Week 1 Quiz Set 1

1. When caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with early chronic HIV infection, which prophylactic measures will the nurse anticipate being included in the plan of care (select all that apply)? a. Hepatitis B vaccine b. Pneumococcal vaccine c. Influenza virus vaccine d. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole e. Varicella zoster immune globulin

A. Hepatitis B vaccine B. Pneumococcal vaccine C. Influenza virus vaccine Prevention of other infections is an important intervention in patients who are HIV positive, and these vaccines are recommended as soon as the HIV infection is diagnosed. Antibiotics and immune globulin are used to prevent and treat infections that occur later in the course of the disease, when the CD4 count has dropped or when infection has occurred.

6. When the nurse is caring for a patient whose HIV status in unknown, which of these patient exposures is most likely to require postexposure prophylaxis? a. Needle stick with a needle and syringe used to draw blood b. Splash into the eyes when emptying a bedpan containing stool c. Contamination of open skin lesions with patient vaginal secretions d. Needle stick injury with a suture needle during a surgical procedure

A. Needle stick with a needle and shrine used to draw blood Puncture wounds are the most common means for workplace transmission of blood-borne diseases, and a needle with a hollow bore that had been contaminated with the patient's blood would be a high-risk situation. The other situations described would be much less likely to result in transmission of the virus.

11. The nurse is reviewing the chart for a patient who is scheduled for an annual physical exam. Which information will be most important in determining whether the patient needs HIV testing? a. Patient age b. Patient lifestyle c. Patient symptoms d. Patient sexual orientation

A. Patient age The current CDC policy is to offer routine testing for HIV to all individuals age 13 to 64. Although lifestyle, symptoms, and sexual orientation may suggest increased risk for HIV infection, the goal is to test all individuals in this age range.

12. A 24-year-old woman who uses injectable illegal drugs asks the nurse about preventing AIDS. The nurse informs the patient that the best way to reduce the risk of HIV infection from drug use is to a. participate in a needle-exchange program. b. clean drug injection equipment before use. c. ask those who share equipment to be tested for HIV. d. avoid sexual intercourse when using injectable drugs.

A. participate in a needle-exchange program Participation in needle-exchange programs has been shown to control the rate of HIV infection. Cleaning drug equipment before use also reduces risk, but it might not be consistently practiced by individuals in withdrawal. HIV antibodies do not appear for several weeks to months after exposure, so testing drug users would not be very effective in reducing risk for HIV exposure. It is difficult to make appropriate decisions about sexual activity when under the influence of drugs.

1. A patient who has vague symptoms of fatigue and headaches is found to have a positive enzyme immunoassay (EIA) for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies. In discussing the test results with the patient, the nurse informs the patient that a. the EIA test will need to be repeated to verify the results. b. a viral culture will be done to determine the progress of the disease. c. it will probably be 10 or more years before the patient develops acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). d. the Western blot test will be done to determine whether AIDS has developed.

A. the EIA test will need to be repeated to verify the results After an initial positive EIA test, the EIA is repeated before more specific testing such as the Western blot is done. Viral cultures are not part of HIV testing. Because the nurse does not know how recently the patient was infected, it is not appropriate to predict the time frame for AIDS development. The Western blot tests for HIV antibodies, not for AIDS.

17. To evaluate the effectiveness of ART, the nurse will schedule the patient for a. viral load testing. b. enzyme immunoassay. c. rapid HIV antibody testing. d. immunofluorescence assay.

A. viral load testing The effectiveness of ART is measured by the decrease in the amount of virus detectable in the blood. The other tests are used to detect HIV antibodies, which remain positive even with effective ART.

A patient undergoing external radiation has developed a dry desquamation of the skin in the treatment area. The nurse teaches the patient about management of the skin reaction. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates the teaching was effective? a. "I can buy some aloe vera gel to use on the area." b. "I will expose the treatment area to a sun lamp daily." c. "I can use ice packs to relieve itching in the treatment area." d. "I will scrub the area with warm water to remove the scales."

ANS: A Aloe vera gel and cream may be used on the radiated skin area. Ice and sunlamps may injure the skin. Treatment areas should be cleaned gently to avoid further injury

A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer that is classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "The cancer involves only the cervix." b. "The cancer cells look almost like normal cells." c. "Further testing is needed to determine the spread of the cancer." d. "It is difficult to determine the original site of the cervical cancer."

ANS: A Cancer in situ indicates that the cancer is localized to the cervix and is not invasive at this time. Cell differentiation is not indicated by clinical staging. Because the cancer is in situ, the origin is the cervix. Further testing is not indicated given that the cancer has not spread

Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is used as adjuvant therapy for a patient with metastatic renal cell carcinoma. Which information should the nurse include when explaining the purpose of this therapy to the patient? a. IL-2 enhances the immunologic response to tumor cells. b. IL-2 stimulates malignant cells in the resting phase to enter mitosis. c. IL-2 prevents the bone marrow depression caused by chemotherapy. d. IL-2 protects normal cells from the harmful effects of chemotherapy.

ANS: A IL-2 enhances the ability of the patient's own immune response to suppress tumor cells. IL-2 does not protect normal cells from damage caused by chemotherapy, stimulate malignant cells to enter mitosis, or prevent bone marrow depression

The nurse assesses a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma who is receiving an infusion of rituximab (Rituxan). Which assessment finding would require the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Shortness of breath b. Temperature 100.2° F (37.9° C) c. Shivering and complaint of chills d. Generalized muscle aches and pains

ANS: A Rituximab (Rituxan) is a monoclonal antibody. Shortness of breath should be investigated rapidly because anaphylaxis is a possible reaction to monoclonal antibody administration. The nurse will need to rapidly take actions such as stopping the infusion, assessing the patient further, and notifying the health care provider. The other findings will also require action by the nurse, but are not indicative of life-threatening complications

The nurse is caring for a patient with colon cancer who is scheduled for external radiation therapy to the abdomen. Which information obtained by the nurse would indicate a need for patient teaching? a. The patient swims a mile 3 days a week. b. The patient snacks frequently during the day. c. The patient showers everyday with a mild soap. d. The patient has a history of dental caries with amalgam fillings.

ANS: A The patient is instructed to avoid swimming in salt water or chlorinated pools during the treatment period. The patient does not need to change habits of eating frequently or showering with a mild soap. A history of dental caries will not impact the patient who is scheduled for abdominal radiation.

A widowed mother of four school-age children is hospitalized with metastatic ovarian cancer. The patient is crying and tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Why don't we talk about the options you have for the care of your children?" b. "I'm sure you have friends that will take the children when you can't care for them." c. "For now you need to concentrate on getting well and not worrying about your children." d. "Many patients with cancer live for a long time, so there is still time to plan for your children."

ANS: A This response expresses the nurse's willingness to listen and recognizes the patient's concern. The responses beginning "Many patients with cancer live for a long time" and "For now you need to concentrate on getting well" close off discussion of the topic and indicate that the nurse is uncomfortable with the topic. In addition, the patient with metastatic ovarian cancer may not have a long time to plan. Although it is possible that the patient's friends will take the children, more assessment information is needed before making plans

When caring for a patient who is pancytopenic, which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates a need for the nurse to intervene? a. The UAP assists the patient to use dental floss after eating. b. The UAP adds baking soda to the patient's saline oral rinses. c. The UAP puts fluoride toothpaste on the patient's toothbrush. d. The UAP has the patient rinse after meals with a saline solution.

ANS: A Use of dental floss is avoided in patients with pancytopenia because of the risk for infection and bleeding. The other actions are appropriate for oral care of a pancytopenic patient

The nurse at the clinic is interviewing a 64-year-old woman who is 5 feet, 3 inches tall and weighs 125 pounds (57 kg). The patient has not seen a health care provider for 20 years. She walks 5 miles most days and has a glass of wine 2 or 3 times a week. Which topics will the nurse plan to include in patient teaching about cancer screening and decreasing cancer risk (select all that apply)? a. Pap testing b. Tobacco use c. Sunscreen use d. Mammography e. Colorectal screening

ANS: A, C, D, E The patient's age, gender, and history indicate a need for screening and/or teaching about colorectal cancer, mammography, Pap smears, and sunscreen. The patient does not use excessive alcohol or tobacco, she is physically active, and her body weight is healthy

A patient develops neutropenia after receiving chemotherapy. Which information about ways to prevent infection will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Cook food thoroughly before eating. b. Choose low fiber, low residue foods. c. Avoid public transportation such as buses. d. Use rectal suppositories if needed for constipation. e. Talk to the oncologist before having any dental work done.

ANS: A, C, E Eating only cooked food and avoiding public transportation will decrease infection risk. A high-fiber diet is recommended for neutropenic patients to decrease constipation. Because bacteria may enter the circulation during dental work or oral surgery, the patient may need to postpone dental work or take antibiotics

The nurse supervises the care of a patient with a temporary radioactive cervical implant. Which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), if observed by the nurse, would require an intervention? a. The UAP flushes the toilet once after emptying the patient's bedpan. b. The UAP stands by the patient's bed for 30 minutes talking with the patient. c. The UAP places the patient's bedding in the laundry container in the hallway. d. The UAP gives the patient an alcohol-containing mouthwash to use for oral care.

ANS: B Because patients with temporary implants emit radioactivity while the implants are in place, exposure to the patient is limited. Laundry and urine/feces do not have any radioactivity and do not require special precautions. Cervical radiation will not affect the oral mucosa, and alcohol-based mouthwash is not contraindicated

The home health nurse cares for a patient who has been receiving interferon therapy for treatment of cancer. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further assessment? a. "I have frequent muscle aches and pains." b. "I rarely have the energy to get out of bed." c. "I experience chills after I inject the interferon." d. "I take acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours."

ANS: B Fatigue can be a dose-limiting toxicity for use of biologic therapies. Flulike symptoms, such as muscle aches and chills, are common side effects with interferon use. Patients are advised to use acetaminophen every 4 hours

A hospitalized patient who has received chemotherapy for leukemia develops neutropenia. Which observation by the nurse would indicate a need for further teaching? a. The patient ambulates several times a day in the room. b. The patient's visitors bring in some fresh peaches from home. c. The patient cleans with a warm washcloth after having a stool. d. The patient uses soap and shampoo to shower every other day.

ANS: B Fresh, thinned-skin fruits are not permitted in a neutropenic diet because of the risk of bacteria being present. The patient should ambulate in the room rather than the hospital hallway to avoid exposure to other patients or visitors. Because overuse of soap can dry the skin and increase infection risk, showering every other day is acceptable. Careful cleaning after having a bowel movement will help prevent skin breakdown and infection

A patient who is being treated for stage IV lung cancer tells the nurse about new-onset back pain. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Give the patient the prescribed PRN opioid. b. Assess for sensation and strength in the legs. c. Notify the health care provider about the symptoms. d. Teach the patient how to use relaxation to reduce pain.

ANS: B Spinal cord compression, an oncologic emergency, can occur with invasion of tumor into the epidural space. The nurse will need to assess the patient further for symptoms such as decreased leg sensation and strength and then notify the health care provider. Administration of opioids or use of relaxation may be appropriate but only after the nurse has assessed for possible spinal cord compression

The nurse administers an IV vesicant chemotherapeutic agent to a patient. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Infuse the medication over a short period of time. b. Stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site. c. Administer the chemotherapy through a small-bore catheter. d. Hold the medication unless a central venous line is available.

ANS: B Swelling at the site may indicate extravasation, and the IV should be stopped immediately. The medication generally should be given slowly to avoid irritation of the vein. The size of the catheter is not as important as administration of vesicants into a running IV line to allow dilution of the chemotherapeutic drug. These medications can be given through peripheral lines, although central vascular access devices (CVADs) are preferred

A chemotherapy drug that causes alopecia is prescribed for a patient. Which action should the nurse take to maintain the patient's self-esteem? a. Tell the patient to limit social contacts until regrowth of the hair occurs. b. Encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat and wear it once hair loss begins. c. Teach the patient to gently wash hair with a mild shampoo to minimize hair loss. d. Inform the patient that hair usually grows back once the chemotherapy is complete.

ANS: B The patient is taught to anticipate hair loss and to be prepared with wigs, scarves, or hats. Limiting social contacts is not appropriate at a time when the patient is likely to need a good social support system. The damage occurs at the hair follicle and will occur regardless of gentle washing or use of a mild shampoo. The information that the hair will grow back is not immediately helpful in maintaining the patient's self-esteem

The nurse should include which food choice when providing dietary teaching for a patient scheduled to receive external beam radiation for abdominal cancer? a. Fresh fruit salad b. Roasted chicken c. Whole wheat toast d. Cream of potato soup

ANS: B To minimize the diarrhea that is commonly associated with bowel radiation, the patient should avoid foods high in roughage, such as fruits and whole grains. Lactose intolerance may develop secondary to radiation, so dairy products should also be avoided

A patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma who is undergoing external radiation therapy tells the nurse, "I am so tired I can hardly get out of bed in the morning." Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care? a. Minimize activity until the treatment is completed. b. Establish time to take a short walk almost every day. c. Consult with a psychiatrist for treatment of depression. d. Arrange for delivery of a hospital bed to the patient's home.

ANS: B Walking programs are used to keep the patient active without excessive fatigue. Having a hospital bed does not necessarily address the fatigue. The better option is to stay as active as possible while combating fatigue. Fatigue is expected during treatment and is not an indication of depression. Minimizing activity may lead to weakness and other complications of immobility

The nurse teaches a patient with cancer of the liver about high-protein, high-calorie diet choices. Which snack choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. Lime sherbet b. Blueberry yogurt c. Cream cheese bagel d. Fresh strawberries and bananas

ANS: B Yogurt has high biologic value because of the protein and fat content. Fruit salad does not have high amounts of protein or fat. Lime sherbet is lower in fat and protein than yogurt. Cream cheese is low in protein

The nurse teaches a patient who is scheduled for a prostate needle biopsy about the procedure. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective? a. "The biopsy will remove the cancer in my prostate gland." b. "The biopsy will determine how much longer I have to live." c. "The biopsy will help decide the treatment for my enlarged prostate." d. "The biopsy will indicate whether the cancer has spread to other organs."

ANS: C A biopsy is used to determine whether the prostate enlargement is benign or malignant, and determines the type of treatment that will be needed. A biopsy does not give information about metastasis, life expectancy, or the impact of cancer on the patient's life

The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the oncology unit. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 35-year-old patient who has wet desquamation associated with abdominal radiation b. 42-year-old patient who is sobbing after receiving a new diagnosis of ovarian cancer c. 24-year-old patient who received neck radiation and has blood oozing from the neck d. 56-year-old patient who developed a new pericardial friction rub after chest radiation

ANS: C Because neck bleeding may indicate possible carotid artery rupture in a patient who is receiving radiation to the neck, this patient should be seen first. The diagnoses and clinical manifestations for the other patients are not immediately life threatening

A patient who has severe pain associated with terminal pancreatic cancer is being cared for at home by family members. Which finding by the nurse indicates that teaching regarding pain management has been effective? a. The patient uses the ordered opioid pain medication whenever the pain is greater than 5 (0 to 10 scale). b. The patient agrees to take the medications by the IV route in order to improve analgesic effectiveness. c. The patient takes opioids around the clock on a regular schedule and uses additional doses when breakthrough pain occurs. d. The patient states that nonopioid analgesics may be used when the maximal dose of the opioid is reached without adequate pain relief.

ANS: C For chronic cancer pain, analgesics should be taken on a scheduled basis, with additional doses as needed for breakthrough pain. Taking the medications only when pain reaches a certain level does not provide effective pain control. Although nonopioid analgesics also may be used, there is no maximum dose of opioid. Opioids are given until pain control is achieved. The IV route is not more effective than the oral route, and usually the oral route is preferred

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with stage I cancer of the colon. When assessing the need for psychologic support, which question by the nurse will provide the most information? a. "How long ago were you diagnosed with this cancer?" b. "Do you have any concerns about body image changes?" c. "Can you tell me what has been helpful to you in the past when coping with stressful events?" d. "Are you familiar with the stages of emotional adjustment to a diagnosis like cancer of the colon?"

ANS: C Information about how the patient has coped with past stressful situations helps the nurse determine usual coping mechanisms and their effectiveness. The length of time since the diagnosis will not provide much information about the patient's need for support. The patient's knowledge of typical stages in adjustment to a critical diagnosis does not provide insight into patient needs for assistance. Because surgical interventions for stage I cancer of the colon may not cause any body image changes, this question is not appropriate at this time

External-beam radiation is planned for a patient with cervical cancer. What instructions should the nurse give to the patient to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation? a. Test all stools for the presence of blood. b. Maintain a high-residue, high-fiber diet. c. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement. d. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush.

ANS: C Radiation to the abdomen will affect organs in the radiation path, such as the bowel, and cause frequent diarrhea. Careful cleaning of this area will help decrease the risk for skin breakdown and infection. Stools are likely to have occult blood from the inflammation associated with radiation, so routine testing of stools for blood is not indicated. Radiation to the abdomen will not cause stomatitis. A low-residue diet is recommended to avoid irritation of the bowel when patients receive abdominal radiation.

The nurse is caring for a patient with left-sided lung cancer. Which finding would be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit 32% b. Pain with deep inspiration c. Serum sodium 126 mEq/L d. Decreased breath sounds on left side

ANS: C Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (and the resulting hyponatremia) is an oncologic metabolic emergency and will require rapid treatment in order to prevent complications such as seizures and coma. The other findings also require intervention, but are common in patients with lung cancer and not immediately life threatening

The nurse is caring for a patient who smokes 2 packs/day. To reduce the patient's risk of lung cancer, which action by the nurse is best? a. Teach the patient about the seven warning signs of cancer. b. Plan to monitor the patient's carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level. c. Discuss the risks associated with cigarettes during every patient encounter. d. Teach the patient about the use of annual chest x-rays for lung cancer screening.

ANS: C Teaching about the risks associated with cigarette smoking is recommended at every patient encounter because cigarette smoking is associated with multiple health problems. A tumor must be at least 0.5 cm large before it is detectable by current screening methods and may already have metastasized by that time. Oncofetal antigens such as CEA may be used to monitor therapy or detect tumor reoccurrence, but are not helpful in screening for cancer. The seven warning signs of cancer are actually associated with fairly advanced disease

After change-of-shift report on the oncology unit, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who has a platelet count of 82,000/µL after chemotherapy b. Patient who has xerostomia after receiving head and neck radiation c. Patient who is neutropenic and has a temperature of 100.5° F (38.1° C) d. Patient who is worried about getting the prescribed long-acting opioid on time

ANS: C Temperature elevation is an emergency in neutropenic patients because of the risk for rapid progression to severe infections and sepsis. The other patients also require assessments or interventions, but do not need to be assessed as urgently. Patients with thrombocytopenia do not have spontaneous bleeding until the platelets are 20,000/µL. Xerostomia does not require immediate intervention. Although breakthrough pain needs to be addressed rapidly, the patient does not appear to have breakthrough pain

A patient who is scheduled for a right breast biopsy asks the nurse the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. Which answer by the nurse is correct? a. "Benign tumors do not cause damage to other tissues." b. "Benign tumors are likely to recur in the same location." c. "Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs." d. "Malignant cells reproduce more rapidly than normal cells."

ANS: C The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that malignant tumors invade adjacent tissues and spread to distant tissues and benign tumors never metastasize. The other statements are inaccurate. Both types of tumors may cause damage to adjacent tissues. Malignant cells do not reproduce more rapidly than normal cells. Benign tumors do not usually recur

During a routine health examination, a 40-year-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of colon cancer. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Teach the patient about the need for a colonoscopy at age 50. b. Teach the patient how to do home testing for fecal occult blood. c. Obtain more information from the patient about the family history. d. Schedule a sigmoidoscopy to provide baseline data about the patient.

ANS: C The patient may be at increased risk for colon cancer, but the nurse's first action should be further assessment. The other actions may be appropriate, depending on the information that is obtained from the patient with further questioning.

During the teaching session for a patient who has a new diagnosis of acute leukemia the patient is restless and is looking away, never making eye contact. After teaching about the complications associated with chemotherapy, the patient asks the nurse to repeat all of the information. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the patient? a. Risk for ineffective adherence to treatment related to denial of need for chemotherapy b. Acute confusion related to infiltration of leukemia cells into the central nervous system c. Risk for ineffective health maintenance related to anxiety about new leukemia diagnosis d. Deficient knowledge: chemotherapy related to a lack of interest in learning about treatment

ANS: C The patient who has a new cancer diagnosis is likely to have high anxiety, which may impact learning and require that the nurse repeat and reinforce information. The patient's history of a recent diagnosis suggests that infiltration of the leukemia is not a likely cause of the confusion. The patient asks for the information to be repeated, indicating that lack of interest in learning and denial are not etiologic factors

A patient with cancer has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to altered taste sensation. Which nursing action is most appropriate? a. Add strained baby meats to foods such as casseroles. b. Teach the patient about foods that are high in nutrition. c. Avoid giving the patient foods that are strongly disliked. d. Add extra spice to enhance the flavor of foods that are served.

ANS: C The patient will eat more if disliked foods are avoided and foods that the patient likes are included instead. Additional spice is not usually an effective way to enhance taste. Adding baby meats to foods will increase calorie and protein levels, but does not address the issue of taste. The patient's poor intake is not caused by a lack of information about nutrition

A patient with metastatic cancer of the colon experiences severe vomiting following each administration of chemotherapy. Which action, if taken by the nurse, is most appropriate? a. Have the patient eat large meals when nausea is not present. b. Offer dry crackers and carbonated fluids during chemotherapy. c. Administer prescribed antiemetics 1 hour before the treatments. d. Give the patient two ounces of a citrus fruit beverage during treatments.

ANS: C Treatment with antiemetics before chemotherapy may help prevent nausea. The patient should eat small, frequent meals. Offering food and beverages during chemotherapy is likely to cause nausea. The acidity of citrus fruits may be further irritating to the stomach

A patient with a large stomach tumor that is attached to the liver is scheduled to have a debulking procedure. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about the outcome of this procedure? a. Pain will be relieved by cutting sensory nerves in the stomach. b. Relief of pressure in the stomach will promote better nutrition. c. Tumor growth will be controlled by the removal of malignant tissue. d. Tumor size will decrease and this will improve the effects of other therapy.

ANS: D A debulking surgery reduces the size of the tumor and makes radiation and chemotherapy more effective. Debulking surgeries do not control tumor growth. The tumor is debulked because it is attached to the liver, a vital organ (not to relieve pressure on the stomach). Debulking does not sever the sensory nerves, although pain may be lessened by the reduction in pressure on the abdominal organs

The nurse obtains information about a hospitalized patient who is receiving chemotherapy for colorectal cancer. Which information about the patient alerts the nurse to discuss a possible change in therapy with the health care provider? a. Poor oral intake b. Frequent loose stools c. Complaints of nausea and vomiting d. Increase in carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

ANS: D An increase in CEA indicates that the chemotherapy is not effective for the patient's cancer and may need to be modified. The other patient findings are common adverse effects of chemotherapy. The nurse may need to address these, but they would not necessarily indicate a need for a change in therapy

A patient has been assigned the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to painful oral ulcers. Which nursing action will be most effective in improving oral intake? a. Offer the patient frequent small snacks between meals. b. Assist the patient to choose favorite foods from the menu. c. Provide teaching about the importance of nutritional intake. d. Apply the ordered anesthetic gel to oral lesions before meals.

ANS: D Because the etiology of the patient's poor nutrition is the painful oral ulcers, the best intervention is to apply anesthetic gel to the lesions before the patient eats. The other actions might be helpful for other patients with impaired nutrition, but would not be as helpful for this patient

The nurse assesses a patient who is receiving interleukin-2. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Generalized muscle aches b. Complaints of nausea and anorexia c. Oral temperature of 100.6° F (38.1° C) d. Crackles heard at the lower scapular border

ANS: D Capillary leak syndrome and acute pulmonary edema are possible toxic effects of interleukin-2. The patient may need oxygen and the nurse should rapidly notify the health care provider. The other findings are common side effects of interleukin-2.

An older adult patient who has colorectal cancer is receiving IV fluids at 175 mL/hour in conjunction with the prescribed chemotherapy. Which finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Patient complains of severe fatigue. b. Patient needs to void every hour during the day. c. Patient takes only 50% of meals and refuses snacks. d. Patient has audible crackles to the midline posterior chest.

ANS: D Rapid fluid infusions may cause heart failure, especially in older patients. The other findings are common in patients who have cancer and/or are receiving chemotherapy

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravesical bladder chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effect? a. Nausea b. Alopecia c. Mucositis d. Hematuria

ANS: D The adverse effects of intravesical chemotherapy are confined to the bladder. The other adverse effects are associated with systemic chemotherapy

A patient who has ovarian cancer is crying and tells the nurse, "My husband rarely visits. He just doesn't care." The husband indicates to the nurse that he never knows what to say to help his wife. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the nurse to add to the plan of care? a. Compromised family coping related to disruption in lifestyle b. Impaired home maintenance related to perceived role changes c. Risk for caregiver role strain related to burdens of caregiving responsibilities d. Dysfunctional family processes related to effect of illness on family members

ANS: D The data indicate that this diagnosis is most appropriate because poor communication among the family members is affecting family processes. No data suggest a change in lifestyle or its role as an etiology. The data do not support impairment in home maintenance or a burden caused by caregiving responsibilities

The nurse reviews the laboratory results of a patient who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit of 30% b. Platelets of 95,000/µL c. Hemoglobin of 10 g/L d. White blood cell (WBC) count of 2700/µL

ANS: D The low WBC count places the patient at risk for severe infection and is an indication that the chemotherapy dose may need to be lower or that WBC growth factors such as filgrastim (Neupogen) are needed. Although the other laboratory data indicate decreased levels, they do not indicate any immediate life-threatening adverse effects of the chemotherapy

A patient with leukemia is considering whether to have hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). The nurse will include which information in the patient's teaching plan? a. Transplant of the donated cells is painful because of the nerves in the tissue lining the bone. b. Donor bone marrow cells are transplanted through an incision into the sternum or hip bone. c. The transplant procedure takes place in a sterile operating room to minimize the risk for infection. d. Hospitalization will be required for several weeks after the stem cell transplant procedure is performed.

ANS: D The patient requires strict protective isolation to prevent infection for 2 to 4 weeks after HSCT while waiting for the transplanted marrow to start producing cells. The transplanted cells are infused through an IV line, so the transplant is not painful, nor is an operating room or incision required

A patient receiving head and neck radiation for larynx cancer has ulcerations over the oral mucosa and tongue and thick, ropey saliva. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient? a. Remove food debris from the teeth and oral mucosa with a stiff toothbrush. b. Use cotton-tipped applicators dipped in hydrogen peroxide to clean the teeth. c. Gargle and rinse the mouth several times a day with an antiseptic mouthwash. d. Rinse the mouth before and after each meal and at bedtime with a saline solution.

ANS: D The patient should rinse the mouth with a saline solution frequently. A soft toothbrush is used for oral care. Hydrogen peroxide may damage tissues. Antiseptic mouthwashes may irritate the oral mucosa and are not recommended

The nurse teaches a postmenopausal patient with stage III breast cancer about the expected outcomes of cancer treatment. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "After cancer has not recurred for 5 years, it is considered cured." b. "The cancer will be cured if the entire tumor is surgically removed." c. "Cancer is never considered cured, but the tumor can be controlled with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation." d. "I will need to have follow-up examinations for many years after I have treatment before I can be considered cured."

ANS: D The risk of recurrence varies by the type of cancer. Some cancers are considered cured after a shorter time span or after surgery, but stage III breast cancer will require additional therapies and ongoing follow-up

Which action should the nurse take when caring for a patient who is receiving chemotherapy and complains of problems with concentration? a. Teach the patient to rest the brain by avoiding new activities. b. Teach that "chemo-brain" is a short-term effect of chemotherapy. c. Report patient symptoms immediately to the health care provider. d. Suggest use of a daily planner and encourage adequate rest and sleep.

ANS: D Use of tools to enhance memory and concentration such as a daily planner and adequate rest are helpful for patients who develop "chemo-brain" while receiving chemotherapy. Patients should be encouraged to exercise the brain through new activities. Chemo-brain may be short- or long-term. There is no urgent need to report common chemotherapy side effects to the provider

5. A pregnant woman with a history of early chronic HIV infection is seen at the clinic. Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient? a. The antiretroviral medications used to treat HIV infection are teratogenic. b. Most infants born to HIV-positive mothers are not infected with the virus. c. Since she is at an early stage of HIV infection, the infant will not contract HIV. d. It is likely that her newborn will become infected with HIV unless she uses antiretroviral drug therapy (ART).

B. Most infants born to HIV-positive mothers are not infected with the virus Only 25% of infants born to HIV-positive mothers develop HIV infection, even when the mother does not use ART during pregnancy. The percentage drops to 2% when ART is used. Perinatal transmission can occur at any stage of HIV infection (although it is less likely to occur when the viral load is lower). ART can safely be used in pregnancy, although some ART drugs should be avoided.

16. The nurse is preparing to give the following medications to an HIV-positive patient who is hospitalized with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP). Which is most important to administer at the right time? a. Nystatin (Mycostatin) tablet for vaginal candidiasis b. Oral saquinavir (Inverase) to suppress HIV infection c. Aerosolized pentamidine (NebuPent) for PCP infection d. Oral acyclovir (Zovirax) to treat systemic herpes simplex

B. Oral saquinavir (Inverase) to suppress HIV infection It is important that antiretrovirals be taken at the prescribed time every day to avoid developing drug-resistant HIV. The other medications should also be given as close as possible to the correct time, but they are not as essential to receive at the same time every day.

20. Which action can the nurse delegate to nursing assistive personnel (NAP) who help with the care of a patient admitted with tuberculosis and placed on airborne precautions? a. Teach the patient about how to use tissues to dispose of respiratory secretions. b. Stock the patient's room with all the necessary personal protective equipment. c. Interview the patient to obtain the names of family members and close contacts. d. Tell the patient's family members the reason for the use of airborne precautions.

B. Stock the patient's room with all the necessary personal protective equipment Since all health care workers will be educated about the various types of infection precautions used in the hospital, the NAP can safely stock the room with personal protective equipment. Obtaining contact information and patient education are higher-level skills that require RN education and scope of practice.

21. When designing a program to decrease the incidence of HIV infection in the community, the nurse will prioritize teaching about a. methods to prevent perinatal HIV transmission. b. how to prevent transmission between sexual partners. c. ways to sterilize needles used by injectable drug users. d. means to prevent transmission through blood transfusions.

B. how to prevent transmission between sexual partners Sexual transmission is the most common way that HIV is transmitted. The nurse should also provide education about perinatal transmission, needle sterilization, and blood transfusion, but the rate of HIV infection associated with these situations is lower.

19. Ten years after seroconversion, an HIV-infected patient has a CD4+ cell count of 800/µl and an undetectable viral load. What is the priority nursing intervention at this time? a. Monitor for symptoms of AIDS. b. Teach about the effects of antiretroviral agents. c. Encourage adequate nutrition, exercise, and sleep. d. Discuss likelihood of increased opportunistic infections.

C. Encourage adequate nutrition, exercise, and sleep The CD4+ level for this patient is in the normal range, indicating that the patient is the early chronic stage of infection, when the body is able to produce enough CD4+ cells to maintain a normal CD4+ count. AIDS and increased incidence of opportunistic infections typically develop when the CD4+ count is much lower than normal. Although initiation of ART is highly individual, it would not be likely that a patient with a normal CD4+ level would receive ART.

10. When assessing an individual who has been diagnosed with early chronic HIV infection and has a normal CD4+ count, the nurse will a. check neurologic orientation. b. ask about problems with diarrhea. c. palpate the regional lymph nodes. d. examine the oral mucosa for lesions.

C. palpate the regional lymph nodes Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy is common in the early stage of chronic infection. Diarrhea, oral lesions, and neurologic abnormalities would occur in the later stages of HIV infection.

3. After having a positive rapid-antibody test for HIV, a patient is anxious and does not appear to hear what the nurse is saying. At this time, it is most important that the nurse a. teach the patient about the medications available for treatment. b. inform the patient how to protect sexual and needle-sharing partners. c. remind the patient about the need to return for retesting to verify the results. d. ask the patient to notify individuals who have had risky contact with the patient.

C. remind the patient about the need to return for retesting to verify the results After an initial positive antibody test, the next step is retesting to confirm the results. A patient who is anxious is not likely to be able to take in new information or be willing to disclose information about HIV status of other individuals.

4. A patient who is diagnosed with AIDS tells the nurse, "I have lots of thoughts about dying. Do you think I am just being morbid?" Which response by the nurse is best? a. "Thinking about dying will not improve the course of AIDS." b. "It is important to focus on the good things about your life now." c. "Do you think that taking an antidepressant might be helpful to you?" d. "Can you tell me more about the kind of thoughts that you are having?

D. "Can you tell me more about the kind of thoughts you are having?" More assessment of the patient's psychosocial status is needed before taking any other action. The statements, "Thinking about dying will not improve the course of AIDS" and "It is important to focus on the good things in life" discourage the patient from sharing any further information with the nurse and decrease the nurse's ability to develop a trusting relationship with the patient. Although antidepressants may be helpful, the initial action should be further assessment of the patient's feelings.

9. Which of these patients will the nurse working in an HIV testing and treatment clinic anticipate teaching about antiretroviral therapy (ART)? a. A patient who is currently HIV negative but has unprotected sex with multiple partners b. A patient who was infected with HIV 15 years ago and now has a CD4+ count of 840/µl c. An HIV-positive patient with a CD4+ count of 120/µl who drinks a fifth of whiskey daily d. A patient who tested positive for HIV 2 years ago and has cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis

D. A patient who tested positive for HIV 2 years ago and has cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis CMV retinitis is an AIDS-defining illness and indicates that the patient is appropriate for ART even though the HIV infection period is relatively short. An HIV-negative patient would not be offered ART. A patient with a CD4+ count in the normal range would not typically be started on ART. A patient who drinks alcohol heavily would be unlikely to be able to manage the complex drug regimen and would not be appropriate for ART despite the low CD4+ count.

13. Which nursing action will be most useful in assisting a 21-year-old college student to adhere to a newly prescribed antiretroviral therapy (ART) regimen? a. Give the patient detailed information about possible medication side effects. b. Remind the patient of the importance of taking the medications as scheduled. c. Encourage the patient to join a support group for students who are HIV positive. d. Check the patient's class schedule to help decide when the ART should be taken.

D. Check the patient's class schedule to help decide when the ART should be taken The best approach to improve adherence is to learn about important activities in the patient's life and adjust the ART around those activities. The other actions also are useful, but they will not improve adherence as much as individualizing the ART to the patient's schedule.

8. Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is being considered for an HIV-infected patient who has a CD4+ cell count of 400/µl. Which factor is most important to consider when determining whether ART will be started for this patient? a. Patient social support system b. HIV genotype and phenotype c. Potential medication side effects d. Patient ability to comply with ART schedule

D. Patient ability to comply with ART schedule Drug resistance develops quickly unless the patient takes ART medications on a stringent schedule, and this endangers both the patient and the community. The other information is also important to consider, but patients who are unable to manage and follow a complex drug treatment regimen should not be considered for ART.

7. A 20-year-old female patient who is HIV-positive has a new prescription for efavirenz (Sustiva). Which information about the patient is most important to communicate to the prescribing physician before administering the efavirenz? a. The patient's CD4+ T cell count is 800 cells/μL. b. The patient already has etravirine (Intelence) prescribed. c. The patient states that the antiretroviral therapy (ART) frequently cause nausea. d. The patient is sexually active and does not use any contraception.

D. The patient is sexually active and does not use any contraception Efavirenz can cause fetal anomalies and should not be used in patients who may be pregnant. The patient's nausea, use of another nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, and CD4+ count also should be communicated to the physician, but the most important information is that the patient may potentially be pregnant.

18. Which information about an HIV-positive patient who is taking antiretroviral medications is most important for the nurse to address when planning care? a. The patient's blood glucose level is 168 mg/dl. b. The patient complains of feeling "constantly tired." c. The patient is unable to state the side effects of the medications. d. The patient states "sometimes I miss a dose of zidovudine (AZT)."

D. The patient states "Sometimes I miss a dose of zidovudine (AZT)." Since missing doses of ART can lead to drug resistance, this patient statement indicates the need for interventions such as teaching or changes in the drug scheduling. Elevated blood glucose and fatigue are common side effects of ART. The nurse should discuss medication side effects with the patient, but this is not as important as addressing the skipped doses of AZT.

15. A patient who has been treated for HIV infection for 7 years has developed fat redistribution to the trunk, with wasting of the arms, legs, and face. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. the benefits of daily exercise. b. foods that are higher in protein. c. treatment with antifungal agents. d. a change in antiretroviral therapy.

D. a change in antiretroviral therapy A frequent first intervention for metabolic disorders is a change in ART. Treatment with antifungal agents would not be appropriate because there is no indication of fungal infection. Changes in diet or exercise have not proven helpful for this problem.

2. A patient is admitted to the hospital with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) and HIV testing is positive. Based on diagnostic criteria established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the patient is diagnosed as having a. acute infection. b. early chronic infection. c. intermediate chronic infection. d. late chronic infection or AIDS.

D. late chronic infection or AIDS Development of PCP pneumonia meets the diagnostic criterion for AIDS. The other responses indicate an earlier stage of HIV infection than is indicated by the PCP infection.

14. A patient with HIV infection has developed Mycobacterium avium complex infection. An appropriate outcome for the patient is that the patient will a. be free from injury. b. receive immunizations. c. have adequate oxygenation. d. maintain intact perineal skin.

D. maintain intact perineal skin The major manifestation of M. avium infection is loose, watery stools, which would increase the risk for perineal skin breakdown. The other outcomes would be appropriate for other complications (pneumonia, dementia, influenza, etc.) associated with HIV infection.

7. An appropriate care choice for an older adult who lives with an employed daughter but needs help with activities of daily living is a. adult day care. b. long-term care. c. a retirement center. d. an assisted living facility.

a. adult day care.

4. An ethnic older adult may feel a loss of self-worth when the nurse (select all that apply) a. prohibits visits from a faith healer. b. informs the patient about ethnic support services. c. allows a patient to rely on ethnic health beliefs and practices. d. emphasizes that a therapeutic diet does not allow ethnic foods. e. uses a medical interpreter to provide explanations and teaching.

a. prohibits visits from a faith healer. d. emphasizes that a therapeutic diet does not allow ethnic foods.

1. Examples of primary prevention strategies include a. colonoscopy at age 50. b. avoidance of tobacco products. c. teaching the importance of exercise to a patient with hypertension. d. intake of a diet low in saturated fat in a patient with high cholesterol.

b. avoidance of tobacco products.

3. Ageism is characterized by a. denial of negative stereotypes regarding aging. b. positive attitudes toward the elderly based on age. c. negative attitudes toward the elderly based on age. d. negative attitudes toward the elderly based on physical disability.

c. negative attitudes toward the elderly based on age.

2. A characteristic of a chronic illness is that it (select all that apply) a. has reversible pathologic changes. b. has a consistent, predictable clinical course. c. results in permanent deviation from normal. d. is associated with many stable and unstable phases. e. always starts with an acute illness and then progresses slowly.

c. results in permanent deviation from normal. d. is associated with many stable and unstable phases.

8. Nursing interventions directed at health promotion in the older adult are primarily focused on a. disease management. b. controlling symptoms of illness. c. teaching positive health behaviors. d. teaching regarding nutrition to enhance longevity.

c. teaching positive health behaviors.

5. An important nursing action to help a chronically ill older adult is to a. avoid discussing future lifestyle changes. b. ensure the patient that the condition is stable. c. treat the patient as a competent manager of the disease. d. encourage the patient to "fight" the disease as long as possible.

c. treat the patient as a competent manager of the disease.

6. Older adults who become ill are more likely than younger adults to a. complain about the symptoms of their problems. b. refuse to carry out lifestyle changes to promote recovery. c. seek medical attention because of limitations on their lifestyle. d. alter their daily living activities to accommodate new symptoms.

d. alter their daily living activities to accommodate new symptoms.