: Streptococcus pyogenes, also Staphylococcus aureus; both have group A carbohydrate

Which of the following is NOT a route by which bacteria that cause infective endocarditis may gain access to the bloodstream? Ingestion Brushing teeth Trauma Dental procedures Kidney infection

Ingestion p.667 - The bacteria the cause infective endocarditis may enter the bloodstream: - from another infected body site - during dental procedure - during tooth brushing - from trauma Correct

Endocarditis - Inflammation of the heart valves or lining of the heart chambers. Fungemia - Fungi circulating in the bloodstream. Gametocyte - Haploid cell that can be used for sexual reproduction. HIV (viral) set point - Viral load in a person with HIV disease after the immune system begins to respond to the virus and viral numbers stabilize. Human immunodeficiency virus, HIV - The virus causing a disease marked by gradual impairment of the immune system, culminating in AIDS. Reverse transcriptase - Enzyme that synthesizes double-stranded DNA complementary to an RNA template. Seroconversion - Change from serum that lacks specific antibodies to serum that has those antibodies. Subacute bacterial endocarditis - Slowly progressing infection of the internal surfaces of the heart. Transformation - Morphologic and physiologic changes making a cell cancerous resulting from infection of an animal cell by an oncogenic virus. Trophozoite - Vegetative feeding form of some protozoa. Disseminated intravascular coagulation, DIC - Devastating condition in which clots form in small blood vessels, leading to failure of vital organs.

Integrase - Enzyme encoded by HIV or another retrovirus that inserts the DNA copy of the viral genome into a host cell chromosome. Kaposi's sarcoma - Tumor arising from blood or lymphatic vessels. Paroxysm - A sudden increase in symptoms. Petechiae - Small purplish spot on the skin or mucous membrane caused by hemorrhage. Preventive vaccine - Vaccine that prevents a disease. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome, AIDS - A disease of the human immune system caused by infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV); the most advanced stage of infection with HIV. Acute retroviral syndrome, ARS - A stage of HIV disease following the incubation stage; often includes flulike symptoms. Bacteremia - Bacterial cells circulating in the bloodstream. Bubonic plague - Form of plague that typically develops when it is injected during the bite of an infected flea.

Why is Legionella pneumophila detected using immunofluorescence? A) It stains poorly with conventional dyes. B) It is Gram-non-reactive. C) It is an acid-fast bacterium. D) It lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall. E) It is a virus.

It stains poorly with conventional dyes. This is from Ch 21.

The causative agent of the pneumonia that results in permanent lung damage, may be nosocomial, and has a high mortality if untreated is: A) S. pneumoniae. B) K. pneumoniae. C) S. pyogenes. D) S. aureus. E) M. pneumoniae.

K. pneumoniae. Klebsiella pneumoniae - G- rod with large capsule and makes large, mucoid colonies when grown on agar.

An important diagnostic sign of measles is: A) Koplik's spots. B) giant cells. C) fever. D) swollen lymph nodes. E) red, weepy eyes.

Koplik's spots • Koplik spots of mucous membranes identifying feature - check the tongue.

Which of the following genitourinary tract infections is a zoonosis? Leptospirosis M. genitalium infection Cystitis Syphilis Genital herpes

Leptospirosis

Two weeks following a hiking trip in which several ticks were noticed and numerous mosquitoes were biting, a 25-year-old man notices a rash shaped like a red ring on the back of his thigh. He was not concerned because he had no other symptoms. Three months later he noticed significant pain in his elbows and his knees. What is the most likely cause of his illness? A. West Nile encephalitis B. Lyme disease C. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever D. Ehrlichiosis

Lyme disease - the rash in a red ring.

Epidemics of meningitis appear to involve: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae. B. Haemophilus influenzae. C. Neisseria meningitidis. D. Streptococcus pyogenes.

Neisseria meningitidis p699 - Neisseria meningitidis, often called meningococcus, is frequently responsible for epidemics of meningitis. -cause of meningococcal meningitis - Gram negative diplococcus with capsule - respiratory droplets, attach with pili

Does rubella always lead to congenital rubella syndrome? No. All fetuses have a well developed innate immune response that prevents them from producing damaging antibodies. Yes. No matter when a woman is infected during her pregnancy, the rubella virus will cross the placenta and destroy the fetus. No. Some fetuses have a well developed adaptive immune response that prevents them from developing CRS. No. The risk of developing CRS decreases as the pregnancy progresses and the fetus develops. Yes. Rubella virus can infect and damage every cell type in a developing fetus at any time.

No. The risk of developing CRS decreases as the pregnancy progresses and the fetus develops.

Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis? cat-scratch disease Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome rabies tapeworm None of the answers is correct; all of these are zoonoses

None of the answers is correct; all of these are zoonoses

Which of the following produces a greenish pigment that may appear in infected wounds? S. pyogenes E. aerogenes P. aeruginosa E. coli S. aureus

P. aeruginosa

Which of the following produces a greenish pigment that may appear in infected wounds? E. coli S. aureus S. pyogenes P. aeruginosa

P. aeruginosa slide 21 Water-soluble pigments (fluorescent yellow pyoverdin and blue pyocyanin) yield characteristic green color

The Gram-negative opportunistic rod that can grow in a wide variety of environments, including disinfectants and soaps, is P. aeruginosa. E. coli. S. aureus. P. vulgaris. S. pyogenes.

P. aeruginosa.

Haemophilus influenzae meningitis

PATHOGEN: Haemophilus influenzae MORPHOLOGY: Gram-negative rod PORTAL OF ENTRY: Respiratory tract METHOD OF TRANSMISSION: Endogenous infection; aerosols TREATMENT: Cephalosporin Prevention: Capsular Hib vaccine

The most common infectious agent acquired from the bite wounds of a number of kinds of animals is: - Escherichia coli. - Pasteurella multocida. - Actinomyces israelii. - Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Pasteurella multocida slide 44 Humans and many animals carry P. multocida as normal oral and upper respiratory microbiota, serve as reservoirs • Cats more likely to carry than dogs Correct

Select the best description of the causative agent of diphtheria. Pleomorphic, Gram-positive, flagellated lysogen. Gram-positive, spore-forming rod. Gram-positive, encapsulated, spore-former. Pleomorphic, Gram-positive lysogen. Pleomorphic, Gram-negative lysogen.

Pleomorphic, Gram-positive lysogen.

Please select the TRUE statement regarding Haemophilus influenzae. Polysaccharide antigen from type b is used in vaccination. It is a highly motile spirochete. It is a virus. All strains are encapsulated. It frequently causes meningitis in adults.

Polysaccharide antigen from type b is used in vaccination.

Which is a characteristic of the septicemic phase of leptospirosis? Flu-like symptoms Sudden headache and fever Red eyes and photophobia Vomiting, rash, and confusion Jaundice

Red eyes and photophobia.

In which of the following does a rash start on the palms and soles and progress toward the trunk? A) Epidemic typhus B) Typhoid C) Measles D) Impetigo E) Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever Rash from blood leakage appears on palms, wrists, ankles, soles; spreads up arms and legs to rest of body.

Who determined that the cholera outbreak in 1850s London was due to contaminated water and approached the problem by removing the pump handle at the contaminated site? Pasteur Snow Koch Smith

Snow • John Snow (London physician) demonstrated CHOLERA transmitted by contaminated water in 1854 • During outbreak, observed victims got water from well on Broad Street; neighbors elsewhere unaffected • Even though germ theory not yet described, Snow convinced authorities to remove handle on pump

Bacterial attachment to fibronectin and fibrinogen coating plastic devices like catheters and heart valves is a virulence mechanism of: A. Staphylococcus B. Streptococcus C. Clostridium D. Pseudomonas

Staphylococcus Staphylococcus clumping factor

The principal cause of dental caries is: S. mutans. S. salivarius. S. mitis. S. sanguis.

Streptococcus mutans Streptococcus mutans, related species are cariogenic (caries generating); live only on teeth • Thrive in acidic environments - Produce lactic acid from fermentation - Convert sucrose into extracellular insoluble polysaccharides called glucans - Glucans essential for development of dental caries on smooth tooth surfaces

Why is tertiary syphilis difficult to treat? The bacteria have formed endospores, which are resistant to the effects of antibiotics. The bacteria have moved into deep tissues that are not accessible by medications. The bacteria are no longer actively multiplying, and antibiotics work against dividing cells. The bacteria have migrated to the brain, which is protected by the blood-brain barrier. The bacteria have formed biofilms, which protect them from the effects of antibiotics.

The bacteria are no longer actively multiplying, and antibiotics work against dividing cells.

Why is it more difficult to treat a late persistent Lyme infection than an early disseminated Lyme infection? Borrelia bergdorferi forms dense biofilms under the skin of infected people in the late stage of the disease. Bacteria within biofilms are protected from the effects of antibiotics and are difficult to kill. The bacteria are no longer dividing in the late stage of Lyme disease, and as antibiotics only work against actively dividing bacteria, they are less effective at this stage. Borrelia bergdorferi produces extremely resistant endospores in the late stage of the disease. Once these have been formed, it is very difficult to treat the disease. A person with Lyme disease develops resistance to multiple antibiotics throughout the course of the disease, so treating them in the late stage of the disease becomes challenging. The bacteria have developed resistance to multiple antibiotics by the late stage of the disease, so it is difficult to effectively treat a person.

The bacteria are no longer dividing in the late stage of Lyme disease, and as antibiotics only work against actively dividing bacteria, they are less effective at this stage.

Which is true of MRSA strains? A) They are all resistant to vancomycin. B) They carry the R plasmid AND they are all resistant to vancomycin. C) They may be susceptible to linezolid. D) The carry the R plasmid AND they may be susceptible to linezolid. E) The carry the F plasmid AND they may be susceptible to linezolid.

The carry the R plasmid AND they may be susceptible to linezolid. Pretty much just rules out the rest. - not all MRSA is resistant to vancomycin - Yes to R plasmid but no to B because no to A - No to E as F plasmid is fertility plasmid I want the R plasmid one so had to be D.

Why are secondary infections a common complication of measles? A) The causative agent damages the keratinized epidermal layer. B) The causative agent severely suppresses the immune system. C) Phagocytes are killed by the causative agent of measles. D) The causative agent damages the respiratory mucous membranes. E) The causative agent prevents B cells from producing protective antigens.

The causative agent damages the respiratory mucous membranes.

Why can't botulism be transmitted from person to person? The disease is caused by eating spores that germinate into vegetative cells that produce toxin. Botulism is a toxin-mediated blood-borne disease AND people with botulism die before they can transmit the disease to others. The disease is caused by eating spores that germinate into vegetative cells that produce toxin AND people with botulism die before they can transmit the disease to others. The disease is caused by ingestion of food contaminated with botulinum toxin AND the disease is caused by eating spores that germinate into vegetative cells that produce toxin. The disease is a toxin-mediated disease; it is caused by ingestion of food contaminated with botulinum toxin produced under anaerobic conditions by Clostridium tetani.

The disease is caused by ingestion of food contaminated with botulinum toxin AND the disease is caused by eating spores that germinate into vegetative cells that produce toxin. Check out that last choice. C. tetani? That's tetanus. This is C. botulinum.

What is unusual about Borrelia bergdorferi, the causative agent of Lyme disease? The organism contains plasmids that have genes normally found on the chromosome. Borrelia bergdorferi is a pathogenic spirochete. B. bergdorferi causes flu-like signs and symptoms when it first infects a host. The cells have a thin peptidoglycan cell wall with an outer membrane containing LPS. The bacterium is a Gram-negative, microaerophilic pathogen.

The organism contains plasmids that have genes normally found on the chromosome.

Which is/are true of coccidioidomycosis and histoplasmosis? - They are both soil fungi.They are both dimorphic fungi. - They are both life-threatening. - They may be treated with antibiotics. - They are both soil fungi AND they are both dimorphic fungi.

They are both soil fungi AND they are both dimorphic fungi.

Which characteristic(s) is/are NOT common to C. tetani and C. perfringens? They are obligate anaerobes. They are rod-shaped. They produce A-B toxins. They are Gram-positive bacteria. They are spore-formers.

They produce A-B toxins They are both the rest - they are G+ rod shaped, obligate anaerobes. Clostridium is a spore-former. Correct

Which of the following is specific to H. pylori strains associated with stomach cancer? They produce VacA. They have sheathed flagella. The are acidophilic. They are microaerophilic. They produce CagA.

They produce CagA. p.632 Correct

Why might Candida albicans become pathogenic in an individual receiving antibacterial medications? A) This fungal organism can actually utilize the destroyed bacterial cells as a nutrient source and begin to multiply out of control. This can cause a pathogenic state. B) This is an opportunistic pathogen not normally found in normal microbiota. As such, when the bacterial normal microbiota is wiped out by broad-spectrum antibacterial drugs, this opportunist can adhere to and colonize the area left behind. C) This is a usual member of the normal microbiota. However, when the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are wiped out by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this fungal cell type has little to no competition for resources in the affected area. As such, it quickly overgrows and can cause a pathogenic state. D) This is a protozoan species and part of the normal microbiota. When the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are wiped out by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this protozoan cell type has little to no competition for resources in the affected area. As such, it quickly overgrows and can cause a pathogenic state.

This is a usual member of the normal microbiota. However, when the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are wiped out by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this fungal cell type has little to no competition for resources in the affected area. As such, it quickly overgrows and can cause a pathogenic state. Not really a usual member but is found among them.

Rubella is a member of which virus family? Herpesviridae Togaviridae Papovaviridae Retroviridae Paramyxoviridae

Togaviridae

Rubella is a member of which virus family? A) Paramyxoviridae B) Herpesviridae C) Togaviridae D) Papovaviridae E) Retroviridae

Togaviridae Virus families end in -viridae. Rubella virus of togavirus family: - enveloped, single-stranded RNA • Easily cultivated in cell cultures

Which parasitic organism, when it crosses the placenta, results in intracerebral calcifications, chorioretinitis, microcephaly, hydrocephaly, and convulsions?

Toxoplasma gondii - is an obligate intracellular parasitic one-celled eukaryote (specifically an apicomplexan) that causes the infectious disease toxoplasmosis.

An abscess is a collection of pus. T/F

True

Both malaria and yellow fever are transmitted by mosquitoes. T/F

True

Histoplasmosis may mimic tuberculosis. T/F

True

Individuals who have recovered from tetanus are not immune to the disease and must be immunized. T/F

True

Typically C. albicans causes no symptoms. T/F

True Candida albicans is the causative agent of Vulvovaginal Candidiasis, an genital tract infection. p.736 - normally, vaginal colonization by Candida albicans causes no symptoms. It is when the normal microbiota balance is disturbed that C. albicans can multiply freely, causing an inflammatory response.

Coagulase-positive S. aureus is often involved in disease. T/F

True So, so true. Somewhere I saw a chart...

Which of the following are considered diseases of the lower respiratory tract? Influenza and tuberculosis Common cold and tuberculosis Diphtheria and pneumonia Tuberculosis and pneumonia Influenza and diphtheria

Tuberculosis and pneumonia

Which statement about the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems is NOT true? The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems are typically sterile. Phagocytes in spleen red pulp remove aging or damaged RBCs, bacteria, and other antigens from the blood. Blood is exposed to immune cells as it passes through the spleen. Veins carry blood away from the heart while arteries carry blood towards the heart. Inflammation of lymphatic vessels is called lymphangitis, which presents as a red streak from an infection site toward the nearest lymph node.

Veins carry blood away from the heart while arteries carry blood towards the heart. Arteries carry blood away, veins carry blood to the heart. Correct

Which of the statements regarding Vibrio vulnificus infection and its causative agent is FALSE? V. vulnificus releases degradative enzymes as well as toxins in a coordinated manner, controlled by a quorum-sensing mechanism. V. vulnificus produces endotoxin, which causes an uncontrolled inflammatory response that leads to endotoxic shock. V. vulnificus produces a cytotoxin called RTX that kills epithelial cells by forming pores in their membranes. Vibrio vulnificus is a Gram-negative, motile, curved, rod-shaped bacterium that is related to V. cholerae but lacks a capsule. In most people, V. vulnificus causes fever, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain, but immunocompromised people are at risk of developing sepsis.

Vibrio vulnificus is a Gram-negative, motile, curved, rod-shaped bacterium that is related to V. cholerae but lacks a capsule.

The hard chancre in primary syphilis is caused by an antibody response. an intense inflammatory response. a type III hypersensitivity. sepsis due to spread of the organism. rejection of the invaded tissue.

an intense inflammatory response.

Tetanus antitoxin is inactivated toxin. inactivated bacteria. antibody against the toxin. antibody against neurotransmitter. antibody against the bacteria.

antibody against the toxin.

During which stage of pregnancy can T. pallidum cross the placenta and possibly infect the fetus? first trimester. second trimester. third trimester. any stage.

any stage p.746 - In pregnant women, Treponema pallidum (syphilis) easily corsses the placenta and infects the fetus, causing congenital syphilis. Fetal infections can occur in the absence of any signs or symptoms of syphilis in the mother and at any stage of pregnancy, but damage to the fetus does not generally happen until the 4th month.

Urinary tract infections: are relatively rare. are the most common nosocomial infections. include puerperal fever .are not considered STDs. are the most common nosocomial infections AND include puerperal fever.

are the most common nosocomial infections AND include puerperal fever. p.730. UTI's - Bacterial Cystitis (Bladder Infection) and Leptospirosis are under the heading of urinary tract infections. - Bacterial Cystitis is the most common type of UTI and is a frequent HAI.

The most common urinary infection is vulvovaginal candidiasis. toxic shock syndrome. bacterial cystitis. bacterial vaginosis.

bacterial cystitis Also called bladder infection. p.730 - Cystitis is the most common type of UTI. Is common among otherwise healthy women and is a frequent HAI.

The most serious consequence of rubella is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. deafness. birth defects. encephalitis. Meningitis.

birth defects

The central nervous system is made up of the brain and endocrine organs. sympathetic and parasympathetic system. spinal cord and spinal nerves. spinal nerves and meninges. brain and spinal cord.

brain and spinal cord.

The most common infectious disease of humans is the common cold. hepatitis A. halitosis. influenza. dental caries.

dental caries

The S. aureus product that causes scalded skin syndrome is: A) lipases. B) exfoliation toxin. C) leukocidins. D) protein M. E) peeling toxin.

exfoliation toxin. "Exfoliatin is a Staphylococcus aureus exotoxin[1] that causes a blistering of the skin known as staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, usually in infants."

Which of the following virulence factors has been associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa? endotoxin A exoenzyme S pyogenic exotoxin endoenzyme T

exoenzyme S slide 23 Exoenzyme S is a phospholipase, works synergistically with protease lecithinase to hydrolyze lecithin, results in membrane disruption and cell death

The most common of the sexually transmitted viral diseases agents is: human papillomavirus. herpes virus. human immunodeficiency virus. leptospirosis.

human papilloma virus Sexually transmitted human papillomavirus (HPV) strains are among the most common of the STI agents. p.751

The spread of mycoplasma is through: A) inhalation of infected droplets. B) the fecal-oral route. C) an insect vector. D) a fomite such as a towel. E) opportunistic normal microbiota.

inhalation of infected droplets.

Helicobacter can grow in the stomach because it: A) Hides in macrophages. B) Makes a capsule. C) Makes NH3. D) Makes HCl. E) Invades epithelial cells.

makes NH3 - ammonia

M. leprae may infect: A. mangabey monkeys. B. skunks. C. iguanas. D. armadillos. E. mangabey monkeys AND armadillos.

mangabey monkeys AND armadillos The strain of bacteria found in wild 9-banded armadillos and in human is the same.

The MMR vaccine is used to protect against: A) mononucleosis, mange, rubeola. B) measles, mumps, rubella. C) measles, mange, rubeola. D) mononucleosis, mumps, rubella. E) mumps, rubella, varicella.

measles, mumps, rubella.

The viral disease that characteristically infects the parotid glands is: measles. herpes. chickenpox. mumps.

mumps Onset marked by fever, loss of appetite, headache • Followed by painful swelling of one or both parotid glands • Spasm of underlying muscle makes talking, chewing hard • Symptoms can arise elsewhere in body

. In rabies, the virus multiplies in one kind of cell then binds to receptors in the: A. neuromuscular region. B. spinal cord. C. respiratory area. D. brain.

neuromuscular region (does take out motor nerve endings so...) Rabies virus is introduced into the body, multiplies at the site of entry, enters a sensory neuron, travels by retrograde transport up the axon to the spinal cord and eventually to the brain. Once in brain tissue the virus multiples and causes the symptoms of encephalitis. - look for inclusion bodies called Negri bodies made up of viral nucleocapsids - can diagnose rabies from stained smears from surface of eye

Viral gastroenteritis that affects people of all ages and usually lasts less than 3 days is caused by influenza virus. herpes. norovirus. hepatitis B. rotavirus.

norovirus p.649 - Noroviruses are the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in the US. They are a Category B bioterrorism agent because they spread easily with the potential of causing large, demoralizing outbreaks. Noroviruses are naked, ssRNA viruses from the family Caliciviridae.

Amebiasis: A. is caused by C. parvum. B. often causes a bloody diarrhea. C. is an infection of the stomach. D. is restricted to temperate climates. E. is caused by C. parvum AND often causes a bloody diarrhea.

often cause a bloody diarrhea p.659 - Trophozoites of Entamoeba histolytica feed on mucus and tissue of the large intestine. They may also invade the intestinal lining, causing ulcerations and BLOODY DIARRHEA = amebic dysentery.

Cryptococcal meningoencephalitis caused by Cryptococcus gattii differs from the general pattern of fungal central nervous system (CNS) disease by occurring in: A. otherwise healthy people. B. children. C. AIDS patients. D. immunosuppressed people.

otherwise healthy people Cryptococcal meningoencephalitis - Cryptococcus neoformans (opportunistic) - Cryptococcus gattii (causes disease even in healthy individuals) These are spherical yeasts generally 3 to 20 micrometers in diameter surrounded by a thick capsule (capsule stain with Inida Ink) that resists the immune response.

Why do patients with leptospirosis sometimes undergo unnecessary surgery?

p.733 - Severe pain is characterisitc of the first (septicemic) phase, and patients sometimes undergo unnecessary surgery because the pain is mistaken for a symptom of appendicitis or gallbladder infections.

The disease that results from Chlamydia trachomatis possibly attaching to sperm and ascending into the fallopian tubes is: conjunctivitis. neonatorum ophthalmia. pelvic inflammatory disease. trachoma.

pelvic inflammatory disease Trachoma is an infectious disease caused by bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. The infection causes a roughening of the inner surface of the eyelids. This roughening can lead to pain in the eyes, breakdown of the outer surface or cornea of the eyes, and eventual blindness.

Gonococci selectively attach to certain epithelial cells by: pili. flagella. cilia. actin bridges. flagella AND cilia.

pili pili are for attachment. Flagella are movement. Cilia for movement of eukaryotic cells. N. gonorrhoeae use pili to attach to non-ciliated cells. Can't attach to squamous or ciliated cells.

The disease responsible for the death of approximately ¼ the population of Europe from 1346 to 1350 was typhus. pneumonia. influenza. plague.

plague. Crowded conditions and a large rat population had major roles in the spread of plague. Plague is a potential bioterrorism disease, Category A.

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following diseases except A. strep throat B. scarlet fever C. pneumococcal pneumonia D. glomerulitis E. All of the choices are correct

pneumococcal pneumonia - is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, a Gram-positive diplococcus known as pneumococcus.

Naegleria fowleri may cause: A. meningitis. B. primary amebic meningoencephalitis. C. African sleeping sickness. D. AIDS.

primary amebic meningoencephalitis. Amoeba found in warm fresh water and soil. Infected after swimming or diving in natural waters in US. Rare event but usually fatal. Naegleria fowleri - free-living protozoa that is pathogenic for humans. Ameboid trophozoite gives rise to flagellated forms and spherical cysts. Penetrates the skull along the olfactory nerves of the nasal mucosa. Multiples, migrates to brain and eats brain tissue (frontal lobe = yum!). Not transmitted person to person.

The protein produced by S. aureus that interferes with phagocytosis is protein A. collagen. flagellin. capsular protein. M protein.

protein A.

Stained smears of the surface of the eye might be useful in diagnosing: A. influenza. B. herpes. C. polio. D. rabies

rabies p.710 - Rabies can be diagnosed before death by identifying the virus in stained smears collected from the surface of the eyes.

Which of the following agents travel up the nerves to penetrate the CNS? A) rabies B) herpes simplex C) tetanus toxin D) polio E) rabies, herpes simplex, AND tetanus toxin

rabies, herpes simplex, AND tetanus toxin

Meningococcal meningitis is typically acquired through the: A. genitourinary tract. B. respiratory tract. C. gastrointestinal tract. D. skin.

respiratory tract p.699 - transmission of Neisseria meningitiis (meningococci) is through airborne droplets that attach by pili to mucus membranes and multiply.

The heart chamber that passes blood to the lungs is the left ventricle. right ventricle. right atrium. left atrium.

right ventricle. Left ventricle send blood to the body Right atrium sends blood to right ventricle Left atrium sends blood to left ventricle

The disease characterized by the appearance of a toxin-mediated rash that causes the tongue to look like the surface of a ripe strawberry is scarlet fever. measles. strep throat. pharyngitis. chickenpox.

scarlet fever.

The nerves that carry information to the central nervous system (CNS) are termed: A. motor nerves. B. endocrine nerves. C. sensory nerves. D. cerebrospinal nerves.

sensory nerves - sensory nerves TO the CNS, motor nerves AWAY from the CNS.

Acute bacterial endocarditis differs from subacute bacterial endocarditis in the suddenness and severity of onset. population affected. resultant damage. development of exotoxin shock.

suddenness and severity of onset. Subacute is gradual and not as bad. Acute is rapid and bad. - so how sudden and how severe.

Effective treatment of gas gangrene primarily involves use of synergistic antibiotics. use of myonecrosis immune globulins. use of an antitoxin. vaccination with inactivated toxin. surgical removal of dead and infected tissues.

surgical removal of dead and infected tissues.

Patients with V. vulnificus infection are given a combination of synergistic antibiotics. This means that the antibiotics given in combination are always broad spectrum medications. the antibiotics work together to produce a stronger effect than each antibiotic on its own. each antibiotic works independently, but does not inhibit the action of the other antibiotic(s) in the combination. one antibiotic in the combination is always broad spectrum while the other(s) is/are always narrow spectrum. the action of one antibiotic diminishes the effect of the other(s) in the combination.

the antibiotics work together to produce a stronger effect than each antibiotic on its own.

Humans acquire the arbovirus that causes epidemic encephalitis by: A. the fecal-oral route. B. human to human contact. C. the bite of an infected mosquito. D. contaminated food.

the bite of an infected mosquito. But humans are an accidental dead end host. Birds, squirrels, etc - the virus can build up to concentration in blood that can use a mosquito as biological vector. In people it can't ever replicate to a high enough concentration.

Intestinal protozoan infections are typically spread by: vectors. blood transfusion. the respiratory route. body fluids. the fecal-oral route.

the fecal-oral route.

The stage of Lyme disease that is characterized by arthritis is the fourth. third. second. primary. intermediate.

third p.672 - the third stage of Lyme disease (Late persistent infection) is characterized by ARTHRITIS and the affected joints have high concentrations of reactive immune cells and immune complexes. Correct

The major virulence factors of Yersinia pestis are carried on the chromosome. a plasmid. three separate plasmids. nuclear membrane.

three separate plasmids. Nothing in my chapter says anything about plasmids.

Staphylococcus aureus is the causative agent of: bacterial vaginosis. puerperal fever. toxic shock syndrome. gas gangrene. bacterial vaginosis AND puerperal fever

toxic shock syndrome bacterial vaginosis -> E. coli and others puerperal fever -> group A streptococcus gas gangrene -> Clostridum perfringens Toxic Shock Syndrome -> strains of Staphylococcus aureus that produce toxic shock syndrome toxiToxic Shock Syndrome -> strains of Staphylococcus aureus that produce toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) or other related exotoxins (G+ bacteria)n-1 (TSST-1) or other related exotoxins (G+ bacteria)

The limited type of leprosy in which cell-mediated immunity suppresses proliferation of the bacilli is called: A. lepromatous. B. limited. C. immune. D. tuberculoid.

tuberculoid Cell-mediated immunity successfully stops the proliferating bacteria, is called tuberculoid leprosy (pauchibacillary) - this isn't transmitted. When cell-mediated immunity to M. leprae fails to develop or is suppresses, unrestricted growth of M. leprae occurs, leads to a form called lepromatous leprosy (multibacilliary). Mucus of throat/nose contain high number of pathogen and is easily transmitted to others.

The cytokine released from macrophages that seems to play a major role in endotoxic shock is macrophage factor. tumor necrosis factor. protein A. interferon.

tumor necrosis factor. It's a pro-inflammatory cytokine. The host immune response is activated by TNF-α, as is the subsequent release of cytokines following trauma and infection.

If an individual in the infectious stage of chickenpox comes into contact with a person who had chickenpox as a child, that second person will be unaffected by the contact. will develop shingles. will remain healthy if they receive zoster immune globulin. will develop a second case of chickenpox OR will develop shingles. will develop a second case of chickenpox.

will be unaffected by the contact.

Where in the body does the latent, non-infectious, non-replicating form of the herpes simplex virus persist? motor neurons red blood cells cranial nerves sensory nerves

sensory nerves Correct

Reactivation of chickenpox is called: A) shingles. B) herpes zoster. C) pneumonia. D) exanthems. E) shingles AND herpes zoster.

shingles AND herpes zoster

A wound created by the drag of a knife across skin can be classified as: A. puncture. B. incised. C. lacerated. D. contused.

- incised • Incisions: produced by knife or other sharp object

Which is used in the vaccination for C. diphtheriae? - protein A - M protein - toxoid - red blood cells

- toxoid Inactivated toxoid booster - diphtheriae, tetanus.

All of the following infections can result from drinking contaminated water EXCEPT: A) Cyclospora infection. B) giardiasis. C) trichinellosis. D) cholera. E) cryptosporidiosis

- trichinellosis Trichinellosis, also called trichinosis, is caused by eating raw or under-cooked meat of animals infected with the larvae of a species of worm called Trichinella. Cholera - yes to waterborne - bacterial infection, causes water diarrhea. Giardia, Crypto, Cyclosporia as all about waterborne disease of lower digestive system caused by protozoans.

- upward through the Eustachian tube.

The plague is typically transmitted via the bite of ticks. fleas. lice. mites.

fleas. Y. pestis forms a biofilm in flea guts, they starve and want to bite.

The "Black Death" may also be known as tularemia. brucellosis. endocarditis. plague.

plague.

The virulence of the tubercle bacillus is due to its lysogenic conversion AND resistance to antibiotics. lysogenic conversion. toxin. resistance to antibiotics. survival within macrophages.

survival within macrophages.

The virulence of the tubercle bacillus is due to its: A) toxin. B) lysogenic conversion. C) resistance to antibiotics. D) survival within macrophages. E) lysogenic conversion AND resistance to antibiotics.

survival within macrophages. Look at your PP notes - I laid it all out nice and neat in the notes. - airborne cells inhaled into lungs - Alveolar macrophages engulf; unable to destroy - Mycolic acids prevent fusion of phagosome with lysosomes - Bacteria exit, multiply within macrophage's cytoplasm

T/F: Streptococci are grouped by their cell wall carbohydrates.

True

Tetanus antitoxin can cross the placenta. T/F

True

Please select the FALSE statement regarding tooth decay.

...

The bacteria primarily responsible for dental caries is Streptococcus mutans. T/F

True

The infectious dose for cholera is much larger than that for shigellosis. T/F

True

Antigenic shifts may be the result of two different viruses infecting a cell at the same time. the lysogenic conversion of two viruses AND blending of a bacterial and viral genome. the lysogenic conversion of two viruses. conjugation of two viruses. blending of a bacterial and a viral genome.

two different viruses infecting a cell at the same time.

A common viral rash of childhood with the popular name chickenpox is also known as rubeola. rubella. bariola. salmonella. varicella-zoster.

varicella-zoster.

Mycoplasma is effectively treated with cell wall inhibiting antibiotics. T/F

False No cell wall so...

Klebsiella Pneumonia

- Enterobacteria such as Klebsiella sp. and other Gram negative rods can cause pneumonia, especially if host defenses are impaired - Klebsiella sp. common hospital-acquired pathogens, cause most of the deaths from healthcare-associated infections Signs/Symptoms: - 1-3 day incubation - cough, chills, SOB, fever, chest pain and cyanosis - same as for penumococcal pneumonia - chills are repeated chills and a thick, bloody, JELLY-LIKE sputum Causative Agent: - Klebsiella pneumoniae - G- rod with large capsule that produces mucoid (mucusy) colonies - common part of normal microbiota in GI tract and my be sound in mouth or throat Pathogenesis: - person-to-person contact through secretions (contact or inhalation) or from medical equipment like ventilators - first colonize throat, then to lungs via inhaled air or mucus - adhesins aid in colonization - virulence factors: - capsule - interferes with opsonin C3b - sidiophore - high affinity for Fe, quickly grabs up the cell's iron. The iron depletion acts as a celluler stressor that induces inflammation and ehances the spread of bacteria. - klebsiella bacteria results in more tissue damage than does pneumococcal pneumonia and in the rapid formation of LUNG ABSCESSES. - means even if meds work the damage to lungs may be permanent and the perosn may still die. - infeciton can spread through the blood, causing abscesses in other tissues, like liver/brain or causing septic/endotoxic shock. Epidemiology: - Klebsiella is widespread in nature and common in normal microbiota. People who get this pneumonia are very old/young or have a comprommised immune system - strains that circulate in hospitals/nursing homes are often resistant to antimicrobials and more are becoming multi-drug resistant Tx/Prevention: - treat with antibiotics - drug sensitivity testing to figure out which ones - seriously ill? Immediately give combination antibiotic therapy - surgery to drain abscesses - tx is challenging - strains becoming multi-drug resistant Most have plasmids: β-lactamase (resist β-lactams such as penicillin); many also extended-spectrum lactamase (ESBL) (resist many cephalosporins) - fatality rate can reach 50% - No specific preventative measures like vaccination - prevent spread by following infection control measures (gown, glove, wash hands), disinfect environment, use sterile respiratory equipment and give antibiotics only when you have to control but avoid development of resistance.

Which is used in the vaccination for C. diphtheriae? Lipopolysaccharide M protein Protein A Exotoxin Intact bacteria

Exotoxin

Which virulence factor of P. aeruginosa inhibits host cell protein synthesis? Pyocyanin Phospholipase C Pyoverdin Exoenzyme S Exotoxin A

Exotoxin A

What virulence factory of P. aeruginosa inhibits host cell protein synthesis?

Exotoxin A - stops host cell protein synthesis

The popular name for tetanus is: - hydrophobia. - lockjaw. - whooping cough. - consumption.

- lockjaw slide 27

Which of the following are transmitted by mosquitoes? plague AND yellow fever. tularemia AND plague. yellow fever AND malaria. yellow fever AND tularemia. malaria AND tularemia.

yellow fever AND malaria

Only one serotype of mumps virus is known. Why is this important?

- I think: lets us make a vaccine for it

The pneumococcal vaccine is directed against the cilia. flagella. pili. capsule. A-B toxin.

capsule.

Adenoviral pharyngitis is effectively treated with antibiotics. nucleotide analogs. proteases. lysozyme. None of the choices is correct.

None of the choices is correct.

Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental caries? a. Dentin b. Lactic acid c. Crevicular fluid d. Lysozyme e. Sucrose

- lactic acid

The circulation of an agent in the bloodstream is given a name ending in -ase. -ing. -emia. -ation.

-emia.

Which signs and symptoms are not quickly resolved in a person with tetanus when they are given antibiotics?

how may lung damage or pneumonia occur in a person with tetanus?

Lyme disease is spread from human to human by mosquito vectors. T/F

False

Epidemics of meningitis appear to involve Streptococcus pneumoniae. Haemophilus influenzae. Neisseria meningitidis. Staphylococcus aureus. Streptococcus pyogenes.

Neisseria meningitidis.

Which of the following does not apply to staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome? Person-to-person spread frequently occurs. It may lead to kidney failure. The causative organism produces superantigens. The causative organism usually does not enter the bloodstream. It is can occur in males and females.

Person-to-person spread frequently occurs. p.737 - it does not spread from person to person

Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of 4 to 24 hours isprobably caused by: A) Giardia B) Rotavirus C) Salmonella D) Staphylococcus aureus E) Trichinella

Rotavirus

Staphylococci are the leading cause of wound infections. T/F

True

A patient presents with bad halitosis, red and swollen gingiva, and several loose teeth. You take a sample from the gum line and after performing a stain, note spirochete bacteria as well as some bacilli. This patient likely has dental caries. periodontal disease. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. gingivitis. dental caries AND acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

chapter quiz - 3rd try

all correct

M. leprae may infect birds. iguanas. skunks. raccoons. armadillos.

armadillos

Among the most common of the sexually transmitted viral diseases agents is human immunodeficiency virus. herpes simplex virus. varicella zoster virus. leptospirosis virus. human papillomavirus.

human papillomavirus.

HBV is mainly spread by: a. blood. b. blood products. c. semen. d. saliva. e. blood, blood products AND semen.

blood, blood products AND semen. p.653 says "Hepatitis B can be transmitted in body fluids such as saliva, blood, blood products and semen."

The sexually transmitted disease characterized by painful genital ulcers is: chancroid. syphilis. gonorrhea. trachoma.

chancroid

The poliomyelitis virus is in the picornavirus family in the subgroup: A. adenoviruses. B. enteroviruses. C. arboviruses. D. dermotropic.

enteroviruses

The poliomyelitis virus is in the picornavirus family in the subgroup arboviruses. enteroviruses. dermotrophs. adenoviruses. retroviruses.

enteroviruses.

Which of the following is associated with cervical cancer? gonorrhea genital warts syphilis chancroid

genital warts p.751 - not exactly according to this page but who am I to quibble?

Toxoplasma

invovles cats, fetus can be infected if a woman gets this disease during pregancy -protozoan diseases

The toxins involved in intestinal infections typically modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes. kill cells by inhibiting DNA synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in decreased secretion of water and electrolytes. kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes. kill cells by inhibiting DNA synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes. modify cell physiology resulting in decreased secretion of water and electrolytes.

kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.

Which of the following is caused by a protozoan infection? malaria yellow fever tularemia infectious mononucleosis

malaria - protozoa of the genus Plasmodium, transmitted by female mosquitoes of genus Anopheles. - 5 species of Plasmodium involved: P. vivax, P. faciparum, P. malariae, P. ovale and P. knowlesi.

viral meningitis

meningitis caused by a virus Naked RNA viruses - members of the enterovirus subgroup of the family Picornaviridae - coxsackie viruses (cause chest/throat pain) and echoviruses (cause a rash)

The treatment of neonates with an erythromycin ointment placed directly into the eyes is to prevent: viral conjunctivitis. cataracts. herpes. ophthalmia neonatorum.

ophthalmia neonatorum Also called neonatal conjunctivitis - it is by law in the US that newborn babies have erythromycin put in their eyes within an hour of birth. The disease if often asymptomatic and could cause blindness in the babe so prophylaxic treatment. p.743

Staphylococcus epidermidis can be characterized by all of the following except that it: A. does not produce coagulase. B. is not pigmented. C. produces a yellow pigment. D. can be associated with nosocomial infections.

produces a yellow pigment.

Trichomoniasis is caused by a: A. fungus. B. virus C. bacteria. D. protozoan.

protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis - a motile protozoa with 4 anterior flagella - 1 posterior flagellum attached to an undulating membrane - 1 rigid rod called an axostyle used in attachment to cells - jerky motion - lacks a cyst form to aid in its survival in the environment away from the host - eukaryote with no mitochondria - human parasite spread by sexual contact... and on moist towels.

The principal mode of transmission of rabies is through: A. blood. B. fomites. C. saliva. D. pus.

saliva The primary mode of transmission of rabies to humans is via the saliva of a rabid animal introduced into bite wounds of the skin.

The rubeola virus contains single-stranded DNA. single-stranded RNA OR double-stranded RNA. single-stranded RNA. double-stranded DNA. double-stranded RNA

single-stranded RNA.

Antibiotics are given to a person with gas gangrene to -neutralize α-toxin AND improve oxygenation in the affected tissues. -stop bacterial growth AND prevent additional toxin production. -Improve oxygenation in the affected tissues. -stop bacterial growth AND neutralize α-toxin. -prevent additional toxin production.

stop bacterial growth AND prevent additional toxin production.

Which of the following is transmitted by mosquitoes? plague yellow fever malaria tularemia yellow fever AND malaria

yellow fever AND malaria plague is fleas, Y. pestis bacteria tularemia is zoonosis - wild animals, ticks Yellow fever is Aenes mosquitos and a virus malaria is Anopheles mosquitoes and a Plasmodium protozoa

The disease caused by an enveloped single-stranded RNA arbovirus of the flavivirus family is chikungunya. herpes. malaria. yellow fever. brucellosis

yellow fever. AIDS - not arbovirus malaria - protozoa herpes - not arbovirus brucellosis - bacteria - chik is due to the chikungunya virus, enveloped, ssRNA virus of family Togaviridae. Aedes mosquitoes. Yellow fever is caused by an enveloped, ssRNA arbovirus of the family Flaviviridae. - transmitted by bite of infeccted Aedes or Haemagogus mosquitoes, it biological vector. Correct

Yellow fever is caused by a protozoan infection. T/F

False but malaria is!

Which of the following best describes the causative agent of necrotizing fasciitis? Encapsulated, acid-fast, chain-forming, facultative anaerobe Encapsulated, Gram-negative, chain-forming, facultative aerobe Encapsulated, Gram-negative, spore-forming, facultative aerobe β-hemolytic, Gram-positive, chain-forming, aerotolerant anaerobe β-hemolytic, Gram-negative, spore-forming, obligate anaerobe

β-hemolytic, Gram-positive, chain-forming, aerotolerant anaerobe

Inflammation of the membranes covering the central nervous system (CNS) is called meningitis. T/F

True

The common cold - Causative Agent:

- 30-50% caused by the 100+ types of human RHINOVIRUSES - family Picornaviridae - group of naked ssRNA viruses - can be grown in culture - in live cells at 33C and slightly acidic pH (conditions mimic upper respiratory tract) - inactivated if pH drops below 5.3 (too acidic) - so destroyed in the stomach - many other viruses (like some adenoviruses and coronaviruses) can produce signs/symptoms of the common cold

Why do some otitis media cases not respond to antibiotic treatment? - Most cases are caused by bacteria that are resistant to commonly prescribed antibiotics. - About 30% of cases are caused by respiratory viruses—antibiotics do not help these cases. - Otitis media is caused by viruses that constantly undergo antigenic shift and/or antigenic drift. - The bacterial causative organisms mutate frequently, changing their antibiotic target sites. - Unless the exact causative organism is identified, it is impossible to prescribe the correct antibiotic.

- About 30% of cases are caused by respiratory viruses—antibiotics do not help these cases. p.535 "about 1/3 of cases are caused by RESPIRATORY VIRUSES, explaining why sonme infections do not respond to antibiotics, which have no effect on viruses."

The organism that grows anaerobically in dead or damaged tissue and produces dense colonies that are the color and size of sulfur particles is: - Escherichia coli. - Staphylococcus aureus. - Actinomyces israelii. - Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

- Actinomyces israelii. Actinomycosis (Lumpy Jaw) - slide 38 Grows as dense yellowish colonies called "sulfur granules," since color and size of particles of sulfur.

Klebsiella species easily acquire and are a source of R pneumococcal pneumonia. T/F

True

Adenovirus Respiratory Tract Infections -

- Adenoviruses are widespread, cause a dif types of infection depending on the viral serotype. - some cause a sore throat, others eye infections Adenoviruses are representative of the many viruses that cause upper respiratory tract infections characterized by FEVER. Symptoms look much like the common cold but with FEVER - 5-10 days after infection, sore throat, pus on pharynx and tonsils - is why this can be CONFUSED WITH STREP THROAT. - Lymph nodes large/tender, mild cough maybe. - Conjuntivitis and diarrhea maybe. - if severe cough with chest pain, can be mistaken for Pnuemonia - recovery in 1-3 wks

Almost all bacterial intestinal infections may be attributed to: a. Vibrio spp. b. C. jejuni c. Salmonella spp. d. Escherichia spp. E. All of the above

- All of the above

Diphtheria is an acute contagious disease caused by an exotoxin that: - functions by inhibiting protein synthesis. - may cause destruction of cardiac, kidney and nerve tissues. - can be neutralized as a result of immunity produced by the DTaP vaccine. - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct.

Legionella pneumophila may be found in: - soil and aquatic ecosystems. - air-conditioning systems. - shower stalls. - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct.

The exotoxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae: - causes an inflammatory response. - causes the formation of a pseudomembrane on the respiratory mucosa. - may destroy cardiac and kidney tissue. - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct.

Mumps is a good candidate for elimination from the population due to: - the existence of an effective vaccine. - a human only reservoir. - the absence of a latent state. - a single serotype. - All of the choices are correct.

- All of the choices are correct. Remember the MMRV/MMR vaccine

All of the following are examples of fixed macrophages EXCEPT: - Kupffer cells. - alveolar macrophages. - microglia. - All of these are examples of fixed macrophages

- All of these are examples of fixed macrophages Ch 14 again. - liver - lungs - brain

Almost all bacterial intestinal infections may be attributed to: - Vibrio spp. - C. jejuni. - Salmonella spp - .enterobacteria. - All of the choices are correct.

- All the choices are correct I don't like the wording but they all do cause bacterial intestinal infections.

Cat scratch fever is caused by: - Bartonella (Rochalimaea) henselae. - Pasteurella multocida. - Teddis nugentaea. - Staphylococcus aureus. - Bartonella (Rochalimaea) henselae AND Staphylococcus aureus.

- Bartonella (Rochalimaea) henselae. slide 45 zoonosis of cats Causative Agent is: • Bartonella henselae: curved, Gram-negative rod

How can Streptococcus pyogenes initially be differentiated from other Streptococcus species that form part of the throat normal microbiotia? - By Gram staining—it is a Gram-positive organism. - By culturing the bacteria on nutrient agar and checking for hemolysis. - By morphology—the bacteria are spherical and grow in long chains. - By detection of the "A" carbohydrate in its cell wall using antibodies. - By specific disease signs and symptoms, including sore throat and fever.

- By detection of the "A" carbohydrate in its cell wall using antibodies. p.537. The organism can be differentiated from other streptococci that normally inhabit the throat by its colony morphology on blood agar - S. pyogenes colonies are surrounded by a characteristic clear zone ob beta-hemolysis. Mos species of Streptococcus that are typically part of the normal throat microbiota are either alpha-hemolytic or non-hemolytic. A few other streptococci are beta-hemolytic too though so what else? S. pyogenes is commonly referred to as GAS - Lancefield grouping uses antibodies to distinguish the cell wall carbs in streptococcal species and S. pyogenes is characterized by the "A" carb in its cell walls. That's why this answer and not the second one.

Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably belong to the genus: A) Campylobacter jejuni. B) Escherichia coli. C) Salmonella typhi. D) Shigella spp. E) Vibrio cholerae

- Campylobacter jejuni - C. jejuni is a spirally curved, Gram negative rod. It can be cultivated from feces under microaerophilic conditions using a selective medium to suppress the growth of other intestinal organisms.

Which of the following organisms is not normally found on the skin? A) Staphylococci B) Diphtheroids C) Candida species D) Malassezia species E) Staphylococci AND diphtheroids

- Candida species Most microbial inhabitants in three groups • DIPHTHEROIDS: oily regions (forehead, upper chest, back) - Cutibacterium (Propionibacteria) most common: obligate anaerobes, grow within hair follicles • STAPHYLOCOCCI: salt-tolerant, use nutrients and produce antimicrobial substances active against other Gram positive bacteria • MALASSEZIA: tiny lipid-dependent yeasts

What is the most likely reason why smokers are more at risk for respiratory system infections? - Cigarette smoke is carcinogenic (cancer-causing), leading to a much higher incidence of lung cancer. - They aren't; this is just a rumor used to get people to stop smoking. - Smokers take in microbes from their hands into their lungs as they handle cigarettes and inhale the smoke. - Tobacco contains viruses that are inhaled when a person smokes; these cause respiratory infections. - Chemicals in cigarette smoke can impair the mucociliary escalator, preventing natural cleansing of the respiratory tract.

- Chemicals in cigarette smoke can impair the mucociliary escalator, preventing natural cleansing of the respiratory tract. slide 9 - ciliary movement is impaired by: smoking, alcohol/narcotic abuse, viral infections. Increased the chance of infection if you can't move the mucus up and out of the lungs.

Which of the following is an important function of the skin? A) Hold muscle to bone B) Manufacture blood cells C) Produce antibodies D) Control body temperature E) All of the answer choices are correct.

- Control body temperature Tough but flexible. - Serves as a blood reservoir, barrier to keep things in/out = primary defense along with mucus membranes. Skin: prevents entry, regulates body temperature, restricts fluid loss, senses the environment

Lactic acid, an end product of fructose fermentation, causes breakdown of tooth enamel and, eventually, cavities.

True

Which is the causative agent of the upper respiratory tract infection characterized by the formation of a pseudomembrane on the tonsils or in the throat? - Streptococcus pneumoniae - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Corynebacterium diphtheriae - Mycoplasma pneumoniae - Bordetella pertussis

- Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A bacteriophage is necessary for toxin production in: - E. coli. - Staphylococcus aureus. - Corynebacterium diphtheriae. - Streptococcus pyogenes. - All of the answer choices are correct.

- Corynebacterium diphtheriae. - a lysogenic bateriophage - lysogenic converstion - it makes diphtheria toxin - an A-B exotoxin. Not a good question because the strains of S. pyogenes that make SPEs do so because of lysogenic converstion too. - superantigen - erythrogenic toxin -> scarlet fever.

Which of the following is/are not associated with strep throat? - Sore throat and fever. - Patches of pus in the throat. - Enlarged lymph nodes in the neck. - Cough and nasal discharge. - Abdominal pain and headache.

- Cough and nasal discharge. Strep throat is characterized by sore throat, difficulty swallowing, fever after an incubation period of 2-5 days. Throat red with patches of pus and scattered tiny hemorrhages. Lymph nodes in neck enlarged/tender. In older kids and young adults - abdominal pain or headache. Pts do not usually have a cough, weepy yes or runny nose. Spontaneously recover in 1 wk Many have mild or no symptoms at all.

Why are some tissues damaged by diphtheria toxin while others are unaffected by it? - Diphtheria toxin is a superantigen. Only TH cells are affected by this type of toxin, so tissues lacking TH cells are unaffected. - The causative agent is inhaled into the lungs, so only lung tissue is affected by the toxin released by the organism. - Diphtheria toxin is an A-B toxin. Cells that do not have a receptor for the toxin are unaffected by it. - The causative agent is ingested, so only gastrointestinal tissue is affected by the toxin released by the organism. - Diphtheria is a localized infection. Only tissues in the immediate area of the bacteria are affected by the toxin.

- Diphtheria toxin is an A-B toxin. Cells that do not have a receptor for the toxin are unaffected by it. Cells that do sustain heavy damage -> heart, kidney, nerves - why heart/kidney failure and paralysis can occur later.

The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is: A) Shigella spp. B) Salmonella enterica. C) Giardia lamblia. D) Escherichia coli. E) Campylobacter jejuni

- E. coli "Contrary to common belief, food - not water - is the primary cause. The CDC estimates up to 80% of cases of travelers' diarrhea are caused by bacteria. The most common bacterium that causes travelers' diarrhea is enterotoxigenic E. coli, one of six classes of enterovirulent E. coli. Most E. coli are harmless."

Which of the following E. coli serovars give rise to a disease similar to that caused by Shigella sp.? Enteroinvasive Enteropathogenic Enterotoxigenic Enterohemorrhagic All of the choices are correct.

- Enteroinvasive E. coli p. 642 - Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) - these strains invade the intestinal epithelium, causing a disease similar to shegellosis.

Your son comes home from school complaining that he is ill. He tells you he thinks he has the flu—he has a sore throat, runny nose, and a cough, and his eyes are very red. Everyone in your family received a influenza vaccine about a month ago, and as the CDC reports that this year's vaccine is approximately 70% effective, you think it is unlikely that your son does in fact have this disease. In addition, your son does not seem to have muscle aches or a headache, which generally occur with flu. Nonetheless, he does look ill and when you take his temperature, you find that he has a fever of 38.9oC. You take him to see his doctor, because you suspect that while your son likely does not have influenza, he also does not have a common cold. The doctor knows that your son is unlikely to have a common cold, based on which sign/symptom? A) Sore throat B) Fever C) Cough D) Runny nose E) Fatigue The doctor checks your son's throat and notes that he has has gray-white pus on the pharynx and tonsils. He also has enlarged lymph nodes in his neck. This suggests to the doctor that your son has the bacterial infection ________, which he attempts to confirm by ________. A) strep throat; doing a rapid antigen detection test (RADT) and throat culture. B) pneumococcal pneumonia; doing a rapid antigen detection test (RADT) and throat culture. C) mycoplasmal pneumonia; performing a mantoux skin test and doing a throat culture. D) legionellosis; performing a mantoux skin test and a chest x-ray. E) tuberculosis; doing a throat culture and rapid TB skin test.

- Fever (no fever with common cold) - strep throat; doing a rapid antigen detection test (RADT) and throat culture.

Which statement regarding common colds and adenoviral respiratory tract infections is TRUE? A) Fever is a sign of adenoviral respiratory tract infections, but is not a sign for the common cold. B) The incubation period for adenoviral respiratory tract infections is 1-2 days, while that for common colds is 5-10 days. C) Cold viruses are non-enveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses while adenoviruses are non-enveloped single-stranded RNA viruses. D) Cold viruses may cause infections other than respiratory infections while adenoviruses only cause upper respiratory tract infections. E) Adenoviral respiratory tract infections may also be caused by bacteria while the common cold is always caused by a virus of some kind.

- Fever is a sign of adenoviral respiratory tract infections, but is not a sign for the common cold.

Which of the following has not been associated with human bites? - syphilis - tuberculosis - hepatitis B - Haverhill fever

- Haverhill fever slide 40 Human Bites • Common; can result in serious infections from normal mouth microbiota; occasionally syphilis, tuberculosis, hepatitis B, hepatitis C transmitted

Streptobacillus moniliformis is unusual in that it spontaneously forms L-forms. T/F

True

The common cold - Epidemiology:

- Humans = only source of cold viruses - spread = virus-containing droplets we inhale or infected secretions we rub in w/ contaminated hands. - first 2-3 days - high [virus] in snot/on hands - most likely to transmit virus then - day 4/5 - virus levels undetectable - low levels can be present for 2 wks - infective dose - a few virions - colds NOT highly contagious with preventions like washing hands

Which of the following is associated with the upper respiratory system? - Humidifying inhaled air. - Warming inhaled air AND drying inhaled air. - Cooling inhaled air AND drying inhaled air. - Cooling inhaled air AND humidifying inhaled air. - Humidifying inhaled air AND warming inhaled air

- Humidifying inhaled air AND warming inhaled air Incoming cold air initiates a nervous response that brings more blood flow to warm incoming air and contact with the mucus membranes humidify incoming air.

Which description of vegetative Bacillus anthracis is correct? It is an endospore-forming, Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacterium. It is a Gram-positive, non-motile, encapsulated, spore-forming, rod-shaped bacterium. It is an endospore-forming, Gram-positive, motile, rod-shaped bacterium. It is a Gram-positive, non-motile, spherical, encapsulated bacterium. It is an acid-fast, non-motile, spherical, nonspore-forming, encapsulated bacterium.

- It is a Gram-positive, non-motile, encapsulated, spore-forming, rod-shaped bacterium. I picked A - wrong

You are studying for your NCLEX exams with a group of friends. Each of you presents a case study to the other students in your group. Your friend Sue gives the following information in her case study: the patient is a child, who presents with a high fever (41oC) and a rash. The parents report that three days prior to the onset of the rash, the child had a runny nose, diarrhea, and conjunctivitis, all of which they thought indicated influenza. The child has not received any of the common recommended vaccines because until recently, he had been receiving chemotherapy for acute lymphoblastic leukemia that was diagnosed at 9 months. Rubeola can be effectively prevented with the MMR vaccine. The child in this case has not received any vaccines, because he has been receiving chemotherapy. Why wasn't he given the MMR vaccine? A) It is an attenuated vaccine and there is a small risk that the virus used in it may revert to virulence, causing serious illness in the immunocompromised patient. B) It is an inactivated vaccine and there is a small risk that the virus used in it may revert to virulence, causing serious illness in the immunocompromised patient. C) The MMR vaccine is known to cause complications such as autism, and this child already has enough problems with leukemia. D) It is a toxoid vaccine—these vaccines contain deactivated microbial toxins; since the child is severely immunocompromised, the toxin used in the vaccine will damage all of his cells. E) The patient is a child, so will not be able to tolerate any egg proteins that may be present in the MMR vaccine, which is produced in eggs.

- It is an attenuated vaccine and there is a small risk that the virus used in it may revert to virulence, causing serious illness in the immunocompromised patient.

The most important vector of Lyme disease in the eastern U.S. is: a. Dermacentor virabilis b. Dermacentor andersoni c. Staphylococcus aureus d. lxodes scapularis

- Ixodes scapularis Black-legged (deer) tick Ixodes scapularis most important vector.

You are an RN working in the emergency department (ED) at a major hospital in New York City. During one shift, you see two patients who are exhibiting coughing with blood-containing sputum, and shortness of breath. Both patients report that they have experienced headaches, muscle aches, high fever, confusion, and shaking chills in the days preceding their ED visit. One of the patients also has some digestive tract symptoms including diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. You discover that the patients live in the same apartment building, although they do not know each other. You suspect that they have a type of pneumonia, and given the circumstances, think it may be legionellosis. You read up on this disease to refresh your memory about it. Select the FALSE statement regarding legionellosis and its causative agent. A) The causative organism survives well in the water systems of buildings, particularly in hot water systems, where chlorine levels are generally low. B) People become infected with L. pneumophila when they inhale aerosol droplets contaminated with the organism. It is not acquired from other infected individuals. C) L. pneumophila produces a β-lactamase, which makes it resistant to many penicillins and some cephalosporins, so is typically treated with a macrolide or a fluoroquinolone. D) Legionella pneumophila is an obligate intracellular parasite that survives in ameba in the environment and in kupffer cells in infected people. E) L. pneumophila prevents phagosome-lysosome fusion in phagocytes, thus avoiding destruction; the bacteria manipulate conditions to multiply within these cells.

- Legionella pneumophila is an obligate intracellular parasite that survives in ameba in the environment and in kupffer cells in infected people. Kupffer cells are macrophges in the liver. L. pneumophila lives in alveolar macrophages.

Which of the following is a virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes? - M protein - Capsule - Endotoxin AND pili - M protein AND pili - M protein AND capsule

- M protein AND capsule M protein - adhesin. Inactivates C3b of compliment - INTERFERES WITH PHAGOCYTOSIS Capsule - hyaluronic acid - mimics host cell structure and INHIBITS PHAGOCYTOSIS

The member of the normal microbiota sometimes considered responsible for tinea versicolor is: A) Staphylococcus species. B) diphtheroids. C) Candida species. D) Malassezia species. E) Streptococcus species.

- Malassezia species. Fungal diseases: Malassezia furfur generally harmless, commonly found • Can cause scaly rash, dandruff, or tinea versicolor - TINEA VERSICOLOR characterized by patchy scaliness and increased pigmentation of light skin or decreased pigmentation of dark

Which of the following normal skin flora is a small yeast? A. staphylococci B. diphtheroids C. Candida spp. D. Malassezia spp.

- Malassezia spp. - MALASSEZIA: tiny lipid-dependent yeasts We already established that Malassezia are not diphtheroids, they are not bacteria like staphylococci (G+) and Candida is a yeast but it's not supposed to be on the skin normally.

If you are a 20-year-old healthy young adult and you have to CHOOSE a type of pneumonia to become infected with (and you will NOT get treatment for it), which would be the 'best,' and why? - Pneumococcal pneumonia-it doesn't destroy lung tissue and can be completely recovered from. - Klebsiella pneumonia-it has the shortest recovery time. - Mycoplasmal pneumonia-it has the mildest symptoms and is generally easily cleared out. - Viral pneumonia-there are many antiviral medications you can take for this version with very few side effects.

- Mycoplasmal pneumonia-it has the mildest symptoms and is generally easily cleared out.

The best way to speed up recovery from a common cold is to: - dose the patient with ibuprofen to keep the fever down. - to take decongestants as a means of alleviating the symptoms of the cold. - to take 1,000 mg of vitamin C every day during the illness. - None of the above-in fact, the only way to clear out a cold is to let your immune system do its job. Several of the treatments above may actually INCREASE the time needed to get over the illness.

- None of the above-in fact, the only way to clear out a cold is to let your immune system do its job. Several of the treatments above may actually INCREASE the time needed to get over the illness. • No proven treatments • Viruses not affected by antibiotics, antibacterial medications **• Analgesics, antipyretics can reduce symptoms but may prolong symptoms and duration**

You are looking after your sister's cat Singa. While playing one evening, Singa accidentally bites you instead of the toy mouse you are holding. The bite wound is very small but is in the fleshy part of your hand. You wash the wound, which is not bleeding much, and put a band aid on it. The next day, your whole hand is red, swollen, and painful, and some lymph nodes in your arm are enlarged and tender. You call your sister, who is an RN. She urges you to go to the doctor, telling you that animal bites can sometimes be infected, and that if that is the case, you will need treatment before the infection gets any worse.The PA goes on to explain that cat bite infections and bartonellosis (cat scratch disease) differ in that: A) the virulence factors of P. multicoda are as yet unknown while B. henselae has an antiphagocytic capsule. B) P. multicoda is transmitted by cat bites, while B. henselae may be transmitted by bites or scratches. C) P. multicoda may be transmitted form person-to-person while B. henselae can only be transmitted by cat bites. D) P. multicoda is a Gram-positive organism while B. henselae is a Gram-negative organism. E) cat bite infections can be prevented with prophylactic antibiotics while bartonellosis may be prevented with an attenuated vaccine.

- P. multicoda is transmitted by cat bites, while B. henselae may be transmitted by bites or scratches. Not A or D, (This was on my chapter quiz) I chose B = Correct

Select the best description of the causative agent of diphtheria. - Pleomorphic, Gram-negative lysogen. - Gram-positive, spore-forming rod. - Gram-positive, encapsulated, spore-former. - Pleomorphic, Gram-positive lysogen. - Pleomorphic, Gram-positive, flagellated lysogen.

- Pleomorphic, Gram-positive lysogen. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is a pleomorphic, non-motile, non-spore forming G+ rod that is a lysogen because it is a lysogenic bacteriophage that inserts its DNA into the bacteria's genome that causes it to make the diphtheria exotoxin (lysogenic conversion). - club-shaped and often arranged side-by-side in pallisades (like a wooden fence).

How are pleurisy and pneumonia are different? - Pleurisy is inflammation of the lungs (not necessarily due to a microbe), while pneumonia is microbial infection of the linings that surround the lungs. - Pneumonia is active microbial infection of the lungs, while pleurisy is inflammation of the linings that surround the lungs (not necessarily due to a microbe). - Pleurisy is caused by viruses (single-stranded or double-stranded RNA), while pneumonia is caused by bacteria (Gram-positive only). - Pneumonia is caused by viruses (single-stranded or double-stranded DNA), while pleurisy is caused by bacteria (Gram-negative or Gram-positive). - Pneumonia is always a fatal infection and cannot be easily treated while pleurisy is not—treatment of this condition is by antiviral medications.

- Pneumonia is active microbial infection of the lungs, while pleurisy is inflammation of the linings that surround the lungs (not necessarily due to a microbe). slide 13. Pneumonitis = inflammation of lungs, often viral. Pneumonitis that causes the alveoli to fill with pus/fluid = pneumonia.

Which of the following virulence factors used by Staphylococcus puts holes in host cells? A) Protein A B) Alpha toxin C) Leukocidin D) Clumping factor E) Membrane attack complex

- alpha toxin Table 22.3 Alpha toxin - makes holes in host cell membranes.

Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of two to three days and commonly affects children is probably caused by: A) Giardia. B) rotavirus. C) Salmonella. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Trichinella

- Rotavirus Rotaviruses are naked viruses with a double-walled capsid and a dsRNA genome in 11 segments. The viruses represent a major subgroup of the family Reoviridae. - fecal-oral route

Formation of biofilms attached to fibronectin and fibrinogen coating plastic devices like catheters and heart valves is a virulence mechanism of: - Staphylococcus - Streptococcus - Clostridium - Pseudomonas

- Staphylococcus slide 15 - Staphylococcus epidermiditis - Adheres to and colonizes medical devices by binding to fibronectin, which quickly coats surgical implants. Biofilms also problematic

Rat bite fever, characterized by fever, rash, and muscle aches, is caused by: - Afipia felis. - Bartonella (Rochalimaea) henselae. - Pasteurella multocida. - Streptobacillus moniliformis.

- Streptobacillus moniliformis. 2nd is cat scratch disease 3rd is in bite wounds Streptobacillary Rat Bite Fever slide 48 Streptobacillus moniliformis: facultatively anaerobic, Gramnegative pleomorphic rod; spontaneously develops L-forms lacking cell wall Correct

Which statement about S. pyogenes and strep throat pathogenesis is FALSE? - S. pyogenes strains that produce streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins are lysogens. - Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins are A-B toxins that bind to host cells using the B portion. - Streptolysins O and S produced by S. pyogenes destroy blood cells by making holes in their cell membranes. - Spread of S. pyogenes is aided by streptokinase, an enzyme that breaks down blot clots. - The hyaluronic acid capsule of S. pyogenes helps it avoid the innate immune defenses.

- Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins are A-B toxins that bind to host cells using the B portion. SPEs are superantigens that causes a massive activation of T helper cells, cause them to release anti-inflammatory cytokines = Cytokine Storm -> seriousness of these infections.

Which of the following indicates bacterial conjunctivitis rather than viral conjunctivitis? - Increased tear production - Redness of conjunctiva - Swelling and pus - Sensitivity to light - All of the answer choices are correct.

- Swelling and pus Acute bacterial conjunctivitis - organisms probably inoculated directly onto conjuntiva from airborne respiratory droplets or from transfer from contaminated hands. - resist destruction by lysosyme - attachment aided by degradation of MUCIN, a protective component of surface membrane - attachment, then release tissue-damaging enzymes, sometimes combined with toxins, to harm eye tissue

Which of the following statements concerning mumps virus infection is FALSE? - The virus is present in urine approximately 10 days after the onset of symptoms. - The testes can become inflamed about 2 to 3 weeks after the onset of symptoms. - The illness frequently begins with painful swelling of one or both parotid glands. - The virus is transmitted in saliva and respiratory secretions.

- The testes can become inflamed about 2 to 3 weeks after the onset of symptoms. LOOK IN BOOK

Why are there currently no vaccines against Streptococcus pyogenes? - There are many antigenic types in the M protein of this organism. A vaccine against one type might not protect against another. - There is great variation in the polysaccharide capsule of this organism. A vaccine against one type might not protect against another. - Antibodies to streptococcal M protein may also recognize and bind to myosin in the heart, causing autoimmunity and leading to rheumatic fever. - There is great variation in the M protein of this organism. A vaccine against one M type might not protect against another AND antibodies to streptococcal M protein may also recognize and bind to myosin in the heart, causing autoimmunity and leading to rheumatic fever. - There is great variation in the polysaccharide capsule of this organism. A vaccine against one type might not protect against another AND antibodies to streptococcal M protein may also recognize and bind to myosin in the heart, causing autoimmunity and leading to rheumatic fever.

- There is great variation in the M protein of this organism. A vaccine against one M type might not protect against another AND antibodies to streptococcal M protein may also recognize and bind to myosin in the heart, causing autoimmunity and leading to rheumatic fever. First part true - almost picked just that but the second part is true too and we don't want this post-streptococcal sequalae to occur. - an appropriate vaccine would have to protect against many different strains of S. pyogenes without causing an autoimmune resoonse (causing the immune system to act against "self")

Which of the following is NOT true about diphtheroids? A) They are part of the normal microbiota of the skin. B) They are responsible for body odor. C) They include Cutibacterium acnes. D) They include Malassezia species. E) These are all true.

- They include Malassezia species. These little yeasts are not lumped in with the diphtheroids.

How do adenoviruses avoid the adaptive immune system? A) They cloak themselves with a hyaluronic acid capsule. B) They interfere with antigen presentation on MHC class I molecules. C) They synthesize C5a peptidase. D) They block interferon and antiviral protein production. E) They interfere with antigen presentation on MHC class II molecules.

- They interfere with antigen presentation on MHC class I molecules.

Helicobacter pylori is able to survive in the stomach by its ability to produce neutralizing proteins from glucans. fatty acids from sebum. lactic acid from sugar. ammonia from urea. ammonia from urease.

- ammonia from urea. • H. pylori survives acidic environment of stomach - Produces urease, which converts urea (from proteins) to ammonia, creates alkaline microenvironment

Which of the following statements about otitis media is FALSE? - The causative organisms may form a biofilm, leading to chronic infections. - It is usually preceded by infections of the nasal cavity and upper pharynx. - It may sometimes spread to the membranes covering the brain, causing meningitis. - Using decongestants and antihistamines to treat otitis media is generally very effective. - Otitis media during the "flu" season can be decreased by giving the flu vaccine to infants in day-care facilities

- Using decongestants and antihistamines to treat otitis media is generally very effective.

Dental plaque is an example of: A) a pellicle. B) a biofilm. C) gingivitis. D) dentin. E) tooth enamel

- a biofilm Bacteria come in and make a biofilm on the pellicle (made of proteinaceous material from saliva on the enamel).

What kind of media do we culture Corynebacterium diphtheriae on?

- a selective media with potassium tellerite - inhibits growth of normal throat microbiota and C. diphtheriae colonies will grow black or brown. - can also grow on Leoffler's medium - enhances the formation of metachromatic granules.

A localized collection of pus in a wound is termed a(n): leukocyte. dead tissue. granulation mound. abscess.

- abscess Localized collection of pus surrounded by inflamed tissue. • Pus: thick, yellowish fluid composed of living and dead leukocytes, tissue debris, and proteins • Abscesses form as result of body's defenses • Help localize infection, although cells may escape • Difficult to treat: no blood vessels; adjacent blood vessels often blocked by clots

Pneumococcal Pneumonia Signs/Symptoms

- accounts for ~60% of adult pneumonia patients requiring hospitalization - pneumococci are an important cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) - 1-3 days incubation. - preceded by 1-2 days of runny nose, upper respiratory congestion, then sudden fever and shaking chills. - cough, fever, chest pain, sputum production (pus, other material coughed up from lungs) - Sputum becomes pinkish or rust colored from blood, Severe chest pain aggravated by each breath or cough - Causes shallow rapid breathing - Patient develops dusky color from poor oxygenation - w/o tx survivors show profuse sweating and rapid return to normal temp after 7-10 days

In many people, the growth of C. acnes within hair follicles leads to: A) eczema. B) carbuncles. C) boils. D) acne. E) all of these.

- acne Cutibacterium acnes multiples in the sebum -> acne "Cutibacterium acnes (formerly Propionibacterium acnes) is the relatively slow-growing, typically aerotolerant anaerobic, Gram-positive bacterium (rod) linked to the skin condition of ACNE"

The disease that closely resembles "strep throat" but is of viral origin is: A) adenoviral pharyngitis. B) otitis media. C) the common cold. D) tonsilitis. E) bronchitis.

- adenoviral pharyngitis. It's the gray-white pus seen on pharynx and tonsils.

M protein, a virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes, directly interferes with which of the following steps of phagocytosis? - elimination - adherence - digestion - chemotaxis

- adherence M protein - adhesin - lets cell attach to host cell. - it inactivates Cb3 - an opsonin - opsonins bind to antigen and make it more attractive to and easier for phagocytes to bind to and engulf. It says Evasion on the pic on slide 17...

The passage from the mouth to the anus is termed the: gut canal. oral cavity. grand canal. alimentary canal.

- alimentary canal Also called the Gastrointestinal tract (saw this question too, same but GI tract instead of alimentary canal.)

The symptoms of cholera are due to the action of: an endotoxin. modified mucus. an exotoxin flagella.

- an exotoxin. cholera toxin, an A-B toxin - B portion attaches to receptors of microvilli - A portion enters cells, activates a G protein that turns on adenylate cyclase to convert ATP to cAMP - High cAMP causes cell to secrete chloride ions - Sodium and other ions follow, and water follows the salts, yielding outpouring from cells - Toxin does not affect large intestine, but volume of fluid is too much to be absorbed, causing diarrhea - Toxin encoded by bacteriophage: lysogenic conversion

Giardiasis may be contracted from: another person. clear mountain streams. chlorinated city water. cold filtered beer. another person, clear mountain streams AND chlorinated city water.

- another person, clear mountain streams AND chlorinated city water.

Rapid diagnostic tests for streptococcal infections may use: - blood agar AND the Kirby-Bauer test. - antibodies AND blood agar. - DNA probes. - the Kirby-Bauer test AND DNA probes. - antibodies AND DNA probes.

- antibodies AND DNA probes. Antibodies is a given, blood agar isn't a rapid test - involves incubation, Kirby-Bauer isn't rapid either... Kirby-Bauer tests test whether particular bacteria are susceptible to specific antibiotics. -What is special about Mueller Hinton agar that makes it useful for the Kirby Bauer test? It is used for the routine susceptibility testing of non-fastidious microorganism by the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion technique. Five percent sheep blood and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide may also be added when susceptibility testing is done on Streptococcus species.

Tetanus antitoxin is: - antibody against the bacteria. - inactivated toxin. - inactivated bacteria. - antibody against the toxin.

- antibody against the toxin A TOXOID is a vaccine; it is used to prevent disease. An ANTITOXIN is a treatment; it is used when a problem is immediately at hand. And that is why this is the answer it is. Correct

The virulence of Klebsiella is due partly to the: A) motility of the organism AND exotoxin produced. B) structure and organization of flagella. C) structure of their pili AND exotoxin produced. D) antiphagocytic properties of their capsules. E) exotoxin produced AND antiphagocytic properties of their capsules.

- antiphagocytic properties of their capsules. Can get into bloodstream and produce endotoxic shock though. K. pneumoniae is G- rod. G- have LPS in their outer membrane. LPS = endotoxin.

The pneumococcal vaccine is directed against the: A) flagella. B) pili. C) cilia. D) capsule. E) A-B toxin.

- capsule. The vaccines contain capsule polysaccharides from the 13 or 23 most common serotypes

S. aureus clumping factor: A) causes fibrinogen to clump together. B) causes bacteria to clump together in plasma. C) reacts with prothrombin. D) produces staphylothrombin. E) causes phagocytes to clump bacteria.

- causes bacteria to clump together in plasma. Table 22.3 - clumping factor - attaches the bacteria to fibrin, fibrinogen and plastic devices.

"Rice water stools" are characteristic of: A) salmonellosis. B) cholera. C) bacillary dysentery. D) amebic dysentery. E) tapeworm infestation

- cholera

Which of the following are involved in coating Staphylococcus with host proteins? A. clumping factor B. coagulase C. protein A D. leukocidin E. clumping factor, coagulase AND protein A

- clumping factor, coagulase AND protein A Clumping factor - attaches the bacterium to fibrin, fibrinogen and plastic devices. Coagulase - produces clots in the surrounding capillaries protein A - binds to Fc portion of antibody, prevents opsoniziation Correct

. Staphylococci can be divided into pathogenic and relatively nonpathogenic strains based on whether or not they synthesize _________. A. catalase B. coagulase C. leukocidins D. a capsule

- coagulase Coag-positive is S. aureus Coag-negative is the other Staphylococcus species, including S. epidermidis.

A protein associated with a more virulent form of Staphylococcus is: A) leukocidin. B) coagulase. C) mannose. D) streptokinase. E) catalase.

- coagulase p.577 "Staphylococcus aureus can be distinguished from most other staphylococci because it produces COAGULASE and CLUMPING FACTOR. Coagulates causes a large clot to form in plasma...both coagulase and clumping factor are important virulence factors for S. aureus. Other staphylococcal strains, such as Staphylyococcus epidermidis, cause disease infrequently and lack the genes for coagulase and clumping factor."

Part of the ability of S. mutans to result in dental caries depends on its ability to: invade plaque and dissolve the gums. convert sucrose to lactic acid. convert proteins to sugars. attach to the gums.

- convert sucrose to lactic acid.

In humans the most common type of anthrax disease is: A. cutaneous anthrax resulting from the introduction of spores into a break in the skin. B. pulmonary anthrax from inhalation of spores attached to dust. C. gastrointestinal anthrax resulting from consumption of undercooked food contaminated with spores. D. tick borne anthrax resulting from direct introduction of vegetative Bacillus anthracis to the blood stream of a host.

- cutaneous anthrax resulting from the introduction of spores into a break in the skin.

Wound infections may result in: A. delayed healing. B. abscess formation. C. extension of bacteria or their products into surrounding tissues or bloodstream. D. aerobic conditions. E. delayed healing, abscess formation AND extension of bacteria or their products into surrounding tissues or bloodstream.

- delayed healing, abscess formation AND extension of bacteria or their products into surrounding tissues or bloodstream.

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae are frequently part of the normal microbiota of the nasal passages and throat. T/F

True

Diphtheria toxin works on: - lysosomes. - mitochondria. - chloroplasts. - elongation factor 2. - messenger RNA.

- elongation factor 2. - the bacteria (C. diphteriae) grow in the throat but the toxin gets into the bloodstream (toxemia). An A-B toxin, the B subunit attached to host cell receptors -> endocytosis -> A subunit detaches and is activated to a functional enzyme that inactivated EF-2 that the host eukaryotic cell needs for its 80s ribosomes to move along mRNA - translation stops, cell dies. Enzyme is not used up, keeps inactivating EF-2 in that cell.

The surface layer of the skin is the: A) cutaneous. B) keratin. C) epidermis. D) dermis. E) hypodermis.

- epidermis Epidermis: SURFACE LAYER made from layers of flat cells • Outermost =dead,filled with water-resistant keratin • Constantly flake off and replaced • Dermis: nerves, glands, blood and lymphatic vessels • Subcutaneous tissue: fat, other cells that support skin

The unique characteristic of Lyme disease is: A. erythema migrans. B. induration. C. carbuncle. D. furuncle.

- erythema migrans Signs and Symptoms • Early localized infection: erythema migrans, or circular skin rash, follows few days, weeks after tick bite Erythema migrans (New Latin, literally, "migrating redness") is an expanding rash often seen in the early stage of Lyme disease.

Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by: A) eating contaminated food. B) a blood transfusion. C) extended use of antibiotics. D) improper food storage. E) travel to an underdeveloped country

- extended use of antibiotics. Clostridium dificile Infection (CDI) Clostridium difficile: Gram-positive, obligate anaerobic rod • Forms endospores highly resistant to disinfectants, environmental conditions, so control is difficult • Produce one or more cytotoxins Primarily in hospitalized patients on ANTIBIOTIC THERAPY

A common source of cholera infection is - acid rain. - unpasteurized milk. - fecal contaminated material, especially water. - boiled water. - acid rain AND boiled water.

- fecal contaminated material, especially water.

This chemical compound, typically added to drinking water, makes enamel more resistant to dissolving in acid. calcium chlorine chloramine fluoride

- flouride

Wound healing can be slowed by: A. normal flora. B. antiseptic ointments. C. foreign matter D. sweat.

- foreign matter Dirt, dead tissue, foreign matter...

A striking feature of Clostridium tetani that differentiates it from other pathogenic species of Clostridium is its ability to: - produce a greenish pigment. - form spores. - form terminally located, spherical spores. - grow aerobically.

- form terminally located, spherical spores. slide 28 Clostridium tetani: anaerobic, Gram-positive, rod-shaped; forms spherical endospore at one end of cell; has swarming growth that quickly spreads over media surface Correct

- fungus; eukaryotic

Which of the following is a fairly reliable method of characterizing strains of S. aureus? A. complement fixation B. protein fingerprint C. genome typing D. LPS pattern

- genome typing I don't know what protein fingerprinting is, S. aureus is G+ so no LPS. Let's look at the DNA!

The nodular, red, translucent surface material of a healing wound is called: - soluble skin. - irritated scab. - granulation tissue. - abscess.

- granulation tissue Wound healing • Begins with outgrowth of connective tissue (fibroblasts) and capillaries from surface to yield GRANULATION TISSUE • Fills space created by wound • Shrinks, is converted to collagen (scar tissue) • Covered by skin or mucous membrane Correct

The conjuctivae: - have no resident bacteria. - are often covered with bacteria. - are populated with S. aureus. - are populated with S. pyogenes.

- have no resident bacteria. slide 11 - surface of the eye and lining of eyelids covered by conjuntiva. Conjuntiva - very few bacteria present, infection = conjuntivitis.

Projecting from the outer envelope of the influenza virus are two glycoproteins called: A) leukocidin and hemolysin. B) hyaluronidase and coagulase. C) hemagglutinin and neuraminidase. D) lysozyme and coagulase. E) coagulase and gp160.

- hemagglutinin and neuraminidase HA spikes attach to receptors on host epithelial cells. NA spikes are critical in the release of new virions - it destroys the host cell surface receptors that bind to budding virions. Subtypes of flu viruses based on HA, NA types - mostly HI,2,3 and Ni,2 infect people.

5. When in the human body, Legionella pneumophila resides: - in alveolar macrophages. - in alveoli. - in the lower intestinal tract. - in the meninges.

- in alveolar macrophages. - inhaled in aersolized water, they lodge in lungs and promote their uptake by alveolar macrophages. - surface protein called macrophage invasion potentiator (Mip) aids entry into macrophages - the cells also bind C3b as an opsonin

Rhinoviruses need to be grown: A) in living cells AND at 39°C. B) in synthetic media AND at 39°C. C) on blood agar AND at 33°C. D) in live animals or plants. E) in living cells AND at 33°C.

- in living cells AND at 33°C.

Tetanus vaccine contains: - inactivated bacteria. - inactivated spores. - live bacteria. - inactivated tetanospasmin.

- inactivated tetanospasmin. Tetanus and diphtheria - toxoid (inactivated) vaccine.

Tetanus prevents the release of neurotransmitters from: - muscle cells. - excitatory neurons. - inhibitory neurons. - tetano cells.

- inhibitory neurons. slide 29 Prevents release of neurotransmitter from INHIBITORY NEURONS, so muscles contract without control Correct

Many childhood diseases caused by viral infections of the upper respiratory tract can usually be diagnosed by: A) inspection of the rash. B) the type of cough. C) the type of fever. D) the incubation period. E) the gender of the patient.

- inspection of the rash.

Influenza is caused by: A) orthomyxovirus. B) H. influenzae. C) cytomegalovirus. D) adenovirus. E) coronavirus.

- orthomyxovirus. Causative agent of Influenza A is virus in the orthomyxovirus family. Has an envelope, ssRNA in 8 segments.

T/F - Pneumonias are inflammatory diseases of the lung in which fluid fills the alveoli.

True

Pertussis "Whooping Cough"

- is preventable by vaccine - causes up to 1/2 million deaths every year and is endemic in the US Signs/Symptoms - 1-2 wks incubation stage - 3 stages - catarrhal, peroxysmal and convalescent stage - Catarrhal = inflammation of mucus membranes. lasts 1-2 wks, signs/symptoms resembling an upper respiratory tract infection (snot, sneeze, low fever, mild cough) - Paroxysmal = repeated sudden attacks, lasts 2-4 weeks or longer, frequent bursts of violent uncontrollable coughing. Dry cough, severe enough to burst small b.vessels in eyes. Tongue protrudes and neck veins stand out. Coughing spasm followed by 'whoops' as forceful attempts to inhale. Vomiting and seizures can occur/pt may become cyanotic ( blue from lack of oxygen) - Convalescent = recovery Not contagious, coughing decreases. Slow recovery over some weeks. Caustive Agent: - Bordatella pertussis = tiny G- rod, with capsule, aerobic. Cells sensitive to drying and sunlight, die quickly outside the host. Pathogenesis: - inhaled, attaches to ciliated cells of respiratory epithelium Attachment aided by 2 COLONIZATION FACTORS: - FHA - filamentous hemagglutinin - pilus from bacterial surface - fimbriae Colonizes upper throat, trachea, bronchi and bronchioles. grow in dense masses on epithelial surface but don't invade tissue. - release 3 TOXINS: - Pertussis toxin (PT) = A-B toxin - Adenylate cyclase toxin - Tracheal cytocoxin

Which of the following about Bacillus anthracis is TRUE? A) It contains lipopolysaccharide. B) It is flagellated. C) It is rod-shaped. D) It stains pink in the Gram stain. E) It causes hemolysis on blood agar.

- it is rod-shaped. Anthrax is a disease primarily of livestock but people get it too. Bacillus anthracis is G+, makes endospores, non-hemolytic, non-motile, rod shaped bacterium whose spores can remain in the environment indefinately and whose vegetative cells have a capsule made of an amino-acid polymer instead of polysaccharide.

Legionnaires' disease is so named because: - it caused a large epidemic among members of the French Foreign Legion. - it was first identified at a convention of the American Legion. - it was a common infection among foot soldiers. - None of the choices are correct.

- it was first identified at a convention of the American Legion. Legionnaires' Disease unknown until 1976 • Attendees of American Legion Convention in Philadelphia developed mysterious pneumonia

Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the: a. large intestine b. mouth c. small intestine d. stomach e. stomach and small intestine

- large intestine stomach and large intestine are acidic places to be. • Bacteria make up about one-third of fecal weight, reach concentrations of 1011 cells per gram

Bacterial infections of the lower respiratory system:

- less common than in the upper respiratory system but are much more serious. Pneumonia - disease of lower tract, alveoli fills with fluids like pus and blood. Typically results from an inflammatory response to micrboial infection of lungs and is the LEADING CAUSE OF DEATH due to infectious disease in the US.

Virulence factors used by S. pyogenes include all of the following EXCEPT: - protein F. - M protein. - a capsule. - lipopolysaccharide - protein G.

- lipopolysaccharide G+ chains, no outer membrane for LPS. protein F - attachment to fibrin, a protein on epithelial cells M protein - adhesin. Inactivates Cb3 of compliment Capsule - hyaluronic acid - mimics host cell structure. Protein G - binds to Fc of opsonizing IgG, avoids phagocytosis. - not listed are C5a peptidase, SPEs, streptolysins O and S plus tissue degrading enzymes (DNase, streptokinase (breaks down blood clots), hyaluronidase, proteases)

The Rickettsial disease that killed Howard Ricketts and Stanislaus Prowazek was: A) louse-borne typhus. B) tick-borne typhus. C) yellow fever. D) bubonic plague. E) unidentified.

- louse-borne typhus Ricketts studied Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) but was unable to grow it on lab media . He went on to study similar LOUSE-BORNE TYPHUS which he got and dies from. - Stanislaus Prowazek, studying same disease, met same fate at nearly the same age - Louse-borne typhus named Rickettsia prowazekii - Agent of RMSF named Rickettsia rickettsii

The eyes connect directly to the nasal passage through the: - frontal sinuses. - nasolacrimal ducts. - middle ear. - tonsils.

- nasolacrimal ducts. slide 11 - tear ducts connect to nasal chamber. Infection is dacryocystitis.

Otitis media and sinusitis are usually preceded by a(n): - middle ear infection. - pseudomonal infection. - oropharyngeal infection. - nasopharyngeal infection.

- nasopharyngeal infection. Middle ear opens up to the nasopharynx by eustachian tubes - infection damages the ciliated cells, resulting in inflammation and swelling.

Which of the following types of cell is able to create webs of extracellular fibers that help kill a variety of microbes? - platelets - NK cells - neutrophils - eosinophils

- neutrophils Ch 14.

The common cold - Tx/Prevention:

- no proven tx for common cold - analgesics (painkillers)/antipyretics (fever reducers) like aspirin/IBU can reduce symptoms but may prolong symptoms and duration of viral shedding and delay the antibody production that lead to recovery. - Prevention: handwashing, hands away from face, avoid crowded places, avoid people with colds for first few days, when they are shedding high numbers of viral particles. - NO VACCINE = large # of immunologically different viruses cause colds (more than 100 types!)

A young mother brings her three-month old baby into the doctor's office where you work as an RN. The baby is miserable and the mother reports that he has developed a fever, which is why she has brought him to the doctor. She tells you that the child is particularly upset when she changes his diaper and that he seems to have diaper rash, which she attributes to the fact that her son's diaper isn't always changed promptly enough at the day-care facility he goes to daily. In fact, she has recently switched him to another facility. You remove the child's diaper and immediately see that he has a very red rash on his buttocks and genital area. There is also red, scaly skin in the area where his diaper touches his thighs. You suspect that this may be more than just a typical case of diaper rash. The mother asks you whether her child needs penicillin. You tell her: A) yes—diaper rash is a serious infection, and should be treated promptly with this antibiotic. B) yes—penicillin interrupts protein synthesis, so will kill any type of cell, including a fungus. C) no—penicillin targets peptidoglycan synthesis, but C. albicans is a fungus, so has a chitin cell wall. D) no—penicillin is no longer an effective antibiotic for treating any type of infection. A different antibiotic is needed. E) no—killing C. albicans with an antibiotic increases the risk of endotoxic shock.

- no—penicillin targets peptidoglycan synthesis, but C. albicans is a fungus, so has a chitin cell wall.

he growth stage of the vector that is mainly responsible for transmitting Lyme disease is the: A. nymph stage. B. egg. C. moulter. D. adult.

- nymph stage

Adenoviruses - Epidemiology:

- only reservoir = humans - can persist in the environment - Naked, ssDNA - spread by respiratory droplets - crowded areas :( - asymptomatic infections common - virus shed from respiratory tract during acute illness and from feces for months afterwards

Warts are caused by: A) papillomaviruses. B) parvovirus. C) adenoviruses. D) herpes virus. E) coronavirus.

- papillomaviruses. Warts are caused by Papillomaviruses that infect skin via minor abrasions • Warts are small tumors (papillomas) consisting of multiple protrusions of tissue covered by skin or mucous membrane

The portal of entry of Bacillus anthracis is the: A) respiratory tract. B) epidermis. C) gastrointestinal tract. D) epidermis OR gastrointestinal tract. E) respiratory tract, epidermis, OR gastrointestinal tract.

- respiratory tract, epidermis, OR gastrointestinal tract.

The common cold - Pathogenesis:

- rhinoviruses infect EPITHELIAL CELLS that line the upper respiratory tract - ciliary motions stops, cells die and slough off. - damage -> release of pro-inflammatory cytokines, stimulates nerve reflexes = increased snot, tissue swelling and sneezing (so congested, can't breathe!) - can spread to ears, sinuses or lower respiratory tract before the immune system stops the infection. - cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised.

- rubeola. Measles = rubeola Signs and Symptoms - FEVER, RUNNY NOSE, cough, and SWOLLEN, RED, WEEPY EYES - Fine red RASH appears within a few days, lasts ~1 week

The disease characterized by the appearance of a toxin-mediated rash that spares the area around the mouth and causes the tongue to look like the surface of a ripe strawberry is: - chickenpox. - scarlet fever. - strep throat. - measles.

- scarlet fever. Some strains of S. pyogenes make streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (SPE) that care called erythrotoxins - red toxins - red rash of scarlet fever. Signs and symptoms: high fever, rough skin, pink-red rash, strawberry tongue. - some SPE-producing stains cause toxic shock and necrotizing fasciitis.

The oily layer that lubricates the hair follicles of the skin is: A) suder. B) eczema. C) sebum. D) acnus. E) mucus.

- sebum Made by sebaceous glands open into hair follicles, moves up the hair to the outside, keeps hair and skin soft and water-repellent.

- secondary bacterial infections such as pneumonia and otitis media. Rubeola (measles) - • Often secondary infections lead to EARACHES, bacterial PNEUMONIA; caused by S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, S. pyogenes, H. influenzae

The rhinovirus contains: A) single-stranded RNA and is an enveloped virus. B) double-stranded RNA and is an enveloped virus. C) single-stranded RNA and and is a non-enveloped virus. D) double-stranded RNA and is a non-enveloped virus. E) single-stranded RNA and and is a retrovirus.

- single-stranded RNA and and is a non-enveloped virus. p.543 "a group of NON-ENVELOPED virues with a SINGLE-STRANDED RNA genome" Other quizlet worksheet says A but...

The rhinovirus contains: - single-stranded RNA. - double-stranded RNA. - double-stranded DNA. - multiple pieces of single-stranded DNA.

- single-stranded RNA.

The normal habitat of Clostridium tetani is: A. humans. B. animals. C. plants. D. soil and dust.

- soil and dust. "Spores of Clostridium tetani found in SOIL AND DUST"

Which of the following pertains to Borrelia burgdorferi? A. coccus B. bacillus C. spirochete D. filament

- spirochete

Streptobacillus moniliformis is unusual in that it: - forms spores. - spontaneously forms L-forms. - is anaerobic. - has a cell wall.

- spontaneously forms L-forms. Streptobacillary Rat Bite Fever slide 48 Streptobacillus moniliformis: facultatively anaerobic, Gramnegative pleomorphic rod; spontaneously develops L-forms lacking cell wall Correct

The fungal disease that may be associated with sphagnum moss is: - candidiasis. - actinomycosis. - cat scratch fever. - sporotrichosis.

- sporotrichosis. First is yeast that causes thrush and yeast infections. Second is Lumpy jaw (bacterial), third is a zoonosis of cats - bartonellosis. Last is fungal, associated with vegetation so yes.

The bacteria that appear to maintain balance between the members of the normal flora and play a vital role in limiting colonization by pathogens are: A. staphylococci. B. diptheroids. C. Candida spp. D. Malassezia spp. E. streptococci

- staphylococci. Staphylococci: salt-tolerant, use nutrients and produce antimicrobial substances active against other Gram positive bacteria

The signs and symptoms of adenovirus respiratory tract infections may be confused with those of: A) pneumonia AND tuberculosis. B) tuberculosis AND diphtheria. C) pertussis AND pneumonia. D) strep throat AND pneumonia. E) strep throat AND pertussis.

- strep throat AND pneumonia.

S. pyogenes associated with invasive disease characteristically have: A. leukocidins. B. coagulase. C. streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin A. D. streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin B. E. streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins A AND B.

- streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins A AND B.: slide 18 Group A Streptococcal "Flesh-Eating Disease" Virulent strains of Streptococcus pyogenes produce damaging streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (SPEs) and enzymes - Exotoxin A: superantigen that causes toxic shock - Exotoxin B: protease that destroys tissue

Effective treatment of gas gangrene primarily involves: - use of an antitoxin. - use of immune globulins. - vaccination with inactivated toxin. - surgical removal of dead and infected tissues.

- surgical removal of dead and infected tissues. Clostridial Myonecrosis (Gas Gangrene) slide 35 Treatment and Prevention • Prompt surgical removal of all dead and infected tissue • Antibiotics, hyperbaric oxygen treatment • No available vaccine

Which of the following is NOT true for both hepatitis B and hepatitis C infection? The virus can cause a chronic disease. The disease is prevented by vaccination. The infection is transmitted through blood and body fluids. Diagnosis can be achieved through testing the blood for antibodies.

- the disease is prevented by vaccination There is a vaccine for HepB but there is no vaccine available for preventing HepC. It is recommended to be vaccinated for HepA and HepB to help prevent a combination of infections that might severely damage the liver.

Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever: A) the microorganisms multiply within macrophages. B) the incubation period is much longer. C) the symptoms are due to infection of the gallbladder. D) infection is spread only in the feces of domesticated animals. E) infection occurs due to ingestion of endospores

- the incubation period is much longer. Thyphoid fever and paratyphoid fever are ENTERIC FEVERS - systemic diseases that originate in the intestines. - caused by specific serotypes of Salmonella enterica and spread from person to person through fecal-oral transmission. - colonize the intestines, cross the mucus membrane via M cells, multiply inside macrophages and then are carried in the bloodstream to locations body-wide. INCUBATION TIME = 1-4 WEEKS Salmonellosis INCUBATION TIME IS 2 HOURS TO 6 DAYS

What is a Dane particle? A) the chlorine-resistant virus that causes HAV B) the infectious virion that causes HBV C) the spherical particles found in serum of patients with HBV D) the filamentous particles that cause HAV E) another name for an HBV surface antigen

- the infectious virion that causes HBV The complete virion - not just an empty envelope with no DNA inside it.

Microorganisms in abscesses often are not killed by antimicrobial agents because: - the microorganisms stop dividing. - of the chemical nature of the pus. - of the lack of blood vessels. - of the high level of oxygenation. - the microorganisms stop dividing, of the chemical nature of the pus AND of the lack of blood vessels.

- the microorganisms stop dividing, of the chemical nature of the pus AND of the lack of blood vessels.

Rubella, rubeola, and varicella-zoster are all only acquired via: A) the gastrointestinal route. B) the respiratory route. C) wounds. D) blood transfusions. E) arthropods.

- the respiratory route Problem with this question is that the portal(s) of entry for varicella-zoster virus is/are: - skin AND respiratory route.

The portal(s) of entry for varicella-zoster virus is/are: A) the skin. B) the respiratory tract. C) the genitourinary tract. D) the genitourinary tract AND the gastrointestinal tract. E) the skin AND the respiratory tract.

- the skin AND the respiratory tract. "Transmitted by respiratory secretions and skin lesions"

The eyes are protected from infection by: - the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the use of contact lenses. - the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the chemical action of lysozyme. - the chemical action of lysozyme AND the use of contact lenses. - the use of contact lenses AND the dryness of the eye surface. - the dryness of the eye surface AND the chemical action of lysozyme.

- the washing action of the tears and eyelids AND the chemical action of lysozyme.

A vaccine for the common cold is not possible because: A) the surface antigens of rhinovirus mutate frequently. B) there are more than 100 types of rhinovirus. C) the causative agent of colds is unknown. D) the rhinovirus cannot be grown in sufficient quantities. E) rhinoviruses are resistant.

- there are more than 100 types of rhinovirus.

You ask the doctor whether there is a vacccine that your children can be given to prevent further adenoviral infections. He tells you A) that there is no need for a vaccine because your son can be treated with antibiotics AND that adenovirus infections can be avoided by handwashing. B) there is a vaccine against two adenovirus serotypes but this is only given to military recruits AND that adenovirus infections can mostly be avoided by handwashing. C) there is a vaccine against two adenovirus serotypes but this is only given to healthcare personnel BUT that adenovirus infections are easily treated with antibiotics. D) it is not possible to generate vaccines against any double-stranded DNA viruses AND that adenovirus infections can be avoided by handwashing. E) it is not possible to synthesize vaccines for preventing diseases caused by RNA viruses BUT that adenovirus infections can be prevented with prophylactic antibiotics.

- there is a vaccine against two adenovirus serotypes but this is only given to military recruits AND that adenovirus infections can mostly be avoided by handwashing.

Frequently sporotrichosis is caused when the infectious agent is introduced into the body by: - lotions. - scissors. - thorns. - animal bites.

- thorns Fungal wound infection - sporotrichosis (Rose Gardener's Disease). Think plants. Correct

The vector for RMSF is a(n): A) mosquito. B) flea. C) tick. D) fly. E) deer.

- tick Transmitted by tick bite. Humans are accidental hosts. Rickettsia rickettsii: tiny Gram-negative non-motile coccobacilli that are obligate intracellular bacteria

Which of the following are considered diseases of the lower respiratory tract? - diphtheria and pneumonia - influenza and diphtheria - tuberculosis and pneumonia - common cold and tuberculosis

- tuberculosis and pneumonia slide 5 - lower respiratory tract = chest. Often serious, may be fatal. Upper respiratory tract - head and neck, Colds & sinus infections - uncomfortable but not life-threatening - clear w/o tx in ~1 week.

- viral pneumonia. These are respiratory signs/symptoms - rapid breathing, SOB, the cyanosis from lack of O2 that makes me think pneumonia instead of the others. - Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a progressive neurological disorder of children and young adults that affects the central nervous system (CNS). It is a slow, but persistent, viral infection caused by defective measles virus. - Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a progressive, usually fatal brain disorder occurring months to usually years after an attack of measles. It causes mental deterioration, myoclonic jerks, and seizures. Is why we need to keep up on vaccinations - so we don't see more cases of this down the road.

The secretions of the sweat and sebaceous glands provide ________ to the microbiota. A) water B) amino acids OR water C) lipids AND amino acids D) water, amino acids, AND lipids E) sebum OR amino acids

- water, amino acids, AND lipids They break down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol for food. Also, these products toxic to other bacteria. Break down proteins too.

If an individual in the infectious stage of chickenpox comes into contact with a person who had chickenpox as a child, that second person: A) will be unaffected by the contact. B) will develop a second case of chickenpox. C) will develop shingles. D) will develop a second case of chickenpox OR will develop shingles. E) will remain healthy if they receive zoster immune globulin.

- will be unaffected by the contact.

Place the steps of the disease pathway provided in the correct order to test your understanding of the pathogenesis of gonorrhea.

1. Neisseria gonorrhoeae attaches to mucous membranes of genitalia, mouth, rectum, or eyes. 2. Primary infection in women is cervix. 3. Outer covering of liver is infected in women when gonococci enter abdominal cavity from infected fallopian tubes. 4. Infection of fallopian tubes or testicular tubules causes scarring, which may lead to ectopic pregnancy (women) or infertility (men and women). 5. Bacteria enter the bloodstream and infect heart and joints.

Please match the statement to the stage of syphilis that it most accurately describes to test your understanding of syphilis. 1. Hard, painless chancre at site of spirochete entry 2. Fever, headache, and sore throat, followed by lymphadenopathy and a peculiar red or brown rash on all skin surfaces, including the palms and the soles 3. Neurosyphilis can be present as well as gummas 4. Syphilis spirochete passes through placenta to infect fetus

1. Primary syphilis 2. Secondary syphilis 3. Tertiary syphilis 4. Congenital syphilis

The incubation period of gonorrhea is approximately: 2-5 days. 1-2 weeks. 14-21 days. several months.

2-5 days. Neisseria gonorrheae - gonococcus (GC) - a fastidious Gram-negative diplococcus that needs a rich medium like chocolate agar for cultivation - often asymptomatic in men and women. if signs and symptoms occur, they appear after 2-5 day incubation period.

The incubation period of leprosy is: A. 1 week. B. 3 weeks. C. 3 months. D. 3 or more years.

3 or more years p.721 - It is difficult to eradiacte, due to the long generation time of Mycobacterium leprae. This results in an incubation time of 3 years (range 3 months to 20 years) during which time the disease can remain undetected.

What percent of Staphylococcus aureus infections are due to the patient's own flora? 10-20% 30-100% 40-50% 0%

30-100%

T/F - Streptococci are grouped by their cell wall carbohydrates.

True

You are reviewing for your nursing school entry exam with your study group. Each person in the group agrees to cover one disease. You select toxoplasmosis for your presentation. Toxoplasmosis can be a serious problem for those who are immunosuppressed, as well as for fetuses. Even in healthy people, the immune system may not clear the organism, resulting in a latent infection that can reactivate when immunity declines.Please identify the correct sequence of events in the pathogenesis of toxoplasmosis. 1. Each cyst contains large numbers of bradyzoites, a smaller form of T. gondii which persists in a latent infection. 2. As host immunity develops, a tough, fibrous capsule forms around infected host cells, forming a tissue cyst. 3. Within the small intestinal cells, sporozoites develop rapidly into tachyzoites which spread systemically. 4. T. gondii enters the host when either mature oocysts containing two sporocysts are eaten. 5. Sporozoites emerge from each of the sporocysts, and invade the cells of the small intestine. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 1, 5, 4, 2, 3 2, 4, 5, 1, 3 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

4, 5, 3, 2, 1

5 of these...

You are a nurse on a post-surgical ward. One of your patients is an elderly woman who has just had her gallbladder removed. When you go into her room to check on her, you find that she has significant...

5 of these... Gallbladder was originally spelled gallbaldder.

There are several stages in the life cycle of G. lamblia. Which is the correct sequence? 1. Trophozoites multiply in the intestine. 2. Mature cysts or trophozoites are released in feces. 3. Cysts pass through the stomach to the lower small intestine. 4. Dehydration in the large intestine stimulates formation of cysts. 5. Cysts enter the mouth by ingestion of contaminated food or water. 6. Trophozoites are released from the cysts. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 2, 3, 1, 5, 4, 6 5, 2, 3, 1, 6, 4 5, 3, 6, 1, 4, 2 2, 5, 6, 1, 3, 4

5, 3, 6, 1, 4, 2

Your brother is an enthusiatic hiker. He returns from a walking vacation and tells you that although he had a good time, he ran into a bit of trouble on one of the days he was away because he had got lost in the woods for several hours. Although he took enough food for the day, your brother ran out of water. Luckily, he came across a small stream and was able to fill up his water bottle and to finish his hike without any further problems. Your brother mentions as an aside that he must have eaten something bad while he was away, because he has had pretty bad diarrhea since he got back. He tells you he doesn't feel too bad, but that he has been having what he describes as "explosive diarrhea." He also complains of abdominal pain. You urge him to go to the doctor because you suspect that he may have something more than just food-related diarrhea. There are several stages in the life cycle of G. lamblia. Which is the correct sequence? 1. Trophozoites multiply in the intestine. 2. Mature cysts or trophozoites are released in feces. 3. Cysts pass through the stomach to the lower small intestine. 4. Dehydration in the large intestine stimulates formation of cysts. 5. Cysts enter the mouth by ingestion of contaminated food or water. 6. Trophozoites are released from the cysts. 5, 3, 6, 1, 4, 2 2, 5, 6, 1, 3, 4 5, 2, 3, 1, 6, 4 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 2, 3, 1, 5, 4, 6

5, 3, 6, 1, 4, 2 Correct

Why is it difficult to treat P. aeruginosa wound infections?

? Only a few antimicrobial medications effective • Established infections difficult to treat

Antibiotics are given to a person with gas gangrene to:

? Clostridial myonecrosis = Gas Gangrene Treatment. If gas gangrene is suspected, treatment must begin immediately. High doses of antibiotics, typically penicillin and clindamycin, are given, and all dead and infected tissue is removed surgically. - the antibiotic is to kill the bacteria itself - Clostridium perfringins - Gram-positive, rod-shaped, anaerobic, spore-forming pathogenic bacterium of the genus Clostridium.

Mycoplasma genitalium infections frequently go undiagnosed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: p.744 - no widely available detection methods are available - infections are often asymptomatic - when signs and symptoms do occur, they can be similar to those of other bacterial STIs.

?? Mycoplamsa genitalium is an emerging cause of genital tract infections in men and women worldwide. p.744 - it cannot be detected by gram stain. - very difficult to culture. Fastidious and grow very slowly, generation time of at least 16 hrs and takes months to grow in vitro. - infections are frequently asymptomatic. - signs and symptoms are similar to those of chlamydia and gonorrhea.

T/F: An abscess is a collection of pus.

True

T/F: Complications of measles may include pneumonia and encephalitis.

True

Yellow fever is transmitted by ticks. fleas. Anopheles mosquitoes. Aedes mosquitoes.

Aedes mosquitoes. Bunch of viruses from mosquitoes - Yellow fever - main vector = Aedes aegypti mosquito - Dengue fever - main vector = Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus - Chikungunya - Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquitoes - Zika - Aedes aegypti and Aedes olbopictus (less frequently) Anopheles mosquitoes carry Plasmodium for Malaria. Fleas is Yerisinia pestis and plague. Ticks is Lyme disease - but Ebola and Marburg - fruit bats reservoir

T/F: Humans are the only reservoir for varicella-zoster virus.

True

Gastroenteritis A.Acute inflammation of the stomach and intestines; often applied to the syndrome of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. Jaundice E.Yellow color of the skin and eyes caused by buildup of bilirubin in the blood. Microvilli D.Tiny cylindrical projections from luminal surfaces of cells such as those lining the intestine; increases surface area of the cell. Myonecrosis C.Also known as gas gangrene. Potassium iodide B.Effective as a non-antibiotic treatment for infection with Sporotrichosis.

Abrasion C.Occurs where the epidermis is scraped off. Bile E.Yellow-colored fluid produced by the liver that aids in the absorption of nutrients from the intestine. Collagen B.Fibrous support protein found in skin, tendons, scars, and other tissues. Contusion D.Produced by a blow that crushes tissue. Cyst A.Dormant resting protozoan cell characterized by a thickened cell wall.

You suspect that your brother has giardiasis, caused by Giardia lamblia. Which of the following is NOT true about this disease? A person with giardiasis diarrhea is likely to eliminate G. lamblia cysts rather than trophozoites. Giardiasis is a zoonotic disease. Chlorinated water may still contain G. lamblia because the cysts are resistant to this chemical. The cysts of G. lamblia are resistant to stomach acid and are infectious. The causative organism has energy-metabolizing organelles called mitosomes.

A person with giardiasis diarrhea is likely to eliminate G. lamblia cysts rather than trophozoites.

Why is puerperal fever not regarded as a sexually transmitted disease? What spreads the disease? A. A physician that doesn't observe proper sterile technique may introduce bacteria from the environment into the genitourinary tract of a woman during delivery of a child, inducing puerperal fever several days later. B. The trauma of the delivery of the placenta through the vaginal tract after the fetus introduces bacteria directly into the bloodstream, resulting in puerperal fever. C. A woman's own normal fecal microbiota can occasionally cause puerperal fever if it contaminates the genitourinary tract following delivery. This can especially occur after an episiotomy procedure (cutting between the vaginal opening and the rectum). D. A physician that doesn't observe proper sterile technique may introduce bacteria from the environment into the genitourinary tract of a woman during delivery of a child, inducing puerperal fever several days later AND a woman's own normal fecal microbiota can occasionally cause puerperal fever if it contaminates the genitourinary tract following delivery. This can especially occur after an episiotomy procedure (cutting between the vaginal opening and the rectum).

A physician that doesn't observe proper sterile technique may introduce bacteria from the environment into the genitourinary tract of a woman during delivery of a child, inducing puerperal fever several days later AND a woman's own normal fecal microbiota can occasionally cause puerperal fever if it contaminates the genitourinary tract following delivery. This can especially occur after an episiotomy procedure (cutting between the vaginal opening and the rectum).

Which of the following groups contain diarrhea-causing E. coli? A. enterotoxigenic B. enteroinvasive C. enteropathogenic D. enterohemorrhagic E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Which is more likely to happen—antigenic DRIFT, or antigenic SHIFT—and why? A) Antigenic DRIFT, since infection with only a single virus strain is required, and the random mutations happen as the virus replicates in the infected person's cells. B) Antigenic SHIFT, since infection with only a single virus strain is required, and the random mutations happen as the virus replicates in the infected person's cells. C) Antigenic DRIFT, since infection with only a single virus strain is required and random mutations occur more readily in this situation than if two virus strains are present. D) Antigenic SHIFT, since multiple viruses in a cell at once means more RNA polymerase to copy the RNA, and therefore more possibilities for mistakes to be made (leading to mutations). E) Antigenic drift and antigenic shift occur at the same frequency. Genetic change is just as likely to occur if one viral strain or more than one strain is/are present.

A) Antigenic DRIFT, since infection with only a single virus strain is required, and the random mutations happen as the virus replicates in the infected person's cells.

You are an RN working in the emergency department (ED) at a major hospital in New York City. During one shift, you see two patients who are exhibiting coughing with blood-containing sputum, and shortness of breath. Both patients report that they have experienced headaches, muscle aches, high fever, confusion, and shaking chills in the days preceding their ED visit. One of the patients also has some digestive tract symptoms including diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. You discover that the patients live in the same apartment building, although they do not know each other. You suspect that they have a type of pneumonia, and given the circumstances, think it may be legionellosis. You read up on this disease to refresh your memory about it. L. pneumophila was unrecognized as the causative agent of legionellosis for a long time. Why is this? A) L. pneumophila both stains poorly with common methods, and is difficult to culture in the laboratory. B) The organism is fastidious and is difficult to culture in the laboratory. C) L. pneumophila stains poorly with common methods, so is difficult to detect. D) L. pneumophila has no surface antigens and thus cannot be stained with fluorescence. E) There is no way to grow L. pneumophila in vitro; this organism can only be cultivated in cell cultures or viruses.

A) L. pneumophila both stains poorly with common methods, and is difficult to culture in the laboratory.

Enlargement of which of the following structures may contribute to ear infections by interfering with normal drainage from Eustachian tubes? - Nasal chamber - Nasal conchae - Adenoids - Epiglottis - Parotid glands

Adenoids - tonsils at the back of the throat

You go hiking in the woods with some of your classmates. A few days after the hike, your friend Alice calls to tell you she is not feeling well and that she is going to skip soccer practice that evening. She says she has a weird rash on her leg and wonders if she was bitten by a spider while your were hiking. She sends you a photo of the rash. You are in your final semester of nursing school and have recently studied disease of the cardiovascular system. You think that the rash that Alice has is a sign of Lyme disease, and offer to take her to the urgent care to get medical help. While you are waiting to see a clinician, you review answer Alice's questions about Lyme disease.What causes the characteristic erythema migrans of Lyme disease? Borrelia bergdorferi is an encapsulated organism. The capsule of these cells is composed of hyaluronic acid that causes a widespread inflammatory response in the skin of the host that manifests as a rash. Borrelia bergdorferi cells propel themselves from host cell to host cell using actin tails, in a manner similar to Shigella cells. As they move, the bacteria destroy the host cells, causing the characteristic rash. After being introduced into the skin by the bite of an infected mosquito, the Gram-positive bacteria migrate outward in a corkscrew-like manner; the NAGs and NAMs in their cell wall causes an inflammatory reaction. After a person acquires the causative bacteria by eating contaminated meat, the bacteria migrate to the skin in a corkscrew-like motion, killing host cells as they move and causing the bull's-eye rash. After being introduced into the skin by the bite of an infected tick, the Gram-negative bacteria migrate outward in a circular manner; the LPS in their outer layer causes an inflammatory reaction.

After being introduced into the skin by the bite of an infected tick, the Gram-negative bacteria migrate outward in a circular manner; the LPS in their outer layer causes an inflammatory reaction. p.672 Correct

Why is it important to learn about rabies when only a few cases occur in the United States each year? A. The US isn't the entire world. Rabies might be more common in other areas, and it's important to understand due to its lethality. B. The only reason why rabies isn't common in the US is due to our lack of interaction with animal carriers. We could very easily have an outbreak on our hands if we don't know the warning signs to watch for that we've learned about by studying the virus and disease. C. Rabies can never be completely eliminated-it has too many different animal reservoirs/carriers. As such, we need to remain constantly aware of how to protect human populations, both by preventing and treating the illness. We can only do that by learning about it. D. All of the above are correct.

All of the above are correct.

What are possible complications of mumps?Orchitis and infertility Miscarriage Meningitis Sudden onset deafness All of the answer choices are correct.

All of the answer choices are correct.

Virulence factors used by S. pyogenes may be: - Protein F. - M Protein. - a capsule. - Protein G. - All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct - Protein F attaches to surface protein on epithelial cells called fibrin. M protein is an adhesin and inactivates opsonin C3b and avoids activating complement inflammatory response. Capsule mimics host cell hyaluronic acid and hides cell from phagocytes, Protein G is an Fc receptor that binds Fc part of opsonizing IgG.

Which is true of listeriosis? A. It is a foodborne disease. B. It may result in meningitis. C. It is usually asymptomatic in healthy people. D. It is caused by an organism that can grow at refrigerator temperatures. E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct p.702 - Meningitis is the most common result of listeriosis, a foodborne disease caused by Listeria monocytogenes. - motile, non-spore forming, facultative anaerobe, Gram positive rod that can grow at 4 C even on vacuum-packed refridgerated food - epidemics - GI route - can cross the placenta - abscesses in fetus

Untreated gonorrhea in males may lead to sterility. urinary tract infections. prostatic abscesses. orchitis. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct p.741 - In men, an inflammatory response to the infection can cause scar tissue formation that partially obstructs the urethra, slowing urination and creating a predisposition to UTIs. The infection may spread to the prostate gland and the testes, producing prostatic abscesses and orchitis (inflammation of the testes). If scar tissue blocks the tubes that carry the sperm, or if testicular tissue is destroyed by the infection , infertility can result.

Enlargement of lymph nodes or spleen is often associated with tularemia. brucellosis. plague. infectious mononucleosis. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Entamoeba histolytica cysts survive passage through the stomach. causes amebiasis. may form cysts. may produce a cytotoxic enzyme. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

In which of the following diseases does the spleen enlarge? infectious mononucleosis malaria leishmaniasis brucellosis All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Treponema pallidum has become less virulent over time. can be more easily viewed with dark-field illumination. is the organism that causes syphilis. is a spirochete. All of the answer choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Which is true of listeriosis? It is usually asymptomatic in healthy people. It may result in meningitis. It is a foodborne disease. It is caused by an organism that can grow at refrigerator temperatures. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

T/F: Staphylococci are the leading cause of wound infections.

True

Traditionally the animal(s) associated with hosting Brucella is/are cattle. dogs. goats. pigs. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. - domestic animals. Brucellosis melitensis if people but there are others: Brucellosis abortus infects cattle Brucellosis canis infects dogs Brucellosis melitensis infects goats Brucellosis suis infects pigs

Central nervous system (CNS) diseases caused by fungus may occur in: A. cancer patients. B. diabetics. C. AIDS patients. D. immunosuppressed people. E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. - in immunocompromised individuals

Blood and lymph may carry antibodies. complement. lysozyme. interferon. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. Antibodies = duh complement are blood proteins p.655 - Blood and lymph both carry infection-fighting leukocytes and antimicrobial proteins, including ANTIBODIES, COMPLEMENT, LYSOZYME AND INTERFERON. Correct

Which is true of the Clostridium botulinum toxin? A. It is heat-sensitive. B. It is a neurotoxin. C. It blocks nerve to muscle signal transmission. D. It is a two-part toxin. E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. Botulinum toxin - C. botulinum is G+ so is an exotoxin - heat sensitive - is a neurotoxin - attaches to motor neurons and stops transmission of signals to the muscles, producing paralysis - is an A-B toxin - B on motor nerve endings. A in nerve cell where it inactivates proteins that regulate the release of neurotransmitters - stops muscle contraction = Flaccid paralysis

Which is true about C. botulinum? A. It is anaerobic. B. It may form spores. C. It produces a neurotoxin. D. It does not grow well below pH 4.5. E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. Botulism is not a nervous system disease but its key symptom is paralysis. Clostridium botulinum - G+, anaerobic, endospore-forming, rod shaped bacterium. The endospore can germinate in favorable conditions = nutrient-rich, anaerobic environment, a pH above 4.5 and a temperture above 4 C. Botulinum toxin (types A, B and E) is a neurotoxin and causes paralysis.

Treatment of gas gangrene may involve _________. A. wound debridement B. antitoxins C. hyperbaric chambers D. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. Clostridium perfringens -> Clostridial Myonecrosis Treatment and Prevention • Prompt surgical removal of all dead and infected tissue = DEBRIDEMENT • Antibiotics, HYPERBARIC oxygen treatment • No available vaccine Makes ALPHA TOXIN so ANTITOXIN, too

The antimicrobial aspect(s) of the skin is/are: A. dryness. B. saltiness. C. acidity. D. toxicity. E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. Too dry, salty, acidic, and toxic for most pathogens - Those that tolerate often shed with dead skin cells.

The secretions of the sweat and sebaceous glands provide ________ to the microbiota. A. water B. amino acids C. lipids D. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. Use substances in sweat, sebum as nutrients; byproducts inhibit other microbes.

The normal flora of the lower urethra may show: Lactobacillus. Staphylococcus. Corynebacterium. Bacteroides. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. p.7.29 - the lower urethra has a normal resident microbiota that includes species of Lactobacillus, Staphylococcus, Corynebacterium, Haemophilus, Streptococcus and Bacteroides.

Bacterial cystitisis: a common nosocomial disease. is typically caused by E. coli. may occur through the use of a catheter. is unusual in men under 50. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct. p.730/31 - is a frequent HAI - usually originates from the normal intestinal microbiota - more than 80% of cases are caused by specific uropathogenic strains of E. coli. - hospitalized patients, and people with long-standing bladder catheters are often chronically infected - catheters allow for formation of biofilms that let bacteria reach bladder - UTIs are unusual in men until about age 50 when the prostate enlarges

Which of the following is important in the treatment of potential infections by Clostridium tetani? A. Proper care of wounds contaminated with soil B. Prophylactic use of antitoxin C. Administration of penicillin D. All of the choices are important in the treatment of potential infections by Clostridium tetani.

All of the choices are important in the treatment of potential infections by Clostridium tetani. Clostridium tetani: anaerobic, GRAM POSITIVE, rod-shaped; forms spherical endospore at one end of cell; swarming growth quickly spreads over media surface Treatment and Prevention • Human tetanus immune globulin (TIG) injection - Antibodies bind to free toxin molecules, provide passive immunity, but do not neutralize attached tetanospasmin or repair nerve damage - Muscle relaxants, supportive care necessary • CLEANING WOUND, antibiotics, vaccine • VACCINATION with tetanus toxoid (inactivated tetanospasmin) PREVENTS - Table 23.3 says TETANUS ANTITOXIN

Which of the following is/are the modes of transmission for T. francisella? Via ingestion of contaminated meat By tick bites Through minor cuts or abrasions By inhalation All of these

All of these p.675/676 Correct

Why is it important to continue vaccinating children in the United States against measles, even though it is now a rare disease in the Western Hemisphere? A) A rare complication of measles is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) that is characterized by progressive brain degeneration, and generally results in death within 2 years. B) Measles that occurs during pregnancy increases the risk of miscarriage, premature labor, and low-birth-weight babies. C) Occasionally, the measles virus causes viral pneumonia, with rapid breathing, shortness of breath, and dusky skin color from lack of adequate O2 in the blood. D) Encephalitis is a rare but serious complication of measles that sometimes results in permanent brain damage, with mental disability, deafness, and epilepsy. E) All of these complications are reasons that the measles vaccine should be continued in the United States.

All of these complications are reasons that the measles vaccine should be continued in the United States.

Which of the following virulence factors used by Staphylococcus puts holes in host cells? Alpha toxin Membrane attack complex Clumping factor Protein A Leukocidin

Alpha toxin

Most bacteria associated with the teeth and gums are A) Aerobes. B) Anaerobes. C) Facultative anaerobes D) None of the above.

Anaerobes

Why are signs and symptoms not quickly resolved in a person with tetanus when they are given antibiotics? Antibiotics will prevent the production of additional tetanospasmin but will not repair nerves already damaged by the toxin. Clostridium tetani is an acid-fast organism; it thus has a slow generation time, so it takes several weeks for an antibiotic to be effective in killing the cells. Clostridium tetani is an acid-fast organism; it thus has a waxy cell wall that prevents antibiotics from entering the cell. The antibiotics are given prophylactically, to prevent secondary infections. Nerves damaged by tetanospasmin need time to repair. Clostridium tetani is resistant to most antibiotics; treatment thus involves several weeks of combined antibiotic therapy.

Antibiotics will prevent the production of additional tetanospasmin but will not repair nerves already damaged by the toxin. Correct

Which of the following helminthic diseases is a common infestation found in the southeastern United States? A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Ascaris lumbricoides C) Taenia saginata D) Trichuris trichiura E) Echinococcus granulosus

Ascaris lumbricoides

T/F: Varicella is a member of the herpes family of viruses and produces a latent infection.

True

Your brother ... The signs and symptoms of giardiasis vary among people. Which of the following is your brother unlikely to experience with his infection? Bloody, frothy urine Jaundice and malabsorption Indigestion and gas These all may be experienced with giardiasis. Nausea and vomiting

Bloody, frothy urine

The initial symptoms of bacterial meningitis are the same regardless of the causative agent. T/F

True

Which is more dangerous to human beings: antigenic DRIFT or antigenic SHIFT? A) Antigenic DRIFT, since this produces the quickest and largest degree of changes in the virus structure and we may not have immunity against it. B) Antigenic SHIFT, since this produces the quickest and largest degree of changes in the virus structure and we may not have immunity against it. C) Antigenic DRIFT; the small changes make the virus look like something we already have an immune response in place for, but we actually don't, letting the virus hide from the immune responses for a longer period of time. D) Antigenic SHIFT; the process completely changes the virus, allowing it to jump from one species to another (such as from birds into humans). As such, we have no responses in place for the new virus. E) These are equally dangerous. In both cases, major genetic and phenotypic changes occur in the virus, which means that people have absolutely no immune responses in place for dealing with the infection.

B) Antigenic SHIFT, since this produces the quickest and largest degree of changes in the virus structure and we may not have immunity against it.

Is antigenic shift alone likely to lead to influenza pandemics? A) Yes. ONLY antigenic shift can lead to the large-scale mixing of gene elements required to produce a pandemic flu strain. B) Perhaps, but it would most likely be a mixture of antigenic shift AND drift that would result in a pandemic strain. C) No. ONLY antigenic DRIFT can lead to the large-scale mixing of gene elements required to produce a pandemic flu strain. D) No. Antigenic SHIFT is responsible for changes in the hemagglutinin protein, while antigenic DRIFT is responsible for changes in the neuraminidase protein. You need both to lead to a pandemic strain. E) No. Antigenic SHIFT is responsible for changes in the neuraminidase protein, while antigenic DRIFT is responsible for changes in the hemagglutinin protein. You need both to lead to a pandemic strain.

B) Perhaps, but it would most likely be a mixture of antigenic shift AND drift that would result in a pandemic strain. The other options don't actually make sense at all, and the use of ONLY = no.

The media used to successfully grow Francisella tularensis must contain cysteine. T/F

True

The causative agent of whooping cough is: A) parvovirus. B) M. pneumoniae. C) B. pertussis. D) S. aureus. E) W. pertussis.

B. pertussis. Bordatella pertussis - tiny G- rod with capsule, aerobic - sensitive to sunlight, drying, quickly dies outside host

Presenters on the morning news channel that you watch alert consumers to a food recall. A particular brand of ice cream has tested positive for Listeria monocytogenes, an organism that causes asymptomatic or relatively mild disease in otherwise healthy individuals, but can be problematic in pregnant women. Your sister is expecting her first child, so you call her immediately and tell her about the recall. You fill her in on what you know about this organism and the disease it causes, having just learned about it yourself in your pre-nursing microbiology class. Your sister has questions that you are able to answer. Why is listeriosis so important in pregnant women even though it usually causes them few symptoms? Listeriosis causes significant signs and symptoms in pregnant women and may prove fatal because they cannot take medication while pregnant. Bacteremia commonly occurs, resulting in infection of the fetus; miscarriage, stillbirth, or infection of the newborn can result. Listeriosis suppresses the woman's immune system; she fails to make IgG that would protect her fetus. Listeriosis in a pregnant woman usually leads to untreatable meningitis. Neither she nor her fetus is able to survive the infection. Infants born with listeriosis are sensitized against the foods in which the causative agent is found, such as soft cheeses. They can never eat these foods.

Bacteremia commonly occurs, resulting in infection of the fetus; miscarriage, stillbirth, or infection of the newborn can result.

What is the difference between 'bacteremia' and 'septicemia?' A. Bacteremia is an infection with bacteria. Septicemia is an infection with Septic protozoans. B. Bacteremia is the presence of living, multiplying bacteria in the bloodstream. Septicemia is the presence of endotoxins, but not necessarily of living microbial agents. C. Septicemia is the presence of living, multiplying bacteria in the bloodstream. Bacteremia is the presence of endotoxins, but not necessarily of living microbial agents. D. There is no difference-both terms denote the presence of living bacterial cells in the bloodstream.

Bacteremia is the presence of living, multiplying bacteria in the bloodstream. Septicemia is the presence of endotoxins, but not necessarily of living microbial agents

What is the difference between 'bacteremia' and 'septicemia?' Bacteremia is an infection with bacteria. Septicemia is an infection with Septic protozoans. Bacteremia is the presence of living, multiplying bacteria in the bloodstream. Septicemia is the presence of endotoxins, but not necessarily of living microbial agents. Septicemia is the presence of living, multiplying bacteria in the bloodstream. Bacteremia is the presence of endotoxins, but not necessarily of living microbial agents. There is no difference-both terms denote the presence of living bacterial cells in the bloodstream.

Bacteremia is the presence of living, multiplying bacteria in the bloodstream. Septicemia is the presence of endotoxins, but not necessarily of living microbial agents.

The PA tells you that a disease called cat scratch disease can also be contracted through a cat bite. The organism that causes this disease is ________, and that the disease is characterized by ________. Bartonella henselae; local lymph node enlargement Bartonella henselae; peliosis hepatis Pasteurella multocida; local lymph node enlargement Pasteurella multocida; rash and joint pain Streptobacillus moniliformis; vomiting, diarrhea and rash

Bartonella henselae; local lymph node enlargement

You go hiking in the woods with some of your classmates. A few days after the hike, your friend Alice calls to tell you she is not feeling well and that she is going to skip soccer practice that evening. She says she has a weird rash on her leg and wonders if she was bitten by a spider while your were hiking. She sends you a photo of the rash. You are in your final semester of nursing school and have recently studied disease of the cardiovascular system. You think that the rash that Alice has is a sign of Lyme disease, and offer to take her to the urgent care to get medical help. While you are waiting to see a clinician, you review answer Alice's questions about Lyme disease. Lyme disease is a zoonosis with humans being an accidental host. What does this mean? Borrelia bergdorferi is transmitted to animals from humans AND the bacterium cannot complete its life cycle in humans. Borrelia bergdorferi is found predominantly in zoo animals AND the tick vector cannot complete its life cycle in humans. Borrelia bergdorferi is found predominantly in zoo animals AND the bacterium cannot complete its life cycle in humans. Borrelia bergdorferi is found predominantly in zoo animals AND humans are not the normal host for the tick vector. Borrelia bergdorferi is transmitted to humans from animals AND humans are not the normal host for the tick vector.

Borrelia bergdorferi is transmitted to humans from animals AND humans are not the normal host for the tick vector.

Select the TRUE statement regarding staphylococci and staphylococcal wound infections. -Some S. epidermisis strains produce superantigens that activate many helper T cells, causing a cytokine storm. -Staphylococcus epidermidis produces several virulence factors, including exotoxins. -S. aureus and S. epidermidis are both coagulase-positive, encapsulated organisms. -Both HA-MRSA and CA-MRSA are resistant to multiple antibiotics, including sulfa drugs and tetracyclines. -Staphylococcus aureus forms biofilms but lacks virulence factors and is not very pathogenic.

Both HA-MRSA and CA-MRSA are resistant to multiple antibiotics, including sulfa drugs and tetracyclines.

Select the TRUE statement regarding staphylococci and staphylococcal wound infections. Staphylococcus epidermidis produces several virulence factors, including exotoxins. Some S. epidermisis strains produce superantigens that activate many helper T cells, causing a cytokine storm. Staphylococcus aureus forms biofilms but lacks virulence factors and is not very pathogenic. S. aureus and S. epidermidis are both coagulase-positive, encapsulated organisms. Both HA-MRSA and CA-MRSA are resistant to multiple antibiotics, including sulfa drugs and tetracyclines.

Both HA-MRSA and CA-MRSA are resistant to multiple antibiotics, including sulfa drugs and tetracyclines.

You are given a prescription for both a penicillin derivative AND a β-lactamase inhibitor. Why are you given these medications? -Both P. multicoda and B. henselae are encapsulated, so respond well to penicillin derivatives. In addition, some bite wounds are infected with strains of β-lactamase-producing Staphylococcus epidermidis. -The causative organisms of cat bite infections and bartonellosis are not well characterized. For this reason, penicillin derivatives and inhibitors of these medications are given synergistically. -Both P. multicoda and B. henselae respond to penicillin derivatives. In addition, some bite wounds are infected with strains of β-lactamase-producing Streptobacillus moniliformis. -Both P. multicoda and B. henselae respond to penicillin derivatives. In addition, some bite wounds are infected with strains of β-lactamase-producing Staphylococcus aureus. -Both P. multicoda and B. henselae produce β-lactamases. They are thus treated with β-lactamase-inhibiting medications. In addition, skin microbiota such as S. epidermidis respond to penicillins.

Both P. multicoda and B. henselae respond to penicillin derivatives. In addition, some bite wounds are infected with strains of β-lactamase-producing Staphylococcus aureus.

You are looking after your sister's cat Singa. While playing one evening, Singa accidentally bites you instead of the toy mouse you are holding. The bite wound is very small but is in the fleshy part of your hand. You wash the wound, which is not bleeding much, and put a band aid on it. The next day, your whole hand is red, swollen, and painful, and some lymph nodes in your arm are enlarged and tender. You call your sister, who is an RN. She urges you to go to the doctor, telling you that animal bites can sometimes be infected, and that if that is the case, you will need treatment before the infection gets any worse.You are given a prescription for both a penicillin derivative AND a β-lactamase inhibitor. Why are you given these medications? Both P. multicoda and B. henselae produce β-lactamases. They are thus treated with β-lactamase-inhibiting medications. In addition, skin microbiota such as S. epidermidis respond to penicillins. Both P. multicoda and B. henselae respond to penicillin derivatives. In addition, some bite wounds are infected with strains of β-lactamase-producing Streptobacillus moniliformis. The causative organisms of cat bite infections and bartonellosis are not well characterized. For this reason, penicillin derivatives and inhibitors of these medications are given synergistically. Both P. multicoda and B. henselae respond to penicillin derivatives. In addition, some bite wounds are infected with strains of β-lactamase-producing Staphylococcus aureus. Both P. multicoda and B. henselae are encapsulated, so respond well to penicillin derivatives. In addition, some bite wounds are infected with strains of β-lactamase-producing Staphylococcus epidermidis.

Both P. multicoda and B. henselae respond to penicillin derivatives. In addition, some bite wounds are infected with strains of β-lactamase-producing Staphylococcus aureus. p.616 Correct

Which of the following is/are able to survive phagocytosis? Brucella sp. Staphylococcus aureus Francisella tularensis Mycobacterium tuberculosis Brucella sp, Francisella tularensis AND Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Brucella sp, Francisella tularensis AND Mycobacterium tuberculosis Brucellosis - Brucella sp. prevent phagosome-lysosome fusion Tularemia - Francisella tularemia escape from the phagosome TB - Mycobacterium tuberculosis - mycolic acids in the bacterial cell wall prevent phagosome-lysosome fusion, bacteria leaves the phagosome, multiplies in cytoplasm. p.553

Which of the following does NOT explain why a patient with Klebsiella pneumonia is more likely to die than one with pneumococcal pneumonia? A) Treatment options for Klebsiella pneumonia are limited because the causative agent is resistant to many antibiotics. Pneumococcal pneumonia can be treated with antibiotics such as penicillin. B) The causative agent of Klebsiella pneumonia is Gram-negative and may cause septic shock. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive bacterium so does not have endotoxin. C) The most severe types of Pneumococcal pneumonia can be prevented with the PPSV23 vaccine. There is no vaccine that protects against Klebsiella pneumonia. D) Klebsiella pneumoniae causes lung abscesses which may result in the death of the patient. Pneumococcal pneumonia does not result in permanent lung damage. E) All of these statements explain why Klebsiella pneumonia is more frequently fatal than pneumococcal pneumonia.

C) The most severe types of Pneumococcal pneumonia can be prevented with the PPSV23 vaccine. There is no vaccine that protects against Klebsiella pneumonia.

p. 537 Table 21.1 Virulence Factors of Streptococcus pyogenes C5a peptidase, Hyaluronic acid capsule, M protein, protein F, protein G, Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (SPEs), Streptolysins O and S, Tissue-degrading enzymes

C5a peptidase - inhibits recruitment of phagocytes by destroying complement component C5a. Hyaluronic acid capsule - inhibits phagocytosis. M protein - interferes with phagocytosis by causing inactivation of complement component C3b, an opsonin; involved in attachment to host cells. protein F - responsible for attachment to host cells. protein G - binds to Fc portion of antibodies, thereby interfering with opsonization. Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (SPEs) - superantigens responsible for scarlet fever, toxic shock, "flesh-eating" fasciitis Streptolysins O and S - Lyse leukocytes and erythrocytes Tissue-degrading enzymes - enhance spread of bacteria by breaking down DNA, proteins, blood clots, tissue and hyaluronic acid.

Candida albicans

A young mother brings her three-month old baby into the doctor's office where you work as an RN. The baby is miserable and the mother reports that he has developed a fever, which is why she has brought him to the doctor. She tells you that the child is particularly upset when she changes his diaper and that he seems to have diaper rash, which she attributes to the fact that her son's diaper isn't always changed promptly enough at the day-care facility he goes to daily. In fact, she has recently switched him to another facility. You remove the child's diaper and immediately see that he has a very red rash on his buttocks and genital area. There is also red, scaly skin in the area where his diaper touches his thighs. You suspect that this may be more than just a typical case of diaper rash. In the laboratory, rubella virus, VZV, rubeola virus and Rickettsia rickettsii must be cultivated in host cells. Candida albicans does not need to be cultured in cells—why? A) Candida albicans is not an obligate intracellular parasite. B) This fungus is an aquatic organism that requires fresh water for culture. C) Candida species are yeasts and require a medium such as bread for culture. D) Candida albicans is an obligate intracellular parasite. E) Yeasts are autotrophs and are thus able to grow independent of other organisms.

Candida albicans is not an obligate intracellular parasite. Nope, it's a yeast - a fungus.

Why can an infection in the brain's ventricles usually be detected in spinal fluid obtained from the lower back (lumbar region)? When ventricles are infected, the brain reacts by pumping the causative pathogens into the CFS so that they can be removed by the immune system. There is a set of lymph nodes specifically in place to drain the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ventricles. They are found in the lumbar region of the spinal column. There is a high degree of vascularity that exists, allowing easy transfer of bacteria in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and the blood. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) originates in the ventricles, but percolates over and around the brain and spinal cord. This is an incorrect statement. Since the central nervous system (CNS) is a protected site due to the blood-brain barrier, there can never BE an infection in the ventricles.

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) originates in the ventricles, but percolates over and around the brain and spinal cord.

Which organism may be implicated in arteriosclerosis? Escherichia coli Pseudomonas aeruginosa Chlamydia pneumoniae Staphylococcus aureus

Chlamydia pneumoniae No idea where this comes from. Correct

Cirrhosis Liver problem. p.674 Correct

You go for your regular Pap test and are informed by your OBGYN that you are positive for HPV16. You are surprised because you have not noticed any signs or symptoms of infection. Your doctor explains that sexually transmitted HPV strains are among the most common of the STI agents, and that while some HPV strains cause warty growths of the external and internal genitalia, other strains cause non-warty lesions of mucosal surfaces such as the uterine cervix. These strains are of concern because they are a major factor in the development of cervical cancer. You ask your doctor a number of questions regarding HPV and HPV infection. I know HPV is sexually transmitted, but my male partner knows he is HPV positive, so always wears a condom whenever we have sex. I am not sure how I contracted this virus. How can this be explained? - Condoms are never an effective way of preventing transmission of viruses. People who avoid HPV infections take daily doses of prophylactic antibiotics as long as they are sexually active. - Condoms are never an effective way of preventing transmission of viruses. People who avoid HPV infections take daily doses of antiviral medications as long as they are sexually active. - Condoms do not provide complete protection against HPV because the virus can be transmitted by exposure to areas not covered by the condom. - Only latex condoms prevent the transmission of HPV because there are medications in the latex that destroy viruses. Other types of condoms lack these medications. - Condoms prevent the transmission of bacterial pathogens but do not protect against viral diseases because viruses are small enough to get through the latex.

Condoms do not provide complete protection against HPV because the virus can be transmitted by exposure to areas not covered by the condom.

Diseases caused by fungi are called mycoses. T/F

True • Mycoses = diseases caused by fungi

Your patient had abdominal surgery three days ago. She seemed to be doing well after the surgery, but today the skin around the surgical incision is red and swollen. In addition, your patient has a high fever and is complaining of muscle aches. She also has a rash and has diarrhea. You realize that her wound has become infected, despite your best efforts as a nurse, and you are concerned that she has developed toxic shock syndrome. You explain the details of this type of infection to the patient's family.You explain general mechanisms of antibiotic resistance to your patient's family. Which of the following mechanisms is not one used by S. aureus? A) Some bacteria are able to make minor structural changes in the cellular target of a drug. This can prevent the medication from binding to that target, thereby protecting the organism from its effects. B) Some bacteria produce enzymes that chemically modify a specific medication, interfering with its function. An example is the β-lactamases that inactivate different β-lactam antibiotics. C) Some bacteria use efflux pumps to transport antimicrobials and other damaging compounds out of the cell. Sometimes the pumps are structurally altered, conferring resistance to several different antimicrobials simultaneously. D) Some bacteria can make changes in porin proteins of the outer membrane and can therefore prevent certain antimicrobials from entering the cell's cytoplasm. By stopping entry of an antimicrobial, an organism avoids its effects. E) Resistance in S. aureus may involve any of these mechanisms.

D) Some bacteria can make changes in porin proteins of the outer membrane and can therefore prevent certain antimicrobials from entering the cell's cytoplasm. By stopping entry of an antimicrobial, an organism avoids its effects. Used by G-. S. aureus is G+.

Why are pneumococcal pneumonia infections so dangerous in nursing homes? A) There is a vaccine for protecting children against pneumococcal pneumonia but no vaccine available for protection of older adults. B) There is no longer an antibiotic effective against the infection, and older adults are unable to fight the infection without medication. C) This type of pneumonia causes permanent lung damage, and old people often have impaired lung function in the first place. D) The immune system of older people is usually impaired, leaving them predisposed to more serious and potentially life-threatening pneumonia. E) This question is misleading. Pneumococcal infections are not dangerous.

D) The immune system of older people is usually impaired, leaving them predisposed to more serious and potentially life-threatening pneumonia.

The best way to speed up recovery from a common cold is: A) to dose the patient with ibuprofen to keep the fever down. Reducing fever speeds up recovery. B) to take decongestants as a means of alleviating the symptoms of the cold. C) to take 1,000 mg of vitamin C every day during the illness. Vitamin C destroys cold viruses. D) let the immune system do its job. Several of the treatments listed may actually increase the recovery time. E) take an antibiotic such as penicillin that will rid the body of the cold virus.

D) let the immune system do its job. Several of the treatments listed may actually increase the recovery time.

Mycoplasmal and Klebsiella pneumonias: A) have similar incubation periods. B) have causative agents that lack cell walls. C) are serious diseases often requiring hospitalization. D) are both relatively mild diseases. E) None of the choices is correct.

E) None of the choices is correct.

Colds are effectively treated with: A) antibiotics. B) aspirin and acetaminophen. C) proteases. D) nucleotide analogs. E) None of the choices is correct.

E) None of the choices is correct. - Viruses don't respond to antibiotics. - aspirin and APAP are about making symptoms less so the person is more comfortable No vaccines for the common cold so none of the choices are correct.

Which statement regarding Staphyloccocus aureus is FALSE? A) MRSA strains that can be traced to hospitals and clinics are referred to as HA-MRSA (hospital-acquired MRSA). B) CA-MRSA strains have a group of genes that codes for a leukocyte-destroying leukocidin. C) Evidence proves that CA-MRSA strains are more virulent than HA-MRSA because they produce leukocidin. D) MRSA strains are resistant to nearly all β-lactam antibiotics except ceftaroline, a new cephalosporin. E) Some hospitals screen patients for MRSA when they are discharged so they do not take a MRSA strain home with them.

Evidence proves that CA-MRSA strains are more virulent than HA-MRSA because they produce leukocidin. From Hair Follicle Infections slide: - Most MRSA originally hospital-acquired (HA-MRSA), but strains now widespread in healthy carriers, yield community-acquired (CA-MRSA) infections - Many hospitals now screen patients to limit spread

What does circulating HBeAg indicate about people with chronic HBV infection? Antibodies against this antigen confer immunity to HBV. High levels of this antigen are associated with increased risk of liver cancer. Low levels of this antigen are associated with increased risk of liver cancer. IgM against this antigen indicate active viral replication. High levels of this antigen are associated with decreased risk of liver cancer.

High levels of this antigen are associated with increased risk of liver cancer.

The illness in strep throat is largely from the exotoxin produced. An antibiotic effectively eliminates exotoxins T/F

False

There are no antibiotics that have proven effective against the bacterium that causes diphtheria. T/F

False

Septicemia is only caused by Gram-negative bacteria. T/F

False - It can be cause by any bacteria that gets into the bloodstream. More Gram positives cause sepsis but cases from Gram negatives are worse.

Prions are small single-stranded pieces of RNA.

False - misfolded copy of normal protein

Individuals entering the room of a patient with Legionnaires' disease should wear a mask to prevent acquiring the disease from exposure to the patient. T/F

False Ch 21 After Legionella pneumophila grows and multiplies in a building water system, water containing Legionella then has to spread in droplets small enough for people to breathe in. People can get Legionnaires' disease or Pontiac fever when they breathe in small droplets of water in the air that contain the bacteria. The bacteria don't spread from person to person. Most people exposed to the bacteria don't get sick.

Actinomycosis is a fungal disease. T/F

False Originally thought to be a fungal disease. Causative Agent • Most commonly Actinomyces israelii: Gram-positive, filamentous, branching, slow-growing anaerobe

Protease inhibitors are useful in curing AIDS. T/F

False Protease inhibitors stop viral encoded protease from cutting polypeptides made during viral genome replication into individual proteins. - No cure for AIDS yet.

Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most prevalent Gram-negative bacterium isolated from pneumonia patients. T/F

False Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram-POSITIVE diplococci with a capsule

The saliva of asymptomatic carriers of herpes simplex is not infectious. T/F

False p.635 - even the saliva of asymptomatic people can be infectious, posting a risk to dentists and other healthcare workers.

False p.716 - Immunosuppressed patients who test positive for antibody to T. gondii are presumed to have a latent infection and are given prophylactic medication.

"Flesh-eating" Streptococcus pyogenes is considered a newly emerging disease. T/F

False slide 20 Cases in U.S. generally sporadic - Less than 2% of deaths from S. pyogenes infections are due to necrotizing fasciitis

Dental caries can also be referred to as periodontal disease. T/F

False NOT the same thing.

Which S. aureus virulence factor is not correctly matched with its function? A) Capsule—avoiding phagocytosis. B) Hyaluronidase—facilitates spread in tissues. C) Protein A—interferes with opsonization. D) α-Toxin—makes holes in host cell membranes. E) Leukocidin—kills erythrocytes.

Leukocidin—kills erythrocytes. Leukocidin kills leukocytes (WBCs).

People infected with M. tuberculosis are always highly infectious to everyone around them-true or false, and why? - True-they are constantly shedding bacteria to the environment around them in high numbers, facilitating transmission. - False-while in the early stages of the illness, their tissues are not irritated and damaged to induce the cough required to spread the organism in respiratory droplets very easily. - True-as the mode of transmission is direct contact, anyone or anything they touch can be infected. - False-since TB requires a very high infectious dose, in the early stages of the disease, the patients aren't producing enough bacteria in their respiratory secretions to be infectious.

False-while in the early stages of the illness, their tissues are not irritated and damaged to induce the cough required to spread the organism in respiratory droplets very easily. - infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis results in asymptomatic lung infection - Mycobacterium tuberculosis • Slender, acid-fast, rod-shaped bacterium • Strict aerobe with generation time over 16 hours • Unusual cell wall contains mycolic acids: cells resist drying, disinfectants, strong acids and alkali; responsible for acid-fast staining • Easily killed by pasteurization

Which of these descriptions does NOT apply to the pathogenesis of meningitis? Vasodilation disrupts the blood-brain barrier and allows neutrophils and proteins to enter the CSF. Vasodilation from inflammation results in accumulation of fluid, causing brain swelling and nerve damage. Inflammation impedes normal outflow of CSF, causing it to accumulate and press the brain against the skull. Inflammation results in the formation of small blood clots that block capillaries and interrupt blood supply, leading to cell death. Fever causes the blood pressure to increase significantly, forcing lymph fluid into the meninges and causing brain swelling.

Fever causes the blood pressure to increase significantly, forcing lymph fluid into the meninges and causing brain swelling.

Which of the following is/are a reservoir(s) for L. pneumophila? Freshwater streams AND cooling towers. Insects such as mosquitoes. Marine environments AND insect vectors. Animals AND animal urine. Humans only.

Freshwater streams AND cooling towers.

A vaccine to provide active immunity to serum hepatitis is prepared from: A) Viruses grown in tissue culture. B) Genetically modified yeast. C) Pooled gamma globulin D) Viruses grown in embryonated eggs. E) Viral particles in patients.

Genetically modified yeast

Gram-positive, pyogenic, facultative anaerobes. Staphylococcus - surgical wounds - pus... - not acid fast - not pyrogenic = cause fever - Gram positive - stains purple - is a facultative anaerobe (many, many wounds anaerobic) Correct

Most bacterial intestinal infections may be traced to all of the following EXCEPT: Enterobacteriaceae. Haemophilus species. C. jejuni. Salmonella species. Vibrio species.

Haemophilus species.

Please choose the reason why gas gangrene infections can be treated with oxygen therapy successfully. A) oxygen reacts with water within the cell producing hydrogen peroxide, which kills the bacterial cells.The oxygen, delivered in low concentration, creates an anaerobic environment in which the Clostridium does poorly. B) Oxygen poisons the clostridial cells. C) The oxygen delivery produces a radioisotope of oxygen within the tissue, destroying the necrotic tissue.High pressure oxygen is delivered to the infected tissue, creating an unfavorable habitat for anaerobic Clostridium. D) High pressure oxygen is delivered to the infected tissue, creating an unfavorable habitat for anaerobic Clostridium.

High pressure oxygen is delivered to the infected tissue, creating an unfavorable habitat for anaerobic Clostridium. (on my chapter quiz - correct)

Why are infants at risk of developing botulism after they ingest honey, but adults are not? Honey can contain C. botulinum endospores. These may germinate in the intestines of infants that have eaten it, leading to colonization and pathogenesis as the bacteria begin forming botulism toxin. Adults' normal intestinal microbiota will out-compete the new microbes. The spores of C. botulinum produce a strong endotoxin. This endotoxin has little effect on adults because their immune system is fully developed. Infants, however, do not have a fully developed immune system and therefore far more susceptible to the toxin than adults. The infant digestive tract is immature and is extremely susceptible to the effects of botulism toxin which found in the honey in relatively high levels. The adult digestive tract is immune to the effects of botulinum toxin because of M cells and Peyer's patches. Honey can contain C. botulinum endospores. These may germinate in the intestines of adults that have eaten it. The bacteria are then sampled by M cells within the adult intestinal tract, leading to the development of botulism. Infants do not have any M cells in their tract. Bees cultivate C. botulinum bacteria within their hives as a food source. This gets mixed in with the honey they make, and is ingested by infants they are given food containing honey. Adults seldom eat honey, so are not exposed to this organism.

Honey can contain C. botulinum endospores. These may germinate in the intestines of infants that have eaten it, leading to colonization and pathogenesis as the bacteria begin forming botulism toxin. Adults' normal intestinal microbiota will out-compete the new microbes.

Gonococci are parasites of: cows. iguanas. sheep. humans. cows AND sheep.

Humans Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonococcus, GC) is well adapted to grow within the human host. Like other STI agents, it is a human-specific pathogen that survives poorly in the environment.

Which of the following interferes with phagocytosis of S. pyogenes? - Hyaluronic acid capsule - M protein - C5a peptidase - Protein G - All of the answer choices are correct.

Hyaluronic acid capsule - I think it should be ALL. Table 21.1 literally says, "INHIBITS PHAGOCYTOSIS" Capsule mimics host cell component - phagocytes don't see it. M protein in S. pyogenes is an important adhesin that functions in attachment to the host cell - the antibodies that attach to M protein prevent infection. M protein also interferes with phagocytosis by inactivating the opsonin C3b from compliment, prevents complement activation too. C5a peptidase inactivated the chemoattractant C5a - avoids calling phagocytes to the area. Protein G is an Fc receptor that binds Fc part of opsonizing IgG - so phagocytes don't want to eat it.

Select the TRUE statement regarding clostridial myonecrosis. -The causative agent produces α-toxin, an A-B toxin that destroys lecithin in host cell membranes, leading to cell lysis. -Clostridium perfringens infects healthy tissue and grows easily in well oxygenated tissues. -Hyperbaric chambers may be used to treat patients with gangrene—high levels of O2 reduce anaerobic conditions in the tissues. -Prevention of clostridial myonecrosis can be achieved with the DCTaP vaccine. -C. perfringens is an endospore-forming organism, and produces large number of spores in wounds or cultures.

Hyperbaric chambers may be used to treat patients with gangrene—high levels of O2 reduce anaerobic conditions in the tissues.

Select the TRUE statement regarding clostridial myonecrosis. Prevention of clostridial myonecrosis can be achieved with the DCTaP vaccine. Hyperbaric chambers may be used to treat patients with gangrene—high levels of O2 reduce anaerobic conditions in the tissues. Clostridium perfringens infects healthy tissue and grows easily in well oxygenated tissues. The causative agent produces α-toxin, an A-B toxin that destroys lecithin in host cell membranes, leading to cell lysis. C. perfringens is an endospore-forming organism, and produces large number of spores in wounds or cultures.

Hyperbaric chambers may be used to treat patients with gangrene—high levels of O2 reduce anaerobic conditions in the tissues.

Select the TRUE statement regarding clostridial myonecrosis. Prevention of clostridial myonecrosis can be achieved with the DCTaP vaccine. C. perfringens is an endospore-forming organism, and produces large number of spores in wounds or cultures. Hyperbaric chambers may be used to treat patients with gangrene—high levels of O2 reduce anaerobic conditions in the tissues. Clostridium perfringens infects healthy tissue and grows easily in well oxygenated tissues. The causative agent produces α-toxin, an A-B toxin that destroys lecithin in host cell membranes, leading to cell lysis.

Hyperbaric chambers may be used to treat patients with gangrene—high levels of O2 reduce anaerobic conditions in the tissues. Correct

I put the whole thing further up

When Lyme disease was first being investigated, the observation that frequently only 1 person in a household was infected was a clue leading to the discovery that the disease was spread by arthropod bites. Why was this so? A. Mosquitoes (an example of arthropods) are never inside a house. They are strictly outdoor animals, so they couldn't spread the infection inside the household. B. Mosquitoes (an example of arthropods) only bite once in their life cycle. As such, they can only transmit the illness once before they die. Even if an infected mosquito was inside a house, it could therefore only infect one human. C. If the infection is spread by the bite of an arthropod, it wouldn't spread easily by respiratory secretions, direct contact, or sexual contact between individuals within the family. D. Arthropods lose their mechanical ability to bite a human after a single bite, much like certain bees that lose their stinger after a single sting. This prevents them from transmitting the infection to more than one individual in a household.

If the infection is spread by the bite of an arthropod, it wouldn't spread easily by respiratory secretions, direct contact, or sexual contact between individuals within the family. A, B and D have nutty statements in them, so no.

When Lyme disease was first being investigated, the observation that frequently only one person in a household was infected was a clue leading to the discovery that the disease was transmitted by arthropod bites. Why was this so? Mosquitoes (an example of arthropods) are never inside a house. They are strictly outdoor insects, so they couldn't spread the infection inside the household. If the infection is spread by the bite of an arthropod, it wouldn't spread easily by respiratory secretions, direct contact, or sexual contact between individuals within the family. Mosquitoes (an example of arthropods) only bite once in their lifetime. As such, they can only transmit the illness once before they die. Even if an infected mosquito was inside a house, it could only infect one human. Arthropods lose their mechanical ability to bite a human after a single bite, much like certain bees lose their stinger after a single sting. This prevents them from transmitting the infection to more than one individual in a household. These are all valid reasons that support the theory that Lyme disease must be transmitted by arthropod bites.

Why does the rash of shingles occur in only a limited region, as opposed to the widespread rash of chickenpox? In chickenpox, the replicating virus originates from multiple infected nerve cells, while in shingles it is limited to the bloodstream. In shingles, the replicating virus originates from a single infected nerve cell, while in chickenpox it is spread throughout the bloodstream. This question is misleading because the rash of both chickenpox and shingles is widespread throughout the body. In chickenpox, the virus spreads through the bloodstream to all parts of the body, while in shingles, the virus remains in the chest area after inhalation. The chickenpox virus is a double-stranded DNA virus that is able to infect any nucleated cells, while the shingles virus is a single-stranded RNA virus that only infects epidermal cells.

In shingles, the replicating virus originates from a single infected nerve cell, while in chickenpox it is spread throughout the bloodstream.

Why does the rash of shingles occur in only a limited region, as opposed to the widespread rash of chickenpox? A) In chickenpox, the replicating virus originates from multiple infected nerve cells, while in shingles it is limited to the bloodstream. B) In shingles, the replicating virus originates from a single infected nerve cell, while in chickenpox it is spread throughout the bloodstream. C) In chickenpox, the virus spreads through the bloodstream to all parts of the body, while in shingles, the virus remains in the chest area after inhalation. D) The chickenpox virus is a double-stranded DNA virus that is able to infect any nucleated cells, while the shingles virus is a single-stranded RNA virus that only infects epidermal cells. E) This question is misleading because the rash of both chickenpox and shingles is widespread throughout the body.

In shingles, the replicating virus originates from a single infected nerve cell, while in chickenpox it is spread throughout the bloodstream. - virus replicates in nucleus of nerve cell and moves to skin, spreading locally. originates from single infected nerve cell rather than from bloodstream.

Which of the following contribute(s) to lung damage in people with sepsis? Depletion of clotting proteins AND decreased muscle tone of heart and arteries. Damaging lysosomal enzymes released from leukocytes AND organ damage from clots in capillaries. Depletion of clotting proteins AND damaging lysosomal enzymes released from leukocytes. Decreased muscle tone of heart and arteries AND increased capillary leakage of plasma. Increased capillary leakage of plasma AND damaging lysosomal enzymes released from leukocytes.

Increased capillary leakage of plasma AND damaging lysosomal enzymes released from leukocytes.

Why do Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae seldom cause meningitis in newborns? These pathogens are unable to colonize infants. Infants seldom come into contact with these pathogens. Infants are vaccinated against these pathogens. Infants are protected by maternal IgM against these pathogens. Infants are protected by maternal IgG against these pathogens.

Infants are protected by maternal IgG against these pathogens. p.701 - the common causes of meningitis in children (Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae) seldom cause meningitis in newborns because most mothers have antibodies (IgG) against them. These antibodies can cross the placenta and protect the baby until it is about 6 months old.

In which disease are monoclonal antibodies against PA protein used as treatment? A) Inhalation anthrax B) Legionellosis C) Pertussis D) Pneumococcal pneumonia E) Influenza

Inhalation anthrax Anthrax is a disease primarily of livestock but people get it too. Bacillus anthracis is G+, makes endospores, non-hemolytic, non-motile, rod shaped bacterium whose spores can remain in the environment indefinately and whose vegetative cells have a capsule made of an amino-acid polymer instead of polysaccharide.

How does Cryptococcus gattii enter the body? Through peripheral nerves. Direct contact with an infected person. Inhalation of fungal spores. Ingestion of fungal spores. All of these.

Inhalation of fungal spores.

How does protein A help Staphylococcus aureus evade phagocytes? A) It binds the Fc portion of antibodies, interfering with opsonizaton and phagocytosis. B) It binds the Fab portion of antibodies, interfering with opsonizaton and phagocytosis. C) It coats the bacterial cell, destroying LPS and preventing recognition by phagocytes. D) It makes holes in the cytoplasmic membrane of phagocytes, killing them. E) It degrades complement protein C5a, preventing phagocyte recruitment and attachment.

It binds the Fc portion of antibodies, interfering with opsonizaton and phagocytosis. Acts like Streptococcus pyogenes's protein G. Table 22.3 - protein A - binds to Fc portion of antibody, thereby interfering with opsonization.

Which is true about protein A, produced by S. aureus? -It binds to the Fc region of antibody AND it hides bacteria from phagocytes. -It enhances binding of phagocytes AND it digests antigens. -It hides bacteria from phagocytes AND it digests antibodies. -It binds to the Fc region of antibody AND it enhances binding of phagocytes. -It binds to the Fab region of antibody AND it hides bacteria from phagocytes.

It binds to the Fc region of antibody AND it hides bacteria from phagocytes.

Why is Staphylococcus epidermidis able to colonize plastic materials used in medical procedures? -It can bind to fibronectin, a blood protein that coats plastic implants. -It has fimbriae that allow it to attach to plastic surfaces. -It produces coagulase that allows it to colonize inert surfaces such as titanium. -It can produce a glycocalyx that allows it to form biofilms. -These are all factors that allow S. epidermidis to colonize implants.

It can bind to fibronectin, a blood protein that coats plastic implants.

Why is Staphylococcus epidermidis able to colonize plastic materials used in medical procedures? It can bind to fibronectin, a blood protein that coats plastic implants. It has fimbriae that allow it to attach to plastic surfaces. It produces coagulase that allows it to colonize inert surfaces such as titanium. It can produce a glycocalyx that allows it to form biofilms. These are all factors that allow S. epidermidis to colonize implants.

It can bind to fibronectin, a blood protein that coats plastic implants. Correct

It can cause meningitis during the first month of life. - notile, non-spore forming, facultative anaerobe, G+ rod that can grow at 4 C. - It is widespread in natural waters and vegetation *babies infected at birth usually develop meningitis after an incubation period of 1-4 wks. True p.703 - in epidemics the portal of entry is the Gi tract - most strains remain susceptible to penicillin

Choose the one correct statement about leptospirosis. a) Humans are the only reservoir. b) Most infections produce severe symptoms. c) Transmission is by the fecal-oral route. d) It can lead to unnecessary abdominal surgery. e) An effective vaccine is generally available for preventing human disease.

It can lead to unnecessary abdominal surgery. a) It is a zoonosis - animal resorvoirs b) leptospirosis infections are often asymptomatic c) contaminated urine is the main mode of transmission - humans contract leptospirosis from water, soil or food contaminated with infected animal urine. Person to person transmission does not seem to occur. e) mild cases resolve without treatment, though antibiotics can be given. Available vaccines are for animal use or for preventing disease in high risk individuals like farmers and vets.

How does coagulase help Staphylococcus aureus evade phagocytes? A) It coats the surface of the bacterial cells with collagen, a tissue binding protein. B) It coats the surface of bacterial cells with fibrin, a protein found in blood. C) It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area. D) It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area AND it coats the surface of bacterial cells with fibrin, a protein found in blood. E) It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area AND it coats the surface of the bacterial cells with collagen, a tissue binding protein.

It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area AND it coats the surface of bacterial cells with fibrin, a protein found in blood. Table 22.3 - coagulase - may slow progress of leukocytes into affected area by producing clots in the surrounding capillaries.

Rowley Pharmaceutical company produces a drug that promotes new blood vessel growth. Is there any application for this drug in wound treatment? A. It could be very beneficial-one of the biggest problems with wound infections is their largely anaerobic nature. The blood supply to the area is usually compromised, helping to create the anaerobic environment. Certain pathogenic microbes then thrive in this environment, creating very serious wound infections. B. It could be disastrous! Part of the reason abscesses lack blood flow is to keep toxins and bacteria from spreading to other areas of the body. Increasing blood flow to the area will provide a highway for these bacteria to seed other organ systems! C. It could be dangerous-wounds need to cut off blood supply to prevent the patient from bleeding to death. Increasing blood vessel development in the wound site might cause the patient to bleed out. D. There would be no beneficial effect-the immune response is already in place in the wound site, so increasing blood cell delivery to the area wouldn't increase or decrease the rate of wound healing.

It could be very beneficial-one of the biggest problems with wound infections is their largely anaerobic nature. The blood supply to the area is usually compromised, helping to create the anaerobic environment. Certain pathogenic microbes then thrive in this environment, creating very serious wound infections.

Choose the one FALSE statement about Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Under certain circumstances, it can grow anaerobically. It is widespread in nature, commonly found in plants. It secretes pigments that together produce a green color. Some strains can grow in nutrient-poor environments, including distilled water. It is a Gram-positive, spore-forming encapsulated rod.

It is a Gram-positive, spore-forming encapsulated rod.

Choose the one FALSE statement about Pseudomonas aeruginosa. It secretes pigments that together produce a green color. Under certain circumstances, it can grow anaerobically. Some strains can grow in nutrient-poor environments, including distilled water. It is widespread in nature, commonly found in plants. It is a Gram-positive, spore-forming encapsulated rod.

It is a Gram-positive, spore-forming encapsulated rod. p.607/608 - Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a motile, G- rod with a single polar flagellum. Found in a variety of environments such as soil and water, where it grows easily and fast. Is an aerobe but it also respires anaerobically i the absence of O2 if nitrate is present (important for it to form biofilms. Widespread in nature. Can grow in most places there is moisture: contact lens soln, hot tubs, even distilled water. Can be introduced into hospitals on flowers, potted plants and fruit baskets so these aren't allowed in ICU.

Rubeola can be effectively prevented with the MMR vaccine. The child in this case has not received any vaccines, because he has been receiving chemotherapy. Why wasn't he given the MMR vaccine? It is a toxoid vaccine—these vaccines contain deactivated microbial toxins; since the child is severely immunocompromised, the toxin used in the vaccine will damage all of his cells. The MMR vaccine is known to cause complications such as autism, and this child already has enough problems with leukemia. It is an inactivated vaccine and there is a small risk that the virus used in it may revert to virulence, causing serious illness in the immunocompromised patient. It is an attenuated vaccine and there is a small risk that the virus used in it may revert to virulence, causing serious illness in the immunocompromised patient. The patient is a child, so will not be able to tolerate any egg proteins that may be present in the MMR vaccine, which is produced in eggs.

It is an attenuated vaccine and there is a small risk that the virus used in it may revert to virulence, causing serious illness in the immunocompromised patient.

Why is Rickettsia rickettsii difficult to grow in culture? A) It is a double-stranded DNA virus. B) It is an obligate intracellular parasite. C) It is resistant to multiple antibiotics. D) It is an obligate anaerobe. E) It is Gram-negative.

It is an obligate intracellular parasite. Rickettsia rickettsii: tiny Gram-negative non-motile coccobacilli that are OBLIGATE INTRACELLULAR BACTERIA - Difficult to grow in culture.

Which of the following about Bacillus anthracis is TRUE? It is rod-shaped. It causes hemolysis on blood agar. It stains pink in the Gram stain. It is flagellated. It contains lipopolysaccharide.

It is rod-shaped.

What is the epidemiological significance of shingles? A) It shows that, as a latent viral infection, there is always a possible reservoir available to reinfect new susceptible individuals. B) It shows that we must always be vigilant against this deadly and highly infectious secondary infection in elderly and immunocompromised individuals. C) It shows that, as a chronic viral infection, individuals infected are always infectious to others around them, even when they do not show outward symptoms. D) It shows that our fight for long-term eradication of varicella zoster virus will be a long one, depending on immunizing all newly born individuals until all the people who had ever had contracted the illness have died. E) It shows that, as a latent viral infection, there is always a possible reservoir available to reinfect new susceptible individuals AND it shows that our fight for long-term eradication of varicella zoster virus will be a long one, depending on immunizing all newly born individuals until all the people who had ever contracted the illness have died.

It shows that, as a latent viral infection, there is always a possible reservoir available to reinfect new susceptible individuals AND it shows that our fight for long-term eradication of varicella zoster virus will be a long one, depending on immunizing all newly born individuals until all the people who had ever contracted the illness have died. I know the second part reads nutty but go with it.

Why is Legionella pneumophila detected using immunofluorescence? A) It is a virus. B) It stains poorly with conventional dyes. C) It is Gram-non-reactive. D) It is an acid-fast bacterium. E) It lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall.

It stains poorly with conventional dyes. - Legionella pneumophila G- rod, fastidious (needs added nutrients if we want to culture it) Stains poorly in tissue/with conventional dyes Facultative intracellular parasite - live in freshwater amoebas and can persist in biofilms (if disturbed, huge numbers can be released) p.556 "the organism stains poorly with conventianal dyes, but it can be detected using immunofluorescence."

How does Legionella pneumophila survive adverse conditions? A) It forms endospores when in dry or hot environments. B) It produces cysts. C) It is acid-fast and resists dehydration. D) It survives in protozoa that can withstand adverse conditions. E) It is an intracellular parasite in fish.

It survives in protozoa that can withstand adverse conditions. Facultative intracellular parasite; survives well in freshwater amebas, which can form cysts during adverse conditions, allowing bacteria within to survive - inhaled in aersolized water, they lodge in lungs and promote their uptake by alveolar macrophages. - surface protein called macrophage invasion potentiator (Mip) aids entry into macrophages - the cells also bind C3b as an opsonin

Why is it possible to prevent rabies with vaccine given after exposure to the virus? The virus replicates extremely slowly. It is possible to prevent the disease by vaccinating while the viral load is very low. It takes some time for the virus to invade the CNS and travel to the peripheral nerves. Vaccination before this occurs will prevent the disease. Rabies vaccine contains anti-rabies antibodies. These bind to the rabies and virus and destroy it before it is able to cause any neuronal damage. People receive a rabies vaccine in their childhood. Giving a vaccine after exposure to the virus quickly boosts their memory cell populations, protecting them. It takes some time for the virus to invade the peripheral neurons and travel to the CNS. Vaccination before this occurs will prevent the disease.

It takes some time for the virus to invade the peripheral neurons and travel to the CNS. Vaccination before this occurs will prevent the disease.

Which is FALSE about pertussis toxin? A) It uses part B to attach to receptors on the host cell. B) It uses part A to inactivate G protein. C) It affects the level of cAMP in a cell. D) It affects the level of mucus secretion. E) It uses part A to attach to receptors on the host cell.

It uses part A to attach to receptors on the host cell. Pertussis toxin is an A-B toxin - part B does attach to receptors on the host cell - part A does inactivate G protein (regulatory protein in host cell) - it does affect the level of cAMP in cell which affects the level of mucus secretion

Former president Ronald Reagan once commented at a press conference that the best way to combat the spread of AIDS in the US was to prohibit everyone from having sexual contact for 5 years. What would be the success of such a program if it were possible to carry out? A) It would 'cure' the population of HIV/AIDS. Everyone that had it would die off, and no new cases would occur, since sexual contact is the only mode of transmission for this virus. B) It would be a failure-this 'program' wouldn't eliminate IV drug use or transmission of HIV from mother to child. Sexual transmission isn't the ONLY mode of transmission for this virus. C) It would be a failure-many HIV positive individuals survive for longer than 5 years, even without treatment (sometimes without even realizing they're positive). Once sexual contact resumed, sexual transmission would also resume. D) It would be a failure-this 'program' wouldn't eliminate IV drug use or transmission of HIV from mother to child. Sexual transmission isn't the ONLY mode of transmission for this virus, AND many HIV positive individuals survive for longer than 5 years, even without treatment (sometimes without even realizing they're positive). Once sexual contact resumed, sexual transmission would also resume.

It would be a failure-this 'program' wouldn't eliminate IV drug use or transmission of HIV from mother to child. Sexual transmission isn't the ONLY mode of transmission for this virus, AND many HIV positive individuals survive for longer than 5 years, even without treatment (sometimes without even realizing they're positive). Once sexual contact resumed, sexual transmission would also resume. A is stupid, B and C are both good and D = B+C.

A pathologist claims it's much easier to determine the causative agent of meningitis than an infection of the skin or intestines. Is this true? Why or why not? A. It's not true-an infection is an infection, and it's always difficult to track down the exact causative agent. The organ system involved in the illness has nothing to do with identification of the causative agent. B.It's true-because the central nervous system (CNS) is generally microbe free, whereas the skin and intestines have a diverse normal flora. Separating out a pathogenic causative agent from the normal microbiota in these areas would be much harder to do than in the central nervous system (CNS). C.It's not true-the ventricles of the brain can provide a direct route for microbes to enter the central nervous system (CNS) from the bloodstream/extracellular fluid. Therefore, it would be just as likely to find a pathogenic microbe in the central nervous system (CNS) as it would be in the skin or intestines. D. It's true-there are only 1 or 2 microbes that can cause meningitis, yet there are hundreds (if not thousands) that can cause skin/intestinal infections. This makes it much easier to determine the causative agent for a case of meningitis.

It's true-because the central nervous system (CNS) is generally microbe free, whereas the skin and intestines have a diverse normal flora. Separating out a pathogenic causative agent from the normal microbiota in these areas would be much harder to do than in the central nervous system (CNS).

Legionella pneumophila, a fastidious Gram-negative rod.

Treponema pallidum is similar in shape to: Escherichia coli. Staphylococcus aureus. Leptospira interrogans. herpes virus.

Leptospira interrogans. Treponema pallidum - syphilis - STI - very slender, highly motile (endoflagellum with corkscrew motion) spirochete that can't be seen using a gram stain. Leptospira interrogans - Leptospirosis - UTI, bacteria gets to urinary tract via bloodstream - slender, aerobic G- spirochete with hooked ends and more than 250 antigenic types

A disease in which the urinary system is infected from the bloodstream is known as cystitis. pyelonephritis. candidiasis. leptospirosis.

Leptospirosis - cystitis is bladder infection, causative agents generally reach the bladder by moving up the urethra. - pyelonephritis is kidney infection that can cause kidney failure - more serious condition that develops with bacterial cystitis - candidiasis is a fungal genital system disease - Leptospirosis - zoonosis (animal urine) - bacteria enters the body through a mucus membrane or wound and is then carried to the urinary system by the bloodstream.

Which is NOT a reason that it would be more difficult to eradicate Lyme disease than rubeola or rubella? Rubeola and rubella only infect humans—if all humans were immune (through vaccination for example), the diseases would be eliminated. The causative agent of Lyme disease is harbored in intermediate hosts (mice and deer)—elimination of these would be impossible. Lyme disease is transmitted by Ixodes tick vectors—it would be impossible to eliminate these ticks from earth. Lyme disease is cannot be treated successfully with antimicrobials, while rubella and rubeola can be successfully treated—it is thus easier to eliminate them. These are all valid reasons to explain why eradicating Lyme disease would be more difficult than eliminating rubella and rubeola.

Lyme disease is cannot be treated successfully with antimicrobials, while rubella and rubeola can be successfully treated—it is thus easier to eliminate them. This is NOT a reason because Lyme disease can be treated with antimicrobials. CORRECT!

Why is it not surprising that staphylococci are the most common cause of wound infections? -Staphylococci are encapsulated. -Many people carry staphylococci as part of their normal microbiota. -Staphylococci are Gram-negative and contain LPS. -Unlike other pathogens, the organism evades the immune system very effectively. -Staphylococci are resistant to most common disinfectants.

Many people carry staphylococci as part of their normal microbiota.

Would you expect an individual with giardiasis who has diarrhea to be more likely to transmit the disease than an individual with giardiasis who does NOT have diarrhea? Why or why not? A. No. This illness is spread by respiratory droplets, so diarrhea as a symptom shouldn't matter for transmission of the disease.B. No. This illness is spread by sexual contact, so diarrhea as a symptom shouldn't matter for transmission of the disease. C. Yes. This illness is spread by the fecal-oral route, so presence of diarrhea as a symptom should dramatically increase the possibility of transmission of infection. D. Yes. This illness is spread by insects that feed on contaminated fecal matter, becoming infected themselves. The disease is spread to new individuals when these infected insects bite a susceptible person, transmitting the cysts of the protozoan. As such, diarrhea as a symptom would increase the risk of transmission through biting insects to new individuals. E. No. This illness is spread when people ingest cysts, and a person with severe diarrhea excretes primarily trophozoites; an asymptomatic person is more likely to excrete cysts and is therefore more infectious.

No. This illness is spread when people ingest cysts, and a person with severe diarrhea excretes primarily trophozoites; an asymptomatic person is more likely to excrete cysts and is therefore more infectious.

Would you expect an individual with giardiasis who has diarrhea to be more likely to transmit the disease than an individual with giardiasis who does NOT have diarrhea?Why or why not? Yes. This illness is spread by insects that feed on contaminated fecal matter, becoming infected themselves. The disease is spread to new individuals when these infected insects bite a susceptible person, transmitting the cysts of the protozoan. As such, diarrhea as a symptom would increase the risk of transmission through biting insects to new individuals. No. This illness is spread by sexual contact, so diarrhea as a symptom shouldn't matter for transmission of the disease. No. This illness is spread when people ingest cysts, and a person with severe diarrhea excretes primarily trophozoites; an asymptomatic person is more likely to excrete cysts and is therefore more infectious. Yes. This illness is spread by the fecal-oral route, so presence of diarrhea as a symptom should dramatically increase the possibility of transmission of infection. No. This illness is spread by respiratory droplets, so diarrhea as a symptom shouldn't matter for transmission of the disease.

You go for your regular Pap test and are informed by your OBGYN that you are positive for HPV16. You are surprised because you have not noticed any signs or symptoms of infection. Your doctor explains that sexually transmitted HPV strains are among the most common of the STI agents, and that while some HPV strains cause warty growths of the external and internal genitalia, other strains cause non-warty lesions of mucosal surfaces such as the uterine cervix. These strains are of concern because they are a major factor in the development of cervical cancer. You ask your doctor a number of questions regarding HPV and HPV infection. Is the risk of developing cervical cancer the same for all strains of HPV? No. Wart-causing HPV types exists in infected cells as extrachromosomal, closed DNA circles, while the genome of high-risk (cancer-associated) HPV types integrate into the chromosome of the host cell. Yes. HPV is a double-stranded DNA virus, so any HPV strain will definitely integrate into the host cell chromosome, becoming oncogenic and leading to the development of cancer. No. It depends on the infected person's immune system rather than the virus. Any HPV type can cause cancer but some people have a stronger immune system than others and are able to fight off the virus before it gets a chance to integrate into the host chromosome. No. Wart-causing HPV types are double-stranded DNA viruses which are easily eliminated by the immune system while cancer-causing HPV types are retroviruses that can integrate into the host cell chromosome. No. Wart-causing HPV types are double-stranded RNA viruses which are easily eliminated by the immune system while cancer-causing HPV types are double-stranded DNA viruses that can integrate into the host cell chromosome.

No. Wart-causing HPV types exists in infected cells as extrachromosomal, closed DNA circles, while the genome of high-risk (cancer-associated) HPV types integrate into the chromosome of the host cell. p.752

Which of the following most accurately describes the pathogenesis of inhalation anthrax? A) EF binds to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows PA or LF to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. B) PA binds to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows EF or LF to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. C) LF binds to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows EF or PA to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. D) PA and EF bind to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows LF to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. E) EF and LF bind to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows PA to enter the cells, where it disrupts critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema.

PA binds to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows EF or LF to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. See, the endospores sit in the lungs for up to 60 days before they head to the chest lymph nodes to germinate but the vegetative cells make 3 proteins that function together as anthrax toxin to kill phagocytes and damage surrounding tissues. p.558 "First, PA (protective antigen) binds to host cells, forming a pore that allows EF (edema factor) or LF (lethal factor) to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This results in pulmonary edema, and triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell."

You go to the urgent care in your neighborhood. There, a physician's assistant (PA) tells you that wounds caused by animal bites (especially cats) can be infected with Pasteurella multocida OR Bartonella henselae. Streptococcus epidermidis AND Streptobacillus moniliformis. Pasteurella multocida AND Streptobacillus moniliformis. Staphylococcus aureus AND Streptobacillus moniliformis. Bartonella henselae OR Streptobacillus moniliformis.

Pasteurella multocida OR Bartonella henselae.

Pasteurella multocida OR Bartonella henselae. First one - worry for all animal bites Second one - more cat bite specific Correct

Which of the following statements regarding Vibrio vulnificus infections in FALSE? The causative agent of the disease, V. vulnificus, is a Gram-negative halophile. People consuming V. vulnificus typically develop signs and symptoms of gastroenteritis. V. vulnificus causes different signs/symptoms, depending on the portal of entry. Liver disease increases the risk of developing severe illness with V. vulnificus infections. People with V. vulnificus infection always develop life-threatening sepsis.

People with V. vulnificus infection always develop life-threatening sepsis. - Is a halophile - seafood right? So tolerates sea water. Salty. - when ingested, an otherwise healthy person may develop only a self liming case of gastroenteritis. - Signs and symptoms do depend on the portal of entry (mouth/open wounds). - in a person with liver disease, the bacteria may invade the bloodstream, leading to fevers, chills, severe skin blistering and shock due to sepsis, which is often fatal. - nope! can be self-limiting or more severe. Depends.

What sign would differentiate meningococcal meningitis from pneumococcal meningitis? It is impossible to differentiate between pneumococcal meningitis and meningococcal meningitis. Petechiae are seen in pneumococcal meningitis but not in meningococcal meningitis. Headache and neck stiffness are experienced with pneumococcal meningitis but not with meningococcal meningitis. Petechiae are seen in meningococcal meningitis but not in pneumococcal meningitis. Headache and neck stiffness are experienced with meningococcal meningitis but not with pneumococcal meningitis.

Petechiae are seen in meningococcal meningitis but not in pneumococcal meningitis.

The 3 toxins that Bordatella pertussis produces:

Petussis Toxin (PT) - an A-B toxin, B attaches to receptor on host cell, A detaches and gets into cytoplasm where it is activated into an ENZYME. It activates a membrane-bound regulatory protein that controls production of cAMP, leading to more cAMP being made. High levels of cAMP interfere with cell isgnalling -> significant increase in mucus made, decreased killing ability of phagocytes, massive release of lymphocytes into blood, ineffective NK cells and low blood sugar. Adenylate cyclase toxin (ACT) - an a membrane-damaging toxin and an enzyme. Toxin reduces phygocytosis by causing lysis of accumulating WBCs. INsdie the cell it also catalyzes the rxn that converts ATP to cAMP. Tracheal cytotoxin (TCT) - is a fragment of peptidoglycan that B. pertussis released during growth and it causes host cells to release a fever-inducing cytokine (interleukin-1). Is also toxic to ciliated epithelial cells - they die and slough off, rapid decline in ciliary action.

Choose one FALSE statement about the treatment of clostridial myonecrosis - Antibiotic treatment of clostridial myonecrosis is challenging because antibiotics do not diffuse well into necrotic tissue. - Prompt debridement of all dead and infected tissues is essential; in some cases amputation is also necessary. - High doses of antibiotics, often a combination of penicillin and clindamycin, are given to help stop bacterial growth and toxin production. - Placing a person with gangrene in a hyperbaric chamber always eliminates the need for debridement and/or amputation. - Antibiotic treatment of clostridial myonecrosis stops bacterial growth but has no impact on any toxin already produced by the causative agent.

Placing a person with gangrene in a hyperbaric chamber always eliminates the need for debridement and/or amputation.

How would crowded conditions in cities favor spread of bubonic plague? Plague is transmitted by mosquitoes; more people close together gives an infected mosquito more chances to bite humans and transmit the causative agent, spreading plague. Plague is transmitted by infected fleas; these fleas may be found on rodents (such as rats). More people in an area means a greater chance of interactions with animals carrying infected fleas, increasing the spread of plague. Plague is transmitted by rats; more people means more waste, and more waste means more rats. This would favor the spread of plague. Plague is transmitted by direct contact (e.g. skin to skin). More people in an area provides more chances for infected individuals to directly contact and infect other individuals, spreading plague. Bubonic plague is transmitted by aerosol droplets. People in cities are always dependent on public transport, which is typically overcrowded, so are at risk of acquiring plague bacteria.

Plague is transmitted by infected fleas; these fleas may be found on rodents (such as rats). More people in an area means a greater chance of interactions with animals carrying infected fleas, increasing the spread of plague. Plague - fleas - rats.

Which of the following practices would be most effective in breaking an infection cycle in a family infected with Giardia? Treat pets with animal medication for Giardia. Purchase a filtration system for household drinking water. Practice good hygiene by carefully washing hands, cleaning under the fingernails, and avoiding fecal contamination when changing diapers or using the restroom. Swim in lakes when no one else is present.

Practice good hygiene by carefully washing hands, cleaning under the fingernails, and avoiding fecal contamination when changing diapers or using the restroom.

Which of the following possibly explains the development of dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF) and dengue shock syndrome (DSS)? Previously formed antibodies to one serotype of dengue virus bind to the second serotype and rather than neutralizing it, facilitate its entry into cells that express Fc receptors. This leads to increased numbers of infected cells and a high viral load. Infection with one serotype of dengue virus results in the formation of clots in small blood vessels throughout the body; viruses from a second infection enter these clots and multiply uninhibited within them, resulting in serious disease. Antibodies generated in response to one serotype of dengue virus cross react with a second serotype of the virus. This leads to the formation of immune complexes that lodge in the brains of infected people, causing serious illness. Previously formed antibodies to one serotype of dengue virus suppress the immune response to infection with other serotypes; this allows the second infection to become much more severe than the first infection. Dengue viruses are DNA viruses that can integrate into the chromosome of the host cell. If a cell is already infected with one serotype of the virus, infection with a second serotype will lead to the death of that cell

Previously formed antibodies to one serotype of dengue virus bind to the second serotype and rather than neutralizing it, facilitate its entry into cells that express Fc receptors. This leads to increased numbers of infected cells and a high viral load.

Dental plaque E.A biofilm on teeth. Dysentery D.Condition characterized by crampy abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea. Enterotoxigenic E. coli, ETEC B.Pathogenic E. coli which secrete plasmid-encoded enterotoxins. Fasciitis C.Inflammation of the fascia, bands of fibrous tissue that underlie the skin and surround muscle and body organs. Fibrinogen A.A blood protein that is converted to fibrin at a wound site.

Probiotic E.Live, beneficial microorganisms. PulseNet A.Surveillance network established by the CDC to facilitate the tracking of foodborne disease outbreaks. Pus B.Thick, opaque, often yellowish material that forms at the site of infection, made up of dead neutrophils and tissue debris. Superantigen C.Toxins that non-specifically activate many T cells, resulting in excessive cytokine production that leads to severe reactions and sometimes fatal shock. Tetanospasmin D.Neurotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani.

Which of the following virulence factors of Yersinia pestis aid(s) in attachment to host cells? Endotoxin Pla PsaA Yersinia outer proteins (Yops) V antigen

PsaA p.670/Table 25.3 endotoxin = no Pla is about clearing the way to spread Yops is about inhibiting phagocytosis V antigen controls the type III secretion system that delivers the Yops to host cells. PsaA = adhesin - role in ATTACHMENT to host cells. Correct

A public health official was asked to speak about immunizations during a civic group lunch. One parent asked if rubella was still a problem. In answering the question, the official cautioned women planning to have another child to have their present children immunized against rubella. Why did the official make this statement to the group? Rubella is passed very easily between children, so the official was trying to protect the child that would soon be born from this infection that might be brought in by its siblings after it was born. Rubella is spread very easily by respiratory secretions and is largely asymptomatic. However, it can cause birth defects/stillbirth in pregnant women. Women with other children would want to prevent these children from acquiring the virus before attempting to conceive a new child in order to protect the fetus. Rubella infections often lead to very serious and potentially fatal complications. While a woman is pregnant, she may not be able to take care of a sick child as easily. The vaccine will prevent the child already in the family from falling ill and potentially dying due to these possible complications. The official is getting kickbacks and bribes from the companies making the vaccines, and he's trying to pad his pockets by getting as many people immunized as possible, regardless of whether they need it or not. All of the answer choices are correct.

A public health official was asked to speak about immunizations during a civic group lunch. One parent asked if rubella was still a problem. In answering the question,the official cautioned women planning to have another child to have their present children immunized against rubella. Why did the official make this statement to the group? A) Rubella is spread very easily by respiratory secretions and is largely asymptomatic. However, it can cause birth defects/stillbirth in pregnant women. Women with other children would want to prevent these children from acquiring the virus before attempting to conceive a new child in order to protect the fetus. B) Rubella is passed very easily between children, so the official was trying to protect the child that would soon be born from this infection that might be brought in by its siblings after it was born. C) The official is getting kickbacks and bribes from the companies making the vaccines, and he's trying to pad his pockets by getting as many people immunized as possible, regardless of whether they need it or not. D) Rubella infections often lead to very serious and potentially fatal complications. While a woman is pregnant, she may not be able to take care of a sick child as easily. The vaccine will prevent the child already in the family from falling ill and potentially dying due to these possible complications. E) All of the answer choices are correct.

Rubella is spread very easily by respiratory secretions and is largely asymptomatic. However, it can cause birth defects/stillbirth in pregnant women. Women with other children would want to prevent these children from acquiring the virus before attempting to conceive a new child in order to protect the fetus. Rubella (German measles, 3-day measles) Early in pregancy, virus particles can cross placenta, infect fetus; less likely later in pregnancy - Nearly all types of fetal cells susceptible - Some are killed, others develop persistent infection with impaired cell division and chromosomal damage - Yields pattern of fetal abnormalities: congenital rubella syndrome - May include eye defects, brain damage, deafness, heart defects, low birth weight; stillborn babies

Which of the following statements regarding S. aureus and S. pyogenes is FALSE? A) S. aureus appears as clusters of spherical cells while S. pyogenes appears as chains of spherical cells. B) S. aureus stains purple with the Gram stain while S. pyogenes stains pink with this procedure. C) S. aureus is catalase positive and coagulase positive while S. pyogenes is catalase negative and coagulase negative. D) The Fc receptor of S. aureus is protein A while the Fc receptor of S. pyogenes is protein G. E) S. aureus is a facultative anaerobe while S. pyogenes is an obligate fermenter.

S. aureus stains purple with the Gram stain while S. pyogenes stains pink with this procedure. Both Staphylococus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes are Gram positive so stain PURPLE.

Why should scarring of a fallopian tube raise the risks of an ectopic pregnancy? a. Scarring may slow the progression of the ovum (egg) from the fallopian tubes into the uterus. If it is fertilized by a sperm cell while it is stopped in the fallopian tube, it may implant there, resulting in an ectopic pregnancy. b. Scarring can completely block the ovum (egg) from being able to exit the fallopian tube to enter the uterus. It may implant in the wall of the fallopian tube (since it can't enter the uterus) and result in an ectopic pregnancy. c. Scarring may allow the sperm cells to enter the fallopian tubes and bind to the scar tissue. The inflammatory response generated when this occurs is termed an ectopic pregnancy. d. Scarring of the fallopian tubes results from undiagnosed bacterial infections. These bacteria can also make the lining of the uterus inhospitable to implantation of a fertilized egg. If the fertilized egg can't implant into the wall of the uterus, it may travel back into the fallopian tube and implant there instead, resulting in an ectopic pregnancy.

Scarring may slow the progression of the ovum (egg) from the fallopian tubes into the uterus. If it is fertilized by a sperm cell while it is stopped in the fallopian tube, it may implant there, resulting in an ectopic pregnancy. Slow the progression. Complete blockage of fallopian tube means no sperm gets in to fertilize anything. Correct

Which of the following statements regarding sepsis and septic shock is TRUE? - Sepsis can be prevented with an attenuated vaccine. - Sepsis initially starts due to an overstimulation of the inflammatory response. - A patient surviving the initial stages of sepsis will always recover fully. - Sepsis and septic shock are always caused by Gram-negative bacteria.The signs and symptoms of sepsis include drop in urine output and dusky skin color. - Sepsis and septic shock are easily treated by administering combinations of antibiotics.

Sepsis initially starts due to an overstimulation of the inflammatory response. Problems with each of the other statements.

You are a nurse on a post-surgical ward. One of your patients is an elderly woman who has just had her gallbaldder removed. When you go into her room to check on her, you find that she has significant diarrhea, as well as fever and abdominal pain. You suspect that she has Clostridium difficile infection (CDI), and send a sample of her feces down to the hospital lab for analysis. The test result indicates that your patient does indeed have CDI. You make your patient comfortable and answer her questions about her illness.Your patient wonders how she contracted CDI. Which of the following would be a good explanation for her? Most surgical equipment is contaminated with C. difficile endospores, which are ubiquitous. Most likely your patient acquired CDI directly from her surgery. She has been on antibiotic therapy because of her surgery. The antibiotics disrupted her normal intestinal microbiota, allowing any C. difficile present to flourish. Nobody knows how people contract CDI. The causative bacterium is a common environmental organism and it is not known how it becomes pathogenic. C. difficile is usually a community-acquired organism. She most likely came to the hospital already infected with it but it takes several days for signs and symptoms of CDI to appear. She is elderly; elderly people frequently develop gastrointestinal complaints such as CDI. It is to be expected in an aging person.

She has been on antibiotic therapy because of her surgery. The antibiotics disrupted her normal intestinal microbiota, allowing any C. difficile present to flourish.

Why would the Sabin oral polio vaccine need to be eliminated as we get closer and closer to eradication of the polio virus? A. Since it is a live, attenuated viral vaccine, there's always the chance it could revert back into a pathogenic state by mutation. This would introduce new strains still capable of causing the illness into human populations, thwarting elimination. B. The Sabin vaccine is cheaper than the Salk (killed virus) vaccine, but it isn't as effective at producing a protective response. We'll need to shift to the more effective Salk vaccine worldwide eventually to complete the eradication process. C. The Salk vaccine is far cheaper than the Sabin vaccine. To effectively eradicate polio, we'll need to shift all of our resources into the cheapest and easiest to deliver vaccine possible.That is the Salk vaccine. D. The Sabin vaccine can only be administered to human beings. We need to vaccinate bird populations as well to effectively control the spread of polio. Birds are a natural reservoir for the virus.

Since it is a live, attenuated viral vaccine, there's always the chance it could revert back into a pathogenic state by mutation. This would introduce new strains still capable of causing the illness into human populations, thwarting elimination.

Your patient had abdominal surgery three days ago. She seemed to be doing well after the surgery, but today the skin around the surgical incision is red and swollen. In addition, your patient has a high fever and is complaining of muscle aches. She also has a rash and has diarrhea. You realize that her wound has become infected, despite your best efforts as a nurse, and you are concerned that she has developed toxic shock syndrome. You explain the details of this type of infection to the patient's family. You explain general mechanisms of antibiotic resistance to your patient's family. Which of the following mechanisms is not one used by S. aureus? - Some bacteria are able to make minor structural changes in the cellular target of a drug. This can prevent the medication from binding to that target, thereby protecting the organism from its effects. - Some bacteria produce enzymes that chemically modify a specific medication, interfering with its function. An example is the β-lactamases that inactivate different β-lactam antibiotics. - Some bacteria use efflux pumps to transport antimicrobials and other damaging compounds out of the cell. Sometimes the pumps are structurally altered, conferring resistance to several different antimicrobials simultaneously. - Some bacteria can make changes in porin proteins of the outer membrane and can therefore prevent certain antimicrobials from entering the cell's cytoplasm. By stopping entry of an antimicrobial, an organism avoids its effects. - Resistance in S. aureus may involve any of these mechanisms.

Some bacteria can make changes in porin proteins of the outer membrane and can therefore prevent certain antimicrobials from entering the cell's cytoplasm. By stopping entry of an antimicrobial, an organism avoids its effects.

Which of the following mostly causes typically pneumonia but may also cause meningitis? Klebsiella pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae Mycoplasma meningitidis Neisseria meningitidis Mycoplasma pneumoniae

The leading cause of bacterial meningitis in adults is: A. Escherichia coli. B. Haemophilus influenzae. C. Streptococcus pneumoniae. D. Neisseria meningitidis.

Streptococcus pneumoniae p.698 - Pneumococcal meningitis is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, part of the normal microbiota in the nose and throat of many healthy individuals. Although best known as a cause of pneumonia, it is also the leading cause of meningitis in adults. Streptococcus pneumonia = pneumococcus. Gram-positive diplococcus, lancet shaped cells, polysaccharide capsule. common cause of otitis media, sinusisit and pneumonia. Penicillin. Some strains resistant.

Which of the following has been associated with the flesh-eating organism? H. lechter Pseudomonas aeruginosa Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes

Streptococcus pyogenes Slide 17/18 Group A Streptococcal "Flesh-Eating Disease" Nectrotizing Fasciitis • Streptococcus pyogenes commonly infects wounds • Generally easy to treat: susceptible to penicillin

which of the following manifests itself in three clinical stages? gonorrhea syphilis trachoma non-gonococcal urethritis

Syphilis Primay - hard, painless chancre - infectious (intense inflammatory response) Secondary - bacteria goes systemic - lesions on mucus membranes like tongue - infectious (immune complexes with antibodies) Latent - early stages still infectious, later not infectious Tertiary - not infectious (hypersensitivity reactions to small numbers of T. pallidum that grow and persist in tissues) - can be gummatous, cardiovascular or neurosyphilis

Early work with Clostridium tetani and Corynebacterium diphtheriae demonstrated: - the importance of thoroughly cooking food. - the usefulness of vaccines. - the potential threat from spore-forming bacteria. - that disease can be caused by poisonous substances produced by bacteria.

TAKE WITH GRAIN OF SALT - the usefulness of vaccines I think this: - that disease can be caused by poisonous substances produced by bacteria. Kitasato determined that C. tetani is obligate anaerobe, devised method of cultivating • Discovered animals injected with C. tetani developed tetanus, but no cells found elsewhere in body • SHOWED BACTERIAL TOXIN RESPONSIBLE FOR DISEASE• Emil von Behring similarly demonstrated diphtheria caused by toxin from Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Which statement regarding the treatment of tetanus is FALSE? -TIG neutralizes tetanospasmin that is already attached to nerve tissue, preventing damage to that nerve. -An antibacterial medication such as metronidazole is given to kill any actively multiplying bacterial cells. -The person is given tetanus vaccine that results in the production of anti-tetanospasmin antibodies. -The patient is given muscle relaxants and supportive care, including being placed on a ventilator if needed. -TIG antibodies bind to circulating toxin molecules, neutralizing their effects and providing passive immunity.

TIG neutralizes tetanospasmin that is already attached to nerve tissue, preventing damage to that nerve.

You're a famous eye surgeon, specializing in corneal transplants. Give your choice, would you rather have a cornea for transplantation from a 20 year old individual, or a 60 year old individual (assuming there are no optical defects due to age), and why? A. The 60 year old-clearly, if the individual has gone 60 years with no optical defects, this is a very good organ for transplantation. The 20 year old cornea may have defects that simply haven't become apparent yet. B. The 20 year old cornea-younger is always better when dealing with tissue transplants.You want to give the transplant the longest possible time for survival in the recipient. C. The 20 year old cornea-while extremely rare, it may be possible to transmit prions through corneal transplants. It's less likely that a 20 year old would have encountered and become contaminated by prions than the 60 year old. D. The 20 year old cornea-never mind prions, there are a variety of agents that can hide in corneal tissues and that might cause disease. It's far more likely that the 60 year old would be harboring one or more of these pathogens than the 20 year old.

The 20 year old cornea-while extremely rare, it may be possible to transmit prions through corneal transplants. It's less likely that a 20 year old would have encountered and become contaminated by prions than the 60 year old.

What type of vaccine protects against mumps virus?

The MMR/MMRV is:

Why is it important to give the MMRV vaccine to healthy, non-immune contacts of people with immunodeficiencies? A) The MMRV vaccine is a toxoid vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by herd immunity. B) The MMRV vaccine is an attenuated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by antibodies from their close contacts. C) The MMRV vaccine is an attenuated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by herd immunity. D) The MMRV vaccine is an inactivated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by antibodies from their close contacts. E) The MMRV vaccine is an inactivated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by herd trending.

The MMRV vaccine is an attenuated vaccine, so immunodeficient people cannot receive it. They are protected by herd immunity. Attenuated vaccines contained weakened but still able to replicate microorganisms. Possibility of causing severe disease.

What changes might occur in the vagina if lactobacilli were eliminated? There would be no change in the health of the woman. Other members of the normal microbiota would replace the lactobacilli, resulting in no overall change OR the acidic pH might change to a more neutral (and pathogen-fostering) level. The acidic pH might change to a more neutral (and pathogen-fostering) level AND lactobacilli often produce hydrogen peroxide. Without it, anaerobic pathogens might cause disease. There would be no change in the health of the woman. Other members of the normal microbiota would replace the lactobacilli, resulting in no overall change. The acidic pH might change to a more neutral (and pathogen-fostering) level. Lactobacilli often produce the hydrogen peroxide. Without it, anaerobic pathogens might cause disease.

The acidic pH might change to a more neutral (and pathogen-fostering) level AND lactobacilli often produce hydrogen peroxide. Without it, anaerobic pathogens might cause disease.

Rickettsia rickettsii are readily phagocytized by macrophages. Why doesn't this control the infection and prevent the development of Rocky Mountain spotted fever? A. The bacteria interfere with the development of antibodies. B. The bacteria are toxic for T cells and prevent the development of cell-mediated immunity. C. The bacteria escape from the phagosome and reproduce in the cytoplasm of the phagocyte. D. The bacteria are unable to inactivate complement.

The bacteria escape from the phagosome and reproduce in the cytoplasm of the phagocyte. Ch 22

What is NOT a reason why an abscessed wound might not respond to antibiotic treatment? - The bacteria in an abscess always acquire multi-drug antibiotic resistance, so any drugs that are used will have no effect. - The chemical composition of the pus in the abscess often inactivates antibiotics, making them ineffective. - The bacteria within the abscess have stopped replicating, and many antibiotics require actively replicating cells in order to be effective. - These are all reasons that it might be difficult to treat an abscess. - The blood vessels that would bring the drug to the area have been destroyed or have clots, preventing the drug from getting to the microbes.

The bacteria in an abscess always acquire multi-drug antibiotic resistance, so any drugs that are used will have no effect.

What is NOT a reason why an abscessed wound might not respond to antibiotic treatment? A. The bacteria within the abscess have ceased replicating, and many antibiotics require actively replicating cells in order to be effective. B. The blood vessels that would bring the drug to the area have been destroyed or clogged with clots, preventing the drug from getting to the microbes in the abscess. C. The bacteria in an abscess have all acquired multi-drug antibiotic resistance, so any drugs that are used will have no effect. D. The chemical composition of the pus in the abscess often inactivates antibiotic drugs, making them ineffective.

The bacteria in an abscess have all acquired multi-drug antibiotic resistance, so any drugs that are used will have no effect. Factors why microorganisms in abscesses often are not killed by antimicrobial agents is because - the microorganisms stop dividing, of the chemical nature of the pus AND of the lack of blood vessels. Correct

You are an RN working in the emergency department (ED) at a major hospital in New York City. During one shift, you see two patients who are exhibiting coughing with blood-containing sputum, and shortness of breath. Both patients report that they have experienced headaches, muscle aches, high fever, confusion, and shaking chills in the days preceding their ED visit. One of the patients also has some digestive tract symptoms including diarrhea, abdominal pain, and vomiting. You discover that the patients live in the same apartment building, although they do not know each other. You suspect that they have a type of pneumonia, and given the circumstances, think it may be legionellosis. You read up on this disease to refresh your memory about it. L. pneumophila is a facultative intracellular parasite. How does it manipulate the immune system so as to enter host cells? A) The bacterial cells bind complement component C3b (an opsonin), enhancing phagocytosis. B) The bacteria have macrophage invasion potentiator (Mip) that promotes their uptake by alveolar macrophages. C) The bacteria cause necrosis of alveolar cells, leading to an inflammatory response. D) The bacteria survive in alveolar macrophages by preventing phagosome-lysosome fusion AND the bacteria cause necrosis of alveolar cells, leading to an inflammatory response. E) The bacterial cells bind complement component C3b (an opsonin), enhancing phagocytosis AND the bacteria have a surface protein (Mip) that promotes their uptake by alveolar macrophages.

The bacterial cells bind complement component C3b (an opsonin), enhancing phagocytosis AND the bacteria have a surface protein (Mip) that promotes their uptake by alveolar macrophages.

Which of the following applies to gonorrhea? The causative agent is a slow-growing, bottle-shaped, Gram-positive bacterium. The causative agent uses a capsule to attach to squamous epithelium and ciliated cells. The causative agent is a human-specific pathogen that survives poorly in the environment. Recovery from gonorrhea confers lifelong resistance to the causative agent. A trivalent vaccine protects people from the most virulent strains of N. gonorrhoeae.

The causative agent is a human-specific pathogen that survives poorly in the environment. p.742

Which statement about bacterial vaginosis is FALSE? BV in pregnant women should be treated because it may cause premature birth. Women voluntarily inoculated with cultures of Gardnerella vaginalis, and members of the genera Mobiluncus, Prevotella, and Peptostreptococcus do not always develop BV. The causative agent of the disease is Gardnerella vaginalis that interacts antagonistically with members of the genera Mobiluncus, Prevotella, and Peptostreptococcus. Women with BV can be diagnosed by the presence of clue cells and a fishy vaginal odor caused by metabolic byproducts of anaerobic bacteria. Low numbers of G. vaginalis, and members of the genera Mobiluncus, Prevotella, and Peptostreptococcus can occur in vaginal secretions of healthy women.

The causative agent of the disease is Gardnerella vaginalis that interacts antagonistically with members of the genera Mobiluncus, Prevotella, and Peptostreptococcus.

Which statement regarding the pathogenesis of necrotizing fasciitis is INCORRECT? The causative agent produces SPE A, a superantigen that causes helper T cells to release large amounts of cytokines, leading to toxic shock. SPE B is a protease produced by S. pyogenes that causes tissue death and breakdown, leading to fluid accumulation in the area and intense swelling. M protein-fibrinogen complexes causes neutrophils to release inflammatory molecules that increase vascular permeability and lead to a blood pressure drop. The causative agent sheds antibodies that attach to fibrinogen and recruit natural killer cells that destroy muscle fascia through ADCC. A hyaluronic acid capsule and M protein allow the causative agent to evade the immune responses.

The causative agent sheds antibodies that attach to fibrinogen and recruit natural killer cells that destroy muscle fascia through ADCC. Correct

Which statement regarding meningitis is FALSE? If bacterial meningitis is suspected, a person is given broad-spectrum antibiotics immediately, without waiting for identification of the causative organism. The cerebrospinal fluid of people with either viral meningitis or bacterial meningitis is cloudy and opaque rather than being clear and pale yellow in color. Meningitis is a relatively rare disease, because it is very difficult for the causative agents to cross the blood-brain barrier. Bacterial causative agents of meningitis are transmitted through respiratory droplets, while viral agents of the disease may also be transmitted via the fecal-oral route. Vaccines protect against the most important types bacterial meningitis but prevention of viral meningitis depends on increased hand washing and avoiding crowded areas.

The cerebrospinal fluid of people with either viral meningitis or bacterial meningitis is cloudy and opaque rather than being clear and pale yellow in color. Viral = looks clear - aseptic meningitis

Your brother is an enthusiastic hiker. He returns from a walking vacation and tells you that although he had a good time, he ran into a bit of trouble on one of the days he was away because he had got lost in the woods for several hours. Although he took enough food for the day, your brother ran out of water. Luckily, he came across a small stream and was able to fill up his water bottle and to finish his hike without any further problems. Your brother mentions as an aside that he must have eaten something bad while he was away, because he has had pretty bad diarrhea since he got back. He tells you he doesn't feel too bad, but that he has been having what he describes as "explosive diarrhea." He also complains of abdominal pain. You urge him to go to the doctor because you suspect that he may have something more than just food-related diarrhea. Which statement about rotavirus gastroenteritis is false? -Most cases of the disease occur in infants and children. -There are no vaccines available for preventing rotavirus gastroenteritis. -Rotaviruses are transmitted by the fecal-oral route. -Rotaviruses mainly infect the epithelial cells in the upper part of the small intestine -Deaths related to the disease are usually caused by dehydration

The false one is : There are no vaccines available for preventing rotavirus gastroenteritis. Giardiasis involves: production of resistant, infectious cysts.

Why is staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome sometimes fatal? A) The first line of defense is compromised, putting the patient at risk secondary bacterial infection. B) The first line of defense is compromised, putting the patient at risk of both dehydration and secondary bacterial infection. C) The causative organism is Gram-negative and may cause endotoxic shock. D) Exfoliatin can bind to cardiac cells, causing disruption of the heart rhythm and heart failure. E) The first line of defense is compromised, putting the patient at risk of severe dehydration.

The first line of defense is compromised, putting the patient at risk of both dehydration and secondary bacterial infection.

Which one of these statements about chlamydial genital infections is false? a) The incubation period is usually shorter than in gonorrhea. b) Infected cells develop inclusion bodies. c) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) can be complicated by infection of the surface of the liver. d) Tissue damage largely results from cell-mediated immunity. e) Fallopian tube damage can occur in the absence of symptoms.

The incubation period is usually shorter than in gonorrhea. - gonorrhea incubation period is 2-5 days. - chlamydia incubation period is 7-14 days

Why is it difficult to determine the causative agents of periodontal disease? The agents are fastidious bacteria that cannot be cultured in the laboratory. The infections are polymicrobial, so multiple species of interacting bacteria are involved. The causative agents are encased in biofilm polysaccharides that cannot be removed. Identification requires 16S rDNA sequencing and not all bacteria have this gene. The causative agents are typically viruses, which are difficult to identify.

The infections are polymicrobial, so multiple species of interacting bacteria are involved.

Why is legionellosis not treated with β-lactam medications? A) The causative organism produces β-lactamases, so is resistant to many of these medications. B) The medication must be able to accumulate within alveolar macrophages to be effective, which β-lactam antibiotics do poorly. C) The causative organism produces β-lactamases, so is resistant to many of these medications AND the causative organism is acid-fast, so has mycolic acids and waxes in the cell wall that β-lactams cannot penetrate. D) The causative organism is acid-fast, so has mycolic acids and waxes in the cell wall that β-lactams cannot penetrate AND the causative organism produces endospores so is highly resistant to these medications. E) The medication must be able to accumulate within alveolar macrophages to be effective, which β-lactam antibiotics do poorly AND the causative organism produces β-lactamases, so is resistant to many of these medications.

The medication must be able to accumulate within alveolar macrophages to be effective, which β-lactam antibiotics do poorly AND the causative organism produces β-lactamases, so is resistant to many of these medications. Legionella pneumophila produces a beta lactamase, makes it resistant to many penicillins and some cephalosproins. Because the bacteria multiply inside the alveolar macrophages, medication must be able to accumulate within these cells to be effective, which beta lactam antibiotics do poorly. p.557

Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever A) The microorganisms become invasive. B) The symptoms are due to an exotoxin .C) The symptoms are due to infection of the gallbladder. D) The classic symptom is diarrhea. E) Chemotherapy is highly effective.

The microorganisms become invasive.

Why is it not possible to culture Treponema pallidum in vitro? The organism is highly motile and requires actin from host cells to make tails for movement AND the organism is Gram-negative. The organism obtains most of its essential macromolecules from the host AND the organism is an obligate intracellular parasite. The organism is an obligate halophile AND the organism is highly motile and requires actin from host cells to make tails for movement. The organism lacks mitochondria and obtains all of its essential macromolecules from the host AND the organism is Gram-negative. The organism is an obligate intracellular parasite AND the organism is a psychrophilic anaerobe.

The organism obtains most of its essential macromolecules from the host AND the organism is an obligate intracellular parasite. p.747 - T. pallidum does not replicate in vitro. The organisms lacks certain metabolic abilities and does not have enzymes needed for the TCA cycle or electron transport chain for can not generate much ATP. It gets most of its essential macromolecules from the host.

Which of the following is not involved in the pathogenesis of RMSF? Endotoxin released into the bloodstream from the rickettsial cell walls results in systemic inflammation. Host cells rupture following damage caused by bacterial cells propelling themselves from one cell to another. Vasculitis leads to clotting and small areas of necrosis, causing a hemorrhagic skin rash and damaging tissue in the brain, heart, kidneys, and other organs. The pathogen releases an A-B toxin that attaches to receptors on TH cell cytoplasmic membranes, leading to destruction of those cells. Disseminated intravascular coagulation that leads to organ damage may occur following release of endotoxin into the bloodstream.

The pathogen releases an A-B toxin that attaches to receptors on TH cell cytoplasmic membranes, leading to destruction of those cells.

Which of the following is NOT involved in the pathogenesis of RMSF? A) The pathogen releases an A-B toxin that attaches to receptors on TH cell cytoplasmic membranes, leading to destruction of those cells. B) Endotoxin released into the bloodstream from the rickettsial cell walls results in systemic inflammation. C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation that leads to organ damage may occur following release of endotoxin into the bloodstream. D) Host cells rupture following damage caused by bacterial cells propelling themselves from one cell to another. E) Vasculitis leads to clotting and small areas of necrosis, causing a hemorrhagic skin rash and damaging tissue in the brain, heart, kidneys, and other organs.

The pathogen releases an A-B toxin that attaches to receptors on TH cell cytoplasmic membranes, leading to destruction of those cells. Pathogenesis • Bacteria taken up by capillary endothelial cells, possibly by forced endocytosis • Bacteria leave phagosome, multiply in cytoplasm, nucleus - Bacteria coat themselves with actin, use to move into adjacent host cells, cause extensive membrane damage - Cells rupture, release rickettsias into bloodstream - Infection of walls of blood vessels causes inflammatory reaction, leads to clotting in blood vessels - Produces small areas of necrosis, yields skin rash • Clotting throughout body damages kidneys, heart • Release of lipopolysaccharide from cell wall into bloodstream causes shock, generalized bleeding due to disseminated intravascular coagulation

How may lung damage or pneumonia occur in a person with tetanus? A) The person may inhale regurgitated (vomited) stomach contents. B) Tetanospasmin causes the release of degradative enzymes in the lungs. C) Tetanospasmin is an A-B toxin that binds to lung epithelial cells, killing them. D) C. tetani releases alpha-toxin that causes the alveoli of the lungs to collapse. E) Spasms of major chest muscles may be so severe that the lungs are damaged.

The person may inhale regurgitated (vomited) stomach contents. Found in textbook.

Why is PPSV23 not an effective vaccine for protecting children against pneumococcal meningitis? The vaccine contains capsular polysaccharides, and children do not mount a strong immune response against T-dependent antigens. Children never get pneumococcal meningitis. They get typically get meningococcal meningitis, which is less severe. The vaccine contains capsular polysaccharides, and children do not mount a strong immune response against T-independent antigens. Pneumococcus causes pneumonia in children, not meningitis. Children could receive this vaccine but it is unnecessary because pneumonia is less severe than meningitis. PPSV23 is an attenuated vaccine and children cannot be given this type of vaccine because they are high risk of contracting the disease rather than being protected from it.

The vaccine contains capsular polysaccharides, and children do not mount a strong immune response against T-independent antigens.

Why is it so important to protect against influenza?

The vaccine is fairly effective in protecting against the flu. However, a problem comes from the changing nature of the flu virus. The antibody generated from the last exposure may be useless against the next iteration of the virus. The virus has several segments of RNA and is also found in animals. Both of these characteristics allow for changing and mixing of the nucleic acid, which may be reflected in changes in the antigenic nature of the virus. Therefore, every year there is a possibility that the antigens have changed enough from the last infection to be unrecognizable. In particular, the changes appear in the neuraminidase and hemagglutinin molecules coating the virus.

Who would have larger numbers of bacteria living on the surface of their skin—a person living in the tropics or in the desert, and why? A) The tropics would provide more shade, so the surface of the skin wouldn't be exposed to high levels of ultraviolet radiation. This would protect the bacteria on the skin, and they would have higher numbers due to this shading effect. B) The very low humidity of the desert would lead to rapid evaporation of sweat and sebum from an individual's skin. Bacteria need these secretions for a nutrient source. Without them, bacteria would be found in much lower numbers on the skin of a person in the desert than the skin of the person in the tropics. C) The constant secretion of high amounts of sweat would produce a highly salty environment on the skin of a person in the tropics. This would provide a local environment that would be too hostile for microbes to survive, so the number of microbes on the skin of the person in the tropics would be lower than that of the person in the desert. D) The constant secretion of large amounts of sweat would wash bacteria off of the skin of the person in the tropics. As such, the person in the desert should have much more bacteria on their skin than the person in the tropics would. E) The very high humidity of the desert would lead to slow evaporation of sweat and sebum from a person's skin. Bacteria thrive on these secretions, using them for a nutrient source. Thus bacteria would be found in much higher numbers on the skin of a person in the desert than the skin of the person in the tropics.

The very low humidity of the desert would lead to rapid evaporation of sweat and sebum from an individual's skin. Bacteria need these secretions for a nutrient source. Without them, bacteria would be found in much lower numbers on the skin of a person in the desert than the skin of the person in the tropics. I choose the tropics. A is goofy - wrong C - skin is left salty when sweat evaporates - which it would in the DESERT - wrong D - those bacteria are stuck on - not getting washed off with sweat. wrong E - desert doesn't have high humidity - wrong

Why does it take more than a week before a mosquito that has just become infected with yellow fever virus can transmit the disease? Mosquitoes only feed once a week, which limits their ability to transmit the disease rapidly. The mosquito actually transmits the virus almost immediately. It takes a week for the virus to multiply in the gut of the host before it causes any ill effects in that host. The virus multiplies in the gut of the mosquito, but then needs to migrate to the mouth of the insect in order to infect a new human being after a new bite. This migration takes time. Mosquitoes that acquire yellow fever virus become ill for a week thereafter. They have to recover before they can feed again and transmit the virus to the next host. The virus must replicate in the gut of the mosquito before it can reach high enough numbers for transmission to a new human.

The virus must replicate in the gut of the mosquito before it can reach high enough numbers for transmission to a new human.

It is possible to cultivate Clostridium tetani from a wound, even if the affected person does not have tetanus. How can this be explained? - The wound may contain spores that can be germinated under appropriate conditions in culture. However, they will not germinate in a wound unless it is anaerobic. Since the spores themselves do not produce toxin, their presence does not lead to tetanus. - If Clostridium tetani is cultured from a wound, the person MUST have tetanus. However, in some people the signs and symptoms of tetanus are extremely mild, so it can be difficult to detect the disease in them. - None of these adequately explains how C. tetani can be cultured from the wound of a healthy person. - Clostridium tetani is part of the normal microbiota of the integumentary, cardiovascular, and lymphatic systems. It makes sense that it would be possible to culture the organism from a wound, even in a healthy person. - Clostridium tetani may be growing vigorously in the wound. However, the organism only produces tetanospasmin if the person's immune system is compromised, so a healthy person may not develop the disease.

The wound may contain spores that can be germinated under appropriate conditions in culture. However, they will not germinate in a wound unless it is anaerobic. Since the spores themselves do not produce toxin, their presence does not lead to tetanus.

Please identify the INCORRECT statement regarding bacterial diseases of the lower gastrointestinal system. Cholera toxin—A-B toxin that causes intestinal cells to secrete HCl. Pseudomembranous colitis may develop in a person with Clostridium difficile infection. There are more than 2,400 serotypes of Shigella, based on differences in their O, H, and K antigens. Shiga toxin-producing E. coli may cause hemolytic uremic syndrome in an infected person. Of the four pathogenic strains of Shigella, S. dysenteriae is the most virulent.

There are more than 2,400 serotypes of Shigella, based on differences in their O, H, and K antigens. p.643 - It's salmonella that has this, not shigella Correct

Suspected M. genitalium infections are treated with antibiotics such as macrolides. Why are these infections "suspected" and why are they treated with macrolide antibiotics? The signs and symptoms of M. genitalium infections are unique and diagnosis can thus be based on them AND mycoplasmas are intrinsically resistant to peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitors so are treated with antibiotics that target other cellular activities such as protein synthesis. There are no approved diagnostic tools for M. genitalium infections, so it is not possible to easily confirm the diagnosis AND mycoplasmas are intrinsically resistant to peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitors so are treated with antibiotics that target other cellular activities such as protein synthesis. Signs and symptoms of M. genitalium infections resemble those of other STIs, confusing the diagnosis of this disease AND mycoplasmas are intrinsically resistant to protein synthesis inhibitors so are treated with antibiotics that target other cellular activities such as DNA replication. The signs and symptoms of M. genitalium infections are unique and diagnosis can thus be based on them AND mycoplasmas are viruses, so there are very limited choices in the available medications used for treating these infections. A person with M. genitalium never has signs and symptoms, so infection is suspected if they have other STIs AND mycoplasmas are intrinsically resistant to peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitors so are treated with antibiotics that target other cellular activities such as protein synthesis.

There are no approved diagnostic tools for M. genitalium infections, so it is not possible to easily confirm the diagnosis AND mycoplasmas are intrinsically resistant to peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitors so are treated with antibiotics that target other cellular activities such as protein synthesis.

Which statement about rotavirus gastroenteritis is false? Most cases of the disease occur in infants and children. There are no vaccines available for preventing rotavirus gastroenteritis. Deaths related to the disease are usually caused by dehydration. Rotaviruses are transmitted by the fecal-oral route. Rotaviruses mainly infect the epithelial cells in the upper part of the small intestine.

There are no vaccines available for preventing rotavirus gastroenteritis.

Mycoplasma genitalium is an emerging cause of genital tract infections in men and women worldwide. The organism was discovered and identified only in the early 1980s. Rising incidence and increasing resistance to antimicrobial medications are problematic. You are asked by your nursing professor to prepare a short presentation on this emerging disease. The questions that follow are those that you anticipate that being asked by your classmates. Select the statement that applies to Mycoplasmas. These bacteria are intrinsically resistant to β-lactam antibiotics. Mycoplasmas resist the effects of β-lactam drugs by synthesizing a β-lactamase. These bacteria have mycolic acids in their cell wall. These organisms have a rapid generation time. These organisms all contain a terminal organelle.

These bacteria are intrinsically resistant to β-lactam antibiotics. p.744/745 - mycoplasmas do not have a cell wall. WHICH MEANS THEY HAVE INTRINSIC RESISTANCE TO PENICILLIN/BETA-LACTAM ANTIBIOTICS. - they have a long generation time - the organism produces a complex cytoplasmic projection called a TERMINAL ORGANELLE at one end of the cell - Mycoplasma genitalium does, yes, but not Mycoplasmas in general. Emerging Disease

You are a nurse on a post-surgical ward. One of your patients is an elderly woman who has just had her gallbaldder removed. When you go into her room to check on her, you find that she has significant diarrhea, as well as fever and abdominal pain. You suspect that she has Clostridium difficile infection (CDI), and send a sample of her feces down to the hospital lab for analysis. The test result indicates that your patient does indeed have CDI. You make your patient comfortable and answer her questions about her illness.You tell your patient that her CDI is caused by a bacterium belonging to the genus Clostridium. Which of the following is true of all Clostridia? They are Gram-negative, rod-shaped, endospore-forming obligate aerobes. They are Gram-positive, rod-shaped, endospore-forming obligate anaerobes. Clostridial infections only occur if a state of dysbiosis exists in the host. They are flagellated and always cause significant inflammation. They are encapsulated, flagellated, toxin-producing aerobes.

They are Gram-positive, rod-shaped, endospore-forming obligate anaerobes. p.647

If an immunodeficient person is exposed to VZV and belongs to a non-immune population, how can that person be protected from developing chickenpox? A) They can be passively immunized with zoster hyperimmune globulin. B) They can be actively immunized with the MMRV vaccine. C) They can be passively immunized with the MMRV vaccine. D) They can not be protected at all—they will get the disease. E) They can be given prophylactic antibiotics.

They can be passively immunized with zoster hyperimmune globulin. • Immunocompromised individuals at risk of severe VZV infections; partial protection achieved by passive immunization with ZVIG (hyper-immune globulin with high concentrations of antibody to VZV)

In infective endocarditis, septic emboli may break off. What is/are the possible outcome(s) of emboli in the circulation? They lead to the formation of immune complexes that lodge in the skin, the eyes, and other body structures AND they can cause a vessel to weaken and balloon out, forming an aneurysm. They lead to the formation of immune complexes that lodge in the skin, the eyes, and other body structures. They can cause a vessel to weaken and balloon out, forming an aneurysm AND they may block blood vessels, leading to death of the tissue supplied by the vessel. They can cause a vessel to weaken and balloon out, forming an aneurysm. They may block blood vessels, leading to death of the tissue supplied by the vessel.

They can cause a vessel to weaken and balloon out, forming an aneurysm AND they may block blood vessels, leading to death of the tissue supplied by the vessel.

Why is it not surprising that Staphylococci are the leading cause of wound infections? A) Staphylococci are capable of a higher degree of spontaneous mutation than most microbes. This makes them able to acquire antibiotic resistance very readily, making them hard to eliminate by pre-surgical antibacterial scrubs. As such, they commonly infect surgical wound sites. B) Members of this genus are all particularly virulent and highly capable of causing numerous infections. C) Staphylococci cannot be eradicated from the skin due to multidrug resistance in most members of the genus. Drugs simply don't kill them. D) This genus is readily present as a part of the normal microbiota on most people's skin, so it could easily enter wounds.

This genus is readily present as a part of the normal microbiota on most people's skin, so it could easily enter wounds. Correct

Why might Candida albicans become pathogenic in a person receiving antibacterial medications? - The person's immune system is severely suppressed when they are on antibiotics. This means that the Candida is able to colonize areas normally protected by phagocytes, and can thrive there, causing disease. - This is an opportunistic pathogen not normally found in normal microbiota. As such, when the bacterial normal microbiota is eliminated by broad-spectrum antibacterial drugs, this opportunist can adhere to and colonize the area left behind. - This is a usual member of the normal microbiota. However, when the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are killed by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this fungal cell type has little to no competition for resources and it quickly overgrows, causing disease. - This is a protozoan species and part of the normal microbiota. When the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are wiped out by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this protozoan cell type has little to no competition for resources and can overgrow, causing disease. - This fungal organism can actually use the destroyed bacterial cells as a nutrient source and begin to multiply out of control. This can cause a pathogenic state.

This is a usual member of the normal microbiota. However, when the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are killed by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this fungal cell type has little to no competition for resources and it quickly overgrows, causing disease.

Why might Candida albicans become pathogenic in a person receiving antibacterial medications? This is a usual member of the normal microbiota. However, when the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are killed by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this fungal cell type has little to no competition for resources and it quickly overgrows, causing disease. This is a protozoan species and part of the normal microbiota. When the bacterial members of the normal microbiota are wiped out by a broad-spectrum antibacterial drug, this protozoan cell type has little to no competition for resources and can overgrow, causing disease. This fungal organism can actually use the destroyed bacterial cells as a nutrient source and begin to multiply out of control. This can cause a pathogenic state. This is an opportunistic pathogen not normally found in normal microbiota. As such, when the bacterial normal microbiota is eliminated by broad-spectrum antibacterial drugs, this opportunist can adhere to and colonize the area left behind. The person's immune system is severely suppressed when they are on antibiotics. This means that the Candida is able to colonize areas normally protected by phagocytes, and can thrive there, causing disease.

Explain how Vibrio cholerae causes cholera without apparent damage to the intestinal epithelium. a. This microbe causes destruction of the cellular structures underneath the intestinal epithelium-this is what induces the watery rice-stool characteristic of the illness. This leaves the overlying intestinal epithelium intact. b. This microbe directly invades the intestinal epithelial cells, but does not kill them. Instead, while multiplying inside them, it causes them to secrete large amounts of chloride ions. This induces water to follow by osmosis, resulting in the watery rice-stool characteristic of the illness. c. This microbe attaches to the surface of intestinal epithelial cells, secreting an exotoxin that causes the epithelium to secrete large amounts of chloride ions. This induces large amounts of water to follow by osmosis, resulting in the watery rice-stool characteristic of the illness. d. The inflammatory reaction to the presence of this microbe causes the watery rice-stool characteristic of the illness. Therefore, it's technically the immune response that initiates the disease, although this response is induced by the presence of the microbe on the intestinal epithelium. c. This microbe attaches to the surface of intestinal epithelial cells, secreting an exotoxin that causes the epithelium to secrete large amounts of chloride ions. This induces large amounts of water to follow by osmosis, resulting in the watery rice-stool characteristic of the illness.

This microbe attaches to the surface of intestinal epithelial cells, secreting an exotoxin that causes the epithelium to secrete large amounts of chloride ions. This induces large amounts of water to follow by osmosis, resulting in the watery rice-stool characteristic of the illness. I think: doesn't damage the cell per say, the A-B enterotoxin (cholera toxin) just opens channels to let out electrolytes, water follows by osmosis. Get abundant water diarrhea.

You are reviewing for your nursing school entry exam with your study group. Each person in the group agrees to cover one disease. You select toxoplasmosis for your presentation. Toxoplasmosis can be a serious problem for those who are immunosuppressed, as well as for fetuses. Even in healthy people, the immune system may not clear the organism, resulting in a latent infection that can reactivate when immunity declines.Please select the FALSE statement regarding toxoplasmosis. Infection of the fetus, especially during the first trimester, results in miscarriage, stillbirth, or birth defects. Toxoplasmosis is usually asymptomatic among healthy people, although some people develop sore throat, fever, and enlarged lymph nodes and spleen. Toxoplasmosis may cause encephalitis, brain masses, and other nervous system problems in immunodeficient people. Toxoplasmosis occurs in two main forms—tuberculoid and lepromatous—depending on the immune status of the individual. People contract toxoplasmosis by ingesting oocytes discharged in the feces of acutely infected cats or inadequately cooked meat containing tissue cysts.

Toxoplasmosis occurs in two main forms—tuberculoid and lepromatous—depending on the immune status of the individual. That's leprosy.

True or False: The risk of acquiring a sexually transmitted infection (STI) depends on the number of sexual partners a person currently has AND the number of other sexual partners each of their partner(s) have had.

True

Virulent strains of Shigella typically carry an R plasmid. T/F

True

T/F - Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear that is rare in the first month of life.

True - it becomes very common in early childhood, children who use pacifiers after age 2 have an increased risk of developing otitis media. Older children develop immunity to H. influenzae and the bacterium rarely causes otitis media in children older then 5. Sinusitis affects adults and older children.

Urine contains antimicrobial substances. T/F

True Also is very acidic.

The major virulence factors of Yersinia pestis are carried on a plasmid. T/F

True Apparently on 3 of them.

Both Francisella tularensis and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are able to survive phagocytosis. T/F

True Brucella sp, Fransicella tularemia and Mycobacterium of TB can.

Non-toxin-producing strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae could infect the body but would not cause the typical symptoms of diphtheria. T/F

True Ch 21 - it's the ones that are virus infected lysogens that make the toxin that is causes diphtheria.

The skin-invading molds are collectively called dermatophytes. T/F

True Dermatophytes are group of skin-invading molds including members of genera Epidermophyton, Microsporum, and Trichophyton Dermatophytes can invade hair, nails, keratin in skin • Result in jock itch, athlete's foot, ringworm, or Latinized names describing location: tinea capitis (scalp), tinea barbae (beard), tinea axillaris (armpit), tin

H. pylori is able to survive the acidic environment of the stomach as a result of adaptations that allow it to increase the pH of the immediate environment. T/F

True INCREASE the pH means make it less acidic.

Both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyonese have fibronectin binding proteins. T/F

True It is the protein F in Streptococcus pyogenes.

Meningoencephalitis and African sleeping sickness are both caused by protozoans. T/F

True Naegleria fowleri - free-living protozoa that is pathogenic for humans. Ameboid trophozoite gives rise to flagellated forms and spherical cysts. Trypanosoma brucei -

Complications of measles may include pneumonia and encephalitis. T/F

True Often secondary infections lead to earaches, bacterial pneumonia. Very rarely, 2-10 years later, measles followed by subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

Women are more likely than men to get urinary tract infections due to anatomy. T/F

True Short urethra (4 cm) plus opening very close to anus means women get more UTIs.

Toxic shock syndrome toxins are superantigens. T/F

True TSST-1 is an exotoxin, a superantigen that tricks T helper cells into releasing massive amounts of cytokines (cytokine storm) which causes a massive over reaction of the immune response and you get toxic shock with the huge drop in BP and crash that follows. Is bad.

Bites by little children typically cause few problems. T/F

True They don't tend to break the skin. :)

In a malarial infection, only sporozoites can infect the human liver.

True This is why malaria/Plasmodium sp. spread by drug abuse is easier to treat - its just the infection of blood cells, you need the sporozoites from the mosquito bite to infect the liver cells. - bite (sporozoites carried to liver, infect hepatocytes), multiply and change into merozoites that get released into blood stream and infect RBCs, develop into larger motile trophozoite (feeding form), then schizont (reproducing stage) that gives rise to merozoites that get releaesed and infect more RBCs. Some merozoites from gametocytes instead of schizonts and need to be ingested by mosquitoes to become gametes, zygotes and mature into oocysts that release sporozoites into mosquito mouth bits and saliva.

Trichomonas vaginalis lacks mitochondria. T/F

True Trichomonas vaginalis - motile protozoa with 4 anterior flagella and 1 posterior flagella attached to an undulating membrane. - has a slender, posteriorly protruding rigid rod called an axostyle that is used for attachment. - jerky motility - has no mitochondria - has an hydrogenosome for glucose metabolism and respiration. It produced hydrogen gas - frothy discharge.

Viral meningitis is much more common than bacterial meningitis. T/F

True p. 697 - Viral meningitis occurs more often than bacterial meningitis, but it is typically less severe and causes little permanent damage in those with normal immunity. - CSF in people with viral meningitis is clear, contains numerous lymphocytes. NO bacteria present so viral meningitis = aseptic meningitis.

T or F: The saliva of asymptomatic carriers of herpes simplex is commonly infectious.

True p.635 - even the saliva of asymptomatic people can be infectious, posting a risk to dentists and other healthcare workers.

Campylobacter gastroenteritis is the leading cause of foodborne illness in the United States. T/F

True p.646 "Campylobacteriosis is a leading bacterial diarrheal illness in the united states...numerous foodborne and waterborne outbreaks of C. jejuni have been reported (most are sporadic)."

There is no long-lasting immunity to gonorrhea and one may contract gonorrhea repeatedly. T/F

True p.743 - there is little or no immunity following recovery from gonorrhea - a person can contract gonorrhea repeatedly.

The patient is non-infectious in the third stage of syphilis. T/F

True p.747 Table 27.9 Primary stage - infectious Secondary stage - infectious Latent stage - early infectious, late non-infectious. Tertiary stage - non-infectious

Herpes simplex enhances the spread of AIDS. T/F

True p.751 Table 27.12 - herpes simplex increases the risk of contracting HIV - under Epidemiology.

Humans are the only reservoir for varicella-zoster virus. T/F

True • Humans are only reservoir

Two people are brought to the Emergency Department where you work. The first patient reports fever, abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea. The second patient appears extremely ill. Her family tells you that she also had gastrointestinal signs and symptoms a few days ago. She has now developed severe skin blistering, has a very high fever and is only semi-conscious. When you question the first patient and the family of the second patient, you discover that they know each other and that they have all recently returned from a beach vacation in a major city on the U.S. Gulf Coast. The group tells you that the enjoyed a raw oyster dinner on the last day of their summer vacation. They think that both patients are probably just allergic to seafood, but given the severity of the signs and symptoms of your patients, you suspect that they may have Vibrio vulnificus infection. Lab tests confirm your suspicion. You give the families information on this disease.People with chronic liver disease frequently have elevated levels of iron in their blood. Iron is needed by V. vulnificus for growth. How does it acquire iron from the host? V. vulnificus produces a hemolysin that lyses blood cells to release iron-containing hemoglobin. V. vulnificus produces a hemolysin that lyses white blood cells to release iron-containing hemoglobin AND it produces transferrins that allow it to scavenge iron. V. vulnificus produces a hemolysin that lyses white blood cells to release iron-containing hemoglobin AND it produces lactoferrins that allow it to scavenge iron. V. vulnificus produces a hemolysin that lyses blood cells to release iron-containing hemoglobin AND it produces siderophores that allow it to scavenge iron. V. vulnificus produces siderophores that allow it to scavenge iron.

V. vulnificus produces a hemolysin that lyses blood cells to release iron-containing hemoglobin AND it produces siderophores that allow it to scavenge iron. p.674 Correct

Pneumococcal pneumonia - Pathogenesis: - encapsulated pneumococci inhaled into alveoli multiply rapidly, cause inflammatory response - Can affect nerve endings, cause pain: pleurisy

Virulence factors - capsule = resistant to phagocytosis - interferes with the opsonin C3b - pneumococcal surface protein (PsaA) interferes with C3b too - pneumolysin - membrane-damaging toxin that destroys ciliated epithelium - caused inflammatory response -> accumulation of fluid and phagocytic cells in alveoli -> difficult breathing. Can see the fluid as abnormal shadows on X-rays. Sputum has increasing amounts of pus, blood and bacteria If pneumococci enter blood from inflamed lungs = 3 outcomes - potentially fatal - sepsis = bloodstream infection - endocarditis = infection of heart valves - meningitis = infection of the meninges W/o complications in a wk you'll make enough anti-capsular antibodies to allow phagocytosis and destruction of the pneumococci = complete recovery

Epidemics of bacterial infections of the digestive system are transmitted by: A) Food. B) Water. C) Milk. D) The respiratory route. E) All of the above

Water

Which one of the following statements about bacterial vaginosis is FALSE? It is the most common vaginal disease in women of childbearing age. Women with BV always experience inflammation of the vagina. Treatment of the male sex partners of patients with BV does not prevent recurrences. The vaginal microbiota shows a decrease in lactobacilli and an increase in anaerobic bacteria. In pregnant women, it is associated with premature delivery.

Women with BV always experience inflammation of the vagina. Not true because p.735 - about half of BV cases are asymptomatic.

The causative agent of plague is Vibrio cholerae. Staphylococcus aureus. Brucella abortus. Yersinia pestis.

Yersinia pestis. Y. pestis is a member of Enterobacteriaceae - is a facultative anaerobe, Gram negative rod that grows best at 28C, is non-motile and forms biofilms in flea guts

The plague bacillus is known as Plasmodium vivax. Pneumocystis carinii. Streptococcus pyogenes. Yersinia pestis.

Yersinia pestis. Yersinia pestis - member of Enterobacteriaceae - facultative anaerobe, Gram negative rod. - non-motile, grows best at 28 C. - with certain dyes, resembles a safety pin as ends stain darker. - forms biofilms in digestive tract of flea and is transmitted by flea bite.

Your patient comments that she has noticed the same signs and symptoms on her grandmother who has Alzheimer's disease and who uses adult diapers. She asks you whether it is possible that her grandmother also has a Candida infection. You tell her No. Candida is part of the skin normal microbiota of infants only. This organism is never present on the skin of older adults. No. Older adults have an exceptionally strong immune system and so are unlikely to develop a fungal skin infection. Yes. Candida is present among the skin normal microbiota and may cause infection in anyone who wears a diaper, regardless of age. Yes. The older an individual gets, the more Candida cells accumulate on their skin, so it is only a matter of time before the person develops a skin infection. No. Older adults have extremely oily skin. Sebum (skin oil) has natural antifungal properties, so the chances of an adult developing a fungal infection are very small.

Yes. Candida is present among the skin normal microbiota and may cause infection in anyone who wears a diaper, regardless of age.

A young mother brings her three-month old baby into the doctor's office where you work as an RN. The baby is miserable and the mother reports that he has developed a fever, which is why she has brought him to the doctor. She tells you that the child is particularly upset when she changes his diaper and that he seems to have diaper rash, which she attributes to the fact that her son's diaper isn't always changed promptly enough at the day-care facility he goes to daily. In fact, she has recently switched him to another facility. You remove the child's diaper and immediately see that he has a very red rash on his buttocks and genital area. There is also red, scaly skin in the area where his diaper touches his thighs. You suspect that this may be more than just a typical case of diaper rash. Your patient comments that she has noticed the same signs and symptoms on her grandmother who has Alzheimer's diasese and who uses adult diapers. She asks you whether it is possible that her grandmother also has a Candida infection. You tell her A) No. Candida is part of the skin normal microbiota of infants only. This organism is never present on the skin of older adults. B) Yes. Candida is present among the skin normal microbiota and may cause infection in anyone who wears a diaper, regardless of age. C) No. Older adults have an exceptionally strong immune system and so are unlikely to develop a fungal skin infection. D) Yes. The older an individual gets, the more Candida cells accumulate on their skin, so it is only a matter of time before the person develops a skin infection. E) No. Older adults have extremely oily skin. Sebum (skin oil) has natural antifungal properties, so the chances of an adult developing a fungal infection are very small.

Yes. Candida is present among the skin normal microbiota and may cause infection in anyone who wears a diaper, regardless of age. i know it's yes but in an earlier question we were asked which of the following is NOT a part of normal skin microbiota and Candida was the NOT. Oh! It's not part of the normal microbiota but IS present. "Yeast Candida albicans found in normal microbiota" - Can invade deep layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues

My sister told me that there is a vaccine called Gardasil 9 (9vHPV) that protects against HPV and is recommended for women under the age of 26 (like me). Should I still consider getting it even though I have HPV 16? No—the vaccine involves injecting anti—HPV antibodies and you already have those because of your infection. Yes—the vaccine is used to cure HPV infections so you should get it to eliminate your HPV 16 infection. No—if you have HPV 16 you also definitely have the other cancer—causing strains of the virus so the vaccine won't help. Yes—even though you have HPV16, the vaccine also protects against HPVs 6, 11, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, and 58. No—you already have HPV 16 so there is no point in getting the vaccine now. It is too late.

Yes—even though you have HPV16, the vaccine also protects against HPVs 6, 11, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, and 58.

a superantigen-producing S. aureus strain.

Which of the following has shown some effectiveness in treating a herpes infection? AZT protease inhibitors acyclovir cephalosporin

acyclovir Acyclovir, penciclovir target HSV DNA polymerase - Do not affect latent virus and so cannot cure.

The drug(s) used to treat genital herpes is/are: penicillin. erythromycin. acyclovir. famciclovir. acyclovir AND famciclovir.

acyclovir AND famciclovir. Because both are antivirals and genital herpes is caused by HSV-2 (enveloped, dsDNA virus from family Herpesviridae).

Which of the following does not usually result from a wound infection? Bacterial spread. Aerobic conditions. Delayed healing. Abscess formation. These all result from delayed wound healing.

aerobic conditions

The normal flora of the genital tract of women is: affected by estrogen levels .dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus. unchanging. typically composed of E. coli. affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus.

affected by estrogen levels AND dependent on the activity of Lactobacillus. p.730 - The normal microbiota of the genital tract of women is affected by the action of estrgen hormones on the epithelial cells of the vaginal mucosa. - estrogen present -> glycogen deposited in cells - glycogen converted to lactic acid by lactobacilli, resulting in an acidic pH that inhibits the growth of many potential pathogens.. - lactobacilli also release hydrogen peroxide, an inhibitor of some anaerobic bacteria.

Leprosy is: A. an infectious disease caused by a bacterium. B. a disease of the blood. C. also known as Hansen's disease. D. described in the Bible. E. an infectious disease caused by a bacterium, also known as Hansen's disease AND described in the Bible.

an infectious disease caused by a bacterium, also known as Hansen's disease AND described in the Bible. Mycobacterium leprae - acid-fast, aerobic, rod-shaped, grows very slowly with a generation time of 12-13 days and likes the slightly cooler temps of extremities. - has not been grown in the absence of living cells, DNA library in E. coli. Grows in armadillos, mice and monkeys.

The genital tract infection characterized by an unpleasant odor and an increase in clue cells is: trichomoniasis. bacterial vaginosis. candidiasis. amoebiasis.

bacterial vaginosis. p.735 - BV = - most common vaginal disease of women in their childbearing years. - not -itis because there are no inflammatory changes. - Half of cases are asymptomatic. - Symptomatic BC: thin, grayish-white slightly bubbly vaginal discharge that has a characteristic strong fish-like smell. - causative agent unknown. Clue cells are epithelial cells that have sloughed off the vaginal walls and are covered in bacteria.

The central nervous system (CNS) may become infected through the: A. bloodstream. B. nerves. C. extensions from bone. D. ventricles. E. bloodstream, nerves AND extensions from bone

bloodstream, nerves AND extensions from bone p.697 - the bloodstream is the primary source of CNS infection. Hard for infectious agents to cross from the blood stream to the brain because of the blood-brain barrier - special cells lining the capillaries in the CNS. - prevents pathogens from entering nervous tissue except when a rare high [ ] circulates for a long time in the blood. - barrier prevents many meds, including penicillin, from crossing into the CNS unless present in very high concentrations.

S. aureus clumping factor causes phagocytes to clump bacteria. causes fibrinogen to clump together. causes bacteria to clump together in plasma. produces staphylothrombin. reacts with prothrombin.

causes bacteria to clump together in plasma.

Which of the following diseases may manifest themselves with painful genital ulcers? chancroid rubeola herpes leptospirosis chancroid AND herpes (chancroid AND leptospirosis)

chancroid AND herpes If given option chancroid AND Leptospirosis I would probably choose just chancroid Chancroid - STI - bacterial - genital ulcers = painful, soft chancres Leptospirosis - UTI - bacteria zoonosis - is all about damage to liver and kidneys. Gets in by mucus membranes or wounds and hitches a ride via bloodstream to urinary system. p.750 - herpes - virus - lesions - vesicles burst, producing painful ulcers.

Which animal is used as an early warning system for encephalitis? A. armadillos B. mice C. chickens D. foxes

chickens Viral encephalitis caused by arboviruses - group of enveloped ssRNA viruses transmitted by insects, mites or ticks. - include LaCrosse encephalitis virus, St. Louis and West Nile encephalitis and eastern/western equine encephalitis.

The most common reportable STD in the U.S. is: gonorrhea. chlamydial infections. syphilis. AIDS.

chlamydial infection. First is chlamydia, second is gonorrhea. Chlamydia trachomatis - shperical, obligate intracellular Gram-negative bacterium. Two forms: infectious elementary body and multiplying intracellular reticulate body.

The resistance of Klebsiella to antibiotics may be: A) chromosomal mediated AND lysosomal mediated. B) plasmid mediated AND lysosomal mediated. C) chromosomal mediated AND plasmid mediated. D) lysosomal mediated AND capsule mediated. E) capsule mediated AND plasmid mediated.

chromosomal mediated AND plasmid mediated. Most have plasmids: β-lactamase (resist β-lactams such as penicillin); many also extended-spectrum lactamase (ESBL) (resist many cephalosporins) Capsule is about resistance to being engulfed by phagocytes. No lysosomes. Phagocytes have lysosomes. Resistance can be due to spontaneous nucleic acid mutations or conferred by plasmids. So that one.

Cholera is the classic example of a(n) a. food-borne illness. b. zoonosis. c. opportunist. d. very severe form of diarrhea.

d. very severe form of diarrhea.

Pediatric Giardia infections have greater consequences than infections in adults primarily as a result of _________________________. infection of associated digestive organs, such as the liver and pancreas dehydration from the frequent diarrhea interruption of dietary fat breakdown invasion of the intestinal mucosa

dehydration from the frequent diarrhea

The destructive nature of tuberculosis can be characterized as a(n) immune complex reaction. inflammatory pyogenic response. inflammatory response. endotoxin pyrogenic response. delayed-type cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction.

delayed-type cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction.

The destructive nature of tuberculosis can be characterized as a(n): A) endotoxin pyrogenic response. B) delayed-type cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction. C) immune complex reaction. D) inflammatory response. E) inflammatory pyogenic response.

delayed-type cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction. Type IV hypersensitivies are mediated by T cells - I suspect this is a poorly worded question. p.554 " this reaction is due to the accumulation of macrophages and T lymphocytes at the injection site, caused by a delayed type hypersensitivity reaction to the injected antigens." It is talking about the tuberculin skin test (TST)/Mantoux test

Most initial cases of dengue fever are very mild or even asymptomatic. When a second infection with a different serotype of the five known dengue viruses occurs, - the person always develops dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF) or dengue shock syndrome (DSS), which is quickly fatal. - the usual protection from a previous infection is reactivated and quickly eliminates the new virus type from the infected individual. - dengue hemorrhagic fever may develop, due to antibody-dependent enhancement that facilitates viral entry into macrophages. - the two viruses work together to achieve a much more serious infection that is always rapidly fatal.

dengue hemorrhagic fever may develop, due to antibody-dependent enhancement that facilitates viral entry into macrophages.

Collections of bacteria that adhere to the surfaces of the teeth are called: dental caries. dental plaque. halitosis. periodontal disease.

dental plaque. Proteinaceous material from saliva adheres, creates thin film (PELLICLE) - Bacteria attach, create biofilm called dental PLAGUE - Mineral salts deposit over time, create dental calculus or TARTAR

Typically pathogenic Neisseria gonorrheae: secretes transferrin. destroys IgA. destroys IgM. is very immunogenic.

destroys IgA. The bacteria produces IgA protease, which destroys secretory IgA and seems to interfere with phagosome maturation. p.743

Confirmation of the rubeola diagnosis can be made by detecting rubeola viruses using a Gram stain. treating the patient with antibiotics. presence of rubella antibodies in the blood. detecting Koplik spots on the oral mucosa. measuring the intensity of the rash.

detecting Koplik spots on the oral mucosa.

The transmission of M. leprae is by contact with contaminated blood products. direct human-to-human contact AND contact with infected nasal secretions. contact with infected nasal secretions AND the fecal-oral route. direct human-to-human contact AND the fecal-oral route. the fecal-oral route AND contact with contaminated blood products.

direct human-to-human contact AND contact with infected nasal secretions. p.720

The oocytes of Cyclospora cayetanensis: are mature when eliminated in the stool. do not contain sporozoites when passed in the feces. are smaller than the oocytes of Cryptosporidium parvum. give rise to three sporozoites. All of the choices are correct. The oocytes of Cyclospora cayetanensis are mature when eliminated in the stool. contain sporozoites when passed in the feces. give rise to three sporozoites. do not contain sporozoites when passed in the feces. are smaller than the oocytes of Cryptosporidium parvum.

do not contain sporozoites when passed in the feces Slightly different questions - same answer

Antibody-dependent enhancement (ADE), that explains the pathogenesis of dengue hemorrhagic fever and dengue shock syndrome, can best be described as: - failure of pre-existing anti-dengue antibodies to neutralize a second dengue virus serotype, instead facilitating viral entry into host cells. - the bleeding and shock that occur when the heterophile antibodies made in a nonproductive infection cause blood vessel leakiness. - the lysis of productively infected B cells by antibodies made in response to different dengue viruses during a dengue infection. - the production of large amounts of heterophile antibodies by B cells with a nonproductive dengue infection.

failure of pre-existing anti-dengue antibodies to neutralize a second dengue virus serotype, instead facilitating viral entry into host cells. See you have antibodies from first infection, DHF and DSS occur in person who gets a second infection by a different serotype of the virus - Antibody-dependent enhancement (ADE) means the antibodies from the first infection can't stop the seconds so they create immune complexes that actually facilitate viral entry into cells that have Fc receptors (monocytes/macrophages) where the virus replicates freely so ADE leads to increased numbers of infected cells and a high viral load.

Which species of Plasmodium causes the most serious form of malaria? ovale malariae vivax falciparum

falciparum p.688 - P. falciparum infections are more sever than other types. Can infect ALL RBCs, not just young or old ones, and it encodes a virulence factor called pfEMP1 that causes RBCs to stick to capillary walls, blocking blood flow (if it happens in the brain -> cerebral malaria. Happens in placenta....).

Rebecca Lancefield showed that almost all the strains of b-hemolytic streptococci from human infections: - could cause rheumatic fever. - had the same cell wall carbohydrate "A." - had variable cell wall carbohydrates. - responded to penicillin. - had the same cell wall carbohydrate "beta."

had the same cell wall carbohydrate (surface antigen), carbohydrate "A" - B also available, C = carbohydrate antigen on cells of horses, cattle and guinea pigs, D on cell wall of human normal microbiota

Shigella and cholera toxin both: have an A-B arrangement. work through ADP ribosylation. increase cAMP levels. prevent protein synthesis.

have an A-B arrangement.

Pregnant women with bacterial vaginosis are at risk of: placental insufficiency. being unable to nurse. being unable to deliver vaginally. having a premature baby.

having a premature baby p.735 - BV is common in pregnant women and puts them at risk for premature deliveries.

Vaccines can be used to protect at-risk individuals from all of the following liver diseases EXCEPT __________. hepatitis A hepatitis C hepatitis B hepatitis D

hepatitis C there is no vaccine available for preventing HepC.

The usual cause of genital herpes is: herpes simplex virus type 1. herpes simplex virus type 2. herpes simplex virus type 3. herpes simplex virus type 4.

herpes simplex virus type 2 p.750 - genital herpes is usually caused by herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2), an enveloped, dsDNA virus from family Herpesviridae. HSV-1 causes cold sores/fever blisters but can also cause genital herpes. They look the same, are 50% same genome but HSV-2 causes more sever genital lesions with a greater frequency of recurrence.

A painful finger infection attributable to herpes virus is known as a(n): finger sore .abrasion lesion. herpetic whitlow. furuncle.

herpetic whitlow. Recurrent cold sores (LIPS) called herpes simplex labialis. Correct

Intestinal botulism, especially in infants, has been linked to ingestion of: A. seafood. B. milk. C. honey. D. applesauce.

honey give no honey to children under 1 year old

Primary reservoir for Diphtheria is:

humans - Spread by AIR, acquired via inhalation or from fomites. Cutaneous diphtheria with chronic ulcers - may be a source is a person comes into contact with them. - treat with injection of anti-serum - give immediately is diphtheria is suspected because the delay to culture it could be fatal. - antibodies can clear the bacterium but too much absorbed toxin can be deadly. - even with treatment, mortality is ~10%

Gonococci infect humans. sheep. cows AND sheep. cows. iguanas.

humans.

Painful spasms of the throat triggered by swallowing or the sight of water is called A. hydrophobia. B. hydrophagia. C. tetany. D. paralysis.

hydrophobia Fear of water. Rabies = zoonosis - rabies virus - bullet shaped, has envelope, ss negative sense RNA virus - family Rhabdoviridae

A wound created by the drag of a knife across skin can be classified as a(n) abrasion. laceration. incision. puncture. contusion.

incision Correct

Which of the following may be transmitted by saliva? infectious mononucleosis rabies plague yellow fever infectious mononucleosis AND rabies

infectious mononucleosis AND rabies Rabies was covered in a different chapter but it is carried by animal in their saliva and we worry about rabies with animal bites. Mono - Kissing disease, saliva

The production of heterophile antibody is associated with tularemia. brucellosis. plague. infectious mononucleosis.

infectious mononucleosis. Most B cells get non-productive (latent) infection. EBV activates the B cells, they multiply and make useless antibodies - HETEROPHILE ANTIBODY that can be used to test = Monospot test - causes agglutination when mixed with animal RBCs.

Many childhood diseases caused by viral infections of the upper respiratory tract can usually be diagnosed by the type of cough. the type of fever. inspection of the rash. the gender of the patient. the incubation period.

inspection of the rash.

Among the major causes of vulvovaginal candidiasis is/are: sexual promiscuity. intense antibacterial treatment. disruption of normal flora.the use of oral contraceptives. intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral contraceptives.

intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal flora AND the use of oral contraceptives. Caused by Candida albicans yeast. - Like BV, it seems to occur aftera disruption of the normal microbiota - factors that predisposition = use of oral contraceptives or antibiotics. p736

Among the major causes of vulvovaginal candidiasis is/are the use of oral contraceptives, advanced age, AND disruption of normal microbiota. sexual promiscuity AND intense antibacterial treatment. intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal microbiota, AND the use of oral contraceptives. intense antibacterial treatment AND disruption of normal microbiota. disruption of normal microbiota AND advanced age.

intense antibacterial treatment, disruption of normal microbiota, AND the use of oral contraceptives.

The presence of a hard chancre in primary syphilis is representative of the body's: intense inflammatory response. antibody response. rejection of the invaded tissue. septicemia due to infiltration of the organism.

intense inflammatory response Chancres usually develop on the genitalia but they may occur anywhere in the body. Painless so they can go unnoticed. Lymph nodes near the chancre may swell. p.747 - the hard chancre is caused by an intense inflammatory response to the bacteria, which are present in high numbers in the lesion.

Yops, proteins produced by Yersinia pestis, activate plasminogen activator. interfere with phagocytosis. promote apoptosis. control a type III secretion system. destroy C3b and C5a.

interfere with phagocytosis.

Yops proteins, produced by Yersinia pestis, interfere with phagocytosis. activates plasminogen activator. destroys C3b and C5a. promotes apoptosis.

interfere with phagocytosis. p.670 - Yops (proteins) - interfere with phagocytosis and the immune response. - A variety of Y. pestis outer proteins (Yops) are made and delivered by type III secretion systems to the host cell, they disrupt the host cell cytoskeleton, inhibit phagocytosis, block the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines.

Toxic shock syndrome: is due to exotoxins produced by S. pyogenes. is due to exotoxins produced by S. aureus. may spread from person to person. has a very low rate of recurrence, approximately 1%.

is due to exotoxins produced by S. aureus. Toxic Shock Syndrome -> strains of Staphylococcus aureus that produce toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) or other related exotoxins (G+ bacteria) p.737

The nervous system typically is sterile. contains a small number of viruses. has transient microbiota. contains Gram-positive bacteria. has a small number of normal microbiota.

is sterile

6. The nervous system typically: A. is sterile. B. has a small number of normal flora. C. contains Gram-positive bacteria. D. contains a small number of viruses

is sterile The nervous system lies entirely within body tissues and has no normal microbiota. CSF is generally sterile so the presence of microbes indicates an infection.

All of the following statements about staphylococcal toxic shock are true except: a) it can lead to kidney failure. b) the causative organism usually does not enter the bloodstream. c) it occurs only in tampon users. d) the causative organism produces superantigens. e) person-to-person spread does not occur.

it occurs only in tampon users. p.737 - the syndrome can occur after infection of surgical wounds, infections associated with childbirth, and other types of staphylococcal infections.

The toxins involved in intestinal infections typically A. kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis. B. modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes. C. modify cell physiology resulting in decreased secretion of water and electrolytes. D. kill cells by inhibiting DNA synthesis. E. kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes.

kill cells by inhibiting protein synthesis AND modify cell physiology resulting in increased secretion of water and electrolytes. 2 types - enterotoxins and cytotoxins enterotoxins make cells lose water and electrolytes cytotoxins cause cell death

Vibrio cholerae and most salmonellae are stimulated by acid conditions. acidophiles. killed by neutral conditions. killed by acid conditions. killed by low concentrations of salt.

killed by acid conditions.

The incubation period of rabies is partially determined by: A. age of the patient. B. season of the year that the disease is acquired. C. length of journey from the bite site to the brain. D. the amount of virus introduced into the wound. E. length of journey from the bite site to the brain AND the amount of virus introduced into the wound.

length of journey from the bite site to the brain AND the amount of virus introduced into the wound. p.710 - the length of time before symptoms occur depends on: - location of bite - amount of virus introduced - condition of the host

A visible red streak in an infected hand or foot is referred to as septicemia. bacteremia. lymphangitis. edema.

lymphangitis. p.665 - when a hand or a food is infected, a visible red streak may spread up the limb from the infection site toward the nearest lymph node. This is due to inflammation of one or more lympathic vessels, a condition called lymphangitis.

When Gram-negative bacteria are multiplying in the bloodstream, sepsis/septic shock can result. This is due to binding of endotoxin to toll-like receptors (TLRs) on _________ and neutrophils, provoking an uncontrolled release of pro-inflammatory _________ and activating the complement cascade. These events result in a widespread, self-stimulating inflammatory response. macrophages; cells macrophages; cytokines basophils; cells lymphocytes; cytokines

macrophages; cytokines

The membranes that cover the surface of the brain and spinal cord are known as the: A. neurolemma. B. dura mater. C. meninges.

meninges - from out to in - bone, DURA MATER, venus sinus (in some areas of brain), ARACHNOID MATER, subarachnoid space, PIA MATER. Subarachnoid space is where cerebrospinal fluid is. Venus sinus under dura mater is where CSF goes back in to bloodstream. - outer dura is tough, barrier to the spread of infection from bones surounding the CNS. Adheres closelty to the skull and vertebrae, in part of the brain it encloses a blood-filled venous sinus.

The poliomyelitis virus appears to selectively destroy: A. sensory nerve cells. B. mixed nerve cells. C. autonomic nerve cells. D. motor nerve cells.

motor nerve cells Characteristic feature of polio is the destruction of motor neurons, resulting in paralysis of a group of muscles, like those of an arm or a leg.

A young mother brings her three-month old baby into the doctor's office where you work as an RN. The baby is miserable and the mother reports that he has developed a fever, which is why she has brought him to the doctor. She tells you that the child is particularly upset when she changes his diaper and that he seems to have diaper rash, which she attributes to the fact that her son's diaper isn't always changed promptly enough at the day-care facility he goes to daily. In fact, she has recently switched him to another facility. You remove the child's diaper and immediately see that he has a very red rash on his buttocks and genital area. There is also red, scaly skin in the area where his diaper touches his thighs. You suspect that this may be more than just a typical case of diaper rash. The mother asks you whether her child needs penicillin. You tell her no—penicillin targets peptidoglycan synthesis, but C. albicans is a fungus, so has a chitin cell wall. yes—penicillin interrupts protein synthesis, so will kill any type of cell, including a fungus. no—penicillin is no longer an effective antibiotic for treating any type of infection. A different antibiotic is needed. no—killing C. albicans with an antibiotic increases the risk of endotoxic shock. yes—diaper rash is a serious infection, and should be treated promptly with this antibiotic.

no—penicillin targets peptidoglycan synthesis, but C. albicans is a fungus, so has a chitin cell wall.

Untreated gonorrhea in males may lead to all of the following EXCEPT pelvic inflammatory disease. prostatic abscesses. sterility. orchitis. urinary tract infections.

pelvic inflammatory disease.

The sac which surrounds the heart is called the endocardium. pericardium. atrium. myocardium.

pericardium. peri- = around endocardium is lining inside heart atrium is heart chamber myocardium is heart muscle

The chronic inflammatory process involving the gums and tissues around the teeth is called: dental caries. periodontal disease. dental plaque. root caries.

periodontal disease.

The initial attachment required for establishment of an intestinal infection is by A. flagella. B. cilia. C. pseudopodia. D. pili.

pili Attachment is always about pili...

The menigococcus attach to the mucus membrane via: A. flagella. B. pili. C. cilia. D. a capsule. E. axial filaments.

pili flagella = movement pili = attachment cilia = on eukaryotic cells capsule = anti-phagocytic

Identification of the various strains of N. meningitidis is through: A. Gram staining. B. serogrouping. C. fluorescent antibodies. D. titering.

serogrouping Neisseria meningitidis - gram-negative diplococcus with capsule. Most serious infections are due to serotypes A, B, C, W and Y.

Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis, can be transmitted by contact with contaminated objects. the fecal-oral route. clothing. sexual or oral contact. aerosol droplets.

sexual or oral contact.

The rubeola virus contains: A) single-stranded DNA. B) double-stranded DNA. C) single-stranded RNA. D) double-stranded RNA. E) single-stranded RNA OR double-stranded RNA.

single-stranded RNA. Rubella virus of togavirus family: - enveloped, single-stranded RNA • Easily cultivated in cell cultures

S. pyogenes associated with invasive disease characteristically have streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins A & B. coagulase AND streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin A. leukocidins AND streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin A. coagulase AND streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin B. leukocidins AND streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin B.

streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins A & B.

The condition that develops on a previously damaged heart valve is called an aneurysm. acute bacterial endocarditis. myocarditis. subacute bacterial endocarditis.

subacute bacterial endocarditis. Slide 8/p.666 - endocarditis - inflammation inside the heart. Condition develops gradually than it is called SUBACUTE BACTERIAL ENDOCARDITIS. Rapid progression = acute bacterial endocarditis

Bite wounds are often serious as they may lead to an infection in which two or more species of pathogens act together to produce an effect greater than the sum of effects if each pathogen were acting alone. This is referred to as a(n) ________ infection. mutualistic parasitic complicated synergistic Fasciltatory

synergistic

Bite wounds are often serious as they may lead to an infection in which two or more species of pathogen act together to produce an effect that is greater than the sum of effects if each pathogen were acting alone...

synergistic infection Alone, usually harmless; together, produce large numbers of toxins and enzymes including leukocidin, collagenase, hyaluronidase, ribonuclease, various proteinases, neuraminidase, and enzymes that destroy complement system proteins and antibodies; yield synergistic infection

Two people are brought to the Emergency Department where you work. The first patient reports fever, abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea. The second patient appears extremely ill. Her family tells you that she also had gastrointestinal signs and symptoms a few days ago. She has now developed severe skin blistering, has a very high fever and is only semi-conscious. When you question the first patient and the family of the second patient, you discover that they know each other and that they have all recently returned from a beach vacation in a major city on the U.S. Gulf Coast. The group tells you that the enjoyed a raw oyster dinner on the last day of their summer vacation. They think that both patients are probably just allergic to seafood, but given the severity of the signs and symptoms of your patients, you suspect that they may have Vibrio vulnificus infection. Lab tests confirm your suspicion. You give the families information on this disease. Patients with V. vulnificus infection are given a combination of synergistic antibiotics. This means that: the action of one antibiotic diminishes the effect of the other(s) in the combination. each antibiotic works independently, but does not inhibit the action of the other antibiotic(s) in the combination. the antibiotics given in combination are always broad spectrum medications. the antibiotics work together to produce a stronger effect than each antibiotic on its own. one antibiotic in the combination is always broad spectrum while the other(s) is/are always narrow spectrum.

the antibiotics work together to produce a stronger effect than each antibiotic on its own. Correct

"The portal(s) of entry for varicella-zoster virus is/are the genitourinary tract AND the gastrointestinal tract. the skin. the respiratory tract. the genitourinary tract. the skin AND the respiratory tract, "

the skin AND the respiratory tract

Development of a dengue vaccine has proved challenging because: - there are five different viral serotypes, so a multivalent vaccine is needed. - dengue viruses, being RNA viruses, have a high mutation rate. - dengue is transmitted by different species of the Aedes mosquito. - dengue viruses are DNA viruses and can integrate into the host genome.

there are five different viral serotypes, so a multivalent vaccine is needed. 4 serotypes, my book says but I still like the answer. Dengue virus is ssRNA of family Flaviviridae.

Helicobacter pylori appears to have some connection with: acid reflux disease. ulcers.dental caries. stomach cancer. ulcers AND stomach cancer.

ulcers AND stomach cancer.

High levels of antibodies in patients with SBE tend to be of little use because they make the bacteria clump together and adhere to the clot. the surface antigens change rapidly and become unrecognizable. the antibodies are defective. the antibodies degrade quickly.

they make the bacteria clump together and adhere to the clot. Microbes adhere to heart tissue, multiply, create a biofilm, the clot grows larger around the multiplying organisms, building up a fragile mass. Bacteria get washed off the mass into the bloodstream and pieces of infected clot (septic emboli) can break off. p.667 actually says antibodies will complex with antigens and immune complexes may lodge in body structures and trigger an inflammatory response. Says microbes adhere to heart tissue, multiply, create a biofilm, the clot grows larger around the multiplying organisms, building up a fragile mass. Bacteria get washed off the mass into the bloodstream and pieces of infected clot (septic emboli) can break off.

Yersinia pestis typically contains one plasmid. two plasmids. three plasmids. four plasmids.

three plasmids.

The vector for RMSF is a(n) tick. mosquito. flea. deer. fly.

tick.

The symptom at the site of an animal bite that suggests rabies as a possible diagnosis is: A. inability to heal. B. blue-green pus. C. tingling or twitching. D. festering without fever.

tingling or twitching p.709 - the characteristic symptom is a tingling or twitching sensation at the sight of viral entry, usually an animal bite.

Bacteria which cause subacute bacterial endocarditis may gain access to the bloodstream by trauma. dental procedures. brushing teeth. ingestion. trauma, dental procedures AND brushing teeth.

trauma, dental procedures AND brushing teeth. p.667 - The bacteria the cause infective endocarditis may enter the bloodstream from another infected body site or during DENTAL PROCEDURES, TOOTH BRUSHING, OR TRAUMA.

African sleeping sickness is transmitted by: A. ticks. B. black flies. C. Aedes mosquitoes. D. tsetse flies.

tsetse flies African Trypanosomiasis (African sleeping sickness) - Trypanosoma brucei - flagellated protozoa, slender with wavy undulating membranes and an anteriorly protruding flagellum - biological vector = tsetse fly of genus Glossina Two subspecies, morphologically identical. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense and gambiense. R is acute disease and G is chronic disease. - grow in bursts as a glycoprotein is expressed on protozoan's surface and new antibiodes must be made to it.

The development of lymph node enlargement in the region of a skin ulcer after a tick or insect bite or handling of a wild animal suggests brucellosis. endocarditis. septicemia. tularemia.

tularemia. p.676 - Tularemia is a zoonotic disease that occurs among WILD ANIMALS...in the western US infections mostly result from the bites of infected TICKS AND DEER FLIES (insects) Brucellosis is a chronic infection of domestic animals. Zoonosis.

go back to bogrady microbiology ch 24 set for help jkins1389 Mirobiology h 25 chelsea_walter Chapter 25 Microbial Diseases of the Digestive AND Chapter 26 Urinary & Reproductive Systems julioambriz Ch. 24- Study Bank Questions JKMoe Chapter 25: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System ** https://www.studystack.com/flashcard-485339 sobrok at https://quizlet.com/252095176/microbiology-ch-24-flash-cards/

windham_mcguire - micro final practice test 25 - q/a

A 37-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use entered the local health clinic with complaints of a dry persistent cough, fever, malaise, and anorexia. Over the preceding 4 weeks, he had lost 15 pounds and experienced chills and sweats. A chest radiograph revealed patchy infiltrates throughout the lung fields. Because the patient had a nonproductive cough, sputum was induced and submitted for bacterial, fungal, and mycobacterial cultures, as well as examination for Pneumocystis organisms. Blood cultures and serologic tests for HIV infection were performed. The patient was found to be HIV positive. The results of all cultures were negative after 2 days of incubation. Bacteria and treatment?

** needs a correct answer ** Bacteria: Treatment:

Match the microorganism to the skin disease it causes: A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Clostridium perfringens C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Propionibacterium acnes E. Mycobacterium leprae 1. Impetigo 2. Carbuncle 3. Gas gangrene 4. Acne 5. Leprosy

A. Streptococcus pyogenes -- Impetigo C. Staphylococcus aureus -- Carbuncle B. Clostridium perfringens -- Gas gangrene D. Propionibacterium acnes -- Acne E. Mycobacterium leprae -- Leprosy

Enlargement of which of the following structures may contribute to ear infections by interfering with normal drainage from Eustachian tubes? Epiglottis Nasal conchae Nasal chamber Adenoids Parotid glands

Adenoids

Documented transmission of HIV involves: A. Mosquitoes B. Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products C. Respiratory droplets D. Contaminated food E. All of the choices are correct

B. Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products

Each of the following is true for Listeria monocytogenes except: A.Resistant to cold B.Possesses flagella C.Penetrates alveolar macrophages D.Can result in septicemia E.Can be controlled by viral lysis

C. Penetrates alveolar macrophages enters through GI tract

Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori? A. Gram negative B. Produces urease that buffers stomach acidity C. Produces entertoxin that causes diarrhea D. Lives in the stomach E. Curved rods

C. Produces entertoxin that causes diarrhea Helicobacter pylori is a short, curved, gram-negative, microaerophilic bacterium with multiple flagella that are unusual because they are covered by sheaths.

Match the disease with its primary virulence factor: A. Scarlet fever B. Meningococcal meningitis C. Scalded skin syndrome D. Tinea pedis E. Lockjaw (tetanus) 1. Exfoliative toxin 2. Keratin-digesting enzyme 3. Capsule 4. Erythrogenic toxin 5. Tetanospasmin

C. Scalded skin syndrome -- 1. Exfoliative toxin D. Tinea pedis -- 2. Keratin-digesting enzyme B. Meningococcal meningitis -- 3. Capsule A. Scarlet fever -- 4. Erythrogenic toxin E. Lockjaw (tetanus) -- 5. Tetanospasmin

Which of the following is a viral hemorrhagic fever? A. Cat Scratch fever B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever C. Yellow fever D.Rabbit fever E.Q fever

C. Yellow Fever

Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a: A.Bacteria B.Protozoan C.Virus D.Helminth E.All of the choices are correct

C. virus

The paroxysms that occur in cyclic 48 to 72 hour episodes in a malaria patient are: A. Urinary frequency and pain and vaginal discharge B. Bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea and weight loss C. Fever, swollen lymph nodes and joint pain D. Chills, fever, and sweating from erythrocytic lysis E. Sore throat, low grade fever and swollen lymph nodes

Chills, fever, and sweating from erythrocytic lysis Cold, Hot and Wet stages.

Which is incorrect about warts? A.Are transmitted by direct contact or fomites B.Include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet C.Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal D.Are frequently cancerous E.Caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV)

D. Are frequently cancerous

The causative organism of whooping cough is: A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Staphyloccus aureus C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Bordetella pertussis E. Haemophilus influenzae

D. Bordetella pertussis

This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients: A. Cryptococcus neoformans B. Candida albicans C. Malassezia furfur D. Pneumocystis jiroveci E. None of the choices is correct

D. Pneumocystis jiroveci

Spongiform encephalopathies are: A.Associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain B.Chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system C.Caused by prions D.Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, scrapie, and bovine spongiform encephalopathy E.All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

Which is incorrect about rabies? A.Wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats and canines are primary reservoirs B.Is a zoonotic disease C.Symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis D.Transmission can involve bites, scratches and inhalation E.Average incubation in human is 1 week

E. Average incubation in human is 1 week

T/F: Mycoplasma is effectively treated with cell wall inhibiting antibiotics.

False

Which of the following interferes with phagocytosis of S. pyogenes? Hyaluronic acid capsule C5a peptidase M protein Protein G All of the answer choices are correct.

Hyaluronic acid capsule

Which is FALSE about pertussis toxin? It affects the level of mucus secretion. It affects the level of cAMP in a cell. It uses part A to inactivate G protein. It uses part B to attach to receptors on the host cell. It uses part A to attach to receptors on the host cell.

It uses part A to attach to receptors on the host cell.

The key virulence factor of S. pneumoniae interferes with the action of C3b. the action of C3. interferon. the action of C5a. All of the answer choices are correct.

the action of C3b.

Which is more likely to happen—antigenic DRIFT, or antigenic SHIFT—and why? Antigenic SHIFT, since infection with only a single virus strain is required, and the random mutations happen as the virus replicates in the infected person's cells. Antigenic DRIFT, since infection with only a single virus strain is required and random mutations occur more readily in this situation than if two virus strains are present. Antigenic SHIFT, since multiple viruses in a cell at once means more RNA polymerase to copy the RNA, and therefore more possibilities for mistakes to be made (leading to mutations). Antigenic drift and antigenic shift occur at the same frequency. Genetic change is just as likely to occur if one viral strain or more than one strain is/are present. Antigenic DRIFT, since infection with only a single virus strain is required, and the random mutations happen as the virus replicates in the infected person's cells.

Antigenic DRIFT, since infection with only a single virus strain is required, and the random mutations happen as the virus replicates in the infected person's cells.

A 15-year-old girl admitted to the hospital with a 2-day history of pharyngitis and vaginitis associated with vomiting and watery diarrhea. She was febrile and hypotensive on admission, with a diffuse erythematous rash over her entire body. Laboratory tests were consistent with acidosis, oliguria, and disseminated intravascular coagulation with severe thrombocytopenia. Her chest radiograph showed bilateral infiltrates suggestive of "shock lung." (edema, impaired perfusion, and reduction in alveolar space so that the alveoli collapse). She was admitted to the hospital intensive care unit where she was stabilized, and she improved gradually over a 17-day period. On the third day, fine desquamation started on her face, trunk, and extremities and progressed to peeling of the palms and soles by the 14th day. Bacteria and treatment?

Bacteria: Staphylococcus aureus Treatment: Methicillin, protective isolation, and exfoliation to prevent a secondary infection

A common causative agent of acute endocarditis is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B.Listeria monocytogenes C.Candida albicans D.Neisseria gonorrhea E.All of the choices are correct.

A. Staphylococcus aureus

A 41 year-old male firefighter was brought to the E.R. with third degree burns in 28% of his body. His vital signs were unstable blood pressure = 55/35; heart rate = 210 beats/min.; and respiratory rate = 40 breaths/min. He was deteriorating from circulatory failure. After his vital signs stabilized the patient was treated with topical broad spectrum antibiotic. Despite the treatment, some affected areas became necrotic and the patient developed sepsis. After 7 days of aggressive treatment with antibiotics the patient died. Bacteria and treatment?

** needs correct answer ** Bacteria: Treatment:

Match the disease with a characteristic portal of entry: 1. Skin - parenteral via bite trauma 2. GI tract - via tainted meat product ingestion 3. GI tract - via contaminated water ingestion 4. Respiratory tract - via aerosol 5. GI tract - via saliva exchange A. rabies B. mad cow disease C. cholera D. mononucleosis E. tuberculosis

A. rabies -- Skin - parenteral via bite trauma B. mad cow disease -- GI tract - via tainted meat product ingestion C. cholera -- GI tract - via contaminated water ingestion E. tuberculosis -- Respiratory tract - via aerosol D. mononucleosis -- GI tract - via saliva exchange

Match the zoonotic infection with its primary reservoir(s): A. Hantavirus B. Tularemia C. Influenza D. Toxoplasmosis E. Salmonella 1. birds, pigs 2. squirrels 3. cat 4. cattle, poultry, rodent, and reptile intestinal biota 5. mice

C. Influenza -- birds, pigs B. Tularemia -- squirrels D. Toxoplasmosis -- cat E. Salmonella -- cattle, poultry, rodent, and reptile intestinal biota A. Hantavirus -- mice

Which is true of hantavirus? Shock and death occur in 30% of the cases. It has three segments of single-stranded RNA. The primary effect is to flood the lungs with fluid. It is a zoonosis involving mice. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following locations pertaining to the GI tract has a large commensal population of microorganisms? A. Liver B. Pancreas C.Large intestine D.Small intestine E.Salivary glands

C. Large intestine

Acute endocarditis is most commonly contracted through: A.Fomites B.Casual contact C.Parenteral entry D.Ingestion E.Droplets

C. Parenteral entry

Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include: A. Vesicular lesions in oral mucosa B. Fever and pocks on skin C. Sore throat with pus coating, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly D. Fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis and retinitis E. None of the choices is correct

C. Sore throat with pus coating, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly

Influenza virus can exhibit constant mutation of viral glycoproteins, called ________, or __________, a more serious phenomenon caused by the exchange of a viral gene with that of another influenza virus strain. A. Antigenic drift, antigenic shift B. Antigenic shift, antigenic drift C. Antigenic drift, antigenic drift D. Antigen resistance, antigen cooperation E. None of these

A. Antigenic drift, antigenic shift drift is a small change, shift is big and serious.

When the center of a tubercle breaks down into a ________________, it gradually heals by calcification that forms a tuberculous cavity. A. Caseous necrosis B. Granuloma C. Primary lesion D. Tertiary E. Miliary tubercle

A. Caseous necrosis

Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of: A.Clostridium botulinum B.Clostridium perfringens C.Clostridium difficile D.Clostridium tetani E.All of the choices are correct.

A. Clostridium botulinum

The causative organism for mumps is: A. Paramyxovirus B.Corynebacterium C.Streptococcus pyogenes D.Vibrio E.Morbillivirus

A. Paramyxovirus

Which is true of viral conjunctivitis? A. Caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhea B. Caused by adenoviruses C. Caused by Moraxella D. Must be treated with topical and oral antibiotics E. Has a mucopurulent, milky discharge

B. Caused by adenoviruses

All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis except: A. Virulence factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease B. Common cause of bacterial pneumonia C. Causes the most serious form of acute meningitis D. Causes formation of petechiae E. More easily transmitted in schools, day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks

B. Common cause of bacterial pneumonia

Which drugs interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus? A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. Protease inhibitors C. Fusion Inhibitors D. Integrase inhibitors E. All of the choices are correct

B. Protease inhibitors They stop the virions from maturing

The most common type of virus leading to rhinitis is: A. Herpes simplex virus B. Rhinovirus C. Retrovirus D. Coronavirus E. Adenovirus

B. Rhinovirus

Match the term to the description: A. hepatitis B. enterotoxin C. cariogenic D. eosinophilia E. definitive host 1. A bacterial toxin that specifically targets intestinal mucous membrane cells. 2. The organism in which a parasite develops into its adult or sexually mature stage. 3. Inflammation and necrosis of the liver, often the result of viral infection. 4. Conducive to the production or promotion of dental decay. 5. An increase in eosinophil concentration in the bloodstream, often in response to helminth infection.

B. enterotoxin -- A bacterial toxin that specifically targets intestinal mucous membrane cells. E. definitive host -- The organism in which a parasite develops into its adult or sexually mature stage. A. hepatitis -- Inflammation and necrosis of the liver, often the result of viral infection. C. cariogenic -- Conducive to the production or promotion of dental decay. D. eosinophilia -- An increase in eosinophil concentration in the bloodstream, often in response to helminth infection.

Match the disease with its characteristic, defining symptom: 1. Brucellosis 2. Plague 3. Lyme disease 4. Trypanosomiasis 5. Mumps A. uncontrollable sleepiness B. undulating fever C. buboes D. bull's eye rash E. parotitis

B. undulating fever -- Brucellosis C. buboes -- Plague D. bull's eye rash -- Lyme disease A. uncontrollable sleepiness -- Trypanosomiasis E. parotitis -- Mumps

A 63-year-old man farmer living in Florida who had a 4-day history of fever, myalgias, and malaise without localizing symptoms is brought to the regional hospital because he awoke from sleep with fever, emesis, and confusion. On physical examination, he had a temperature of 39° C, blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg, pulse of 110, and respirations were 18/minute. No respiratory distress was noted. Treatment was initiated for presumed bacterial meningitis. Basilar infiltrates and a widened mediastinum were noted on the initial chest radiograph. The Gram stain of CSF revealed many neutrophils and large gram-positive rods. During the first day of hospitalization, the patient had a grand mal seizure and was intubated. On the second hospital day, hypotension and azotemia (reduced kidney function) developed, with subsequent renal failure. On the third hospital day, refractory hypotension developed, and the patient had a fatal cardiac arrest. Bacteria and treatment?

Bacteria: Bacillus anthracis (anthrax) Treatment: 60-day course of ciprofloxacin and doxycycline

A 6-week-old infant boy is brought to the hospital with a 10-day history of choking spells. His mother states he has had a repetitive cough, and is wheezing, turning red, and gasping for air. Following the coughing spells, the infant boy often vomits as well. A chest radiograph reveals his trachea is normal and clear, but his white blood cell count is up to 15,500/µL with 70% lymphocytes. Bacteria and treatment?

Bacteria: Bordetella pertussis (whooping cough) Treatment: Azithromycin, erythromycin, and an acellular combined vaccine

A female patient presents at her primary care physician complaining of pain in her groin. On examination, she is found to have enlarged inguinal lymph nodes and painless lesions around her genitalia and anus. She is also 5 months pregnant. Questioning reveals that her boyfriend has recently returned from a vacation to see his family in Venezuela. She is very distressed and fears for the baby. A diagnosis was made on the basis of positive serology to the serotypes of this non-motile, gram-negative, intracellular bacterium. Bacteria and treatment?

Bacteria: Chlamydia trachomatis (chlamydia) Treatment: Tetracycline and erythromycin for both sex partners

A 48-year-old Chinese national developed a sore throat while on a week-long trade mission in rural Haiti. Two days after he returned home to Chongquing, he visited a local hospital with complaints of a sore throat and difficulties in swallowing. He was treated with oral antibiotics but returned two days later with chills, sweating, difficulty swallowing and breathing, nausea, and vomiting. He had diminished breath sounds in the left lung, and radiographs confirmed pulmonary infiltrates, as well as enlargement of the epiglottis. Laryngoscopy revealed yellow exudates on the tonsils, posterior pharynx, and soft palate. He was admitted to the intensive care unit, treated with antibiotics and steroids but over the next 4 days became hypotensive with a low-grade fever. By the eighth day of illness, a chest radiograph showed infiltrates in the right and left lung bases, and a white exudate and a pseudomembrane was observed over the supraglottic structures. Bacteria and Treamtent?

Bacteria: Corynebacterium diphtheriae (diphtheria) Treatment: Antitoxin, penicillin or erythromycin, and a vaccine

A 62-year-old Navajo potter came to the emergency department because of a fever of 40° C, lumbar pain, nausea, vomiting, and loose, runny stools. The patient exhibited a non-productive cough and reported severe shortness of breath ('like an elephant sitting on her chest'). She reports that the symptoms began a few days after cleaning out a storage shed on her property to expand her studio space. Her respiratory rate was 18 breaths/min, and her blood pressure was 85/55 mm Hg. Chest radiographic examination showed extensive infiltrates in the left lower lung that involved both the lower lobe and the lingula. Bacteria and treatment?

Bacteria: Hantavirus Treatment: No proven treatment is available

A 52 year old man is hospitalized after complaints of nausea, vomiting and a strange constant feeling of fullness (patient belches continuously during physical exam). Upon an examination of his medical records, the medical staff finds he has a peptic ulcer that was not being treated due to lack of symptoms. A noninvasive urease test was performed and was found to be positive confirming their suspicions. Bacteria and treatment?

Bacteria: Helicobacter pylori Treatment: Proton pump inhibitor (suppresses stomach acid production), macrolide and beta-lactam antibiotics

A 17-year-old girl was admitted to the hospital with a 4-day history of fever, chills, malaise, sore throat, skin rash, and polyarthralgia. She reported being sexually active and a 5-week history of a profuse yellowish/greenish vaginal discharge, which was untreated. Upon presentation, she had erythematous maculopapular skin rash over her forearm, thigh, and ankle, and her metacarpophalangeal joint, wrist, knee, ankle, and midtarsal joints were acutely inflamed. She had an elevated leukocyte count and sedimentation rate.

Bacteria: Neisseria gonorrhea Treatment: Recommended cephalosporin antibiotics and condoms

In late 2011, 200 cases were associated with an outbreak at a fundraiser in Los Angeles which took place at the Playboy Mansion. All individuals had symptoms of fever, chills, myalgia, malaise, and headaches. The source of the outbreak was shown to be the heating system for the hot tub and swimming pool. Bacteria and treatment?

Bacteria: Pseudomonas aeruginosa Treatment: High dose intravenous fluoroquinolones or imipenem, debridemen

A 31 year old male presented to the local ER in late summer and immediately passed a large watery stool with "rice water" appearance. He then vomited several times and became slightly sweaty. After consulting the patient, it was determined he had just returned to U.S. from a 3 week long ecotourism trek to the Madre de Dios region of the Peruvian amazon. On the second day home, GI symptoms started with sudden onset of severe, profuse, watery diarrhea. He also experienced muscle cramps, dizziness. Bacteria and treatment?

Bacteria: Vibrio cholerae (cholera) Treatment: Oral rehydration therapy

A bacteriophage is necessary for toxin production in E. coli. Staphylococcus aureus. Streptococcus pyogenes. Corynebacterium diphtheriae. All of the answer choices are correct.

Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

Each of the following is associated with pneumonic plague except: A. Can progress to a septicemia B. Patient has fever, headache, nausea, pneumonia C. Transmitted by respiratory droplets D. Severe internal hemorrhaging E. Caused by Yersinia pestis

D. Severe internal hemorrhaging

All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except that it is: A. associated with disruption of normal flora due to broad spectrum antimicrobials B. the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals C. often from an endogenous source D. due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies E. a colitis that is a superinfection

D. due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies

Bacteria which are suppurative or purulent and pus-forming are: A. parenteric B. paraplegic C. pandemic D. pyogenic E. Pyrogenic

D. pyogenic

Match the disease with the specific technique used for diagnosis: A. stool sample B. chest X-ray C. throat culture D. skin biopsy E. blood smear 1. Hansen's disease 2. Amoebic dysentery 3. Pharyngitis 4. Malaria 5. Tuberculosis

D. skin biopsy -- Hansen's disease A. stool sample -- Amoebic dysentery C. throat culture -- Pharyngitis E. blood smear -- Malaria B. chest X-ray -- Tuberculosis

All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis except: A. Transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated water B. Can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever and nausea C. Caused by Poliovirus (genus Enterovirus) D. If virus enters the central nervous system motor, neurons can be infected and destroyed E. Summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing

E. Summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing

The normal biota of the CNS consists of: A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Herpes simplex I C. Herpes simplex II D. Streptococcus agalactiae E. The CNS has no normal biota

E. The CNS has no normal biota

One virulence factor of Listeria monocytogenes is the ability to: A. release lactic acid B. produce abundant, branching hyphae C. lyse RBCs D. form endospores E. grow inside host cells

E. grow inside host cells

In which disease are monoclonal antibodies against PA protein used as treatment? Legionellosis Influenza Inhalation anthrax Pneumococcal pneumonia Pertussis

Inhalation anthrax

Why did it take so long to understand that L. pneumophila is the cause of a respiratory tract infection? It has fastidious growth requirements and is difficult to culture. It is extremely small and can only be detected using electron microscopy AND it is extremely rare in nature and is seldom present in a population. It has fastidious growth requirements and is difficult to culture AND it stains poorly and is difficult to detect. It stains poorly and is difficult to detect. It is extremely rare in nature and is seldom present in a population.

It has fastidious growth requirements and is difficult to culture AND it stains poorly and is difficult to detect.

Which of the following is a virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes? Endotoxin AND pili Capsule M protein AND pili M protein AND capsule M protein

M protein AND capsule

Which of the following most accurately describes the pathogenesis of inhalation anthrax? EF and LF bind to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows PA to enter the cells, where it disrupts critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. LF binds to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows EF or PA to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. PA and EF bind to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows LF to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. PA binds to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows EF or LF to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema. EF binds to host cell membranes, forming a pore that allows PA or LF to enter the cells, where they disrupt critical cell functions. This triggers a series of events that cause death of the cell resulting in pulmonary edema.

Which antibiotics may be completely ineffective in treating a mycoplasmal infection? Erythromycin AND tetracycline Penicillin AND cephalosporin Cephalosporin AND erythromycin Penicillin AND tetracycline Tetracycline AND cephalosporin

Penicillin AND cephalosporin

Which of the following is specifically associated with diphtheria? Microhemorrhages General malaise Pseudomembrane in throat Fever and sore throat Widespread rash

Pseudomembrane in throat

Which step(s) of phagocytosis are avoided by Streptococcus pyogenes? Recruitment of phagocytes AND phagolysosome formation Phagolysosome formation Recruitment of phagocytes AND recognition and attachment Phagolysosome formation AND lysis Phototaxis AND recognition and attachment

Recruitment of phagocytes AND recognition and attachment

Match each term with its description: A. arbovirus B. Koplik spots C. exanthema subitum D. trachoma E. hydrophobia 1. Roseola, a viral childhood rash. 2. characteristic symptom of rabies rhabdovirus infection triggered by pain associated with swallowing water. 3. Transmitted via an arthropod insect vector. 4. A Chlamydia antigenic type causes this serious infection of the eye. 5. Bucchal mucosa membrane lesions typical of paramyxovirus infection.

Roseola, a viral childhood rash. = exanthema subitum characteristic symptom of rabies rhabdovirus infection triggered by pain associated with swallowing water. = hyrdrophobia Transmitted via an arthropod insect vector. = arbovirus Bucchal mucosa membrane lesions typical of paramyxovirus infection.= Koplik spots Chlamydia antigenic type causes this serious infection of the eye = trachoma

The best way to speed up recovery from a common cold is to take 1,000 mg of vitamin C every day during the illness. Vitamin C destroys cold viruses. let the immune system do its job. Several of the treatments listed may actually increase the recovery time. to dose the patient with ibuprofen to keep the fever down. Reducing fever speeds up recovery. to take decongestants as a means of alleviating the symptoms of the cold. take an antibiotic such as penicillin that will rid the body of the cold virus.

let the immune system do its job. Several of the treatments listed may actually increase the recovery time.

Virulence factors used by S. pyogenes include all of the following EXCEPT protein G. M protein. a capsule. lipopolysaccharide protein F.

lipopolysaccharide

Effective preventive methods for avoiding the common cold include all of the following EXCEPT not touching one's face. hand washing. avoiding crowds. avoiding close contact with people with colds. prophylactic antibiotics.

prophylactic antibiotics.

The rhinovirus contains single-stranded RNA and and is a retrovirus. single-stranded RNA and and is a non-enveloped virus. single-stranded RNA and is an enveloped virus. double-stranded RNA and is a non-enveloped virus. double-stranded RNA and is an enveloped virus.

single-stranded RNA and and is a non-enveloped virus.

Why is legionellosis not treated with β-lactam medications? The causative organism produces β-lactamases, so is resistant to many of these medications AND the causative organism is acid-fast, so has mycolic acids and waxes in the cell wall that β-lactams cannot penetrate. The medication must be able to accumulate within alveolar macrophages to be effective, which β-lactam antibiotics do poorly AND the causative organism produces β-lactamases, so is resistant to many of these medications. The causative organism produces β-lactamases, so is resistant to many of these medications. The medication must be able to accumulate within alveolar macrophages to be effective, which β-lactam antibiotics do poorly. The causative organism is acid-fast, so has mycolic acids and waxes in the cell wall that β-lactams cannot penetrate AND the causative organism produces endospores so is highly resistant to these medications

Why would it be reasonable to treat strep throat but not diphtheria with antibacterial antibiotics? The signs and symptoms of diphtheria are mostly caused by the exotoxin produced by the causative agent. An antibiotic won't affect the exotoxin. The causative agent of diphtheria is pleomorphic and does not have a cell wall. There are thus no antibiotics that would be effective against this organism. The causative agent of diphtheria is a virus, not a bacterium. The drug would have no effect against this infectious agent. The signs and symptoms of strep throat are mostly from the exotoxin produced by the causative agent. An antibiotic effectively eliminates these exotoxins. There are no antibiotics that have proven effective against the bacterium that causes diphtheria.

The signs and symptoms of diphtheria are mostly caused by the exotoxin produced by the causative agent. An antibiotic won't affect the exotoxin.

T/F: Humans are the only source of the cold virus.

True

Which of the following statements about otitis media is FALSE? It is usually preceded by infections of the nasal cavity and upper pharynx. Using decongestants and antihistamines to treat otitis media is generally very effective. The causative organisms may form a biofilm, leading to chronic infections. It may sometimes spread to the membranes covering the brain, causing meningitis. Otitis media during the "flu" season can be decreased by giving the flu vaccine to infants in day-care facilities.

Using decongestants and antihistamines to treat otitis media is generally very effective.

The virulence of Klebsiella is due partly to the antiphagocytic properties of their capsules. structure and organization of flagella. structure of their pili AND exotoxin produced. motility of the organism AND exotoxin produced. exotoxin produced AND antiphagocytic properties of their capsules.

antiphagocytic properties of their capsules.

The RADT and throat culture are both negative for Streptococcus pyogenes, the causative agent of strep throat. The doctor tells you that your son likely has an adenoviral respiratory tract infection. Adenoviruses are resistant to destruction by detergents and alcohol solutions. This indicates that these viruses are enveloped viruses. are also resistant to multiple antibiotics. are endospore-formers. are double-stranded RNA viruses. are non-enveloped viruses.

are non-enveloped viruses.

The conjuctivae are populated with S. pyogenes. have few resident bacteria. are protected by IgE. are populated with S. aureus. are often covered with bacteria.

have few resident bacteria.

The doctor checks your son's throat and notes that he has has gray-white pus on the pharynx and tonsils. He also has enlarged lymph nodes in his neck. This suggests to the doctor that your son has the bacterial infection ________, which he attempts to confirm by ________. strep throat; doing a rapid antigen detection test (RADT) and throat culture. tuberculosis; doing a throat culture and rapid TB skin test. legionellosis; performing a mantoux skin test and a chest x-ray. pneumococcal pneumonia; doing a rapid antigen detection test (RADT) and throat culture. mycoplasmal pneumonia; performing a mantoux skin test and doing a throat culture.

strep throat; doing a rapid antigen detection test (RADT) and throat culture.

You ask the doctor whether there is a vaccine that your children can be given to prevent further adenoviral infections. He tells you there is a vaccine against two adenovirus serotypes but this is only given to healthcare personnel BUT that adenovirus infections are easily treated with antibiotics. it is not possible to synthesize vaccines for preventing diseases caused by RNA viruses BUT there is a vaccine against two adenovirus serotypes but this is only given to military recruits AND that adenovirus infections can mostly be avoided by handwashing. that there is no need for a vaccine because your son can be treated with antibiotics AND that adenovirus infections can be avoided by handwashing. it is not possible to generate vaccines against any double-stranded DNA viruses AND that adenovirus infections can be avoided by handwashing.

there is a vaccine against two adenovirus serotypes but this is only given to military recruits AND that adenovirus infections can mostly be avoided by handwashing.

Unit 4 Qbank, Microbiology

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