Unit 6: AP classroom questions

Which of the following best explains a process occurring between point 1 and point 2 in Figure 3 ?

A poly‑A tail is added to RNA.

Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a progressive genetic disease that causes persistent lung infections and affects the ability to breathe. CF is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, caused by the presence of mutations in both copies of the gene for the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein. Partial nucleotide sequences and the corresponding amino acid sequences for an unaffected individual and an affected individual are modeled in Figure 1. Based on the information in Figure 1, which type of mutation explains the nature of the change in DNA that resulted in cystic fibrosis in the affected individual?

Deletion, because a thymine is missing, which changes the reading frame.

Scientists conducted a transformation experiment using E. coli bacteria and the pTru plasmid. Samples of the pTru plasmid (lane A) and the chromosomal DNA from two different E. coli strains that the scientists attempted to transform (lane B and lane C) were compared using gel electrophoresis. The results are shown in Figure 1. Which of the following statements best explains the experimental results observed in Figure 1 ?

E. coli in lane C have been successfully transformed and contain additional genetic information.

Labeled nucleotides were supplied to a cell culture before the cells began DNA replication. A simplified representation of the process for a short segment of DNA is shown in Figure 1. Labeled DNA bases are indicated with an asterisk (*).Which of the following best helps explain how the process represented in Figure 1 produces DNA. DNA molecules that are hybrids of the original and the newly synthesized strands?

Each newly synthesized strand remains associated with its template strand to form two copies of the original DNA molecule.

A simplified model of a DNA replication fork is represented in Figure 1. The protein labeled Enzyme 1 carries out a specific role in the DNA replication process. Which of the following statements best explains the role of Enzyme 1 in the DNA replication process?

Enzyme 1 is a topoisomerase that relieves tension in the overwound DNA in front of a replication fork.

Nucleotide base pairing in DNA is universal across organisms. Each pair (T−A; C−G) consists of a purine and a pyrimidine. Which of the following best explains how the base pairs form?

Hydrogen bonds join a double-ringed structure to a single-ringed structure in each pair.

Figure 1. DNA replication bubble. Which of the following best explains how this model illustrates DNA replication of both strands as a replication fork moves?

I is synthesized continuously in the 5′ to 3′ direction, and III is synthesized in segments in the 5′ to 3′ direction.

Which of the following claims best explains why keratinocytes do not produce melanin?

Keratinocytes do not express the MITF gene.

Which of the following best explains how the pattern of DNA arrangement in chromosomes could be used, in most cases, to determine if an organism was a prokaryote or a eukaryote?

Prokaryotic DNA: single circular chromosome; Eukaryotic DNA: Multiple linear chromosomes

All cells must transcribe rRNA in order to construct a functioning ribosome. Scientists have isolated and identified rRNA genes that contribute to ribosomal structure for both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Figure 1 compares the transcription and processing of prokaryotic and eukaryotic rRNA. Which of the following statements provides the best explanation of the processes illustrated in Figure 1 ?

Sections of the pre-rRNA are removed, and the mature rRNA molecules are available to combine with proteins to form the ribosomal subunits.

Huntington's disease, an autosomal dominant disorder, is caused by a mutation in the HTT gene. The HTT gene contains multiple repeats of the nucleotide sequence CAG. A person with fewer than 35 CAG repeats in the HTT gene is unlikely to show the neurological symptoms of Huntington's disease. A person with 40 or more CAG repeats almost always becomes symptomatic. Due to errors in meiosis, an individual without symptoms of Huntington's disease can produce gametes with a larger number of CAG repeats than there are in their somatic cells. A woman develops Huntington's disease. Her father had the disorder. Her mother did not, and there is no history of the disorder in the mother's family. Which of the following best explains how the woman inherited Huntington's disease?

She inherited an allele with more than 40 CAG repeats in the HTT gene from her father.

Based on the information provided in Figure 1 and Figure 2, which of the following best predicts the effects of a mutation in the promoter of the TYR gene that prevents it from being transcribed?

Skin pigmentation will not be able to change, resulting in a negative selection pressure.

Which claim is most consistent with the information provided by the diagram and current scientific understanding of gene regulation and expression?

Some sequences of DNA can interact with regulatory proteins that control transcription.

An evolutionary biologist hypothesizes that two morphologically similar plant species are not closely related. To test the hypothesis, the biologist collects DNA samples from each of the two plant species and then uses restriction enzymes to cut the DNA samples into fragments, which are then subjected to gel electrophoresis. The results are shown in Figure 1. Given the results shown in Figure 1, which of the following correctly describes a relationship between the two species?

Species B has more short fragments of DNA than species A does.

In mammals, the dark color of skin, hair, and eyes is due to a pigment called melanin. Melanin is produced by specialized skin cells called melanocytes. The melanin is then transferred to other skin cells called keratinocytes. Melanocytes synthesize melanin in a multistep metabolic pathway (Figure 1). The amount of melanin produced is dependent on the amount of the enzymes TYR, TRP2, and TRP1 present inside melanocytes. Figure 1. Melanin synthesis pathway The peptide hormone α-melanocyte stimulating hormone (α-MSH) activates a signal transduction pathway leading to the activation of MITF. MITF is a transcription factor that increases the expression of the TYR, TRP2, and TRP1 genes (Figure 2).Some mammals increase melanin production in response to ultraviolet (UV) radiation. The UV radiation causes damage to DNA in keratinocytes, which activates the p53 protein. p53 increases the expression of the POMC gene. The POMC protein is then cleaved to produce α-MSH. The keratinocytes secrete α-MSH, which signals nearby melanocytes. The increased melanin absorbs UV radiation, reducing further DNA damage. Which of the following claims about the TYR, TRP2, and TRP1 mammalian genes is most likely to be accurate?

The TYR, TRP2, and TRP1 genes may be located on different chromosomes but are activated by the same transcription factor.

Eukaryotes transcribe RNA from DNA that contains introns and exons. Alternative splicing is one posttranscriptional modification that can create distinct mature mRNA molecules that lead to the production of different proteins from the same gene. Figure 1 shows a gene and the RNA produced after transcription and after alternative splicing. A cell needs to metabolize the substrate illustrated in Figure 1 for a vital cellular function. Which of the following best explains the long-term effect on the cell of splicing that yields only enzyme C mRNA?

The cell will die because it is unable to metabolize the substrate without enzyme A, which is structurally specific for the substrate shown.

Lynch syndrome is an inherited condition associated with an increased risk for colon cancer, as well as certain other cancers. Mutations in one of several genes involved in DNA repair during DNA replication have been associated with Lynch syndrome. DNA sequencing was performed for an individual. The results indicated that the individual carries one of the dominant alleles that has been associated with Lynch syndrome. Which of the following best explains how the results should be interpreted?

The individual has an increased risk of developing colon cancer.

Researchers discovered a mutant form of the TYR gene with a deletion of a single guanine nucleotide in the beginning of the coding sequence. Which of the following best predicts the phenotype of an individual who is homozygous for this TYR mutation?

The mutation will change all subsequent amino acids in the TYR protein, leading to nonfunctional TYR protein. Individuals with this mutation will lack melanin in their hair, skin, and eyes and will not tan in response to UV radiation.

Retroviruses such as HIV and hepatitis B virus use RNA as their genetic material rather than DNA. In addition, they contain molecules of reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that uses an RNA template to synthesize complementary DNA. Which of the following best predicts what will happen when a normal cell is exposed to a retrovirus?

The reverse transcriptase will produce DNA from the viral RNA, which can be incorporated into the host's genome and then transcribed and translated.

Exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation is the leading cause of skin cancer in humans. Figure 1 shows a model of how UV exposure damages DNA. Figure 1. Model of damage to DNADNA caused by UVUV exposure Which of the following statements best explains what is shown in Figure 1 ?

UV photons cause dimers to form, leading to misshapen DNA, which results in replication and transcription errors.

Mice have melanocytes in the skin on their ears and show a tanning response to UV radiation. Researchers were studying a mutant population of mice that do not show a tanning response. Genetic testing of these mutant mice showed that the pathway causing the production of α-MSH by keratinocytes in response to UV radiation was fully functional. Thus, the researchers claimed that the lack of tanning response was due a nonfunctional MC1R. Which of the following pieces of evidence would best support the researchers' claim above?

When researchers applied a drug that activates adenylyl cyclase to the mutant mice's ears, the level of melanin increased.

Small single-stranded RNA molecules called microRNAs (miRNAs) are capable of base pairing with specific binding sites in the 3′3′ untranslated region of many mRNA transcripts. Transcription of gene Q yields an mRNA transcript that contains such an miRNA binding site, which can associate with miRNA‑delta, a specific miRNA molecule. Which of the following best supports the claim that binding of miRNA‑delta to the miRNA binding site inhibits translation of gene Q mRNA?

When the miRNA binding site sequence is altered, translation of Q mRNA occurs in the presence of miRNA-delta.

The trp operon in E. coli is an example of a repressible operon that consists of genes coding for enzymes used to synthesize tryptophan. When tryptophan levels are high, the operon is turned off and these genes are not transcribed. However, it is also known that tryptophan does not bind directly to the operator DNADNA sequence. A regulatory gene called trpR has also been discovered although it is not part of the trp operon. The proposed model of how tryptophan acts as a corepressor is shown in Figure 1. Which of the following evidence best supports a claim that tryptophan functions as a corepressor?

When trpR is mutated, the trp operon is transcribed regardless of tryptophan levels.

Cycloheximide (CHX) is a eukaryote protein synthesis inhibitor. It is used in biomedical research to inhibit protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells studied in vitro. Its effects are rapidly reversed by simply removing it from the culture medium. In a translation experiment using a fungus culture, radiolabeled amino acids were added to the culture, allowing the researchers to measure the growth of a single polypeptide chain by measuring counts per minute (CPM). As the chain grew, the CPM increased. After a certain amount of time, CHX was added to the mixture, and the experiment continued. After an additional amount of time, the CHX was removed from the culture medium. Which of the following graphs best predicts the data collected during the experiment?

increase, stop, increase