212 ATI PHARMACOLOGY FINAL

A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.2 mg via IV bolus to a client. The amount available is digoxin 0.25 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

0.8 mL

A nurse is preparing to administer codeine 30 mg PO every 4 hr PRN to a client for pain. The amount available is codeine oral solution 15 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse plan to administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

10 mL

A nurse is preparing to administer heparin 900 units/hr via IV infusion. The amount available is heparin 25,000 units in 500 mL 5% dextrose in water. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

18 mL/hr

A nurse is preparing to administer chlorothiazide 20 mg/kg/day PO divided equally and administered twice daily for a toddler who weighs 28.6 lb. The amount available is chlorothiazide oral suspension 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

2.6 mL

A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

33 gtt/min

A nurse is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in 0.45% sodium chloride 400 mL IV to an older adult client over 8 hr. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

50 mL

A. nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 50 mg/kg/day PO divided into 4 equal doses for a toddler who weighs 33 lb. Available is ampicillin 125 mg/5 mL oral solution. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

7.5 mL

A nurse is planning to administer epoetin alfa to a client who has chronic kidney failure. Which of the following data should the nurse plan to review prior to administration of this medication? A. Blood pressure B. Temperature C. Blood glucose levels D. Total protein level

A. Blood pressure Epoetin alfa often causes hypertension, which can lead to stroke or other cardiovascular complications. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure and notify the provider about increases. The client who receives epoetin alfa frequently requires concurrent use of antihypertensive medication.

A nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client who has major depressive disorder and a new prescription for phenelzine. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the plan as safe for the client to consume while taking phenelzine? A. Broiled beef steak B. Macaroni and cheese C. Pepperoni pizza D. Smoked salmon

A. Broiled beef steak Phenelzine, an MAOI, is an antidepressant. This medication interacts with a variety of foods to produce a hypertensive crisis. Beef steak and other meats that are fresh do not interact with phenelzine and are safe to consume.

A nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. When assessing the client, the nurse should recognize that which of the following findings is a contraindication to administration of diltiazem? A. Hypotension B. Tachycardia C. Decreased level of consciousness D. History of diuretic use

A. Hypotension Diltiazem can be a treatment option for essential hypertension. This medication will lower blood pressure and is contraindicated for a client who is hypotensive. The nurse should teach the client to self-monitor blood pressure and keep a record of the readings.

A nurse is planning care for a female client who has severe irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea (IBS-D) and a new prescription for alosetron. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? A. The client must sign an agreement with the provider before beginning alosetron. B. The client must stop taking alosetron if diarrhea continues 1 week after beginning the medication. C. The client should expect to have a slower heart rate while taking alosetron. D. The client should use a barrier birth control method because alosetron interacts with oral contraceptives.

A. The client must sign an agreement with the provider before beginning alosetron. Alosetron has potentially fatal adverse effects associated with constipation and bowel obstruction. The FDA has allowed alosetron to be placed on the market only if clients sign and adhere to a risk management program, which includes signing a client-provider agreement before starting alosetron.

A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports that she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is dehydrated? A. Urine specific gravity 1.035 B. Distended neck veins C. BUN 18 mg/dL D. Bounding radial pulses

A. Urine specific gravity 1.035 Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are expected findings in clients who are dehydrated.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a positive tuberculin skin test and is beginning a prescription for isoniazid. The nurse should teach the client that which of the following laboratory values should be monitored while taking isoniazid? A. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone level (TSH) B. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) C. Potassium D. Sodium

B. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) Isoniazid can be toxic to the liver. Therefore, it is important to monitor liver enzymes, such as AST, during therapy with isoniazid. In addition, the nurse should instruct the client to notify the provider of jaundice, nausea, dark-colored urine or other findings indicating hepatitis.

A nurse is monitoring laboratory values for a male client who has leukemia and is receiving weekly chemotherapy with methotrexate via IV infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider? A. BUN 18 mg/dL B. Platelets 78,000/mm3 C. Hemoglobin 14.2 g/dL D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 35 units/L

B. Platelets 78,000/mm3 The nurse should monitor the platelet count of a client who is taking methotrexate because the medication can cause thrombocytopenia. This client's platelet count is very low and puts the client at risk for severe bleeding. The nurse should report this finding promptly to the provider. - monitor BUN (can cause kidney injury) (normal BUN range 6-44 mg/dL) - monitor platelet count (can cause thrombocytopenia) (normal 150,000 to 450,000) - monitor hemoglobin (can cause bone marrow suppression) (Normal range Male: 13.8 to 17.2 g/dL or 138 to 172 g/L Female: 12.1 to 15.1 g/dL or 121 to 151 g/L) - monitor AST (can cause liver damage) ((Normal ALT 4 to 36 U/L)

48. A nurse is assessing a client who takes oral theophylline for relief of chronic bronchitis. The nurse should recognize that which of the following findings indicates toxicity to theophylline? A. Constipation B. Tremors C. Fatigue D. Bradycardia

B. Tremors Theophylline is a xanthine derivative bronchodilator. An early manifestation of toxicity is CNS stimulation, often seen as tremors. Seizures can occur if blood levels continue to rise.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had a bleeding duodenal ulcer and is prescribed omeprazole. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "You will need to take this medication for the next 6 months." B. "Taking this medication will decrease your risk for acquiring pneumonia." C. "You should take this medication before breakfast every day." D. "Watch for the serious adverse effects of tachycardia and heart palpitations while taking this medication."

C. "You should take this medication before breakfast every day." Clients who have active duodenal ulcer or gastric reflux disease should take omeprazole once daily before a meal (usually breakfast) because the medication is less effective when taken with food.

A nurse is caring for a client who has alcohol use disorder and is admitted with lower extremity fractures following a motor-vehicle crash. A few hours after admission, the client develops restlessness and tremors. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to the client first? A. Acamprosate B. Naltrexone C. Chlordiazepoxide, D. Disulfiram

C. Chlordiazepoxide, a long-acting oral benzodiazepine, is a first-line medication to use for a client who is experiencing manifestations of acute alcohol withdrawal. For clients who are nauseated or vomiting, another benzodiazepine, such as lorazepam, can be administered via IV. The nurse should apply the acute versus chronic priority-setting framework when caring for this client. Using this framework, acute needs (manifestations of acute alcohol withdrawal) are typically the priority need because they pose more of a threat to the client. Because chronic needs usually develop over a period of time, the client has more of an opportunity to adapt to the alteration in health.

A nurse is administering adenosine via IV bolus for a client who has developed paroxysmal atrial tachycardia. For which of the following findings should the nurse assess the client during administration of adenosine? A. Seizures B. Cinchonism C. Dyspnea D. Transient pallor of the face

C. Dyspnea Dyspnea can occur during administration of adenosine due to bronchoconstriction. Since adenosine has a very short half-life of about 10 seconds, this effect should be short-lived. Transient pallor of the face

A nurse is caring for a client who was brought to the emergency department by friends who report the client has overdosed on heroin. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to assess? A. Temperature 39.2° C (102.6° F) B. Respiratory rate 30/min C. Pinpoint pupils D. Severe abdominal cramping

C. Pinpoint pupils Pinpoint pupils are an expected finding in opioid toxicity. Increased pupil size is seen in opioid withdrawal.

A nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client who is to begin long-term oral prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan? A. Stop taking the medication if a rash occurs. B. Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. C. Schedule the medication on alternate days to decrease adverse effects. D. Treat shortness of breath with an extra dose of the medication.

C. Schedule the medication on alternate days to decrease adverse effects. Some of the adverse effects caused by long-term glucocorticoid therapy, such as suppression of the adrenal gland, can be avoided by using alternate-day therapy.

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is taking oral furosemide 40 mg daily. For which of the following adverse effects should the client be taught to monitor and notify the provider if it occurs? A. Nasal congestion B. Tremors C. Tinnitus D. Frontal headache

C. Tinnitus Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, can cause ototoxicity. The client should be taught to notify the provider if tinnitus, a full feeling in the ears, or hearing loss occurs.

A nurse is assessing a client who has hypothyroidism and takes levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should alert the nurse that the client is experiencing acute levothyroxine overdose? A. Bradycardia B. Cold intolerance C. Tremor D. Hypothermia

C. Tremor Tremor and anxiety are expected findings in acute levothyroxine overdose. These findings are similar to those seen in hyperthyroidism.

A nurse is administering oral hydroxyzine to a client. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to expect? A. Diarrhea B. Anxiety C. Nausea and vomiting D. Dry mouth

D. Dry mouth Hydroxyzine has anticholinergic properties. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of this medication. The nurse should instruct the client to take sips of water or suck hard candies to minimize this effect.

A nurse is planning to administer diphenhydramine 50 mg via IV bolus to a client who is having an allergic reaction. The client has an IV infusion containing a medication that is incompatible with diphenhydramine in solution. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Choose an IV port for IV bolus injection of the diphenhydramine as near as possible to the client's hanging IV bag. B. Flush the IV tubing with 2 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride before and after administering diphenhydramine. C. Allow the IV infusion to keep running while administering the diphenhydramine via IV bolus. D. It is important to confirm IV patency prior to administering an IV bolus.

D. It is important to confirm IV patency prior to administering an IV bolus It is important to confirm IV patency prior to administering an IV bolus. Some medications cause severe tissue damage when inadvertently administered into tissue rather than into a vein.

A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and is taking naproxen 250 mg three times daily PO and gabapentin 1,800 mg three times daily PO to manage pain. The client tells the nurse, "I'm having pain that keeps me from doing what I'd like most of the time." Which of the following additions should the nurse anticipate to the client's medication regimen? A. Oral meperidine B. Parenteral naloxone C. Parenteral diazepam D. Oral oxycodone

D. Oral oxycodone The client's current pain regimen consists of a nonopioid analgesic, naproxen, and an adjuvant medication for neuropathic pain, gabapentin. According to the WHO analgesic ladder for cancer pain management, the next addition to the pain regimen is an opioid for moderate pain. Oxycodone is an oral opioid that relieves moderate to moderately severe pain; therefore, it is an appropriate choice to add to the client's pain regimen.

A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic stable angina pectoris and a prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. Identify the sequence of instructions that the nurse should tell the client to use if he experiences chest pain. (Move the steps into the box on the right, placing them in the selected order of performance. Use all the steps.)

Stop activity Place a tablet under tongue Wait 5 min Call 911 if the pain is not relieved

A nurse is preparing to administer an IV fluid bolus of 1 L 0.9% sodium chloride over 2 hr to a client who is dehydrated. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

50 mL/hr

A nurse is administering insulin glulisine 10 units subcutaneously at 0730 to an adolescent client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should anticipate onset of action of the insulin at which of the following times? A. 0800 B. 0745 C. 0900 D. 1030

B. 0745 Insulin glulisine has a very short onset of action of 15 min. The nurse should expect the onset of action around 0745 and ensure the client eats breakfast immediately following administration of the insulin.

A home health nurse is visiting an older adult client who has Alzheimer's disease. His caregiver tells the nurse she has been administering prescribed lorazepam, 1 mg three times per day, to the client for restlessness and anxiety during the past few days. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse assess the client? A. Low-grade fever B. Sedation C. Diuresis D. Tonic-clonic seizures

B. Sedation Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine with anti-anxiety and sedative effects. Older adult clients, especially, are at risk for central nervous system depression even with low doses of benzodiazepines. Clients who are 50 years or older can have a more profound and prolonged sedation than younger clients.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching about lithium toxicity to a client who has a new prescription for lithium. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I should take naproxen if I have a headache because aspirin can cause lithium toxicity." B. "I can develop lithium toxicity if I eat foods with lots of sodium." C. "I can develop lithium toxicity if I experience vomiting or diarrhea." D. "I might need to take a daily diuretic along with my lithium to prevent lithium toxicity.".

C. "I can develop lithium toxicity if I experience vomiting or diarrhea." Vomiting or diarrhea can cause electrolyte imbalances. If serum sodium decreases, lithium is retained by the kidneys and the risk for lithium toxicity increases.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has postmenopausal osteoporosis and a new prescription for intranasal calcitonin-salmon. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I will administer a spray into each nostril daily." B. "I should expect nasal bleeding for the first week." C. "I will need to depress the side arms to activate the pump." D. "I should expect to take this medication for a short-term course of treatment."

C. "I will need to depress the side arms to activate the pump." The nurse should instruct the client to activate the pump on the initial use by holding the bottle upright and depressing the two white side arms toward the bottle six times.

A nurse is caring for a client and realizes after administering the 0900 medications that she administered digoxin 0.25 mg PO to the client instead of the prescribed digoxin 0.125 mg PO. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Notify the provider. B. Contact the nursing supervisor. The nurse should contact the nursing supervisor to obtain assistance; however, there is another action the nurse should take first. C. Assess the client's apical pulse. D. Complete an incident report.

C. Assess the client's apical pulse. Caring for this client requires application of the nursing process priority-setting framework. The nurse can use the nursing process to plan client care and prioritize nursing actions. Each step of the nursing process builds on the previous step, beginning with assessment. Before the nurse can formulate a plan of action, implement a nursing intervention, or notify a provider about a change in the client's status, she must first collect adequate data from the client. Assessing will provide the nurse with knowledge to make an appropriate decision. Therefore, the first action the nurse should take is to assess the client

A nurse is providing teaching to the parents of a school-age child who has asthma about medications for bronchospasm. Which of the following inhaled medications should the nurse instruct the parents to use to relieve an acute asthma attack? A. Salmeterol B. Cromolyn C. Fluticasone D. Albuterol

D. Albuterol Albuterol is a short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist that is used to provide immediate relief for an acute asthma attack. One or two puffs every 4 to 6 hr PRN is the usual prescribed dose for a school-age child. If higher or more frequent doses are needed, the provider should evaluate the client for worsening asthma.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has angina pectoris and a new prescription for verapamil. The client tells the nurse, "My brother takes verapamil for high blood pressure. Do you think the provider made a mistake?" Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A. "Verapamil is used to treat both high blood pressure and angina." Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used for both hypertension and anginal pain because of its ability to dilate arteries and decrease afterload. B. "You should talk to your provider to make sure the prescription is correct for you." C. "Are you concerned that you might have high blood pressure?" D. "Your provider has prescribed verapamil so that you will not develop high blood pressure."

A. "Verapamil is used to treat both high blood pressure and angina." Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used for both hypertension and anginal pain because of its ability to dilate arteries and decrease afterload.

A nurse is preparing to administer iron dextran IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? A. Administer a small test dose before giving the full dose. B. Infuse the medication over 30 seconds. C. Monitor the client closely for hypertension after the infusion. D. Administer cyanocobalamin as an antidote if iron dextran toxicity occurs.

A. Administer a small test dose before giving the full dose. A serious adverse effect of iron dextran is anaphylaxis caused by hypersensitivity to the medication. It is recommended that a small test dose be administered over 5 min before giving the full dose. The client should be monitored carefully for an allergic reaction during and for a period of time following the test dose. Deferoxamine is an antidote for iron toxicity.

A nurse is assessing a client who reports using several herbal and vitamin supplements daily, including saw palmetto. The nurse should recognize that saw palmetto is a supplement used by clients to elicit which of the following therapeutic effects? A. Urinary health promotion B. Immune system stimulation C. Decreased leg pain from arterial disease D. Prevention of nausea caused by motion sickness

A. Urinary health promotion Saw palmetto is used primarily for manifestations related to prostatic conditions, such as benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). Its effectiveness has not been scientifically proven, however. The nurse should teach the client to check with the provider about interactions between saw palmetto and other medications.

A nurse is caring for a client who is in preterm labor and has a new prescription for nifedipine. The client states she is concerned because her father takes nifedipine for his angina pectoris. The nurse should explain to the client that nifedipine works for clients who are pregnant by which of the following mechanisms? A. It decreases the incidence of bacterial vaginosis, thus preventing uterine B. It inhibits uterine contractions by blocking entry of calcium into uterine cells. C. It decreases the activity within the CNS, which regulates all smooth muscle. D. It stimulates beta2 receptors in the uterus, which results in decreased

B. It inhibits uterine contractions by blocking entry of calcium into uterine cells.

A nurse is administering ciprofloxacin and phenazopyridine to a client who has a severe urinary tract infection (UTI). The client asks why both medications are needed. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A. "Phenazopyridine decreases adverse effects of ciprofloxacin hydrochloride." B. "Combining phenazopyridine with ciprofloxacin hydrochloride shortens the course of therapy." C. "The use of phenazopyridine allows for a lower dosage of ciprofloxacin hydrochloride." D. "Ciprofloxacin hydrochloride treats the infection, and the phenazopyridine treats pain."

D. "Ciprofloxacin hydrochloride treats the infection, and the phenazopyridine treats pain." Ciprofloxacin hydrochloride is a broad-spectrum quinolone antibiotic and phenazopyridine is a bladder analgesic/anesthetic that relieves burning and pain in the bladder mucosa caused by bladder spasm and inflammation.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has heart failure and a prescription for digoxin 0.125 mg PO daily and furosemide 20 mg PO daily. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I know that blurred vision is something I will expect to happen while taking digoxin." B. "I will measure my urine output each day and document it in my diary." C. "I will skip a dose of my digoxin if my resting heart rate is below 72 beats per minute." D. "I will eat fruits and vegetables that have high potassium content every day."

D. "I will eat fruits and vegetables that have high potassium content every day." Hypokalemia is an adverse effect of diuretic therapy. Because the client is taking digoxin, it is important to maintain thepotassium level between 3.5 to 5.0 mg/dLto avoid digoxin toxicity.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to start taking hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. The nurse instructs the client to eat foods rich in potassium. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "This medication will not work unless I have enough potassium." B. "Potassium will increase the therapeutic effect of my blood pressure medication." C. "Potassium will lower my blood pressure." D. "This medication can cause a loss of potassium."

D. "This medication can cause a loss of potassium." Hydrochlorothiazide can result in hypokalemia caused by excessive potassium excretion by the kidneys. The client should supplement his diet with potassium-rich foods to avoid the occurrence of hypokalemia. Foods that are high in potassium include bananas, raisins, baked potatoes, pumpkins, and milk

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has hypertension and a new prescription for oral clonidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops. B. Expect increased salivation during the first few weeks of therapy. C. Minimize fiber intake to prevent diarrhea. D. Avoid driving until the client's reaction to the medication is known.

D. Avoid driving until the client's reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, weakness, sedation, and other CNS effects. Until the client's response to the medication is known, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid driving or handling other potentially hazardous equipment. Over time, these effects are likely to decrease.

A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure and is taking digoxin. The client reports nausea and refuses to eat breakfast. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Encourage the client to eat the toast on the breakfast tray. B. Administer an antiemetic. C. Inform the client's provider. D. Check the client's apical pulse.

D. Check the client's apical pulse. Nausea, anorexia, fatigue, visual effects, and cardiac dysrhythmias, often caused by a slow pulse rate, are possible findings in digoxin toxicity. Caring for this client requires application of the nursing process priority-setting framework. The nurse can use the nursing process to plan client care and prioritize nursing actions. Each step of the nursing process builds on the previous step, beginning with assessment. Before the nurse can formulate a plan of action, implement a nursing intervention, or notify the provider about a change in the client's status, she must first collect adequate data from the client. Assessing will provide the nurse with knowledge to make an appropriate decision.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has hypertension and type 1 diabetes mellitus and a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I might have difficulty recognizing when my blood sugar is low." B. "I will have less risk for developing an infection while I take this medication." C. "I should be concerned about losing excess weight while I take this medication." D. "I could have more problems with high blood sugars while taking this medication."

A. "I might have difficulty recognizing when my blood sugar is low." Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is used to treat hypertension. Because it decreases heart rate, this common manifestation of hypoglycemia can be masked and hypoglycemia might become more difficult to recognize. The client should be taught to recognize hypoglycemia by other manifestations, such as hunger, nausea, and sweating.

A nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a 6-year-old client who has asthma and several prescription medications using metered dose inhalers (MDIs). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan? A. Add a spacer to each MDI. B. Instruct the child to inhale more rapidly than usual when using an MDI. C. Request that the provider change the child's medications from inhaled to oral formulations. D. Administer oxygen by facemask along with the MDI.

A. Add a spacer to each MDI. MDIs are difficult to use correctly and, even when properly used, only a portion of the medication is delivered to the lungs. A spacer applied to an MDI can make up for lack of hand-lung coordination by increasing the amount of medication delivered to the lungs.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had a kidney transplant and has a prescription for oral cyclosporine. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I will be able to stop taking this medication 6 months after my surgery." B. "I am likely to develop higher blood pressure while taking this medication." C. "I am likely to lose my hair while taking this medication." D. "I am taking this medication to boost my immune system."

B. "I am likely to develop higher blood pressure while taking this medication." Half the clients who take cyclosporine develop a 10% to 15% increase in blood pressure and might need to start antihypertensive therapy.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has been hospitalized for major depressive disorder and has a prescription for amitriptyline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I will take amitriptyline in the morning because I'm likely to have trouble falling asleep if I take it in the evening." B. "I will move slowly when I stand up because amitriptyline can cause my blood pressure to decrease." C. "I can drink a glass of beer or wine with my evening meal because amitriptyline doesn't interact with alcohol." D. "I will avoid foods high in fiber because amitriptyline can cause diarrhea."

B. "I will move slowly when I stand up because amitriptyline can cause my blood pressure to decrease." Amitriptyline can cause orthostatic hypotension. The nurse should instruct the client to take precautions to prevent injury due to falls while taking amitriptyline.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has venous thrombosis and a prescription for warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Take ibuprofen as needed for headache or other minor pains. B. Carry a medic alert ID card. C. Report to the laboratory weekly to have blood drawn for aPTT. D. Increase intake of dark green vegetables.

B. Carry a medic alert ID card. A client who is taking warfarin is at increased risk for bleeding. In the case of an emergency, it is important that any medical personnel are aware of the client's medication history.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus and a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following adverse effects of metformin should the nurse instruct the client to watch for and report to the provider? A. Weight gain B. Myalgia C. Hypoglycemia D. Severe constipation

B. Myalgia Myalgia, malaise, somnolence, and hyperventilation are manifestations of lactic acidosis, which rarely occur while taking metformin due to blockage of lactic acid oxidation. The nurse should instruct the client to report these findings promptly to the provider.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has heart failure and is taking spironolactone. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I will increase my intake of citrus fruits, bananas, and potatoes." B. "I will use salt substitutes on my food." C. "I will drink as much water as I can while taking this medication." D. "I will watch for increased breast tissue growth while taking this medication."

D. "I will watch for increased breast tissue growth while taking this medication." Spironolactone, which is derived from steroids, can cause adverse endocrine effects, such as gynecomastia, impotence in men and irregular menses and hirsutism in women. The nurse should instruct the client that these changes can occur

A nurse is preparing to administer oxytocin to a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation and is experiencing ineffective labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? A. Place the oxytocin from a pre-filled syringe into the posterior fornix of the B. Check the client's blood pressure and pulse every 15 min while induction of labor is occurring. C. Stop the oxytocin for contractions that continue longer than 30 seconds. D. Increase the dose of oxytocin to obtain uterine contractions that occur every 2 to 3 min.

D. Increase the dose of oxytocin to obtain uterine contractions that occur every 2 to 3 min. Effective uterine contractions should occur every 2 to 3 min.