3 mod 6 GI

Which intervention may decrease the incidence of physiologic jaundice in a healthy full-term infant? A: institute early and frequent feedings B: bathe newborn when the axillary temperature is 36.3 degrees C (97.5 degrees F) C: place the newborn's crib near a window for exposure to sunlight D: suggest that the mother initiate breastfeeding when the danger of jaundice has passed

A: institute early and frequent feedings

Which interventions should the nurse implement for a newborn with subgaleal hemorrhage? (Select all that apply) A: monitor bilirubin levels B: monitor hematocrit levels C: prepares the newborn for skull radiography D: monitor the newborn's level of consciousness E: place a warm compress on the affected area

A: monitor bilirubin levels B: monitor hematocrit levels D: monitor the newborn's level of consciousness

What is an important nursing intervention for a full-term infant reaching phototherapy? A: observing for dehydration B: using sunscreen to protect the infant's skin C: keeping the infant diapered to collect frequent stools D: informing the mother why breastfeeding must be discontinued

A: observing for dehydration

The nurse is teaching a new nurse about types of physical injuries that can occur at birth. Which soft tissue injuries should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply) A: petechiae B: retinal hemorrhage C: facial paralysis D: cephalhematoma E: subdural hematoma F: subconjunctival hemorrhage

A: petechiae B: retinal hemorrhage F: subconjunctival hemorrhage

The nurse is teaching a client about nutrition and diverticulosis. Which food will the nurse teach the client to avoid? A. Cucumber B. Beans C. Carrot D. Radish

A

The nurse suspects a newborn has a fractured clavicle. What are signs of a fractured clavicle? (Select all that apply) A: an asymmetric Moro reflex B: limited use of the affected arm C: crying when the arm is moved D: muscles of the hand are paralyzed E: the arm hangs limp alongside the body

A: an asymmetric Moro reflex B: limited use of the affected arm C: crying when the arm is moved

The nursery nurse is aware that which are risk factors for hyperbilirubinemia? (Select all that apply) A: an infant born prematurely B: an infant born to a mother with diabetes C: an infant born to a white mother D: an infant fed excessively with formula E: an infant born with a metabolic disease

A: an infant born prematurely B: an infant born to a mother with diabetes E: an infant born with a metabolic disease

The parents of a newborn ask the nurse what caused the baby's facial nerve paralysis. The nurse's response is based on remembering that this is caused by what? A: birth injury B: genetic defect C: spinal cord injury D: inborn error of metabolism

A: birth injury

11. A nurse assesses an older adult client with the skin disorder shown below: How will the nurse document this finding? a. Petechiae b. Ecchymoses c. Actinic lentigo d. Senile angiomas

ANS: A Petechiae, or small, reddish purple nonraised lesions that do not fade or blanch with pressure, are pictured here. Ecchymoses are larger areas of hemorrhaging, commonly known as bruising. Actinic lentigo presents as paper-thin, transparent skin. Senile angiomas, also known as cherry angiomas, are red raised lesions.

15. The nurse is caring for a client with hepatitis C. The client's brother states, "I do not want to get this infection, so I'm not going into his hospital room." How would the nurse respond? a. "Hepatitis C is not spread through casual contact." b. "If you wear a gown and gloves, you will not get this virus." c. "This virus is only transmitted through a fecal specimen." d. "I can give you an update on your brother's status from here."

ANS: A Although family members may be afraid that they will contract hepatitis C, the nurse would educate them about how the virus is spread. Hepatitis C is spread via blood-to-blood transmission and is associated with illicit IV drug needle sharing, blood and organ transplantation, accidental needlesticks, unsanitary tattoo equipment, and sharing of intranasal drug paraphernalia. Wearing a gown and gloves will not decrease the transmission of this virus. Hepatitis C is not spread through casual contact or a fecal specimen. The nurse would be violating privacy laws by sharing the client's status with the brother.

2. A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed alosetron. Which assessment question would the nurse ask this client before starting the drug? a. "Have you been experiencing any constipation?" b. "Are you eating a diet high in fiber and fluids?" c. "Do you have a history of high blood pressure?" d. "What vitamins and supplements are you taking?"

ANS: A Ischemic colitis is a life-threatening complication of alosetron. The nurse would assess the client for constipation because it places the client at risk for this complication. The other questions do not identify the risk for complications related to alosetron.

8. A nurse cares for a client who states, "My husband is repulsed by my colostomy and refuses to be intimate with me." How would the nurse respond? a. "Let's talk to the ostomy nurse to help you and your husband work through this." b. "You could try to wear longer lingerie that will better hide the ostomy appliance." c. "You should empty the pouch first so it will be less noticeable for your husband." d. "If you are not careful, you can hurt the stoma if you engage in sexual activity."

ANS: A The nurse would collaborate with the ostomy nurse to help the client and her husband work through intimacy issues. The nurse would not minimize the client's concern about her husband with ways to hide the ostomy. The client will not hurt the stoma by engaging in sexual activity.

12. A nurse cares for a client who has a new colostomy. Which action would the nurse take? a. Empty the pouch frequently to remove excess gas collection. b. Change the ostomy pouch and barrier every morning. c. Allow the pouch to completely fill with stool prior to emptying it. d. Use surgical tape to secure the pouch and prevent leakage.

ANS: A The nurse would empty the new ostomy pouch frequently because of excess gas collection, and empty the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full of stool. The ostomy pouch does not need to be changed every morning. Ostomy barriers would be used to secure and seal the ostomy appliance; surgical tape would not be used.

10. A nurse cares for a client who had a colostomy placed in the ascending colon 2 weeks ago. The client states, "The stool in my pouch is still liquid." How would the nurse respond? a. "The stool will always be liquid with this type of colostomy." b. "Eating additional fiber will bulk up your stool and decrease diarrhea." c. "Your stool will become firmer over the next couple of weeks." d. "This is abnormal. I will contact your primary health care provider."

ANS: A The stool from an ascending colostomy can be expected to remain liquid because little large bowel is available to reabsorb the liquid from the stool. This finding is not abnormal. Liquid stool from an ascending colostomy will not become firmer with the addition of fiber to the client's diet or with the passage of time.

7. The nurse assists the wound care/ostomy nurse assess a client prior to ostomy surgery. Which assessments would the nurse complete before marking the placement for the ostomy? (Select all that apply.) a. Contour of the abdomen when standing b. Location of the client's belt line c. Contour of the abdomen when lying d. Location of abdominal muscles e. Contour of the abdomen when sitting

ANS: A, B, C, E Before marking the placement for the ostomy, the nurse would consider the contour of the abdomen in lying, sitting, and standing positions, the location of the belt line and possible location in the rectus muscle. The location of abdominal muscles is not considered.

18. The nurse is teaching assistive personnel (AP) about care of a client who has advanced cirrhosis. Which statements would the nurse include in the staff teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Apply lotion to the client's dry skin areas." b. "Use a basin with warm water to bathe the patient." c. "For the patient's oral care, use a soft toothbrush." d. "Provide clippers so the patient can trim the fingernails." e. "Bathe with antibacterial and water-based soaps."

ANS: A, C, D Clients with advanced cirrhosis often have pruritus. Lotion will help decrease itchiness from dry skin. A soft toothbrush would be used to prevent gum bleeding, and the client's nails would need to be trimmed short to prevent the patient from scratching himself or herself. These clients should use cool, not warm, water on their skin, and should not use excessive amounts of soap.

20. The nurse plans care for a patient who has hepatopulmonary syndrome. Which interventions would the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Oxygen therapy b. Prone position c. Feet elevated on pillows d. Daily weights e. Physical therapy f. Respiratory therapy

ANS: A, C, D, F Care for a client who has hepatopulmonary syndrome would include oxygen therapy, the head of bed elevated at least 30 degrees or as high as the client wants to improve breathing, elevated feet to decrease dependent edema, and daily weights. There is no need to place the patient in a prone position, on the patient's stomach. Although physical therapy may be helpful to a patient who has been hospitalized for several days, physical therapy is not an intervention specifically for hepatopulmonary syndrome. However, respiratory support from a specialized therapist may be needed

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with a small bowel obstruction. Which assessment findings would the nurse correlate with this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L) b. Loss of 15 lb (6.8 kg) without dieting c. Abdominal pain in upper quadrants d. Low-pitched bowel sounds e. Serum sodium of 121 mEq/L (121 mmol/L)

ANS: A, C, E Small bowel obstructions often lead to severe fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The client is hypokalemic (normal range is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L [3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L]) and hyponatremic (normal range is 136 to 145 mEq/L [136 to 145 mmol/L]). Abdominal pain across the upper quadrants is associated with small bowel obstruction. Dramatic weight loss without dieting followed by bowel obstruction leads to the probable development of colon cancer. High-pitched sounds may be noted with small bowel obstructions.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube (NGT). Which actions would the nurse take for client care? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess for proper placement of the tube every 4 hours or per agency policy. b. Flush the tube with water every hour to ensure patency. c. Secure the NG tube to the client's chin. d. Disconnect suction when auscultating bowel peristalsis. e. Monitor the client's skin around the tube site for irritation.

ANS: A, D, E The nurse would frequently assess for NGT placement, patency, and output (drainage) every 4 hours or per agency policy. The nurse would also monitor the skin around the tube for irritation and secure the tube to the client's nose. When auscultating bowel sounds for peristalsis, the nurse would disconnect suction. NGT irrigation may or may not be prescribed. If it is prescribed, hourly irrigation is not appropriate.

15. The nurse is caring for a client who is planning to have a laparoscopic colon resection for colorectal cancer tomorrow. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I should have less pain after this surgery compared to having a large incision." b. "I will probably be in the hospital for 3 to 4 days after surgery." c. "I will be able to walk around a little on the same day as the surgery." d. "I will be able to return to work in a week or two depending on how I do."

ANS: B All of these statements are correct about having minimally invasive laparoscopic surgery except that the hospital stay will likely be only 1 or 2 days.

6. The nurse is caring for a client who has a postoperative paralytic ileus following abdominal surgery. What drug is appropriate to manage this nonmechanical bowel obstruction? a. Alosetron b. Alvimopan c. Amitiptyline d. Amlodipine

ANS: B Alvimopan is the appropriate drug to promote peristalsis for clients who have a paralytic ileus. The other drugs do not affect intestinal activity.

11. A telehealth nurse speaks with a client who is recovering from a liver transplant 2 weeks ago. The client states, "I'm having right belly pain and have a temperature of 101° F (38.3° C)." How would the nurse respond? a. "The anti-rejection drugs you are taking make you susceptible to infection." b. "You should go to the hospital immediately to get checked out." c. "You should take an additional dose of cyclosporine today." d. "Take acetaminophen every 4 hours until you feel better soon."

ANS: B Fever, right abdominal quadrant pain, and jaundice are signs of possible liver transplant rejection; the client would be admitted to the hospital as soon as possible for intervention. Antirejection drugs do make a client more susceptible to infection, but this client has signs of rejection, not infection. The nurse would not advise the client to take an additional dose of cyclosporine or acetaminophen as these medications will not treat the acute rejection.

1. After teaching a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which menu selection indicates that the client correctly understands the dietary teaching? a. Ham sandwich on white bread, cup of applesauce, carbonated beverage b. Broiled chicken with brown rice, steamed broccoli, glass of apple juice c. Grilled cheese sandwich, small banana, cup of hot tea with lemon d. Baked tilapia, fresh green beans, cup of coffee with low-fat milk

ANS: B Patients with IBS are advised to eat a high-fiber diet. Chicken with brown rice, broccoli, and apple juice has the highest fiber content. Clients should avoid alcohol, caffeine, and other gastric irritants.

14. A client is preparing to have a fecal occult blood test (FOBT). What health teaching would the nurse include prior to the test? a. "This test will determine whether you have colorectal cancer." b. "You need to avoid red meat and NSAIDs for 48 hours before the test." c. "You don't need to have this test because you can have a virtual colonoscopy." d. "This test can determine your genetic risk for developing colorectal cancer."

ANS: B The FOBT is a screening test that is sometimes used to assess for microscopic lower GI bleeding. To help prevent false positive results, the client needs to avoid red meat, Vitamin C, and NSAIDs. The test is not diagnostic nor does it determine a client's genetic risk for colorectal cancer.

9. The nurse is teaching a client who had a descending colostomy 2 days ago about the ostomy stoma. Which changes in the stoma would the nurse teach the client to report to the primary health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Stool consistency is similar to paste. b. Stoma becomes dark and dull. c. Skin around the stoma becomes excoriated. d. Skin around stoma becomes protruded. e. Stoma becomes retracted into the abdomen.

ANS: B, C, D, E A colostomy placed in the descending colon would be expect to have a paste-like stool consistency. However, if the stoma becomes retracted or discolored, the client should report those changes to the primary health care provider. Skin around the stoma that becomes protruded would suggest the formation of a peristomal hernia, and skin excoriation needs appropriate management. Therefore, both of those skin changes would need to be reported to the primary health care provider.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. The nurse is caring for a client with probable colorectal cancer (CRC). What assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight gain b. Rectal bleeding c. Anemia d. Change in stool shape e. Electrolyte imbalances f. Abdominal discomfort

ANS: B, C, D, F The client who has CRC usually experiences unintentional weight loss and rectal bleeding, either gross or occult. As a result of bleeding, the client has anemia and fatigue. Electrolyte imbalances are not common, but the client may note that the shape or consistency of stool has changed.

12. After teaching a client who has alcohol-induced cirrhosis, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I cannot drink any alcohol at all anymore." b. "I should not take over-the-counter medications." c. "I need to avoid protein in my diet." d. "I should eat small, frequent, balanced meals."

ANS: C Based on the degree of liver involvement and decreased function, protein intake may have to be decreased. However, some protein is necessary for the synthesis of albumin and normal healing. The other statements indicate accurate understanding of self-care measures for this client

14. The nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis from substance abuse. The client states, "All of my family hates me." How would the nurse respond? a. "You should make peace with your family." b. "This is not unusual. My family hates me too." c. "I will help you identify a support system." d. "You must attend Alcoholics Anonymous."

ANS: C Clients who have cirrhosis due to addiction may have alienated relatives over the years because of substance abuse. The nurse would assist the client to identify a friend, neighbor, clergy/spiritual leader, or group for support. The nurse would not minimize the patient's concerns. Attending AA may be appropriate, but this response doesn't address the client's concern. "Making peace" with the client's family may not be possible. This statement is not client-centered

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with a complete small bowel obstruction. For what priority problem is this client most likely at risk? a. Abdominal distention b. Nausea c. Electrolyte imbalance d. Obstipation

ANS: C The client who has a small bowel obstruction is at the highest risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalances, especially dehydration and hypokalemia due to profuse vomiting. Nausea, abdominal distention, and obstipation are also usually present, but these problems are not as life threatening as the imbalances in electrolytes.

5. A nurse assessing a client with colorectal cancer auscultates high-pitched bowel sounds and notes the presence of visible peristaltic waves. Which action would the nurse take? a. Ask if the client is experiencing pain in the right shoulder. b. Perform a rectal examination and assess for polyps. c. Recommend that the client have computed tomography. d. Administer a laxative to increase bowel movement activity.

ANS: C The presence of visible peristaltic waves, accompanied by high-pitched or high-pitched bowel sounds, is indicative of bowel obstruction caused by the tumor. The nurse would contact the primary health care provider with these results and recommend a computed tomography scan for further diagnostic testing. This assessment finding is not associated with right shoulder pain; peritonitis and cholecystitis are associated with referred pain to the right shoulder. The nurse generalist is not qualified to complete a rectal examination for polyps, and laxatives would not help this client.

2. After teaching a client who is recovering from a colon resection to treat early-stage colorectal cancer (CRC), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statements by the client indicate understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "I must change the ostomy appliance daily and as needed." b. "I will use warm water and a soft washcloth to clean around the stoma." c. "I might start bicycling and swimming again once my incision has healed." d. "I will make sure that I make lifestyle changes to prevent constipation." e. "I will be sure to have the recommended colonoscopies."

ANS: C, D, E The client has had a colon resection for early CRC and there is no indication that the client also had a colostomy. Follow up with recommended colonoscopies are essential to monitor for CRC recurrence. Avoiding constipation will help improve intestinal motility which helps to decrease the risk for CRC recurrence. Exercise and other activities do not need to be restricted after the client has healed.

4. A nurse assesses clients at a community health center. Which client is at highest risk for developing colorectal cancer? a. A 37-year-old who drinks eight cups of coffee daily. b. A 44-year-old with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). c. A 60-year-old lawyer who works 65 hours per week. d. A 72-year-old who eats fast food frequently.

ANS: D Colon cancer is rare before the age of 40, but its incidence increases rapidly with advancing age. Fast food tends to be high in fat and low in fiber, increasing the risk for colon cancer. Coffee intake, IBS, and a heavy workload do not increase the risk for colon cancer.

13. The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a paracentesis. Which action is appropriate for the nurse to take? a. Have the client sign the informed consent form. b. Get the patient into a chair before the procedure. c. Help the client lie flat in bed on the right side. d. Assist the client to void before the procedure.

ANS: D For safety, the patient would void just before a paracentesis to prevent bladder damage to the procedure. The primary health care provider would have the client sign the consent form. The proper position for a paracentesis is sitting upright in bed or, alternatively, sitting on the side of the bed and leaning over the bedside table.

9. The nurse is caring for a client with a large bowel obstruction due to fecal impaction. What position would be appropriate for the client while in bed? a. Prone b. Supine c. Recumbent d. Semi-Fowler

ANS: D Having the client in a semi-sitting position helps to decrease the pressure caused by abdominal distention and promotes thoracic expansion to facilitate breathing.

1. The nurse is caring for a client with peritonitis from a perforated appendix. Which abdominal assessment finding will the nurse most likely expect? A. Soft abdomen B. Board-like abdomen C. Slightly distended abdomen D. Absent bowel sounds

B

Which finding on a newborn assessment should the nurse recognize as suggestive of a clavicle fracture? A: positive scarf sign B: asymmetric Moro reflex C: swelling of fingers on affected side D: paralysis of affected extremity and muscles

B: asymmetric Moro reflex

2. A client had a colectomy with creation of an ileo-anal pouch and temporary ileostomy yesterday morning. The nurse assesses the ostomy and its functioning. Which assessment finding will the nurse report to the primary health care provider? A. Client's report of abdominal pain of 3 on a 0 to 10 pain intensity scale B. Slight abdominal distention C. No drainage from the ileostomy D. Serosanguinous effluent from the drain

C

The nurse is caring for a newborn with Erb's palsy. The nurse understands that which reflex is absent with this condition? A: root reflex B: suck reflex C: grasp reflex D: moro reflex

D: moro reflex

Which is a bright red, rubbery nodule with a rough surface and a well-defined margin that may be present at birth? A: port-wine stain B: juvenile melanoma C: cavernous hemangioma D: strawberry hemangioma

D: strawberry hemangioma

The nurse is caring for a client who is recovering from an open traditional Whipple surgical procedure. What action would the nurse take? a. Clamp the nasogastric tube. b. Place the patient in semi-Fowler position. c. Assess vital signs once every shift. d. Provide oral rehydration.

b. Place the patient in semi-Fowler position. Postoperative care for a patient recovering from an open Whipple procedure would include placing the client in a semi-Fowler position to reduce tension on the suture line and anastomosis sites and promote breathing, setting the nasogastric tube to low continuous suction to remove free air buildup and pressure, assessing vital signs frequently to assess fluid and electrolyte complications, and providing intravenous fluids.

20. A nurse assesses a patient who has celiac disease. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight gain b. Anorexia c. Constipation d. Anal fistula e. Abdominal pain

ANS: B, C, E Signs and symptoms of celiac disease include weight loss, anorexia, constipation, and abdominal pain. Anal fistulas are not associated with celiac disease

23. After teaching a patient who has a permanent ileostomy, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which dietary items chosen for dinner indicate that the client needs further teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Corn b. String beans c. Carrots d. Wheat rice e. Squash

ANS: A, B, D Clients with an ileostomy should be cautious of high-fiber and high-cellulose foods including corn, string beans, and rice. Carrots and squash are low-fiber items.

The nurse is caring for an older adult client who experiences an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis with severe diarrhea and rectal bleeding that have lasted a week. For which complication(s) will the nurse assess? Select all that apply. A. Increased BUN B. Hypokalemia C. Leukocytosis D. Anemia E. Hyponatremia

A, B, C, D, E

The nurse is caring for a breastfed full-term infant who was born after an uneventful pregnancy and delivery. The infant's blood glucose level is 36 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse implement? A: bring the infant to the mother and initiate breastfeeding B: place a NG tube and administer 5% dextrose water C: start a peripheral IV line and administer 10% dextrose D: monitor the infant in the nursery and obtain a blood glucose level in 4 hours

A: bring the infant to the mother and initiate breastfeeding

What is an infant with severe jaundice at risk for developing? A: encephalopathy B: bullous impetigo C: respiratory distress D: blood incompatibility

A: encephalopathy

An infant with an isolated cleft lip is being bottle fed. Which actions should the nurse plan to implement to assist with the feeding? (Select all that apply) A: use an NUK nipple B: use cheek support C: enlarge the nipple opening D: position the infant upright E: thicken the formula with rice cereal

A: use an NUK nipple B: use cheek support D: position the infant upright

10. The nurse is teaching a client a client about taking elbasvir for hepatitis C. What information in the client's history would the nurse need prior to drug administration? a. History of hepatitis B b. History of kidney disease c. History of cardiac disease d. History of rectal bleeding

ANS: A Elbasvir can cause liver toxicity and therefore the nurse would assess for a history of or current hepatitis B

12. A nurse reviews the electronic health record of a client who has Crohn disease and a draining fistula. Which documentation would alert the nurse to urgently contact the primary health care provider for additional prescriptions? a. Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L (2.6 mmol/L) b. Client ate 20% of breakfast meal c. White blood cell count of 8200/mm3 (8.2 109/L) d. Client's weight decreased by 3 lb (1.4 kg)

ANS: A Fistulas place the patient with Crohn disease at risk for hypokalemia which can lead to serious dysrhythmias. This potassium level is low and would cause the nurse to intervene. The white blood cell count is normal. The other two findings are abnormal and also warrant intervention, but the potassium level takes priority.

1. The nurse assesses a client who has appendicitis. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect? a. Severe, steady right lower quadrant pain b. Abdominal pain associated with nausea and vomiting c. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds d. Abdominal pain that increases with knee flexion

ANS: A Right lower quadrant pain, specifically at McBurney's point, is characteristic of appendicitis. Usually if nausea and vomiting begin first, the client has gastroenteritis. Marked peristalsis and hyperactive bowel sounds are not indicative of appendicitis. Abdominal pain due to appendicitis decreases with knee flexion.

3. The nurse teaches a client who has viral gastroenteritis. Which dietary instruction would the nurse include in the health teaching? a. "Drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration." b. "You should only drink 1 L of fluids daily." c. "Increase your protein intake by drinking more milk." d. "Sips of cola or tea may help to relieve your nausea."

ANS: A The client should drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration. Milk products may not be tolerated. Caffeinated beverages increase intestinal motility and should be avoided.

16. The nurse assesses a patient who is recovering from an ileostomy placement. Which assessment finding would alert the nurse to immediately contact the primary health care provider? a. Pale and bluish stoma b. Liquid stool c. Ostomy pouch intact d. Blood-tinged output

ANS: A The nurse would assess the stoma for color and contact the primary health care provider if the stoma is pale, bluish, or dark because these changes indicate possible lack of perfusion. The nurse would expect the client to have an intact ostomy pouch with dark green liquid stool that may contain some blood.

6. The nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed lactulose. The client states, "I do not want to take this medication because it causes diarrhea." How would the nurse respond? a. "Diarrhea is expected; that's how your body gets rid of ammonia." b. "You may take antidiarrheal medication to prevent loose stools." c. "Do not take any more of the medication until your stools firm up." d. "We will need to send a stool specimen to the laboratory as soon as possible."

ANS: A The purpose of administering lactulose to this patient is to help ammonia leave the circulatory system through the colon. Lactulose draws water into the bowel with its high osmotic gradient, thereby producing a laxative effect and subsequently evacuating ammonia from the bowel. The patient must understand that this is an expected and therapeutic effect for him or her to remain compliant. The nurse would not suggest administering anything that would decrease the excretion of ammonia or holding the medication. There is no need to send a stool specimen to the laboratory because diarrhea is the therapeutic response to this medication.

3. The nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a paracentesis 1 hour ago. Which assessment finding would require immediate action by the nurse? a. Urine output via indwelling urinary catheter is 20 mL/hr b. Blood pressure increases from 110/58 to 120/62 mm Hg c. Respiratory rate decreases from 22 to 16 breaths/min d. A decrease in the client's weight by 3 lb (1.4 kg

ANS: A decreased abdominal pressure, which can contribute to hypovolemia. This can be manifested by a decrease in urine output to below 30 mL/hr. A slight increase in systolic blood pressure is insignificant. A decrease in respiratory rate indicates that breathing has been made easier by the procedure. The nurse would expect the client's weight to drop as fluid is removed. To prevent hypovolemic shock, no more than 2000 mL are usually removed from the abdomen at one time. The patient's weight typically only decreases by less than 2 kg or 4.4 lb.

5. A nurse assesses an older client who has two skin lesions on the chest. Each lesion is the size of a nickel, flat, and darker in color than the rest of the client's skin. What does the nurse tell the client regarding these lesions? a. "Monitor these spots for any changes." b. "You don't need to worry about these." c. "I will ask for a dermatology referral for you." d. "We need to schedule you for a skin biopsy."

ANS: A Because of melanocyte hyperplasia, the older adult frequently has "age spots," or darker spots on the skin. The nurse would teach the client to monitor the spots and report any changes indicative of cancer. Stating the client does not need to worry is inaccurate and dismissive. The client does not necessarily need a dermatology referral and does not need a skin biopsy at this point.

8. The nurse reads on a chart that a client has lichenification. What assessment finding confirms this description? a. Increased skin thickness b. Excessive facial hair c. Purple skin patches d. Tightly stretched skin

ANS: A Lichenification is increased skin thickness as the result of scarring. Excessive facial hair (or body hair) is hirsutism. Purple patches on the skin are purpura. Tightly stretched skin is from edema.

7. A nurse assesses a client who has open skin lesions. Which action by the nurse is most important? a. Put on gloves. b. Ask the client about his or her occupation. c. Assess the client's pain. d. Obtain vital signs.

ANS: A Nurses wear gloves as part of Standard Precautions when examining skin that is not intact. The other options are part of the full assessment but adhering to Standard Precautions is important for safety and infection control.

2. A nurse assesses a client who has inflamed soft-tissue folds around the nail plates. Which question will the nurse ask to elicit useful information about the possible condition? a. "What do you do for a living?" b. "Are your nails professionally manicured?" c. "Do you have diabetes mellitus?" d. "Have you had a recent fungal infection?"

ANS: A The condition chronic paronychia is common in people with frequent intermittent exposure to water, such as homemakers, bartenders, and laundry workers. The other questions would not provide information specifically related to this assessment finding.

The nurse is caring for a client who has possible acute pancreatitis. What serum laboratory findings would the nurse expect for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Elevated amylase b. Elevated lipase c. Elevated glucose d. Decreased calcium e. Elevated bilirubin f. Elevated leukocyte count

ANS: A, B, C, D, E, F a. Elevated amylase b. Elevated lipase c. Elevated glucose d. Decreased calcium e. Elevated bilirubin f. Elevated leukocyte count All of these choices are correct. Amylase and lipase are pancreatic enzymes that are released during pancreatic inflammation and injury. Leukocytes also increased due to his inflammatory response. Pancreatic injury affects the ability of insulin to be released causing increased glucose levels. Bilirubin is also typically increased due to hepatobiliary obstruction. Calcium and magnesium levels decrease because fatty acids bind free calcium and magnesium causing a lowered serum level; these changes occur in the presence of fat necrosis.

22. A nurse prepares to discharge a client who is newly diagnosed with a chronic inflammatory bowel disease. Which questions would the nurse ask in preparation for discharge? (Select all that apply.) a. Does your gym provide yoga classes? b. When should you contact your provider? c. What do you plan to eat for dinner? d. Do you have a scale for daily weights? e. How many bathrooms are in your home?

ANS: A, B, C, E A home assessment for a client who has a chronic inflammatory bowel disease would include identifying adequacy and availability of bathroom facilities, opportunities for rest and relaxation, and the client's knowledge of dietary therapy, and when to contact the primary health care provider. The client does not need to perform daily weights.

21. A nurse cares for an older adult who is admitted to the hospital with complications of diverticulitis. Which actions would the nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer pain medications as prescribed. b. Palpate the abdomen for distention. c. Assess for sudden changes in mental status. d. Provide the client with a high-fiber diet. e. Evaluate stools for occult blood.

ANS: A, B, C, E When caring for an older adult who has diverticulitis, the nurse would administer analgesics as prescribed, palpate the abdomen for distention and tenderness, assess for confusion and sudden changes in mental status, and check stools for occult or frank bleeding. A low-fiber/residue diet would be provided when symptoms are present and a high-fiber diet when inflammation resolves.

The nurse is preparing a client who has chronic pancreatitis about how to prevent exacerbations of the disease. Which health teaching will the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. "Avoid alcohol ingestion." b. "Be sure and balance rest with activity." c. "Avoid caffeinated beverages." d. "Avoid green, leafy vegetables." e. "Eat small meals and high-calorie snacks."

ANS: A, B, C, E a. "Avoid alcohol ingestion." b. "Be sure and balance rest with activity." c. "Avoid caffeinated beverages." e. "Eat small meals and high-calorie snacks." Clients who have chronic pancreatitis need to avoid GI stimulants, including alcohol, caffeine, and nicotine. Food and snacks need to be high-calorie to prevent additional weight loss. Green vegetables can be consumed if tolerated by the client.

19. The nurse assesses a client with ulcerative colitis. Which complications are paired correctly with their physiologic processes? (Select all that apply.) a. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding—erosion of the bowel wall b. Abscess formation—localized pockets of infection develop in the ulcerated bowel lining c. Toxic megacolon—transmural inflammation resulting in pyuria and fecaluria d. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction—paralysis of colon resulting from colorectal cancer e. Fistula—dilation and colonic ileus caused by paralysis of the colon

ANS: A, B, D Lower GI bleeding can lead to erosion of the bowel wall. Abscesses are localized pockets of infection that develop in the ulcerated bowel lining. Nonmechanical bowel obstruction is paralysis of the colon that results from colorectal cancer. When the inflammation is transmural, fistulas can occur between the bowel and bladder resulting in pyuria and fecaluria. Paralysis of the colon causing dilation and subsequent colonic ileus is known as a toxic megacolon.

25. The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with celiac disease and preparing to start natalizumab. Which health teaching would the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Need to have drug administered by a primary health care provider. b. Need to avoid crowds and individuals who have infection. c. Need to report injection reactions such as redness and swelling. d. Awareness of a rare but potentially fatal drug complication. e. Need to report any signs and symptoms of infection immediately.

ANS: A, B, D, E All of these choices are correct except that the drug is given intravenously. Therefore, there is no need to teach the client to report injection reactions because the client does not self-administer the medication subcutaneously. Natalizumab can cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), but it is a very rare disorder causing cognitive, sensory, and/or motor changes.

A client has multiple lesions all over the body and a family history of skin cancer. The nurse teaches the client to perform a total skin self-examinations on a monthly basis. Which statements will the nurse include in this patient's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Look for asymmetry of shape and irregular borders." b. "Assess for color variation within each lesion." c. "Examine the distribution of lesions over a section of the body." d. "Monitor for edema or swelling of tissues." e. "Focus your assessment on skin areas that itch." f. "Report any lesions that change over time in any way."

ANS: A, B, F Patients will be taught to examine each lesion following the ABCDE features associated with skin cancer: asymmetry of shape, border irregularity, color variation within one lesion, diameter greater than 6 mm, and evolving or changing in any feature.

A nurse plans care for a client who has a wound that is not healing. Which focused assessments will the nurse complete to develop the patient's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Height b. Allergies c. Alcohol use d. Prealbumin laboratory results e. Liver enzyme laboratory results f. Weight

ANS: A, C, D, E Nutritional status can have a significant impact on skin health and wound healing. The care plan for a client with poor nutritional status will include a high-protein, high-calorie diet. To determine the patient's nutritional status, the nurse will assess height and weight, alcohol use, and prealbumin laboratory results. These data will provide information related to vitamin and protein deficiencies, and body mass. Allergies and liver enzyme laboratory results will not provide information about nutrition status or wound healing.

26. The nurse is caring for a client with peritonitis. What assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Nausea and vomiting b. Distended rigid abdomen c. Abdominal pain d. Bradycardia e. Decreased urinary output f. Fever

ANS: A, C, D, E, F Peritonitis is an acute inflammatory disorder. Therefore, the client would likely have all of these signs and symptoms but would have tachycardia rather than bradycardia due to dehydration from fever.

The nurse assesses a client who has chronic pancreatitis. What assessment findings would the nurse expect for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Ascites b. Weight gain c. Steatorrhea d. Jaundice e. Polydipsia f. Polyuria

ANS: A, C, D, E, F a. Ascites c. Steatorrhea d. Jaundice e. Polydipsia f. Polyuria The client who has chronic pancreatitis has all of these signs and symptoms except he or she loses weight. Ascites and jaundice result from biliary obstruction; ascites is associated with portal hypertension. Steatorrhea is fatty stool that occurs because lipase is not available in the duodenum; because it is released by the disease pancreas into the bloodstream. Polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia result from diabetes mellitus, a common problem seen in clients whose pancreas is unable to release adequate amounts of insulin.

The nurse plans care for a client who has acute pancreatitis and is prescribed nothing by mouth (NPO). With which health care team members would the nurse collaborate to provide appropriate nutrition to this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Registered dietitian nutritionist b. Nursing assistant c. Clinical pharmacist d. Certified herbalist e. Primary health care provider

ANS: A, C, E a. Registered dietitian nutritionist c. Clinical pharmacist e. Primary health care provider Clients who are prescribed NPO while experiencing an acute pancreatitis episode may need enteral or parenteral nutrition. The nurse would collaborate with the registered dietitian nutritionist, clinical pharmacist, and primary health care provider to plan and implement the more appropriate nutritional interventions. The nursing assistant and certified herbalist would not assist with this clinical decision.

18. The nurse teaches a community group ways to prevent Escherichia coli infection. Which statements would the nurse include in this group's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Wash your hands after any contact with animals." b. "It is not necessary to buy a meat thermometer." c. "Stay away from people who are ill with diarrhea." d. "Use separate cutting boards for meat and vegetables." e. "Avoid swimming in backyard pools and using hot tubs."

ANS: A, D Washing hands after contact with animals and using separate cutting boards for meat and other foods will help prevent E. coli infection. The other statements are not related to preventing E. coli infection.

15. The nurse plans care for a client with Crohn disease who has a heavily draining fistula. Which intervention would be the nurse's priority action? a. Low-fiber diet b. Skin protection c. Antibiotic administration d. Intravenous glucocorticoids

ANS: B Protecting the client's skin is the priority action for a patient who has a heavily draining fistula. Intestinal fluid enzymes are caustic and can cause skin breakdown or fungal infections if the skin is not protected. The plan of care for a client who has Crohn disease also includes adequate nutrition focused on high-calorie, high-protein, high-vitamin, and low-fiber meals, antibiotic administration, and glucocorticoids.

After teaching a client who has chronic pancreatitis and will be discharged with enzyme replacement therapy, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "I will take the enzymes between meals." b. "The enteric-coated preparations cannot be crushed." c. "Swallowing the tables without chewing is best." d. "I will wipe my lips after taking the enzymes." e. "Enzymes should be taken with high-protein foods."

ANS: A, E a. "I will take the enzymes between meals." e. "Enzymes should be taken with high-protein foods." Client teaching related to self-management of enzyme replacement therapy would include taking the enzymes with meals and snacks but not mixing enzyme preparations with protein-containing foods. Clients would not crush enteric-coated preparations and should swallow tablets without chewing to minimize oral irritation and allow the drug to be released slowly. Wiping lips after taking enzymes also minimizes skin irritation.

A nurse assesses a client who presents with early koilonychias. Which assessments will the nurse complete next? (Select all that apply.) a. Review the client's health history for a diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia. b. Palpate the client's nail base for potential edemata and sponginess. c. Ask the client about prolonged contact with chemical irritants. d. Assess the client for signs of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. e. Request a prescription to assess the client's hemoglobin A1C.

ANS: A, E Early koilonychias manifests as flattening of the nail plate with an increased smoothness of the nail. This is caused by iron deficiency with or without anemia, poorly controlled diabetes, and local injury. Nails with visible edema and sponginess when palpated are associated with clubbing. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may cause clubbing of the nails and chemical irritants are associated with late koilonychias.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with hepatic portal-systemic encephalopathy (PSE). The client is thin and cachectic, and the family expresses distress that the patient is receiving little dietary protein. How would the nurse respond? a. "A low-protein diet will help the liver rest and will restore liver function." b. "Less protein in the diet will help prevent confusion associated with liver failure." c. "Increasing dietary protein will help the patient gain weight and muscle mass." d. "Low dietary protein is needed to prevent fluid from leaking into the abdomen."

ANS: B A low-protein diet is prescribed when serum ammonia levels increase and/or the client shows signs of PSE. A low-protein diet helps reduce excessive breakdown of protein into ammonia by intestinal bacteria. Encephalopathy is caused by excess ammonia. A low-protein diet has no impact on restoring liver function. Increasing the patient's dietary protein will cause complications of liver failure and would not be suggested. Increased intravascular protein will help prevent ascites, but clients with liver failure are not able to effectively synthesize dietary protein

2. The nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver. What nursing action is appropriate to help control ascites? a. Monitor intake and output. b. Provide a low-sodium diet. c. Increase oral fluid intake. d. Weigh the patient daily

ANS: B A low-sodium diet is one means of controlling abdominal fluid collection. Monitoring intake and output does not control fluid accumulation, nor does weighing the client. These interventions merely assess or monitor the situation. Increasing fluid intake would not be helpful

9. After teaching a client who is prescribed adalimumab for severe ulcerative colitis (UC), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will avoid large crowds and people who are sick." b. "I will take this medication with my breakfast each morning." c. "Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of this drug." d. "I should wash my hands after I play with my dog."

ANS: B Adalimumab is an immune modulator that is given via subcutaneous injection. It does not need to be given with food or milk. Nausea and vomiting are two common side effects. Adalimumab can cause immune suppression, so clients receiving the medication should avoid large crowds and people who are sick, and should practice good handwashing.

8. The nurse teaches a client about how to prevent transmission of gastroenteritis. Which statement by the nurse indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I won't let anyone use my dishes or glasses." b. "I'll wash my hands with antibacterial soap." c. "I'll keep my bathroom extra clean." d. "I'll cook all the meals for my family."

ANS: D All of these statements are correct except for that the client should not prepare meals for others to help prevent transmission of gastroenteritis.

17. A nurse cares for a client with a new ileostomy. The client states, "I don't think my friends will accept me with this ostomy." How would the nurse respond? a. "Your friends will be happy that you are alive." b. "Tell me more about your concerns." c. "A therapist can help you resolve your concerns." d. "With time you will accept your new body."

ANS: B Social anxiety and apprehension are common in clients with a new ileostomy. The nurse would encourage the client to discuss concerns by restating them in an open-ended manner. The nurse would not minimize the client's concerns or provide false reassurance.

10. The nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed sulfasalazine. Which question would the nurse ask the client before starting this drug? a. "Are you taking Vitamin C or B? b. "Do you have any allergy to sulfa drugs?" c. "Can you swallow pills pretty easily?" d. "Do you have insurance to cover this drug?"

ANS: B Sulfasalazine is a sulfa drug given for clients who have ulcerative colitis. However, it should not be given to those who have an allergy to sulfa and sulfa drugs to prevent a hypersensitivity reaction.

7. After teaching a client who has been diagnosed with hepatitis A, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding of the teaching? a. "Some medications have been known to cause hepatitis A." b. "I may have been exposed when we ate shrimp last weekend." c. "I was infected with hepatitis A through a recent blood transfusion." d. "My infection with Epstein-Barr virus can co-infect me with hepatitis A."

ANS: B The route of transmission for hepatitis A infection is through close personal contact or ingestion of contaminated water or shellfish. Hepatitis A is not transmitted through medications, blood transfusions, or Epstein-Barr virus. Toxic and drug-induced hepatitis is caused from exposure to hepatotoxins, but this is not a form of hepatitis A. Hepatitis B can be spread through blood transfusions. Epstein-Barr virus causes a secondary infection that is not associated with hepatitis A.

1. While assessing a client, a nurse detects a bluish tinge to the client's palms, soles, and mucous membranes. Which action will the nurse take next? a. Ask the client about current medications he or she is taking. b. Use pulse oximetry to assess the patient's oxygen saturation. c. Auscultate the patient's lung fields for adventitious sounds. d. Palpate the patient's bilateral radial and pedal pulses.

ANS: B Cyanosis can be present when impaired gas exchange occurs. In a client with dark skin, cyanosis can be seen because the palms, soles, and mucous membranes have a bluish tinge. The nurse will assess for systemic oxygenation before continuing with other assessments.

9. A nurse assesses a client and identifies that the client has pale conjunctivae. Which focused assessment will the nurse complete next? a. Partial thromboplastin time b. Hemoglobin and hematocrit c. Liver enzymes d. Basic metabolic panel

ANS: B Pale conjunctivae signify anemia. The nurse will assess the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit to confirm anemia. The other laboratory results do not relate to this client's potential anemia.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from an open traditional Whipple surgical procedure. Which assessment finding(s) alert(s) the nurse to a complication from this surgery? (Select all that apply.) a. Clay-colored stools b. Substernal chest pain c. Shortness of breath d. Lack of bowel sounds or flatus e. Urine output of 20 mL/6 hr

ANS: B, C, D, E b. Substernal chest pain c. Shortness of breath d. Lack of bowel sounds or flatus e. Urine output of 20 mL/6 hr Myocardial infarction (chest pain), pulmonary embolism (shortness of breath), adynamic ileus (lack of bowel sounds or flatus), and acute kidney injury (urine output of 20 mL/6 hr) are common complications for which the nurse must assess the client after the Whipple procedure. Clay-colored stools are associated with cholecystitis and are not a complication of a Whipple procedure.

24. A nurse cares for a patient who has a chronic inflammatory bowel disease. Which actions would the nurse take to prevent skin excoriation? (Select all that apply.) a. Cleanse the perineum with an antibacterial soap. b. Use medicated wipes instead of toilet paper. c. Identify foods that decrease constipation. d. Apply a thin coat of aloe cream to the perineum. e. Gently pat the perineum dry after cleansing.

ANS: B, D, E To prevent skin excoriation from frequent bowel movements associated with inflammatory bowel disease, the nurse would encourage good skin care with a mild soap and water and gently patting the area dry after each bowel movement. Using medicated wipes instead of toilet paper and applying a thin coat of aloe cream are appropriate. The client should identify and avoid foods that increase diarrhea. Antibacterial soaps are harsh and should not be used.

11. A nurse assesses a client who has ulcerative colitis and severe diarrhea. Which assessment would the nurse complete first? a. Inspection of oral mucosa b. Recent dietary intake c. Heart rate and rhythm d. Percussion of abdomen

ANS: C Although the client with severe diarrhea may experience skin irritation and hypovolemia, the client is most at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias secondary to potassium and magnesium loss from severe diarrhea. The client would have her or his electrolyte levels monitored, and electrolyte replacement may be necessary. Oral mucosa inspection, recent dietary intake, and abdominal percussion are important parts of physical assessment but are lower priority for this patient than heart rate and rhythm.

2. The nurse reviews the laboratory results for a client who has possible appendicitis. Which laboratory test finding would the nurse expect? a. Decreased potassium level b. Increased sodium level c. Elevated leukocyte count d. Decreased thrombocyte count

ANS: C Appendicitis is an acute inflammatory disorder that frequently results in elevation of leukocytes (white blood cells). Serum electrolytes are not affected because the client does not usually have diarrhea. Thrombocyte (platelet) count is unrelated to this GI disorder.

14. After teaching a client who has diverticulitis, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I'll ride my bike or take a long walk at least three times a week." b. "I must try to include at least 25 g of fiber in my diet every day." c. "I will take a laxative nightly at bedtime to avoid becoming constipated." d. "I should use my legs rather than my back muscles when I lift heavy objects."

ANS: C Laxatives are not recommended for patients with diverticulitis because they can increase pressure in the bowel, causing additional outpouching of the lumen. Exercise and a high-fiber diet are recommended for clients with diverticulitis because they promote regular bowel function. Using the leg muscles rather than the back for lifting prevents abdominal straining.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who has a risk gene for developing cirrhosis. Which racial/ethnic group has this gene most often? a. Blacks b. Asian/Pacific Islanders c. Latinos d. French

ANS: C The Patatin-like phospholipase domain containing 3 gene (PNPLA3) has been identified as a risk gene for cirrhosis, which occurs most often in Latinos when compared to other populations

5. The nurse assesses a client who is hospitalized with an exacerbation of Crohn disease. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect? a. Positive Murphy sign with rebound tenderness to palpitation b. Dull, hypoactive bowel sounds in the lower abdominal quadrants c. High-pitched, rushing bowel sounds in the right lower quadrant d. Reports of abdominal cramping that is worse at night

ANS: C The nurse expects high-pitched, rushing bowel sounds due to narrowing of the bowel lumen in Crohn disease. A positive Murphy sign is indicative of gallbladder disease, and rebound tenderness often indicates peritonitis. Dullness in the lower abdominal quadrants and hypoactive bowel sounds is not commonly found with Crohn disease. Nightly worsening of abdominal cramping is not consistent with Crohn disease.

7. A nurse cares for a young client with a new ileostomy. The client states, "I cannot go to prom with an ostomy." How would the nurse respond? a. "Sure you can. Purchase a prom dress one size larger to hide the ostomy appliance." b. "The pouch won't be as noticeable if you avoid broccoli and carbonated drinks prior to the prom." c. "Let's talk to the ostomy nurse about options for ostomy supplies and dress styles." d. "You can remove the pouch from your ostomy appliance when you are at the prom so that it is less noticeable."

ANS: C The ostomy nurse is a valuable resource for patients, providing suggestions for supplies and methods to manage the ostomy. A larger dress size will not necessarily help hide the ostomy appliance. Avoiding broccoli and carbonated drinks does not offer reassurance for the client. Ileostomies have an almost constant liquid effluent, so pouch removal during the prom is not feasible

10. During skin inspection, the nurse observes lesions with wavy borders that are widespread across the client's chest. Which descriptors will the nurse use to document these observations? a. Clustered and annular b. Linear and circinate c. Diffuse and serpiginous d. Coalesced and circumscribed

ANS: C "Diffuse" is used to describe lesions that are widespread. "Serpiginous" describes lesions with wavy borders. "Clustered" describes lesions grouped together. "Linear" describes lesions occurring in a straight line. Annular lesions are ring like with raised borders, circinate lesions are circular, and circumscribed lesions have well-defined sharp borders. "Coalesced" describes lesions that merge with one another and appear confluent.

6. A nurse cares for an older adult client who has a chronic skin disorder. The client states, "I have not been to church in several weeks because of the discoloration of my skin." How will the nurse respond? a. "I will consult the chaplain to provide you with spiritual support." b. "You do not need to go to church; God is everywhere." c. "Tell me more about your concerns related to your skin." d. "Religious people are nonjudgmental and will accept you."

ANS: C Clients with chronic skin disorders often become socially isolated related to the fear of rejection by others. Nurses will assess how the client's skin changes are affecting his or her body image and encourage the client to express feelings about a change in appearance. The other statements are dismissive of the client's concerns

4. After teaching a client who expressed concern about a rash located beneath her breast, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement indicates the client has a good understanding of this condition? a. "This rash is probably due to fluid overload." b. "I need to wash this daily with antibacterial soap." c. "I can use powder to keep this area dry." d. "I will schedule a mammogram as soon as I can."

ANS: C Rashes limited to skinfold areas (e.g., on the axillae, beneath the breasts, in the groin) may reflect problems related to excessive moisture. The client needs to keep the area dry; one option is to use powder. Good hygiene is important, but the rash does not need an antibacterial soap. Fluid overload and breast cancer are not related to rashes in skinfolds

6. After teaching a patient with diverticular disease, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which menu selection indicates the client correctly understood the teaching? a. Roasted chicken with rice pilaf and a cup of coffee with cream b. Spaghetti with meat sauce, a fresh fruit cup, and hot tea c. Garden salad with a cup of bean soup and a glass of low-fat milk d. Baked fish with steamed carrots and a glass of apple juice

ANS: D Clients who have diverticular disease are prescribed a low-residue diet. Whole grains (rice pilaf), uncooked fruits and vegetables (salad, fresh fruit cup), and high-fiber foods (cup [240 mL] of bean soup) would be avoided with a low-residue diet. Canned or cooked vegetables are appropriate. Apple juice does not contain fiber and is acceptable for a low-residue diet.

1. The nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver. Which risk factor is the leading cause of cirrhosis? a. Metabolic syndrome b. Liver cancer c. Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease d. Hepatitis C

ANS: D Hepatitis C is the leading cause of cirrhosis and an also cause liver cancer. Clients with nonalcoholic fatty liver disease often have metabolic syndrome and can also develop cirrhosis

9. The nurse is preparing to teach a client with chronic hepatitis B about lamivudine therapy. What health teaching would the nurse include? a. "Follow up on all appointments to monitor your lab values." b. "Do not take amiodorone at any time while on this drug." c. "Monitor for jaundice, rash, and itchy skin while on this drug." d. "Report any changes in urinary elimination while on this drug."

ANS: D Lamivudine can cause renal impairment and the nurse would remind the client of changes that may indicate kidney damage.

4. The nurse assesses a client with gastroenteritis. What risk factor would the nurse consider as the most likely cause of this disorder? a. Consuming too much fruit b. Consuming fried or pickled foods c. Consuming dairy products d. Consuming raw seafood

ANS: D Raw seafood is often contaminated and unless cooked can would most likely cause gastroenteritis. Any of the other food can also become contaminated if not stored properly or contaminated by workers/cooks who contaminate these foods

3. A nurse assesses a client who has multiple areas of ecchymosis on both arms. Which question will the nurse ask first? a. "Are you using lotion on your skin?" b. "Do you have a family history of this?" c. "Do your arms itch?" d. "What medications are you taking?"

ANS: D Certain drugs such as aspirin, warfarin, and corticosteroids can lead to easy or excessive bruising, which can result in ecchymosis. The other options would not provide information about bruising.

A nurse assesses an older adult's skin. Which findings require immediate referral? (Select all that apply.) a. Excessive moisture under axilla b. Increased hair thinning c. Presence of toenail fungus d. Lesion with various colors e. Spider veins on legs f. Asymmetric 6-mm dark lesion on forehead

ANS: D, F The lesion with various colors, as well as the asymmetric 6-mm dark lesion, fits two of the Skin Cancer Foundation's hallmark signs for cancer according to the ABCDE method. Other signs and symptoms, while not normal, are not cause for concern.

When should the nurse expect breastfeeding-associated jaundice to first appear in a normal infant? A: 2-12 hours B: 12-24 hours C: 2-4 days D: after the fifth day

C: 2-4 days

Which term is defined as a vaguely outlines area of edematous tissue situated over the portion of the scale that presents in a vertex delivery? A: hydrocephalus B: cephalhematoma C: caput succedaneum D: subdural hematoma

C: caput succedaneum

Which delivery situations might possibly result in soft tissue damage to the head of a newborn? (Select all that apply) A: spontaneous vaginal delivery B: administration of an epidural for pain relief C: dystocia as a result of cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) D: use of forceps E: use of vacuum suction cap

C: dystocia as a result of cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) D: use of forceps E: use of vacuum suction cap

A nurse cares for a client with end-stage pancreatic cancer. The client asks, "Why is this happening to me?" How would the nurse respond? a. "I don't know. I wish I had an answer for you, but I don't." b. "It's important to keep a positive attitude for your family right now." c. "Scientists have not determined why cancer develops in certain people." d. "I think that this is a trial so you can become a better person because of it."

a. "I don't know. I wish I had an answer for you, but I don't." The client is not asking the nurse to actually explain why the cancer has occurred. The client may be expressing his or her feelings of confusion, frustration, distress, and grief related to this diagnosis. Reminding the client to keep a positive attitude for his or her family does not address the client's emotions or current concerns. The nurse would validate that there is no easy or straightforward answer as to why the client has cancer. Telling a client that cancer is a trial is untrue and may negatively impact the client-nurse relationship.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a Whipple procedure. Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to immediately contact the primary health care provider? a. Drainage from a fistula b. Diminished bowel sounds c. Pain at the incision site d. Nasogastric (NG) tube drainage

a. Drainage from a fistula Complications of a Whipple procedure include secretions that drain from a fistula and peritonitis. Absent bowel sounds, pain at the incision site, and NG tube drainage are normal postoperative findings.

A client has an external percutaneous transhepatic biliary catheter inserted for a biliary obstruction. What health teaching about catheter care would the nurse provide for the client? a. "Cap the catheter drain at night to prevent leakage and skin damage." b. "Position the drainage bag lower than the catheter insertion site." c. "Irrigate the catheter with an ounce of saline every night." d. "Pierce a hole in the top of the drainage bag to get rid of odors."

b. "Position the drainage bag lower than the catheter insertion site." An external temporary or permanent catheter drains bile by gravity into a bag that collects bile. Therefore, the drainage bag should be lower that the catheter insertion site. The catheter should not be capped or irrigated, and no holes should be made in the bag to prevent bile from having contact with the skin.

A client is admitted with acute pancreatitis. What priority problem would the nurse expect the client to report? a. Nausea and vomiting b. Severe boring abdominal pain c. Jaundice and itching d. Elevated temperature

b. Severe boring abdominal pain The client who has acute pancreatitis reports severe boring abdominal pain that is often rated by clients as a 10+ on a 0-10 pain scale. Nausea, vomiting, and fever may also occur, but that is not the client's priority for care.

After teaching a client who is prescribed pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "The capsules can be opened and the powder sprinkled on applesauce if needed." b. "I will wipe my lips carefully after I drink the enzyme preparation." c. "The best time to take the enzymes is immediately after I have a meal or a snack." d. "I will not mix the enzyme powder with food or liquids that contain protein."

c. "The best time to take the enzymes is immediately after I have a meal or a snack." The enzymes must be taken immediately before eating meals or snacks. If the client cannot swallow the capsules whole, they can be opened up and the powder sprinkled on applesauce, mashed fruit, or rice cereal. The client should wipe his or her lips carefully after drinking the enzyme preparation because the liquid could damage the skin. Protein items will be dissolved by the enzymes if they are mixed together.

A nurse assesses a client who has cholecystitis. Which sign or symptom indicates that this condition is chronic rather than acute? a. Temperature of 100.1° F (37.8° C) b. Positive Murphy sign c. Clay-colored stools d. Upper abdominal pain after eating

c. Clay-colored stools Jaundice, clay-colored stools, and dark urine are more commonly seen with chronic cholecystitis. The other symptoms are seen in clients with either chronic or acute cholecystitis.

The nurse documents the vital signs of a client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis: Apical pulse = 116 beats/min Respirations = 28 breaths/min Blood pressure = 92/50 What complication of acute pancreatitis would the nurse suspect that the client might have? a. Electrolyte imbalance b. Pleural effusion c. Internal bleeding d. Pancreatic pseudocyst

c. Internal bleeding The client is exhibiting signs of hypovolemia most likely due to internal bleeding or hemorrhage. Due to decreased blood volume, the blood pressure is low and the heart rate increases to compensate for hypovolemia to ensure organ perfusion. Respirations often increase to increase oxygen in the blood.

A client is scheduled for a hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid (HIDA) scan. What would the nurse include in client teaching about this diagnostic test? a. "You'll have to drink a contrast medium right before the test." b. "You'll need to do a bowel prep the nursing before the test." c. "You'll be able to drink liquids up until the test begins." d. "You'll have a large camera close to you during the test."

d. "You'll have a large camera close to you during the test." Clients having a HIDA scan are NPO and receive an injectable nuclear medicine contrast. No bowel preparation is required. A large camera is close to the client for most of the test which can be a problem for clients who are claustrophobic.

A client had an open traditional Whipple procedure this morning. For what priority complication would the nurse assess? a. Urinary tract infection b. Chronic kidney disease c. Heart failure d. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances

d. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances Due to the length and complexity of this type of surgery, the client is at risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The nurse would assess for signs and symptoms of these imbalances so they can be managed early to prevent potentially life-threatening complications.

After teaching a client who has a history of cholelithiasis, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which menu selection indicates that the client understands the dietary teaching? a. Lasagna, tossed salad with Italian dressing, and low-fat milk b. Grilled cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and coffee with cream c. Cream of potato soup, Caesar salad with chicken, and a diet cola d. Roasted chicken breast, baked potato with chives, and orange juice

d. Roasted chicken breast, baked potato with chives, and orange juice Clients with cholelithiasis should avoid foods high in fat and cholesterol, such as whole milk, butter, and fried foods. Lasagna, low-fat milk, grilled cheese, cream, and cream of potato soup all have high levels of fat. The meal with the least amount of fat is the chicken breast dinner.

3. A nurse assesses a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which questions would the nurse include in this client's assessment? (Select all that apply.) a. "Which food types cause an exacerbation of symptoms?" b. "Where is your pain or discomfort and what does it feel like?" c. "Have you lost a significant amount of weight lately?" d. "Are your stools soft, watery, and black?" e. "Do you often experience nausea and vomiting"

ANS: A, B The nurse would ask the client about factors that may cause exacerbations of symptoms, including food, stress, and anxiety. The nurse would also assess the location, intensity, and quality of the patient's pain or discomfort. Clients who have IBS do not usually lose weight, have nausea and vomiting, or have stools that are black.

19. The nurse is caring for a client who has late-stage (advanced) cirrhosis. What assessment findings would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Jaundice b. Clay-colored stools c. Icterus d. Ascites e. Petechiae f. Dark urine

ANS: A, B, C, D, E, F All of these assessment findings are very common for a client who has late-stage cirrhosis due to biliary obstruction and poor liver function. The client has vascular lesions and excess fluid from portal hypertension.

8. The nurse is caring for a client who just had a minimally invasive inguinal hernia repair. Which nursing actions would the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply ice to the surgical area for the first 24 hours after surgery. b. Encourage ambulation with assistance within the first few hours after surgery. c. Encourage deep breathing after surgery but teach the client to avoid coughing. d. Assess vital signs frequently for the first few hours after surgery. e. Teach the client to rest for several days after surgery when at home. f. Teach the client not to lift more than 10 lb (4.5 kg) until allowed by the surgeon.

ANS: A, B, C, D, E, F All of these nursing actions are appropriate for the client having MIS for inguinal hernia repair.

21. 6. The nurse is assessing a client with hepatitis C. The client asks the nurse how it was possible to have this disease. What questions might the nurse ask to help the client determine how the disease was contracted? (Select all that apply.) a. "How old are you?" b. "Do you work in health care? c. "Are you receiving hemodialysis?" d. "Do you use IV drugs?" e. "Did you receive blood before 1992?" f. "Have you even been in prison or jail?"

ANS: A, B, C, D, E, F The nurse would ask all of these questions because "baby boomers," people who use illicit drugs, people on hemodialysis, health workers, and prisoners are at a very high risk for hepatitis C. Additionally, individuals who received blood, blood products, or an organ transplant prior to 1992 before bloodborne disease screening of these products was mandated are at risk for hepatitis C

4. The nurse is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with pancreatic cancer. What factors present risks for developing this type of cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. Diabetes mellitus b. Cirrhosis c. Smoking d. Female gender e. Family history f. Older age

ANS: A, B, C, E, F a. Diabetes mellitus b. Cirrhosis c. Smoking e. Family history f. Older age All of these choices are risk factors except that pancreatic cancer occurs most frequently in men.

16. The nurse is caring for a client with early encephalopathy due to cirrhosis of the liver. Which factors may contribute to increased encephalopathy for which the nurse would assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Infection b. GI bleeding c. Irritable bowel syndrome d. Constipation e. Anemia f. Hypovolemia

ANS: A, B, D, F Anemia and irritable bowel syndrome are unrelated to developing or worsening encephalopathy, which is caused by increased protein which breaks down into ammonia. Infection can cause hypovolemia which would increase serum protein concentration. Constipation and GI bleeding causes a large protein load in the intestines.

6. The nurse is caring for a client who has perineal surgical wound. Which actions would the nurse take to promote comfort and wound healing? (Select all that apply.) a. Assist the client into a side-lying position. b. Use a rubber donut device when sitting up. c. Apply warm compresses three to four times a day. d. Instruct the client to wear boxer shorts. e. Place an absorbent dressing over the wound.

ANS: A, C, E The nurse would place an absorbent pad over the wound and apply warm compresses to the wound area. The nurse would also instruct the male client to wear jockey-type shorts for support rather than boxers, assume a side-lying position in bed, avoid sitting for long periods, and use foam pads or soft pillows whenever in a sitting position. The patient should avoid the use of air rings or rubber donut devices.

13. A client is preparing to have a laparoscopic restorative proctocolectomy with ileo pouch-anal anastomosis (RCA-IPAA). Which preoperative health teaching would the nurse include? a. "You will have to wear an appliance for your permanent ileostomy." b. "You should be able to have better bowel continence after healing occurs." c. "You will have a large abdominal incision that will require irrigation." d. "This procedure can be performed under general or regional anesthesia."

ANS: B A RCA-IPAA can improve bowel continence although leakage may still occur for some clients. The procedure is a 2-step process performed under general anesthesia using a laparoscope which does not require an abdominal incision or permanent ileostomy

16. The nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed lubiprostone for irritable bowel syndrome (IBS-C). What health teaching will the nurse include about taking this drug? a. "This drug will make you very dry because it will decrease your diarrhea." b. "Be sure to take this drug with food and water to help manage constipation." c. "Avoid people who have infection as this drug will suppress your immune system." d. "Include high-fiber foods in your diet to help produce more solid stools."

ANS: B Lubiprostone is an oral laxative approved for women who have IBS with constipation (IBS-C). Water and food will also help to improve constipation. The drug is not used for clients who have diarrhea and does not affect the immune system. Although high-fiber foods are important for clients who have IBS, this client does not need fiber to help make stool more solid. Instead the fiber will help prevent constipation.

22. The nurse is assessing a client who has hepatitis C. What extrahepatic complications would the nurse anticipate? (Select all that apply.) a. Pancreatitis b. Polyarthritis c. Heart disease d. Myalgia e. Peptic ulcer disease f. Ulcerative colitis

ANS: B, C, D The client who has hepatitis C has complications that do not relate to the liver, including polyarthritis, myalgia, heart disease and vasculitis, renal disease, and cognitive impairment

17. A nurse assesses a client who has cirrhosis of the liver. Which laboratory findings would the nurse expect in clients with this disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Elevated aspartate transaminase b. Elevated international normalized ratio (INR) c. Decreased serum globulin levels d. Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase e. Elevated serum ammonia f. Elevated prothrombin time (PT)

ANS: B, E, F Elevated INR and PT are indications of clotting disturbances and alert the nurse to the increased possibility of hemorrhage. Elevated ammonia levels increase the client's confusion. The other values are abnormal and associated with liver disease but do not necessarily place the client at increased risk for complications.

7. A nurse cares for a client with colorectal cancer who has a new colostomy. The client states, "I think it would be helpful to talk with someone who has had a similar experience." How would the nurse respond? a. "I have a good friend with a colostomy who would be willing to talk with you." b. "The ostomy nurse will be able to answer all of your questions." c. "I will make a referral to the United Ostomy Associations of America." d. "You'll find that most people with colostomies don't want to talk about them."

ANS: C Nurses need to become familiar with community-based resources to better assist clients. The local chapter of the United Ostomy Associations of America has resources for clients and their families, including ostomates (specially trained visitors who also have ostomies). The nurse would not suggest that the client speak with a personal contact of the nurse. Although the ostomy nurse is an expert in ostomy care, talking with him or her is not the same as talking with someone who actually has had a colostomy. The nurse would not brush aside the client's request by saying that most people with colostomies do not want to talk about them. Many people are willing to share their ostomy experience in the hope of helping others.

17. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of possible strangulated inguinal hernia. For which complication would the nurse monitor? a. Paralytic ileus b. Bowel volvulus c. Sepsis d. Colitis

ANS: C The client who has a strangulated inguinal hernia would likely develop bowel necrosis which can lead to sepsis. The nurse would observe for early signs and symptoms of sepsis such as fever, tachypnea, and tachycardia. If the client's condition is not promptly managed, bowel perforation, septic shock, and death can result.

11. A nurse teaches a client who is at risk for colorectal cancer. Which dietary recommendation would the nurse teach the client? a. "Eat low-fiber and low-residual foods." b. "White rice and bread are easier to digest." c. "Add vegetables such as broccoli and cauliflower to your diet." d. "Foods high in animal fat help to protect the intestinal mucosa."

ANS: C The client would be taught to modify his or her diet to decrease animal fat and refined carbohydrates. The client should also increase high-fiber foods and Brassica vegetables, including broccoli and cauliflower, which help to protect the intestinal mucosa from colon cancer.

18. The nurse is teaching a client how to avoid the formation of hemorrhoids. What lifestyle change would the nurse include? a. Avoiding alcohol b. Quitting smoking c. Decreasing fluid intake d. Increasing dietary fiber

ANS: C The major cause of hemorrhoid formation is constipation. Therefore, the nurse teaches the client ways to prevent constipation, which include increasing dietary fiber, increasing exercise and fluid intake, and avoiding straining when have a stool.

8. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled to have a transjugular intrahepatic portal-systemic shunt (TIPS) procedure. What client assessment would the nurse perform prior to this procedure? a. Musculoskeletal assessment b. Neurologic assessment c. Mental health assessment d. Cardiovascular assessment

ANS: D A postprocedure complication of a TIPS procedure is right-sided heart failure. Therefore, the nurse would perform a cardiovascular assessment before the procedure to determine if the client has signs and symptoms of heart failure.

13. A nurse cares for a client who has a family history of colorectal cancer. The client states, "My father and my brother had colon cancer. What is the chance that I will get cancer?" How would the nurse respond? a. "If you eat a low-fat and low-fiber diet, your chances decrease significantly." b. "You are safe. This is an autosomal dominant disorder that skips generations." c. "Preemptive surgery and chemotherapy will remove cancer cells and prevent cancer." d. "You should have a colonoscopy more frequently to identify abnormal polyps early."

ANS: D The nurse would encourage the patient to have frequent colonoscopies to identify abnormal polyps and cancerous cells early. The abnormal gene associated with colon cancer is an autosomal dominant gene mutation that does not skip a generation and places the client at high risk for cancer. Changing the client's diet to more high-fiber (not low-fiber) and preemptive chemotherapy may decrease the client's risk of colon cancer but will not prevent it.

A client had an exploratory laparotomy to treat the cause of peritonitis and has a large incision that is closed with staples and two abdominal drains. Which finding(s) would the nurse report immediately to the surgeon? Select all that apply. A. Serosanguineous drainage B. Increased abdominal distention C. Fever and chills D. Pain level 2 on a scale of 0 to 10 E. Passing flatus

B, C

A mother is upset because her newborn has erythema toxic neonatorum. The nurse should reassure her that this is what? A: easily treated B: benign and transient C: usually not contagious D: usually not disfiguring

B: benign and transient

Which birth injuries should the nurse assess for if an infant was born with the use of a vacuum extractor? (Select all that apply.) A: torticolis B: brachial palsy C: fractured clavicle D: cephalhematoma E: subgaleal hemorrhage

B: brachial palsy D: cephalhematoma E: subgaleal hemorrhage

What should nursing care of an infant with oral candidiasis (thrush) include? A: avoid use of a pacifier B: continue medication for the prescribed number of days C: remove the characteristic white patches with a soft cloth D: apply medication to the oral mucosa, being careful that none is ingested

B: continue medication for the prescribed number of days

A mother has just given birth to an infant with a cleft lip. Sensing that something is wrong, she starts to cry and asks the nurse, "What is wrong with my baby?" What is the most appropriate nursing action? A: encourage mother to express her feelings B: explain in simple language that the baby has a cleft lip C: provide emotional support until practitioner can talk to mother D: tell mother a pediatrician will talk to her as soon as the baby is examined

B: explain in simple language that the baby has a cleft lip

The nurse is assessing newborns during a routine shift assessment. Which infant requires further assessment? A: heart rate of 120 beats/min; respiratory rate of 45 breaths/min B: heart rate of 135 beats/min; respiratory rate of 65 breaths/min C: heart rate of 150 beats/min; respiratory rate of 35 breaths/min D: heart rate of 145 beats/min; respiratory rate of 55 breaths/min

B: heart rate of 135 beats/min; respiratory rate of 65 breaths/min

An infant at 36 weeks' gestation with a maternal history of gestational diabetes is moved to the NICU from the transitional nursery at 3 hours of life. The infant is noted to have poor muscle tone and rapid respirations with retractions. The most probable diagnosis for this infant is: A: hyperbilirubinemia B: respiratory distress syndrome C: acrocyanosis D: polycythemia

B: respiratory distress syndrome

The nurse is planning care for an infant receiving calcium gluconate for treatment of hypocalcemia. Which route of administration should be used? A: oral (PO) B: intramuscular (IM) C: intravenous (IV) D: intraosseous (IO)

C: intravenous (IV)

A mother brings her 6-week-old infant in with complaints of poor feeding, lethargy, fever, irritability, and a vesicular rash. What does the nurse suspect? A: impetigo B: candidiasis C: neonatal herpes D: congenital syphilis

C: neonatal herpes

A newborn has been diagnosed with brachial nerve paralysis. The nurse should assist the breastfeeding mother to use which hold or position during feeding? A: reclining B: the cradle hold C: the football hold D: the cross-over hold

C: the football hold

A woman who is Rh-negative is pregnant with her first child, and her husband is Rh positive. During her 12-week prenatal visit, she tells the nurse that she has been told that this is dangerous. What should the nurse tell her? A: that no treatment is necessary B: that an exchange transfusion will be necessary at birth C: that no treatment is available until the infant is born D: that administration of Rh immunoglobulin is indicated at 26-28 weeks of gestation

D: that administration of Rh immunoglobulin is indicated at 26-28 weeks of gestation