VTNE Clinical Laboratory Review

With respect to immunology, tolerance means A. the number of white blood cells that respond, expressed as a percentage B. a blistering of the skin C. inflammation on the upper respiratory tract D. the lack of responsiveness by the immune system

D. the lack of responsiveness by the immune system

For cytologic evaluation of urine, which of the following conditions should be observed? A. the specimen should be refrigerated as soon as possible B. the specimen should be contrifuged as soon as possible C. the specimen may sit at room temperature for up to 6 hours D. the specimen may be frozen for later analysis

D. the specimen may be frozen for later analysis

When referring to the alteration of bilirubin in the liver, the verb conjugation means A. to break apart in equal parts B. to precipitate C. to become pigmented D. to join together

D. to join together

It is most difficult to find antimicrobials for A. molds B. bacteria C. rickettsia D. viruses

D. viruses

Which of the RBC indices indicates cell size? A. MCH B. MCHC C. MCV D. MPV

C. MCV

An anomaly may be defined as A. the breakage of two chromosomes resulting in repair in an abnormal arrangment B. all or part of a chromosome is missing C. any deviation from normal D. an alternate form of a gene

C. any deviation from normal

Approximately what % of the total erythrocyte mass is replaced every day in healthy mammals under normal circumstances? A. 1% B. 10% C. 20% D. 30%

A. 1%

Decrease in albumin may occur in A. chronic liver disease B. a carnivorous diet C. gastroenteritis D. a vegetarian diet

A. chronic liver disease

Electrolytes are commonly measured by what method? A. ion specific electrodes B. refractometry C. absorption D. enymatic digestion

A. ion specific electrodes

Staphylococcus aureus A. is catalase positive B. is coagulase negative C. grows in an anaerobic environment only D. is gram negative

A. is catalase positive

Mesothelial cells are cells that A. line the pleural, peritoneal, and visceral surfaces B. are square with sually one round to oval nucleus C. line blood and lymph vessels D. are sqamous with blue to purple oval inclusions

A. line the pleural, peritoneal, and visceral surfaces

What microorganism is an etiologic agent of ringworm? A. microsporum sp. B. mycobacterium sp. C. micrococcus sp. D. moraxella sp.

A. microsporum sp.

ALT is also known as A. AST B. SGPT C. SGOT D. GTT

B. SGPT

MCHC is expressed in A. percent B. g/dL C. mg/dL D. mg/L

B. g/dL

Which of the following is an important function of bacterial flagella? A. attachment B. locomotion C. DNA replication D. ion transport

B. locomotion

Compared to bacteria, fungi A. grow better at alkaline pH B. need less moisture to survive C. Are less resistant to osmotic pressure D. are smaller

B. need less moisture to survive

The average urine specific gravity for a healthy adult cat is A. 1.025 B. 1.030 C. 1.035 D. 1.040

B. 1.030

Which of the following combinations of objective lenses is the best for hematology work? A. 10x, 40x, 50x B. 10x, 40x, 100x C. 40x, 50x, 100x D. 40x, 100x, 150x

B. 10x, 40x, 100x

According to the Punnett square, in a cross of Bb X Bb, the F1 generations will be made up of A. 25% and 75%, or 1:3 B. 25%, 50%, and 25%, or 1:2:1 C. 25%, 25%, 25%, and 25%, or 1:1:1:1 D. 20%, 30%, and 50%, or 1:1:2

B. 25%, 50%, and 25%, or 1:2:1

The species of thsi genus are common contaminants and the causative agent of anthrax A. escherichia B. corynebacterium C. bacillus D. enterobacter

C. bacillus

Which of the following cells are cytplasmic granules that stain blue to blue black and gray blue cytoplasm, often with small vacuoles? A. neutrophil B. small lymphocyte C. basophil D. eosinophil

C. basophil

Undulating fever is a zoonotic disease caused by: A. listeria species B. toxoplasma species C. brucella species D. hemophilus species

C. brucella species

Triplicate soy agar A. contains 25% sheep blood B. is a nutritive media C. is used for observation of bacterial fermentation reactions D. is also called choclate agar plate

B. is a nutritive media

The platelets of what spcies tend to clump easily? A. dogs B. horses C. cats D. cows

C. cats

The best urine sample forculture is a A. bladder expression sample B. metabolism cage collection C. cystocentesis sample D. voided sample

C. cystocentesis sample

Papnicolaou stains are specialized stains used in which of the following procedures? A. red blood cell evaluation B. platelet evaluation C. cytologic evaluation D. parasitic evaluation

C. cytologic evaluation

What deprivation tests should never be performed on patients with: A. high MCV B. suspected sufficient ADH C. dehydration D. suspected tubular malfunction

C. dehydration

Hemolysins A. coagulate blood B. break down fibrin C. destroy red blood cells D. indicate a viral infection

C. destroy red blood cells

The most important laboratory procedure for microbiologic diagnosis is A. incoluation of blood agar B. antimicrobial susceptibility testing C. direct microscopic examination of a specimen D. serologic testing

C. direct microscopic examination of a specimen

What family of bacteria is the largest group of potential pathogens and the most frequently isolated bactera? A. actinomycetacae B. bacteroidacae C. enterobacteriacaeae D. micrococcaceae

C. enterobacteriacaeae

Casts seen in urine sediment are A. mucous threads filled with amorphous sediment B. always significant C. formed in the renal tubules D. artifacts

C. formed in the renal tubules

Lyophilization is A. holding at 72 degree C for 15 seconds B. competitive inhibition C. freeze-drying D. sterility testing

C. freeze-drying

In the name Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus is the A. order B. family C. genus D. species

C. genus

Normal voided urine is clear, except in which of the following species? A. dogs B. cats C. horses D. cows

C. horses

An increased amount of ___ seen on a stined peripheral blood smear is a sign of RBC regeneration A. hypochrmasia B. crenation C. howell jolly bodies D. dohle bodies

C. howell jolly bodies

The type of immunity that is the function of B cells that transform into plasma cells and produce protective proteins, called antibodies against antigens is A. cell mediated B. autoimmunity C. humoral D. anaphylaxis

C. humoral

A prodromal period A. is the time before signs and symptoms appear B. immediately precedes convalescence C. involves early signs and symptoms D. involves acute signs and symptoms

C. involves early signs and stymptoms

IgA A. is a class of antibody that possesses 10 antigen-binding sites B. makes up approximately 80% of the antibody pool in plasma C. is found in body secretions D. is found on lymphocyte membranes

C. is found in body secretions

Dermatophytes test medium A. is used to identify organisms that produce hemolysis B. will grow gram positive organisms only C. is used to identify fungal pathogens D. will grow gram negative organisms only

C. is used to identify fungal pathogens

The presence of protein in the urine may indicate A. acid base imbalance B. hemolytic anemia C. kidney disease D. diabetes mellitus

C. kidney disease

Basophilic stippling may be seen in erythocytes of patients with which of the following pathologic conditions? A. hypersegmented neutrophils B. iron deficiency C. lead poisoning D. vitamin c toxicity

C. lead poisoning

What blood chemistry test is not a test for liver damage? A. ALT B. GGT C. lipase D. bile acids

C. lipase

Monocytes typically have A. segmented nuclei B. band shaped nuclei C. loblar nuclei D. no nuclei

C. loblar nuclei

An attenuated antigen is a ___ antigen A. dead B. multivalent C. modified D. transferred

C. modified

Which of the following cells is usually associated with a chronic infection or inflammation? A. lymphocytes B. neutrophils C. monocytes D. eosinophils

C. monocytes

The intermediate host for heartworms is: A. flea B. rodent C. mosquito D. snail

C. mosquito

What cells are phagocytic? A. granulocytes B. lymphocytes C. neutrophils and macrophages D. macrophages and lymphocytes

C. neutrophils and macrophages

Tetanus is considered A. endemic B. contagious C. noncommunicable D. epizoonotic

C. noncommunicable

Which one of these would not affect a manual WBC count? A. condenser in the farthest up position B. length of time that the hemocytometer has been loaded C. objective lens used D. mini clots in the blood

C. objective lense used

What gram negative bacteria may "swarm" a blood agar plate, leaving a film all over the entire surface? A. pseudomonas sp. B. staphylococcus sp. C. proteus sp. D. escherichia coli

C. proteus sp.

The most common portal of entry for microorganisms into the body is: A. skin B. gastrointestinal tract C. respiratory tract D. genitourinary tract

C. respiratory tract

What is the most immatur erythrocyte? A. rubricyte B. metarubricyte C. rubriblast D. reticulocyte

C. rubriblast

The third line of defense against foregin invaders in the body is A. agglutination B. inflammation C. specific immunity D. interferon production

C. specific immunity

Which of these is not a sign of RBC regeneration? A. polychromasia B. nuclear remnants C. spherocytes D. anisocytosis with macrocytosis

C. spherocytes

The humoral immune system involves A. monocytes B. b cells C. T cells D. erythrocytes

C. t cells

If a homozygous polled bull were mated to a heterozygous polled cow, and the gene for horns was an X-linked dominant gene, the expected results would be which of the following? A. 1:2:1, or 25%, 50%, and 25% B. 2:2, or 50% and 50% C. 1:3, or 25% and 75% D. 1:1:1:1, or 25%, 25%, 25%, and 25%

D. 1:1:1:1, or 25%, 25%, 25%, and 25%

The temerature that must be reached in an autoclave to destroy microorganisms is A. 110C B. 121C C. 170C D. 240C

D. 240C

Most bacteria grow best at pH A. 1 B. 3 C. 9 D. 7

D. 7

What percentage of the glomeruli in both kidneys must be nonfunctional before serum chemistry changes indicate renal disease? A. 10% B. 20% C. 50% D. 70%

D. 70%

What percentage of the bodys calcium is in the bone? A. 49% B. 59% C. 79% D. 99%

D. 99%

Avian WBC counts can be determined indirectly by using what Unopette? A. WBC B. platelet C. RBC D. eosinophil

D. eosinophil

Determination of which one of these is useful in the detection of inflammatory processes? A. total protein B. hemtocrit C. RBC morphology D. fibrinogen

D. fibrinogen

Urine crystals are estimated as the average per A. high power field B. low power field C. medium power field D. oil immersion field

B. low power field

IgE A. is a class of antibody that possesses 10 antigen-binding sites B. makes up approximately 80% of the antibody pool in plasma C. is found on lymphocyte membranes D. functions to boost local inflammation reactions

D. functions to boost local inflammation reactions

What is not a type o coccidia? A. isospora B. Toxoplasma C. Cryptosporidium D. giardia

D. giardia

Which of these would not b eassociated with ketones in the urine? A. diabetes mellitus B. lactating cows C. starvation D. hemolysis

D. hemolysis

What immunoglobulin is usually present in greatest quantity? A. igA B. igD C. igE D. igG

D. igG

IgD A. is a class of antibody that possesses 10 antigen-binding sites B. makes up approximately 80% of the antibody pool in plasma C. is found in body secretions D. is found on lymphocyte membranes

D. is found on lymphocyte membranes

Which of the following is considered sterile? A. hair B. skin C. salival D. lower respiratory tract

D. lower respiratory tract

What microorganism is frequently recovered from the ears of dogs with chronic otitis externa? A. candida sp. B. cryptococcus sp. C. microsproum sp. D. malassezia sp.

D. malassezia sp.

Platelet clumping could possibly affect the A. RDW B. PCV C. RBC morphology D. manual WBC count

D. manual WBC count

What order of maturation is correct? A. myeloblast, myelocyte, promyelocyte, metamyelocyte B. myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte C. promyelocyte, metamyelocyte, myelocyte, band D. promyelocyte, myelocyte, band, segmented neutrophil

B. myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte

The first phagocytes to respoind to an infection are A. lymphocytes B. neutrophils C. monocytes D. eosinophils

B. neutrophils

What special stain would be used in assessing anemia? A. lactophenol cotton blue B. new methylene blue C. gram stain D. acridine orange

B. new methylene blue

A hospital acquired disease is: A. endemic B. nosocominal C. ergasteric D. iatrogenic

B. nosocomial

Crystals in urine sediment often indicate A. uroliths B. nothing C. inflammatno D. urethral blockage

B. nothing

Which of the following is a gram negative bacterium? A. clostridium B. pasteurella C. staphylococcus D. leptospira

B. pasteurella

Candida albicans may cause many different diseases, especially when there is a predisposing condition such as: A. vegetarian diet B. primary bacterial infection C. prologned analgesic use D. carnivorous diet

B. primary bacterial infection

Hypoglycemia may result from: A. insufficient insulin B. serum remaining on the RBCs too long C. cushings disease D. heavy lactation after giving birth

B. serum remaining on the RBCs too long

Which of the following cells has a high nuclear cytoplasmic ration; coarse, clumped, dark staining chromation; and a sky blue cytoplasm? A. neutrophil B. small lymphocyte C. basophil D. eosinophil

B. small lymphocyte

Selective media grow A. all types of bacteria B. some types of bacteria C. differentiate certain types of bacteria D. gram negative bacteria only

B. some types of bacteria

Finding proglottids around a dog's anus indicates infection with A. flukes B. tapeworms C. pinworms D. hookworms

B. tapeworms

Nonrenal causes of increased levels of urea might include: A. the amount of carbohydrate ingested B. the amount of protein ingested C. insufficient insulin D. insufficient ADH

B. the amount of protein ingested

When T cells are processed in the ___, they develop specific antigen receptors on their cell membranes A. transitional epithelium B. thymus C. terminal ileum D. thyroid

B. thymus

Fibrinogen is considered a part of: A. total plasma albumin B. total plasma protein C. total serum protein D. total serum globulin

B. total plasma protein

Which of these is a primary medium and would be used for initial inoculation of a sample? A. triple sugar iron B. trypticase soy agar with sheeps blood C. citrate D. Urea

B. trypticase soy agar with sheeps blood

Supravital staining is A. use of a stain that has extreme toxicity so that vital processes can be stopped abruptly B. use of a stain that has low toxicity so that the vital process can be studied in live cells C. use of a stain for nuclear material only D. use of a stain for phase contrast microsocpy only

B. use of a stain that has low toxicity so that the vital processes can be studied in live cells

Phagocytes are a type of A. red blood cell B. white blood cell C. platelet D. antibody

B. white blood cell

The species of this genus can cause strangles in horses A. streptococcus B. clostridium C. pseudomonas D. malassezia

A. streptococcus

The average urine specific gravity for a healthy adult dog is A. 1.025 B. 1.035 C. 1.040 D. 1.030

A. 1.025

Plasma is compsed of: A. 90% water and 10% dissolved substances B. 80% water and 20% dissolved substances C. 70% water and 30% dissolved substances D. 60% water and 40% dissolved substances

A. 90% water and 10% dissolved substances

The etiologic agent of lyme disease is A. borrelia burgdorferi B. cornoavirus C. lentivirus D. pasteurella multocida

A. borrelia burgdorferi

A pedigree chart is a A. chart that shows the ancestry of a particular family B. chart that shows the crossing of two independent alleles C. square to show a monohybrid cross D. square to show a dihybrid cross

A. chart that shows the ancestry of a particular family

A non-gram staining bacterium is: A. clostridium B. leptospira C. pseudomonas D. staphylococcus

A. clostridium

Which of the following is a gram positive bacterium? A. clostridium B. pasteurella C. pseudomonas D. salmonella

A. clostridium

A bacterial genus can best be described as A. composed of one or more species B. composed of classes C. composed of families D. belonging to a species

A. composed of one or more species

In appearance, hookworm ova resemble ___ ova. A. strongyle B. whipworm C. roundworm D. pinworm

A. strongyle

Antibody titer is a test that measures A. the level of antibody in serum B. the level of antigenic response C. the level of antibody in a virus D. the level of antigen in a virus

A. the level of antibody in serum

Epistasis is A. the masking of a trait by another trait B. Traits that are due to the interaction of several pairs of alleles C. a cross in which each allele makes a comparable contribution to the trait D. a cross of three alleles over two alternate alleles

A. the masking of a trait by another trait

Smudge cells are A. created while spreading blood for making a blood smear B. seen with papanicolaou stains only C. created during the blood smear staingin process D. specific to species with nucleated RBCs only

A. created while spreading blood for making a blood smear

What are the two diagnostic forms of giardia? A. cysts and trophozoites B. merozoites and schizonts C. oocysts and sporocysts D. ova and L3 larvae

A. cysts and trophozoites

The nonpathogenic gram positive rods found on the skin are A. diphtheroids B. coliforms C. anaerobes D. dermatophyes

A. diphtheroids

Nutritive media will A. grow almost all types of bacteria B. grow only some types of bacteria C. differentiate certain types of bacteria D. grow gram negative bacteria only

A. grow almost all types of bacteria

Epithelia cells in urine are estimated as the average number per A. high power field B. lower power field C. medium power field D. oil immersion field

A. high power field

Creatinine concentrations in serum are influenced by: A. hydration levels B. amylase concentration C. liver disease D. insulin production

A. hydration levels

A left shift refers to increased numbers of A. immature neutrophils B. immature RBCs C. immature platelets D. immature lymphocytes

A. immature neutrophils

To make a smear with anemic blood A. increase the angle of the pusher slide B. decrease the angle of the pusher slide C. use a larger drop of blood D. wait for the drop of blood to partially dry

A. increase the angle of the pusher slide

In a healthy animal, diminished water intake or loss of water would result in ___ urine specific gravity A. increased B. decreased C. isosthenuric D. isotonic

A. increased

With significant dehydration in an otherwise healthy patient which of the following would likely be seen on a urinalysis and CBC? A. increased urine SG and increased PCV B. increased urine SG and decreased PCV C. decreased urine SG and decreased PCV D. decreased urine SG and increased PCV

A. increased urine SG and increased PCV

Fungal culture are A. incubated at room temperature B. incubated in a microaerophilic environment C. Incubated at body temperature D. incubated in anaerobic environment

A. incubated at room temperature

To get the best results, all fecal cultures are A. inoculated onto BAP, CNA, and TSB B. inoculated onto MAC, SS, GN C. Inoculated onto MH, SS, and THIO D. Inoculated onto BAP, MAC, and SS

A. inoculated onto BAP, CNA, and TSB

A plasmid is a A. nonchromosomal, circular strand of bacterial genome B. chromosomal, circular strand of bacterial gnome C. nonchromosomal, circular strand viral particle D. chromosomal, circular strand viral particle

A. nonchromosomal, circular strand of bacterial genome

Reticulocytes on a modified wright stain appear A. polychromatic B. hypochromic C. hyperchromic D. crenated

A. polychromatic

Which of the following is considered a serious primary pathogen in birds, reptiles, and ampibians? A. pseudomonas B. shigella C. staphylococcus D. micrococcus

A. pseudomonas

WBCs in urine sediment may be confused with A. renal epithelial cells B. transitional epithelial cells C. squamous epithelial cells D. caudate epithelial cells

A. renal epithelial cells

Polychromasia in an immature RBC will appear as a ___ on a blood smear stained with new methylene blue A. reticulocyte B. dohle body C. barr body D. schistocyte

A. reticulocyte

Compared to a roundworm ova, coccidia appear A. smaller B. the same size C. twice as large D. three times as large

A. smaller

In the bacterial name Borrelia burgdorferi, what does burgdorferi represent? A. species B. genus C. family D. class

A. species

Amylase acts to break down A. starches and glycogen B. fats and carbohydrates C. fats and starches D. protein and amino acids

A. starches and glycogen

Allergy shots cause A. the suppressor t cell population to increase B. a reduction in the formation if IgG antibodies C. a reduction in the formation if IgE antibodies D. an increase in the b-cell population

A. the suppressor t cell population to increase

What parasite has only the cat as its definitive host? A. toxoplasma gondii B. giardia lamblia C. isospora rivolta D. balantidium coli

A. toxoplasma gondii

Which of the following would be a parenteral route of pathogen transmission? A. transfusion B. contaminated food C. droplet infection D. direct contact

A. transfusion

Which of the following protozoan parasite of cattle causes abortion or fetal resorption? A. tritrichomonas B. eimeria C. giardia D. cryptosporidium

A. tritrichomonas

Which of the following substances used to evalute kidney filtration and function is excreted by the kidneys and up to 40% reabsorbed by the tubules? A. urea B. creatinine C. glucose D. sodium

A. urea

Enterobacteriaceae are found in what part of the body? A. lungs B. intestines C. skin D. stomach

B. intestines

In the gram stain procedure, the mordant is A. crystal violet B. iodine C. alcohol D. safranin

B. iodine

When evaluating the liver of dogs and cats, AST should be evaluated in conjunction with: A. ALT B. lipase C. LDH D. glucose

A. ALT

Horses typically have higher ____ value than other species A. AST B. ALP C. ALT D. GGT

A. AST

Which of the following is an important function of bacterial fimbriae? A. Attachment B. Locomotion C. Ion Transport D. Antibiotic Resistance

A. Attachment

What is the morphology of Vibrio sp. bacteria? A. Bacillus B. Coccus C. Spirochete D. Coccobacillus

A. Bacillus

What media is selective for gram negative bacteria? A. MacConkey B. BAP C. mannitol salt agar D. mueller-hinton agar

A. MacConkey

Females have which of the following sex chromosome designations? A. XX B. YY C. YZ D. XY

A. XX

Leukopenia is A. a decrease in white blood cells B. An increase in white blood cells C. a bone marrow disease D. a type of blood cancer

A. a decrease in white blood cells

A false positive urine glucose reading may result from administartion of: A. acetaminophen B. morphine C. NaCl D. NaOH

A. acetominophen

An iodine scrub on skin would result in A. antisepsis B. disinfection C. fumigation D. sterilization

A. antisepsis

Bacterial endospores A. are resistant to heat and desiccation B. are a form of asexual reproduction C. are a cnsequence of mating D. are highly suseptible to antiseptics

A. are resistant to heat and desiccation

Calcium oxalate crystals A. are seen with ethylene glycol toxicity B. have a characteristic coffin lid appearance C. are seen with hepatic disease D. have three to six sides

A. are seen with ethylene glycol toxicity

Glycosuria exists: A. when blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold for absorption of glucose B. When blood glucose levels are lower than the renal threshold for absorption of glucose C. when urine glucose levels are lower than the renal threshold for absorption of glucose D. when urine glucose levels are higher than the serum threshold for absorption of glucose

A. when blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold for absorption of glucose

Icteric serum is what color? A. yellow B. red C. brown D. green

A. yellow

Rocky Mountain spotted fever is more prevalent in A. the NE US B. The SE US C. The PNW D. The Rocky Mountains

B. The SE US

The buffy coat in the spun hematocrit tube consists of A. WBCs B. WBCs and platelets C. WBCs and NRBCs D. platlets and NRBCs

B. WBCs and platelets

By definition, an allergen is A. produced in response to an antigen B. a material that invokes an allergic response C. a process of mutation D. serum that contains antibodies

B. a material that invokes an allergic response

Streptococci A. are catalse postive B. are catalase negative C. resemble shooting starts when grown in tube media D. are never hemolytic like staphylococcus

B. are catalase negative

Fat droplets in urine samples are most commonly seen in A. dogs B. cats C. horses D. cows

B. cats

Which of the following substances is a by product of muscle metabolism, produced at a constant rate, and filtered out by the renal glomeruli? A. urea B. creatinine C. glucose D. sodium

B. creatinine

A correction for nucleated red blood cells is done to avoid a falsely A. elevated PCV B. Elevated WBC count C. Decreased PCV D. Decreased WBC count

B. elevated WBC count

Amino acids, iron, vitamin B12, folic acid, vitamin B6, and the trace metals cobalt and mickel are all required to produce what cell? A. leukocytes B. erythrocytes C. thrombocytes D. plasma cells

B. erythrocytes

A normal gastrointestinal inhabitant in turkeys, chickens, and humans that can cause serious urinary tract infections, diarhea, and tissue infections is A. leptospira sp. B. escherichia coli C. pasteurella multocida D. staphyloccocus intermedius

B. escherichia coli

Which is a lentivirus? A. coronavirus B. feline immunodeficiency virus C. herpes virus D. parvovirus

B. feline immunodeficiency virus

Which of the following is not an electrolyte? A. calcium B. glucose D. phosphorus D. potassium

B. glucose

The catalase and coagulatse tests are used in the presumptive identification of A. gram negative bacteria B. gram positive bactera C. saprophytes D. dermatophytes

B. gram postive bacteria

What color blood collection tube top indicates that heparin is the anticoagulant? A. purple B. green C. blue D. gray

B. green

Types of effector T cells include A. b cells B. helper t cells C. monocytes D. erythrocytes

B. helper T cells

Ruminant ova such as Haemonchus, Ostertagia, Trichostrongylus, and Cooperia resemble canine A. roundwoms B. hookworms C. tapeworms D. whipworms

B. hookworms

Mucus is normally often seen in ____ urine. A. dog B. horse C. cat D. cow

B. horse

What is the function of interferon? A. destroys toxins B. inhibits viruses C. kills bacteria D. inactivates protozoa

B. inhibits viruses

To separate plasma from the cellular components, blood tubes should be counterbalanced and centrifuged for ___ minutes at ___rpm. A. 2; 1000 B. 5; 1000 C. 10; 2000 D. 15; 2000

C. 10; 2000

When performing urinalysis testing, the sample should be analyzed within ___ minutes or refrigeration is required A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40

C. 30

Blood cells continue to utilize glucose at a rate of ___% to ___% per house if allowed to remain in contact with the serum A. 3;5 B. 5;7 C. 7;10 D. 10;12

C. 7;10

When culturing a swab for bacterial identification, which of the following media should be used? A. TSI, BAP, CAMPY B. EMB, BAP, MAC C. BAP, CNA, MAC D. CNA, TSI, MSA

C. BAP, CNA, MAC

RBCs with multiple, irregularly spaced projections are A. crenated cells B. schistocytes C. acanthocytes D. anisocytes

C. acanthocytes

What is not a method of culturing animal viruses? A. laboratory animal inoculation B. cell culture C. agar plate inoculation D. embryonated egg inoculation

C. agar plate inoculation

Which statement is true regarding circulating leukocytes in a health adult cow? A. always decrease in number during infections B. always decrease in number during inflammations C. always include more than one cell type D. always are phagocytic

C. always include more than one cell type

Bacteria in urine sediment may be confused with A. fat droplets B. sperm C. amorphous phosphate or urates D. calcium carbonate crystals

C. amorphous phosphate or urates

What way of reporting WBC differential results is more useful? A. as percentages B. as relative numbers C. as absolute numbers D. as decimal numbers

C. as absolute numbers

Translocation can be defined as A. a duplication of an allele B. the breakage of two chromosomes, resulting in the exact duplicate of the originals after repair C. the breakage of two chromosomes, resulting in repair in an abnormal arrangement D. a part or all of a chromosome is missing

C. the breakage of two chromosomes, resulting in repair in an abnormal arrangement

Adaptive or specific immunity includes A. naturally occurring stomach acids B. antibodies that an organism is born with that will respond to a variety of substances C. the response of the defense of the body to a specific substance D. lysozyme in tears

C. the response of the defense of the body to a specific substance

Megakaryocytes are the precursor cell to A. metarubricytes B. polychromatic cells C. thrombocytes D. monocytes

C. thrombocytes

Kittens are most liely to get roundworms by what route? A. fecal oral B. transplacental C. transmammary D. skin penetration

C. transmammary

Struvite cystals is another name for A. calcium carbonate crystals B. calcium oxalate crystals C. triple phosphate crystals D. amorphous phosphate crystals

C. triple phosphate crystals

Warts are caused by: A. bacteria B. fungi C. viruses D. protozoa

C. viruese

What laboratory test evaluates kidney function and is a breakdown product of protein? A. glucose B. ALT C. creatinine D. BUN

D. BUN

Which of the following would not be on a urine dip stick? A. glucose B. blood C. total protein D. BUN

D. BUN

Which of the following is a spreading organisms when grown on agar plates? A. Staphylococcus B. Sreptococcus C. Shigella D. Proteus

D. Proteus

A test done to help diagnose hyperthyroidism is: A. LH B. cortisol C. bile acids D. T4

D. T4

Heartowm treatment begins with killing the A. eggs B. infective L3 stage C. microfilariae D. adult worms

D. adult worms

Phagocytosis does not involve A. chemotaxis B. adherence C. ingestion D. antibiosis

D. antibiosis

Hyaline casts A. are granular and contain white blood cells B. are clear and red C. are granular and contain fat D. are clear and colorless

D. are clear and colorless

What urine sediment component would be most significant? A. sperm B. fat droplets C. squamous epithelial cells D. blood cells

D. blood cells

Which of the following bacteria is a gram negative spirochete? A. staphylococcus B. streptococcus C. micrococcus D. campylobacter

D. capylobacter

Sarcinae morphology refers to what kind of bacterial arrangment? A. pairs B. grape like clusters C. groups of four D. cubes of eight

D. cubes of eight

A drop of ___ added to the urine sediment lyses RBCs but not fat droplets A. physiologic saline B. sedi stain C. 3% potassium hydroxide D. dilute acetic acid

D. dilute acetic acid

An increase in unconjugated bilirubin may be a result of: A. either hepatic or posthepatic failure B. either hepatic or biliary failure C. either prehepatic or posthepatic failure D. either hepatic or prehepatic failure

D. either hepatic or prehepatic failure

Outbreeding may be described as which of the following? A. mating of closely related individuals to produce ever-increasing similarities in the offspring B. A mating that is performed to determine the genotype of a particular phenotype C. the crossing of two traits D. matings to other strains to increase the number of heterozygous genes

D. matings to other strains to increase the number of heterozygous genes

The chemical regulator of the cellular immune response is A. vasopressin B. mucin C. interleukin D. mucopolysaccharide

D. mucopolysaccharide

Brown urine most likely contains A. hemoglobin B. bilirubin C. bile pigments D. myoglobin

D. myoglobin

The difference in appearance between small and large stronyle ova in horses is A. size B. shape C. color D. none, they look alike

D. none, they look alike

The roundworm of horses is A. strongylus sp. B. oxyuris sp. C. anoplocephala sp. D. parascaris sp.

D. parascaris sp.

Which of the following ions is a cation? A. bicarbonate B. hydroxide C. chloride D. potassium

D. potassium

Skin scales and infected hair samples are mixed with ___ to dissolve the debris and aid in microscopic examination for fungal elements A. hydrogen peroxide B. acetic acid C. physiologic saline D. potassium hydroxide

D. potassium hydroxide

Toxic netrophils may show large A. blue granules B. black granules C. red granules D. purple granules

D. purple granules

Which of the following tests is not included in a routine CBC? A. total WBC count B. differential WBC count C. total protein D. reticulocyte count

D. reticulocyte count

Gram negative bacteria retain what compound of the gram stain? A. crystla violet B. iodine C. decolorizer D. safranin

D. safranin

The counterstain in the gram stain is A. crystal violet B. methylene blue C. iodine D. safranin

D. safranin

MacConkey agar A. selects for gram positive organisms B. uses crystal blue as a gram negative inhibitor C. differentiates between dextrose and nondextrose fermentor D. selects gram negative organisms

D. selects gram negative organisms

Serology tests can detect hearworms in dogs blood A. immediately after becoming infected B. several days after becoming infected C. several weeks after becoming infected D. several months after becoming infected

D. sevearl months after becoming infected

A route of infection by hookworms that is not shared by roundworms is A. ingestion of infective stage B. transplacental C. transmammary D. skin penetration

D. skin penetration

Calcium oxalate crystals are A. hexagonal B. dak, needle like rods C. brown spheres with long spicules D. small square that contain an X

D. small square that contain an X

What is a common pathogen in mastitis, skin wounds, and abcesses that is also found in the environment? A. proteus vulgaris B. escherichia coli C. streptococcos spp. D. staphylococcus aureus

D. staphylococcus aureus

Cell mediated immunity is the function of ___ that attach to antigenic sites on the surface of foregin cells A. b cells B. small lymphocytes C. plasma cells D. t cells

D. t cells