2nd Half CE449 Environmental Compliance, Auditing, and Permitting
Based upon US EPA's Clean Air Act Stationary Source Civil Penalty Policy - dated October 25, 1991, if a source is located in an ozone nonattainment area with a nonattainment status of "extreme" and the violation is related to non-compliance with a new source performance standard (NSPS) what amount is added to the assessed penalty's gravity component? https://www.epa.gov/sites/production/files/documents/penpol.pdf (Links to an external site.) $22,000 $18,000 $43,000 $76,000
$18,000
Based upon US EPA's Clean Air Act Stationary Source Civil Penalty Policy - dated October 25, 1991, what is the dollar amount below which the US EPA can issue a penalty order for violations of the Clean Air Act? This is in lieu of seeking a civil/judicial remedy by using the US Department of Justice as legal counsel to pursue the penalty amount. See https://www.epa.gov/sites/production/files/documents/penpol.pdf (Links to an external site.) for penalty policy. $37,500 $200,000 $50,000 $1,00,000
$200,000
10 CSR 10-6.330 Restriction of Emissions From Batch-Type Charcoal Kilns applies to all batch-type charcoal kilns throughout the entire state of Missouri. There are two blanks to complete for this question - The hourly limit on particulate matter for a charcoal kiln in Missouri is ______________ and for performance testing of the charcoal kilns to determine if they are in compliance with emission limits, the owner/operator of the kiln must utilize Method 4 to determine the amount of ________________ in the gases. 0.10 lbs / halon 1.7 lbs / organic compounds 1.5 lbs / moisture 1.75 lbs / carbon dioxide
1.5 lbs / moisture
Based upon a review of 40 CFR 68.130, (use Google) what is the threshold quantity in pounds for the chemical chlorine (Chemical Abstract Number (CAS) 7782-50-5? Also why is chlorine included on this list? Answers below are separated by a "/" 3,000 lbs / citizen petition 2,500 lbs / mandated for listing by Congress 2,000 lbs / chemical industry wanted it listed 4,000 lbs / presidential executive order
2,500 lbs / mandated for listing by Congress
You will need to refer to the Roquette Title V permit to answer this question (see Clean Air Act module for file containing Roquette Title V permit). What is the PM10 emission limit on the #2 P&M starch dryer with emission unit # ST-17? 2.57 lbs/hour 0.257 lbs/hour 25.7 lbs / hour 257 lbs / hour
2.57 lbs/hour
EPA test method ________ is used to determine the vapor phase organic concentration in waste sample? HINT - Look online to 40 CFR Appendix A-7 to Part 60 - Test Methods 10 through 25E 25E 19 24A 23
25E
A stack test, also referred to in EPA regulations as a performance or source test, measures the amount of a specific regulated pollutant, pollutants, or surrogates being emitted; demonstrates the capture efficiency of a capture system; or determines the destruction or removal efficiency of a control device used to reduce emissions at facilities subject to the requirements of the Clean Air Act (CAA or Act). These stack tests are very expensive and companies with highly specialized equipment are engaged to perform these stack tests. Stack testing is an important tool used to determine a facility's compliance with emission limits, or capture or control efficiencies established pursuant to the CAA. For purposes of the New Source Performance Standards, the owner or operator of an affected facility has to provide the Administrator at least ____________ days prior notice of any performance test, except as specified under other subparts, to afford the Administrator the opportunity to have an observer present. In other words, how many days advance notice does a company have to give EPA, or the designated state agency, i.e., the MDNR or KDHE, before it can perform a valid stack test? Hint - Look to 40 CFR 60.8. 30 45 15 60
30
The objective of this question is to increase your familiarity with the Clean Air Act's New Source Performance Standards (NSPS) that are found at 40 CFR Part 60, subparts A thru TTTT. What is the minimum opening system pressure for any pressure-vacuum vent in a bulk gasoline terminal's vapor collection system? 4,500 pascals (450 mm of water) 900 pascals (90 mm of water) 9,000 pascals (900 mm of water) 450 pascals (45 mm of water)
4,500 pascals (450 mm of water)
A permeable reactive barrier is usually built by digging a long, narrow trench in the path of contaminated groundwater flow. The trench is filled with a reactive material, such as iron, limestone, carbon, or mulch, to clean up contamination. Due to limitations of excavation equipment, walls typically can be no deeper than ____________ feet. 75 50 200 25
50
You will need to refer to the Roquette Title V permit to answer this question (see Clean Air Act module for file containing Roquette Title V permit). What is the sulfur dioxide concentration limit on the emergency generator with emission unit # EG-1? 500 ppmv 80 ppb 6 lbs/hour 70 tons per year
500 ppmv
When using thermal desorption to remediate a site, the prepared soil is placed in the thermal desorber to be heated. Low-temperature thermal desorption is used to heat the solid material to 200-600ºF to treat VOCs. If SVOCs are present, then high-temperature thermal desorption is used to heat the soil to ______________ºF. 300-700 100-300 600-1000 6,000-10,000
600-1000
https://www.marc.org/Environment/Air-Quality/pdf/Ozone-Summaries/2020-O3-annual-summary-final.aspx (Links to an external site.) Using the document found at the link above (hint see Appendix A)- What is the daily maximum ozone concentration (in ppb) at the JFK monitor on April 25, 2020 and at the same monitor on July 7, 2020? What is the likely basis for the difference? 70 ppb and 41 ppb and high temperatures during the summer months convert the volatile organic compounds in and nitrogen dioxides from high temperature combustion to produce increased levels of ozone 56 ppb and 65 ppb and high temperatures during the summer months convert the volatile organic compounds in and nitrogen dioxides from high temperature combustion to produce increased levels of ozone 62 ppb and 75 ppb and high temperatures during the summer months convert the volatile organic compounds from vehicle refueling and industrial activities and nitrogen dioxides from high temperature combustion to produce increased levels of ozone 1.65 ppb and 3.47 ppb and cooler temperatures during the summer months convert the volatile organic compounds in and nitrogen dioxides from high temperature combustion to produce increased levels of ozone
62 ppb and 75 ppb and high temperatures during the summer months convert the volatile organic compounds from vehicle refueling and industrial activities and nitrogen dioxides from high temperature combustion to produce increased levels of ozone
We breath what EPA defines as "ambient" air. In the past, Kansas City has had problems with ambient air quality due to high levels of ozone. By reviewing the table at https://dnr.mo.gov/env/apcp/docs/ozonemonitordata.pdf (Links to an external site.) what is the fourth highest eight-hour ozone average, in parts per billion, for the year 2019 at the ozone monitor located at Watkins Mill in the Kansas City area? 63 62 69 78
63
This question and the next are to test your understanding of the "state implementation plan." On what date did Missouri initially publish their proposal in the Code of State Regulations seeking EPA approval of a new rule [10 CSR 10-6.065] which establishes a mechanism for creating Federally enforceable limitations that would reduce sources' potential to emit such that sources could avoid major source permitting requirements. This action approved the rule satisfying the rule for Federally enforceable state operating permit programs. In addition, this action addresses Missouri's program covering criteria pollutants (regulated under section 110 of the Clean Air Act) and hazardous air pollutants (regulated under section 112). HINT: Go to - https://www.epa.gov/sips-mo/missouri-sip-chapter-6-air-quality-standards-definitions-sampling-and-reference-methods-and#Documents (Links to an external site.) 5/5/92 9/17/93 7/29/94 9/25/95
9/17/93
___________________ is a material used to filter harmful chemicals from contaminated water and air. It is composed of black granules of coal, wood, nutshells or other carbon-rich materials. As contaminated water or air flows through activated carbon, the contaminants sorb (stick) to the surface of the granules and are removed from the water or air. Activated carbon Isolated carbon Regenerized carbon Superficial carbon
Activated carbon
__________________________ is the mathematical simulation of how air pollutants disperse in the ambient atmosphere. It is performed with computer programs that include algorithms to solve the mathematical equations that govern the pollutant dispersion. The ___________________________ is used to estimate the downwind ambient concentration of air pollutants or toxins emitted from sources such as industrial plants, vehicular traffic or accidental chemical releases. (same phrase is used in both blanks) Mixing Zone modeling Quantitative Easing Modeling Correlation Symmetry Modeling Atmospheric dispersion modeling
Atmospheric dispersion modeling
Pump and treat may last from a few years to several decades. The actual cleanup time will depend on several factors, which vary from site to site. The factors include all of the following except - Atmospheric pressure gradient Groundwater flow is slow, or the flow path is complex. The contaminant plume is large. Contaminant concentrations are high, or the contamination source has not been completely removed.
Atmospheric pressure gradient
___________________ is the use of microbes to clean up contaminated soil and groundwater. Microbes are very small organisms, such as bacteria, that live naturally in the environment. ___________________ stimulates the growth of certain microbes that use contaminants as a source of food and energy. Contaminants treated using __________________ include oil and other petroleum products, solvents, and pesticides. Bioremediation Biodisruption Bio-action Bioselectivity
Bioremediation
Again, this question is to improve your familiarity with the NSPS. You have been asked to provide guidance to the owner of a new grain elevator who handles alfalfa. The grain elevator has a grain capacity in excess of 2.5 million bushels and performance testing of the elevator reveals that during production the elevator is discharging particulate matter in excess of 0.087 g/dscm. What is your advise to the grain elevator operator? Client need to nothing she is not exceeding any NSPS limit Client is right at the limit so in an abundance of caution do not increase capacity Client is far above the legal concentration and likely needs to install pollution control equipment Client is slightly below the established limit so be careful about increasing production
Client is far above the legal concentration and likely needs to install pollution control equipment
Best Available Control Technology (BACT) is defined, by federal regulation at 40 CFR 52.21(b)(12), as the minimum degree of [emission] reduction . . . achievable," taking into account economic, energy, and environmental factors. True False
False
____________________creates or enlarges openings in bedrock or dense soil, such as clay, to help soil and groundwater cleanup methods work better. The openings become pathways through which contaminants in soil and groundwater can be treated in situ (in place, underground) or removed for above-ground treatment. Although these openings can occur naturally in soil and rock, they are not always wide or long enough to easily reach underground contamination using cleanup methods. This process can enlarge the cracks and create new ones to improve the speed and effectiveness of the cleanup. Liquifying Rupturing Bursting Fracturing
Fracturing
Air quality models are used to predict ground level concentrations down point of sources. The object of a model is to relate mathematically the effects of source emissions on ground level concentrations, and to establish that permissible levels are, or are not, being exceeded. The dispersion models are used to estimate the downwind ambient concentration of air pollutants or toxins emitted from sources such as industrial plants, vehicular traffic or accidental chemical releases. ... They are most useful for pollutants that are dispersed over large distances and that may react in the atmosphere. The ____________________ is the most common air pollution model. It is based on a simple formula that describes the three-dimensional concentration field generated by a point source under stationary meteorological and emission conditions. Constellation Inversion Model Gaussian Plume Model Air Sparging Stokes Model Castigliano Morphing Model
Gaussian Plume Model
___________________ uses chemicals to help change harmful contaminants into less toxic ones. It is commonly described as "in situ" because it is conducted in place, without having to excavate soil or pump out groundwater for aboveground cleanup. _________________ can be used to treat many types of contaminants like fuels, solvents, and pesticides. ____________________ is usually used to treat soil and groundwater contamination in the source area where contaminants were originally released. The source area may contain contaminants that have not yet dissolved into groundwater. (same term in each blank) In situ chemical oxidation Pump and treat Monitored natural attenuation Stabilization reaction
In situ chemical oxidation
____________________methods move or "mobilize" harmful chemicals in soil and groundwater using heat. The chemicals move through soil and groundwater toward wells where they are collected and piped to the ground surface to be treated using other cleanup methods. Some chemicals are destroyed underground during the heating process. With this treatment, heat is applied underground directly to the contaminated area. It can be particularly useful for chemicals called "non-aqueous phase liquids" or "NAPLs," which do not dissolve readily in groundwater and can be a source of groundwater contamination for a long time if not treated. Examples of NAPLs include solvents, petroleum, and creosote (a wood preservative). In situ thermal treatment Displaceable thermal remediation Pyrometric stabilization Ex situ thermal remediation
In situ thermal treatment
__________________ is the process of burning hazardous materials at temperatures high enough to destroy contaminants. ______________ is conducted in a type of furnace designed for burning hazardous materials in a combustion chamber. Many different types of hazardous materials can be treated by this process, including soil, sludge, liquids, and gases. Although it destroys many kinds of harmful chemicals, such as solvents, PCBs (polychlorinated biphenyls), and pesticides, incineration does not destroy metals, such as lead and chromium Incineration Passification Volatilization Reduction
Incineration
This question endeavors to determine your level of understanding of the terminology that surrounds control of hazardous air pollutant emissions. Recognize that this is all about using technology or work practice standards to reduce the amount of hazardous air pollutants being emitted into the air. The national emission standard for hazardous air pollutants (NESHAP) is also referred to as a _________________ standard. This standard requires EPA to base the standard on the best technology currently available for the source category (e.g., petroleum refineries, cement kilns, steel mills, etc.) in question , and these standards must be at least as stringent as the level achieved in practice by the best controlled source category (for the new ________ standards) or by the best performing group of sources (for existing source _________ standards). (all blanks are filled with the same acronym) none of these are correct MARE - maximum achievable rate of emissions LAER - lowest achievable emission rate MACT - maximum achievable control technology BACT - best available control technology
MACT - maximum achievable control technology
__________________________relies on natural processes to decrease concentrations of contaminants in soil and groundwater. Scientists monitor these conditions to make sure _________________________ is working. Monitoring typically involves collecting soil and groundwater samples to analyze them for the presence of contaminants and other site characteristics. The entire process is called monitored ________________ and this occurs at most contaminated sites. However, the right conditions must exist underground to clean sites properly and quickly enough. Regular monitoring must be conducted to ensure that monitored _________________________ continues to work. (same term fills each blank) Natural attenuation Natural reclaimation Natural restoration Natural reduction
Natural attenuation
_____________________ uses plants to clean up contaminated environments. Plants can help clean up many types of contaminants including metals, pesticides, explosives, and oil. However, they work best where contaminant levels are low because high concentrations may limit plant growth and take too long to clean up. Plants also help prevent wind, rain, and groundwater flow from carrying contaminants away from the site to surrounding areas or deeper underground. Ecoremediation Stabilization Phytoremediation Lithogradiation
Phytoremediation
Construction of a new source of air pollution or the modification of an existing source, may trigger preconstruction review and permitting. The nature of the preconstruction permitting requirements depends upon whether the source is to be located in an area that attains or failed to attain the National Ambient Air Quality Standards for the pollutant in question. Sources located in attainment areas are subject to the _____________ permit program; sources in non attainment areas are subject to the nonattainment permit program. High Quality Air Sampling (HQAS) Air Enhancement (AE) Nonattainment New Source Review (NANSR) Prevention of significant deterioration (PSD)
Prevention of significant deterioration (PSD)
Portland Cement is the principal ingredient in concrete, which is used worldwide as the main building block of infrastructure construction as well as for commercial and residential structures. Air toxics, also referred to as hazardous air pollutants (HAPs), are those pollutants that are known or suspected to cause cancer or other serious health effects. Portland cement manufacturing is an energy intensive process in which cement is made by grinding and heating a mixture of raw materials such as limestone, clay, sand, and iron ore in a rotary kiln. The kiln is a large furnace that is fueled by coal, oil, gas, coke and/or various waste materials. The product (called clinker) from the kiln is cooled, ground, and then mixed with a small amount of gypsum to produce portland cement. The main source of air toxics emissions from a portland cement plant is the kiln. Emissions originate from the burning of fuels and heating of feed materials. Air toxics are also emitted from the grinding, cooling, and materials handling steps in the manufacturing process. Pollutants regulated under this rule are particulate matter, organic HAP, metals through the control of particulate matter, mercury, acid gases, and dioxin/furan. What is the compliance date for an "open clinker pile" at a portland cement plant that is subject to the NESHAP requirements that became effective on February 13, 2013? September 9, 2015 May 5, 2014 July 24, 2009 February 12, 2013
September 9, 2015
_______________________ refer to a group of cleanup methods that prevent or slow the release of harmful chemicals from wastes, such as contaminated soil, sediment, and sludge. These methods usually do not destroy the contaminants. Instead, they keep them from "leaching" above safe levels into the surrounding environment. Leaching occurs when water from rain or other sources dissolves contaminants and carries them downward into groundwater or over land into lakes and streams. Solidification and stabilization Extraction and ejection Molarization and desication Putrification and densification
Solidification and stabilization
_________________________ removes organic contaminants from soil, sludge or sediment by heating them in a machine to evaporate the contaminants. Evaporation changes the contaminants into vapors (gases) and separates them from the solid material. Many organic contaminants can be removed by ___________________. These include volatile organic compounds or "VOCs" and some semi-volatile organic compounds or "SVOCs." VOCs such as solvents and gasoline evaporate easily when heated. SVOCs require higher temperatures to evaporate and include diesel fuel, creosote (a wood preservative), coal tar, and several pesticides. Thermal desorption Thermal acclimation Thermal decomposition Thermal restitution
Thermal desorption
A major source for purposes of the nonattainment program is generally one that has the potential to emit in excess of 100 tons per year of a nonattainment pollutant. TRUE OR FALSE: The 1990 Amendments to the Clean Air Act lower this threshold for areas with more serious nonattainment problems (e.g., to 50 tons per year for VOC and NOx in serious nonattainment areas, to 25 tons per year for severe areas, and to 10 tons per year for extreme areas). True False
True
A state implementation plan must include enforceable emission limitations and other control measures, including economic incentives and timetables, as necessary to comply with the Clean Air Act. True False
True
Bioremediation has the advantage of using natural processes to clean up sites. Because it may not require as much equipment, labor, or energy as some cleanup methods, it can be cheaper. Another advantage is that contaminated soil and groundwater are treated onsite without having to dig, pump, and transport them elsewhere for treatment. True or False -- Because microbes change the harmful chemicals into small amounts of water and gases, few if any waste byproducts are created. True False
True
In situ thermal treatment methods speed the cleanup of many types of chemicals, and are among the few in situ methods that can clean up non-aqueous phase liquids (NAPLs). True False
True
Pump and treat is a common method for cleaning up groundwater contaminated with dissolved chemicals, including industrial solvents, metals, and fuel oil. Groundwater is pumped from wells to an above-ground treatment system that removes the contaminants. Pump and treat systems also are used to "contain" the contaminant plume. Containment of the plume keeps it from spreading by pumping contaminated water toward the wells. True or False -- This pumping helps keep contaminants from reaching drinking water wells, wetlands, streams, and other natural resources. True False
True
Dispersion modeling uses mathematical formulations to characterize the atmospheric processes that disperse a pollutant emitted by a source. Based on emissions and meteorological inputs (Links to an external site.), a dispersion model can be used to predict concentrations at selected downwind receptor locations. These air quality models are used to determine compliance with National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), and other regulatory requirements such as New Source Review (NSR) and Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) regulations. These models are addressed in Appendix A of EPA's Guideline on Air Quality Models (also published as Appendix W (PDF) (Links to an external site.)(54 pp, 761 K, 01-17-2017) of 40 CFR Part 51), which was originally published in April 1978 to provide consistency and equity in the use of modeling within the U.S. air quality management system. These guidelines are periodically revised to ensure that new model developments or expanded regulatory requirements are incorporated. What is/are the EPA's preferred air quality dispersion models? Hint - look to EPA's Support Center for Regulatory Atmospheric Modeling (SCRAM) OCD - A straight line Gaussian model developed to determine the impact of offshore emissions from point, area or line sources on the air quality of coastal regions. CTDMPLUS - A refined point source gaussian air quality model for use in all stability conditions for complex terrain. all of these are correct none of these are correct CAL3QHC/CAL3QHCR - CALINE3 based CO model with queuing and hot spot calculations and with a traffic model to calculate delays and queues that occur at signalized intersections. AERMOD Modeling System - A steady-state plume model that incorporates air dispersion based on planetary boundary layer turbulence structure and scaling concepts, including treatment of both surface and elevated sources, and both simple and complex terrain.
all of these are correct
In order to receive a prevention of significant deterioration (PSD) permit, the owner or operator of the proposed major new source or major modification must show that the major source or modification -- will employ best available control technology (BACT) for each pollutant regulated under the Act that it will emit in significant amounts will comply with ambient air quality levels designed to prevent deterioration of air quality (the PSD increments) none of these are correct will avoid adverse impacts on federal class I areas (including national wilderness areas and parks in existence on August 7, 1977, and greater than 5000 or 6000 acres in size respectively) all of these are correct
all of these are correct
The centerpiece of Title IV of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments is the establishment of an emission ____________________ program for electric generating sources that emit sulfur dioxide (SO2). Through the ______________________ program, Title IV imposes a "cap" on total sulfur dioxide emissions from these sources that represent about a 50 percent reduction from 1980 levels. (same answer for both blanks) cross-border drift stratification allowance and trading reduction and elimination
allowance and trading
In areas that have not attained the national ambient air quality standards for a given pollutant (i.e., nonattainment areas), new major stationary sources, or major modifications of existing major sources, must receive a nonattainment permit before _____________can begin. negotiation of facility ownership construction emissions from emission sources operation of the facility
construction
___________________________covers are a type of cap placed over contaminated material, such as soil, landfill waste, or mining tailings, to prevent water from reaching it. They differ from other types of caps (See A Citizen's Guide to Capping [EPA 542-F-12-004].) in the way they prevent water from seeping into the waste. _______________________ covers store water from rainfall and snowmelt until drier or warmer weather evaporates the water, or until the water is taken in by plant roots and released to the air as water vapor through the leaves and stems. air sparging evapotranspiration Isopermeable thermal destruction
evapotranspiration
Section 112 of the Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990 focuses on trying to identify source categories and regulating their ______________ emissions rather than identifying and regulating individual ____________. (same term for each blank) hazardous wastes hazardous substances hazardous materials hazardous air pollutants
hazardous air pollutants
Returning to the test method referenced in the previous question - the "summary" of this test method suggests that the _____________ of the sample is analyzed for carbon content by a __________________, which uses a flame ionization detector (FID). radioactivity, geiger counter viscosity, viscosity analyzer headspace vapor; headspace analyzer fluidity, fluidity analyzer
headspace vapor; headspace analyzer
This and the next question are intended to improve your familiarity with the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPs), also known as maximum achievable control technology (MACT) standards that are found at 40 CFR Part 63. Your client for the past 10 years has owned a leather finishing operation that includes a group of processes used to adjust and improve the physical and aesthetic characteristics of a leather surface through multistage application of a coating comprised of dyes, pigments, film-forming materials, and performance modifiers dissolved or suspended in liquid carriers. While at a trade show recently your client was talking with some competitors and has become concerned that she may not be in compliance with some federal regulations that have set emission limits for determining the allowable loss of hazardous air pollutants. She knows that during production her upholstery leather process utilizes more than 4 grams add-on/square foot has a hazardous air pollutant loss of 3.1 pounds per 1,000 square feet of leather processed. NOTE: Finish add-on means the amount of solid material deposited on the leather substrate due to finishing operations. Typically, the solid deposition is a dye or other chemical used to enhance the color and performance of the leather. Finish add-on is quantified as mass per surface area of substrate, such as grams of finish add-on per square foot of leather substrate. her facility is out of compliance as it is exceeding the limit of 0.5 pounds her facility is right at the required emission limit her facility is out of compliance and she needs to reduce the emission level Her facility is fully compliant as the limit is more than double 3.1 pounds
her facility is out of compliance and she needs to reduce the emission level
Vapor intrusion is the movement of chemical vapors from contaminated soil and groundwater into nearby buildings. Vapors primarily enter through openings in the building foundation or basement walls ─ such as cracks in the concrete slab, gaps around utility lines, and sumps. It also is possible for vapors to pass through concrete, which is naturally porous. Once inside the home or workplace, vapors may be inhaled posing immediate or long-term health risks for the occupants. In rare cases, the buildup of vapors, such as those from gasoline, may cause explosive conditions. Risks will depend on the types of chemical vapors and their concentrations, how much time people spend in the building, and the building's ventilation. Vapor concentrations will be ____________ indoors when windows and doors remain closed. lower therapeutic the same higher
higher
States are responsible for implementing the nonattainment permit program. State permit programs must include, among other things, a requirement that major new or modified sources meet an emission limitation for nonattainment pollutants that reflects the ______________________. ______________________ is defined as "the most stringent emission limitation" contained in any state implementation plan (SIP) or that is "achieved in practice" by the state or similar source category, whichever is more stringent. If the owner or operator of the proposed facility can demonstrate that the most stringent technology is not feasible for the proposed facility, the next most stringent level of control is used to establish ________________________. (all blanks are filled with the same phrase) lowest rate of facility emissions (LRFE) lowest achievable emission rate (LAER) best conventional control technology (BCCT) best available control technology (BACT)
lowest achievable emission rate (LAER)
The centerpiece of the Clean Air Act is the ______________________ which address pervasive pollution that endangers public health and welfare. The ___________________ have been established for six pollutants: sulfur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, particulate matter, carbon monoxide, ozone and lead. national pollutant discharge elimination system national ambient air quality standards state implementation plan New Source Performance standards
national ambient air quality standards
40 CFR Part 63, subpart JJ is directed to ____________________ (my suggestion is you use Google to search for this standard by typing in 40 CFR Part 63, subpart JJ). The emission limit at 40 CFR Part 63.802(a)(3) limits hazardous air pollutant emissions to containing no more than ______________ kg of volatile organic compounds (VOC) per kg of solids.(the answer for each blank below is separated by a "/"). national emission standard for hazardous air pollutants for pharmaceutical production / 0.3 national emission standard hazardous air pollutants for wood furniture manufacturing / 0.8 national emission standard for hazardous air pollutant for dry cleaners / 0.9 national emission standards for hazardous air pollutants for steel pickling / 26
national emission standard hazardous air pollutants for wood furniture manufacturing / 0.8
Any stationary source source having the potential to emit (recall the meaning of that phrase) more than 10 tons per year of any of the listed substances, or 25 tons per year of any combination of the "air toxics," is considered a "major source" and is subject to regulation under the major source program. For each listed category of major sources, EPA must promulgate emission standards -- known as ________________________ requiring the application of measures that will result in the "maximum degree of reduction" that is achievable in light of economic, energy and environmental considerations. new source performance standards (NSPS) best available control technology (BACT) state implementation plans (SIP) national emission standards for hazardous pollutants (NESHAP)
national emission standards for hazardous pollutants (NESHAP)
The Clean Air Act requires the EPA administrator to identify categories of new and modified sources that contribute significantly to air pollution that endangers public health and welfare. To date, EPA has identified well over fifty such source categories, including most large industrial categories For these source categories, EPA sets emission standards that reflect the "degree of emission limitation achievable" through the best technology that Agency determines has been "adequately demonstrated," taking into consideration "nonair quality health and environmental impact[s] and energy requirements. ____________________ may be promulgated as design, equipment, work practice, or operational standards where numerical emission limitations are not feasible - i.e., 40 CFR Part 60. national emission standards for criteria pollutants state developmental emission standards new source performance standards air toxic assessment limitations
new source performance standards
The National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) are set at levels designed to protect public health with an adequate margin of safety (referred to the primary NAAQS) and to protect public welfare against known or anticipated adverse effects (the secondary NAAQS). Areas that do not meet one or more of the NAAQS are known as _________________________ areas and must comply with a number of special requirements. non-compliant nonattainment submarginal death zone
nonattainment
Title V of the 1990 Clean Air Act Amendments changed the basic approach to source-specific regulation under the Act by requiring each state to develop and implement a comprehensive _____________________ program for most sources of air pollution. The purpose of the new _____________________ program is to consolidate in a single document all of the federal regulations applicable to a source in order to facilitate source compliance and enforcement. With few exceptions, Title V does not authorize the creation of new substantive federal requirements. operating permit enforcement first emission reduction compliance assurance
operating permit
A __________________ is a wall created below ground to clean up contaminated groundwater. The wall is "permeable," which means that groundwater can flow through it. Water must flow through the _____________________ to be treated. The "reactive" materials that make up the wall either trap harmful contaminants or make them less harmful. The treated groundwater flows out theother side of the wall. isotherm reactive barrier impermeable reactive barrier permeable reactive barrier distillation reactive barrier
permeable reactive barrier
The New Source Review programs apply to "major" stationary sources. For the prevention of significant deterioration (PSD) program, a "major" source is one that has the potential to emit at least 250 tons per year of a regulated air pollutant or at least 100 tons per year of a regulated pollutant if the source falls within one of twenty-eight listed categories. Whether a source has the _______________ at these levels is determined based on the maximum capacity of the source to emit under its physical and operational design, taking into account any enforceable regulatory limits on source operations (e.g., operation limits included in a state implementation plan or source permit.) potential to emit smokestack openings capacity to eject effluent mass
potential to emit
The 1990 Amendments to the Clean Air Act require EPA to promulgate regulations to prevent accidental release of certain hazardous substances. Under EPA's ____________________ regulations, owners and operators of facilities at which such substances are present in more than a threshold quantity must prepare risk management plans for each substance used at the facility. EPA may also require annual audits and safety inspections to prevent leaks and other episodic releases. These substances and threshold quantities are listed at 40 CFR Part _____________. risk characterization profile / 52 risk elimination doctrine / 71 risk management program / 68 risk avoidance centerpiece / 262
risk management program / 68
You will need to refer to the Roquette Title V permit to answer this question (see Clean Air Act module for file containing Roquette Title V permit). What type of control device is utilized on carbon regeneration furnace #1 with emission unit # RC-2? electrostatic precipitator film ejection nodule kerner scrubber
scrubber
Both ________________ and air sparging extract (remove) contaminant vapors from below ground for treatment above ground. Vapors are the gases that form when chemicals evaporate. ________________ extracts vapors from the soil above the water table by applying a vacuum to pull the vapors out. Air sparging, on the other hand, pumps air underground to help extract vapors from groundwater and wet soil found beneath the water table. The addition of air makes the chemicals evaporate faster, which makes them easier to extract with another technology, such as SVE. soil vapor extraction monitored natural attenuation phytoremediation amendment dilution
soil vapor extraction
The Clean Air Act Amendments give states primary responsibility for ensuring that emissions from sources within their borders are maintained at a level consistent with the NAAQS. This is achieved through the establishment of source specific emission limits and other measures in _________________ assuring attainment of the primary and secondary air quality standards. The _________________ is a constantly evolving regulatory document that must be updated as federal requirements and local conditions change. state implementation plans non-attainment designations federal delegation agreements state performance standards
state implementation plans
